QUESTION_BANK_CLASS_X

(iii) A concave lens can form a real and inverted image, when : (a) Object is placed at 2f (b) Object is placed beyond 2f (c) Object is placed between f and 2f (d) It can never form a real and inverted image. Ans: (d) It can never form a real and inverted image. (iv) An object is placed beyond 2F, in front of a convex lens, image will be formed : (a) between F and 2F (b) at focus (c) at the centre of curvature (d) between focus and Optical centre Ans: (a) (v) An object is placed at focus of a concave mirror, image will be formed at : (a) focus (b) between F and C (c) beyond C (d) at infinity Ans: (d) at infinity

CASE STUDY QUESTION Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) Mirror formula is a relation between object distance (u), image distance (v) and focal length (f) of a spherical mirror. It can be written as 1/u + 1/v = 1/f = 2/R where R is the radius of curvature of the mirror. This formula is valid in all situations for all spherical mirrors for all positions of the object. Consider the case, in which a mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the mirror. Consider the case, in which a mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the mirror.

(i) The distance from the object to its image is (a) 20 cm (b) 80 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 70 cm (ii) The focal length of mirror is (a) -16 cm (b) 12 cm (c) -15 cm (d) 10 cm Consider the case, in which a mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the mirror.

(iii) The radius of curvature of the mirror is (a) -16 cm (b) -14 cm (c) -30 cm (d) -32 cm (iv) The magnification of the image is(a) 3 (b) -6 (c) -4 (d) 8 (v) At what distance must an object be placed from mirror in order that a real image double its size may be obtained? (a) -24 cm (b) 32 cm (c) -40 cm (d) 45 cm

CASE STUDY QUESTION Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) Aditya and his friend Manoj placed a candle flame in front of a convex lens at various distances from it and obtained the image of the candle flame on a white screen. He noted down the position of the candle, screen and the lens as under Position of candle = 20 cm Position of convex lens = 50 cm Position of the screen = 80 cm (i) What is the position of the image formed from the convex lens? (a) 80 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 60 cm (ii) What is the focal length of the convex lens? (a) 30 cm (b) 15 cm (e) -16 cm (d) 16 cm



Answer:- (b) (iii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of 35 cm? (a) At focus (b) Between focus and pole (c) At infinity (d) Between f2 and f1 Answer:- © at infinity

(iv) Which of the following statement describes the best about the nature of the image formed if Aditya shifts the candle towards the lens to 36 cm? (a) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, inverted and magnified. (b) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and magnified. (c) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and diminished. (d) The nature of the image formed will be real, inverted and diminished. (v) Manoj noted following observations at different positions of candle from the lens. According to Aditya one set of observations is incorrect. Find out if Aditya is right or not. (a) Distance of the flame from the lens = 60 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 20 cm (b) Distance of the flame from the lens = 45 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 22.5 cm (c) Distance of the flame from the lens = 30 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 30 cm (d) Distance of the flame from the lens = 10 cm; Distance of the screen from the lens = 15 cm The observation (d) is incorrect. For this observation v = 15, i.e., the image is at the focus and the object must be formed at infinity and not 10 cm.

Social Science

History

Chapter- Nationalism in Europe (MCQ Questions) 1). Identify the correct statement with regard to the act of union from the following options a. The British monarchy surrendered the power to English parliament. b. The British parliament seized power from Ireland. c. The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. d. The British nation was formed as are result of a war with Scotland and Wales. Answer – (c) The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. 2). Which of the following treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation? a. Treaty of sevres b. Treaty of Versailles c. Treaty of Constantinople d. Treaty of Lausanne Answer – (c) Treaty of Constantinople 3) Identify the correct statement with regard to the Zollverein from the following options. a. It was a measuring unit of cloth in Germany b. It was a class of trader in Germany c. It was a custom union formed in 1834. d. It was the Congress hosted by the American chancellor Duke Metternich in 1815. Answer – (c) It was a custom union formed in 1834. 4) The following were the features of the Nation state that emerged in Europe in the 20th century. a. The concept and practices of a modern state with sovereign centralised power developed in Europe. b. Nation state was supposed to be a state where majority of its citizens shared common identify and history. c. Nations began to be personified i.e.; they were represented as a person with characteristics that identified their nations. Mainly female figures were used to portray the nation. d. None of these Answer – (b) Nation state was supposed to be a state where majority of its citizens shared common identify and history. 5) Which of the following was a feature of the Conservatism in Europe after 1815? a. Established traditional systems of state and society b. Efficient bureaucracy c. Modern army d. Government by consent Answer – (a) Established traditional systems of state and society 6) Who dominated the South regions of Italy? a. Pope

b. Bourbon Kings of Spain c. Austrian Habsburgs c. Bourbon Kings of France Answer – (b) Bourbon Kings of Spain 7) Who described Mazzini as ― The most dangerous enemy of our social order.‖ a. Bismarck b. Cavour c. Metternich d. Garibaldi Answer – (c) Metternich 8) Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of Germania? a. Anger and revenge b. Germania guarding the Rhine c. Folk and cultural tradition d. Watching Germany Answer – (b) Germania guarding the Rhine 9) Identify the correct statement with regard to ―The Civil Code of 1804 ―from the following options: a. A new constitution with citizens enjoying equal rights was adopted. b. A centralised administrative system was formulated. c. All the privileges based on birth were abolished. d. It emphasised the concept of government by consent. Answer – (c) All the privileges based on birth were abolished. 10.Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society -like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and family- should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make State power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic

economy, the abolition of feudalism and sarfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representative of the European powers- who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French revolution, was restored to power and French, lost the territories it has annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expression in future Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option: 10.1) which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative ideology a) Preservation of belief introduced by Napoleon b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society. Answer – (d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society. 10.2) Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following options: a) To declared competition of German unification b) To restore conservative regime in Europe c) To declare war against France d) To start the process of Italian unification. Answer – (b) To restore conservative regime in Europe 10.3) What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe b) To establish socialism in Europe c) To introduce democracy in France d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria. Answer – (a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe 10.4) How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option a) with the restoration of Bourbon dynasty b) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe d) By giving power to the German confederation. Answer – (c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe 11. The nationalist in Greece got the support of the West European nations because: a) They were fighting against the Muslim Ottoman Empire b) They had sympathies for ancient Greek culture c) Greece was considered the cradle of European civilisation d) All the above Answer – (b)They had sympathies for ancient Greek culture

12. Cavour‘s contribution to Italian unification was: a) Diplomatic alliance with enemies of Austria b) War with Austrians and Bourbons c) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont d) Defeated the Bourbon kings Answer –(c) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont 13. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini? When and where was he born? a) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary, born in Rome in 1810 b) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian, born in Genoa, in 1807 c) Giuseppe Mazzini was a Corsican, born in Genoa in 1807 d) Giuseppe Mazzini was a famous Italian painter, born in Genoa in 1810 Answer – (b) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian, born in Genoa, in 1807 14. The purpose behind the painting ―The Massacre at Chios‖ by Eugene Delacroix, 1824, was: a To appeal to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for the Greeks b. To dramatize the incident in which 20,000 Greeks were killed c. To focus on the suffering of women and children d. All the above Answer – (d) All the above 15. The aim of Romanticism, a cultural movement, was: a. To create a sense of shared collectiveheritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of the nation b. Glorification of science and reason c. To focus on emotions, intuitions and mystical feeling d. Both A and C Answer – (d) Both A and C 16. German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder claimed that true German culture was discovered through a) Folk songs, folk poetry, folk dances b) Common people — das volk c) Vernacular language d) All the above Answer – (a) Folk songs, folk poetry, folk dances 17. A map celebrating the British Empire depicted British domination of the world as: a) Britannia (symbol of British nation) sitting triumphantly over the globe. b) Britannia surrounded by tigers, elephants, forests symbolizing the colonies. c) Angels carrying banner of freedom. d) Through pictures of primitive people. Answer –(a) Britannia (symbol of British nation) sitting triumphantly over the globe.

18. The two reasons which made the Balkans an explosive region after 1871 were: a) The spread of ideas of romantic nationalism and the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire under whose control they were. b) The declaration of independence byEuropean subject nationalities from the Ottomon Empire. c) The support of history and nationalism to be independent. d) All the above Answer – a) The spread of ideas of romantic nationalism and the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire under whose control they were. 19. The big power rivalry in the late 19th century was over: a) Trade and colonies b) Naval supremacy and military might c) Both A and B d) Territories and naval might Answer –(c) Both A and B 20. Study the picture and answer the question that follows. Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of ―Otto Von Bismarck ? a) Depicts his fear b) Depicts his love c) Depicts one man‘s autocracy d) both (a) and (c) Answer – (d) both (a) and (c)

POLITICAL SCIENCE

Chapter: POWER SHARING Q1 Which is the major social group of Sri Lankan population? (a) Tamilians (b) Sinhalese (c) Indian Tamils (d) Sri Lankan Tamils Ans: (b) Sinhalese Q2 Which state is located at a few kilometers distance from Sri Lanka? (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu Ans: (d) Tamil Nadu Q3 When did Sri Lanka get independence? (a) 1945 (b) 1947 (c) 1948 (d) 1946 Ans: (c) 1948 Q4 What do you mean by Majoritarianisms? (a) Rule by the majority community (b) Rule by the majority of population (c) Rule by the major political party (d) Rule by the dominant group of society Ans: (a) Rule by the majority of community Q5 What were the main reasons of civil war in Sri Lanka? (a) Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the official language. (b) Constitution and government policies denied the equal political rights. (c) Sri Lankan Tamils wanted a political autonomy. (d) Distrust among the two communities Options: 1 (a) and (b) 2(b) and (c) 3(c) and (a) 4 (d) and (b) Ans: 1(a) and (b) Q6 ―Power is shared among different organs of government; it allows different organs of government at the same level to exercise different powers‖. What does the above statement mean? (a) None of the organs exercise unlimited powers. (b) There is a check and balance of powers among all the organs. (c) All organs are independent to each other and do not interfere in each other affairs.

(d) Parliament control all the organs of the government. Option: 1 Statements (a), (c) and (d) are correct but (b) is wrong. 2 Statement (a), (b) and (c) are correct but (d) is wrong. 3 Statement (b), (c) and (d) are correct but (a) is wrong. Ans: 2 Statement (a), (b) and (c) are correct but (d) is wrong Q7.Which statement is correct about the ethnic composition of Belgium? (a) 59% people live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language. Another 40% people live in the Wallonia region and speaks French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans. (b) 40% people live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language. Another 59% people live in Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans. (c) 59% people live in the Wallonia and speak Dutch language. Another 40% people live in Flemish region and speak French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans. (d) 40% people live in the Wallonia region and speak Germans. Another 59% people live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak French. Ans: Statement (a) 59% people live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language. Another 40% people live in the Wallonia region and speaks French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans. Q8 What were the steps taken by the government of Belgium to accommodate different ethnic groups? (a) Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers should be equal in the central government. (b) The government followed preferential policies that followed French language and disregard the Dutch language. (c) Constitution and government policies denied the equal political rights and ignored the interest of each other‘s. (d) Constitution was amended four times to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. Choose the correct option. Option: 1 (a) and (b) 2(b) and (c) 3 (c) and (d) 4 (a) and (d) Ans: 4 (a) and (d) Q9 Why power sharing is desirable? Choose the wrong statement. (a) It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between the social groups. (b) It leads to violence and political instability. (c) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy (d) Power sharing involves those effected by its exercise and who must live with its effect. Ans: (b) It leads to violence and political instability

Q10 Which type of power sharing is called ―Horizontal distribution of power‖? (a) Power is shared among different levels of government. (b) Power is shared among different social groups. (c) Power is shared among different political parties and pressure groups. (d) Power is shared among executive, judiciary and legislature. Ans: (d) Power is shared among executive, judiciary and legislature. Q11 Match the following A B 1. Power is divided among center and (a) Horizontal division of power state (b) Coalition government 2. Power is divided among social (c) Community government groups 3. Power is divided among different (d) Federal government organs of the government 4. Power is divided among different political parties Choose the correct option: A:1(c) 2(d) 3(a) 4(b) B:1(a) 2(b) 3(c) 4(d) C:1(d) 2(c) 3(a) 4(b) D: 1(d),2(b),3(C),4(a) Ans: Option C: 1(d) 2(c) 3(a) 4(b) Q12 Where is the headquarter of European Union located? (a) Wallonia region (b) Flemish region (c) Brussels (d) None of the above Ans: (c) Brussels Q13 Main ethnic groups of Sri Lanka are___. (a) Sinhalese, Tamils, Buddhists, Christians. (b) Sinhalese, Malays, Buddhists, Christians. (c) Sinhalese, Tamils, Jains, Christians. (d) Tamils, Muslims, Buddhists, Christians. Ans: (a) Sinhalese, Tamils, Buddhists, Christians. Q14 When did Act realized Sinhala as the official language of Sri Lanka? a) 1955 b) 1956 c) 1957 d) 1958 Ans: (b) 1956 Q15 What does this cartoon signify?

(a) The Germany‘s grand coalition government includes two major parties of the country. (b) Belgium adopted the accommodation policy. French and Dutch given the equal status to run the government. (c) Sri Lanka adopted the majoritarianism and government run by the Sinhala speakers and alliances. (d) India had coalition government run by two or more political parties. Ans: (a) The Germany’s grand coalition government includes two major parties of the country. Q16 Which one of the following statements about coalition Government is true? (a) Power is shared among the different organs of the government (b) Power is shared among governments at different levels (c) Power is shared by different social groups (d) Power is shared by two or more political parties Ans (d) Power is shared by two or more political parties Q17 Which part of Sri Lankan Tamils demanded to form an independent Tamil Eelam (state)? (a) South-West of Sri Lanka (b) South-East of Sri Lanka (c) North-West of Sri Lanka (d) North-East of Sri Lanka Ans: (d) North-East of Sri Lanka Q18 In democracy who all are the source of political power? (a) People (b) Government (c) Institutions (d) Political Parties Ans: (a) People Q19 Which of the following countries have federal division of powers? (a) India (b) Belgium (c) Sri Lanka (d) Both (a) and (b) Ans: (d) Both (a) and (b) Q20 Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?

(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language (b) Regional autonomy (c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education (d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state) Ans (d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)

ECONOMICS

Chapter- DEVELOPMENT 1. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development? a. Profit loss b. Income c. Sales d. Import-export Ans (b) Income 2. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the level of development? a. Industrial development b. Resources of the country c. Income d. Import-export Ans (c) Income 3. Countries with per capita income of US$per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries? a. 12,126 b. 11246 c. 12056 d. 10056 Ans (c) 12056 4. Which category does India come under? a. High-income countries b. Low middle-income countries c. Low-income countries d. High middle-income countries Ans(b) Low middle-income countries 5. Over the past decade or so, indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development? a. Health and nutrition b. health and education c. Child development d. Human development Ans (d) Human development 6. Reema and Rahul studied about calculation of BMI in their school. They are keen to know the BMI of their domestic maid servant whose weight is 61 and height is 5 feet. Can you help them in knowing that if she is: a. Underweight b. Overweight c. Normal d. None of the above Ans (b) Overweight 7. Reema and Rahul are studying about the percentage of children in the age group 14 -15 years attending school. It means they are studying about a. Net attendance ratio b. Gross enrolment ratio c. Literacy rate

d. Extent of illiteracy Ans (a) Net attendance ratio 8. Renewable resources are those resources which can be replenished by nature but these resources can be replenished if of the resources is less than the rate of . a. consumption, regeneration b. usage, replenishment c. any of above d. none of the above. Ans (c) any of above 9. Per capita income of is higher where as human development index of is better. a. Maharashtra, Kerala b. Kerala, Maharashtra c. both are correct. d. both are incorrect. Ans (a) Maharashtra, Kerala 10. While making comparative study of development amongst Indian states following criterion is used: a. per capita income and literacy rate b. Literacy rate, per capita income and net attendance ratio. c. Literacy rate, Net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate d. per capita income ,literacy rate , net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate. Ans (d) per capita income, literacy rate, net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate. 11. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development? a. Profit loss b. Income c. Sales d. Import-export Ans (b) Income 12. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the level of development? a. Industrial development b. Resources of the country c. Income d. Import-export Ans (c) Income 13. Countries with per capita income of US$ per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries? a. 12,126 b. 11246 c. 12056 d. 10056 Ans (c) 12056 14. Which category does India come under? a. High-income countries

b. Low middle-income countries c. Low-income countries d. High middle-income countries Ans(b) Low middle-income countries 15. Over the past decade or so, indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development? a. Health and nutrition b. health and education c. Child development d. Human development Ans (d) Human development 16. Reema and Rahul studied about calculation of BMI in their school. They are keen to know the BMI of their domestic maid servant whose weight is 61 and height is 5 feet. Can you help them in knowing that if she is: a. Underweight b. Overweight c. Normal d. None of the above Ans (b) Overweight 17. Reema and Rahul are studying about the percentage of children in the age group 14 -15 years attending school. It means they are studying about a. Net attendance ratio b. Gross enrolment ratio c. Literacy rate d. Extent of illiteracy Ans (a) Net attendance ratio 18. Renewable resources are those resources which can be replenished by nature but these resources can be replenished if of the resources is less than the rate of . a. consumption, regeneration b. usage, replenishment c. any of above d. none of the above. Ans (a) any of above 19. Per capita income of is higher where as human development index of is better. a. Maharashtra, Kerala b. Kerala, Maharashtra c. both are correct. d. both are incorrect. Ans (a) Maharashtra, Kerala 20. While making comparative study of development amongst Indian states following criterion is used: a. per capita income and literacy rate b. Literacy rate, per capita income and net attendance ratio. c. Literacy rate, Net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate d. per capita income, literacy rate , net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate. Ans (d) per capita income, literacy rate , net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate.

ASSERTION AND REASONING In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).Read the statements and choose the correct option: 1. Assertion (A): Kerala has low infant mortality rate. Reason (R): It has adequate provisions of basic health and educational facilities. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A. c) A is correct but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is correct. Ans (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1. Assertion(A): High national income leads to better human Development Index Reason(R): Good health and education facilities depends on amount of money spent by govt on these facilities. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A. c) A is correct but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is correct. Ans (d) A is wrong but R is correct. 2. Assertion (A): Money in our pocket cannot buy us all the things we need to live. Reason (R): Money cannot buy us a pollution free environment, unadulterated medicines and pollution free environment etc. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A. c) A is correct but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is correct. Ans (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 3. Assertion(A): Per capita Income is not a useful criterion and should not be used as measure of development. Reason( R) :Kerala with lower per capita income has a better human development ranking than Haryana. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A. c) A is correct but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is correct. Ans (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. 4. Assertion(A): The process of development should not ignore environmental issues.

Reason(R) : Environment- we have not inherited from our forefathers but we have borrowed it from our children. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A. c) A is correct but R is wrong. d) A is wrong but R is correct. Ans (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. CASE STUDY QUESTIONS 1. The picture given above explains quality of life not only depends on material things. It also depends on: a. Services b. Luxuries c. Comforts d. non material things Ans (d) non material things 2. The Picture given above explains

a. everyone wants money b. different people have different development goals. c. development goals are conflicting d. none of the above Ans (b) different people have different development goals. 3. The picture above explains a. we cannot take national income as indicator for development. b. per capita income is better measure for development. c. average income hide disparities. d. none of the above Ans (c) average income hide disparities. 4. The picture above explains overuse of ground water. In India groundwater is being overused in a. agricultural prosperous regions b. hard rock plateau areas c. south India d. all of the above Ans (a) agricultural prosperous regions

5. The table above explains a. lower literacy rates of males and females is in rural areas in Uttar Pradesh b. lower status of females as compared to males c. both (a) and (b) d. none of the above Ans (c) both (a) and (b)

Chapter: Sectors of Indian Economy 1. Which of the following is included in tertiary sector? (a) ATM booths (b) Call centres (c) Internet café (d) All of them Answer: (d) All of them 2. The goods that are used as raw material for further production are known by which name: (a) Final goods (b) Material goods (c) Intermediate goods (d) Consumer goods Answer: (c) Intermediate goods 3. The sum total of production of goods and services in the three sectors in a given year is called______. (a) Gross National Income (b) National Income (c) Net Domestic Product (d) Gross Domestic Product Answer: (d) Gross Domestic Product 4. The task of collecting data in all the three sectors of the economy is done by which organization: (a) NSSO (b) BPO (c) KPO (d) UNDP Answer: (a) NSSO 5. A situation in which more persons are employed in a job than are optimally required is: (a) Structural unemployment (b) Disguised unemployment (c) Cyclical unemployment (d) Seasonal unemployment Answer: (b) Disguised unemployment 6. Central government in India made a law, implementing the Right to Work in how many districts of India? (a) 150 districts

(b) 200 districts (c) 250 districts (d) 625 districts Answer: (d) 625 districts 7. Choose the correct meaning of organised sector: (a) It covers those enterprises where terms of employment are regular. (b) It is outside the control of government. (c) Jobs are not regular (d) It provides less salaries Answer: (a) It covers those enterprises where terms of employment are regular. 8. Government owns most of the assets and provides all the services: (a) Private sector (b) Public Sector (c) Organised sector (d) Tertiary sector Answer: (b) Public sector Q 9 to Q11 is based on the given table. Study the data and answer the following questions: 9. Which is the most important sector provides most jobs to the people? (a) Primary sector (b) Unorganised sector (c) Organised sector (d) Public sector Answer: (b) Unorganised sector 10. What is the number of persons engaged in the unorganized sector? (a) 28

(b) 76 (c) 242 (d) 370 Answer: (d) 370 11. Which is the most important organized sector? (a) Private sector (b) Primary (c) Tertiary (d) Secondary Answer: (c) Tertiary sector On the basis of the given table answer Q. No from 12 to 14. 12. What percentage change do you observe in the primary sector in the field of employment? (a) Increase by 11% (b) Increase by 61% (c) Decrease by 11% (d) Remains stagnant Answer: (c) Decrease by 11% 13. Mention the percentage share of primary sector in GDP in 1973. (a) 22% (b) 23% (c) 45% (d) 61% Answer: (c) 45% 14. Why does primary sector continues to be the largest employer in India? (a) Secondary and Tertiary sector are not able to generate comparatively enough employment opportunities despite increase in their production level. (b) It generates more employment opportunities. (c) It exploits natural resources and provides raw material to secondary sector.

(d) None of the above Answer: (a) Secondary and Tertiary sector are not able to generate comparatively enough employment opportunities despite increase in their production level. Q. No 15 to 18 are based on reasoning and assertion. Choose the correct option given below. 15. Assertion (A): The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of tertiary sector. Reason (R): As the agriculture and industrial sectors develop, the demand for storage, transport, banking, insurance, etc, increases. (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) Both A & R are false. Answer: (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 16. Assertion (A): In India over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while the production of all the three sectors has increased but it has increased most in the tertiary sector. Reason (R): Tertiary sector is the only organized sector in the economy where government spends a lot of money to create jobs. (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) Both A & R are false. Answer: (c) A is true but R is false. 17. Assertion (A): Mohan is a shopkeeper who pays his taxes on time. He has employed two workers Raghu and Rakesh in his shop. He pays them well but none of the workers get paid leaves in a year. Reason (R): Rakesh and Raghu are employed in an unorganized sector. (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) Both A & R are false. Answer: (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 18. Assertion (A): There are several goods and services that society needs however private sector doesn‘t produce all of them. Reason (R): Private sector is profit driven. (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) Both A & R are false. Answer: (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Observe the given image and answer Q19 & Q20. Choose the correct option given below the image. 19. Which sector of the economy does the given image illustrate? (a) Private sector (b) Primary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) Secondary sector Answer: (d) Secondary sector 20. What type of employment does the given picture illustrate? (a) Government job (b) Organised sector (c) Unorganised sector

(d) None of the above Answer: (b) Organised sector

GEOGRAPHY

Chapter: Resources and Development Q1. Which one of the following statements is true about the term resources? (a) Resources are free gifts of nature. (b) They are the functions of human activities. (c) All those things which are found in nature. (d) Things which cannot be used to fulfill our needs. ANSWER : (b) They are the functions of human activities. Q2. Land left without cultivation for more than five agricultural years is called ? (a) Culturable waste land (b) Current fallow land (c) Waste land (d) Barren land ANSWER: (a) Culturable waste land Q3. Which factor is not responsible for Global ecological crisis? (a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals. (b) Accumulation of resources in few hands. (c) Sustainable economic development. (d) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources. ANSWER: (c) Sustainable economic development. Q4. The third stage of Resource Planning involves ? (a) Identification and inventory of resources. (b) Matching the resource development plan with overall National Development plan. (c) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology. (d) Qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources. ANSWER: (b) Matching the resource development plan with overall National Development plan. Q5. Which one of the following statements is not correct as regard to international resources? (a) Resources which are regulated by international institutions. (b) Resources which lie beyond the territorial waters.

(c) Resources which are found along the international frontier. (d) Resources which are not yet developed. ANSWER: (d) Resources which are not yet developed. Q6. Which one of the following soil is the best for cotton cultivation ? (a) Red soil. (b) Alluvial soil. (c) Laterite soil. (d) Black soil. ANSWER: (d) Black soil. Q7. In which of the following states is overgrazing responsible for land degradation ? (a) Punjab . (b) Haryana . (c) Tamil Nadu . (d) Madhya Pradesh. ANSWER: (d) Madhya Pradesh. Q8. What percentage of our land should be under forest according to the national fore st policy 1952? (a) 33% . (b) 44 %. (c) 31 %. (d) 22% . ANSWER: (a) 33% . Q9. Human beings used resources indiscriminately and this has led to the following major problems, What are these problems? (a) Not well planned use of these resources. (b) Wastage of resources. (c) Not many problems. (d) Accumulation of resources in few hands. ANSWER: (d) Accumulation of resources in few hands.

Q10 . Mountains account for ____________ percent of the total surface area of the country? (a) 17% (b) 27% (c) 30% (d) 43% ANSWER: 30% In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Identify and mark the correct choice: Q11. Assertion: Running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels such as gullies. Reason: In the Chambal basin such lands are called Leaching Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but B is false. (d) A is false but R is true. ANSWER: (c) A is true but B is false. Q12. Assertion: Laterite soils are not very fertile because it lacks micro organisms. Reason: They are made suitable for cultivation with adequate doses of manures and fertilizers. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but B is false. (d) A is false but R is true. ANSWER: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Q13. Assertion: Black soils are black in colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. Reason: They develop deep cracks during hot weather Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but B is false. (d) A is false but R is true. ANSWER: (d) A is false but R is true. Q14. In which one of the following States is terrace cultivation practised? (a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Western Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttaranchal ANSWER: (d) Uttaranchal Q15. India’s territorial water extends up U9to a distance of ? (a) 19.2 miles (b) 12 nautical miles (c) 200 nautical miles (d) 12 km ANSWER: (b) 12 nautical miles Q16. The total degraded land in our country is ? (a) 123 million hectares (b) 113 million hectares (c) 134 million hectares (d) 130 million hectares ANSWER: (d) 130 million hectares Q17 . Which of the following soils has self-aeration capacity? (a) Alluvial soil (b) Black soil (c) Red soil (d) Mountain soil ANSWER: (b) Black soil

Q18. Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation? (a) Strip cropping (b) Terrace cultivation (c) Overdrawing of ground water (d) Shelter belts ANSWER: (c) Overdrawing of ground water Q19. The processes of ………… and ………go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two ? (a) Denudation and erosion (b) Soil formation and erosion (c) Soil formation and denudation (d) Climatic conditions and soil erosion ANSWER: Soil formation and erosion Q20. Waste land includes……………………… ? (a) Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year (b) Land put to non-agricultural uses (c) Land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years (d) Rocky, arid and desert areas ANSWER: (d) Rocky, arid and desert areas

CHAPTER: WATER RESOURCES 1. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is located in (a) Odisha (b) Uttarakhand (c) Rajasthan (d) Andhra Pradesh Answer: (c) Rajasthan 2. The Narmada BachaoAndolan is associated with (a) Sardar Sarovar Dam (b) Tehri Dam (c) Hirakud Dam (d) Gandhi Sagar Dam Answer: (a) Sardar Sarovar Dam 3. Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on the river named (a) Ganga (b) Godavari (c) Mahanadi (d) Narmada Answer: (d) Narmada 4. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river? (a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi (c) Krishna (d) Satluj Answer: (c) Krishna 5. On which of the following rivers is Koyena dam built? (a) Krishna (b) Kaveri (c) Ganga (d) Mahanadi Answer: (a) Krishna 6. Hirakud dam is built on which river? (a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi

(c) Krishna (d) Satluj Answer: (b) Mahanadi 7. Which of the following rivers is not having any multipurpose river project? (a) Satluj-Beas (b) Mahanadi (c) Narmada (d) Brahmaputra Answer: (d) Brahmaputra 8. On which one of the following rivers Mettur dam is constructed? (a) River Kaveri (b) River Krishna (c) River Godavari (d) River Mahanadi Answer: (a) Kaveri 9. Bhakra Nangal River Valley Project is made on the river: (a) Sutlej-Beas (b) Ravi-Chenab (c) Ganga (d) Son Answer: (a) Satluj – Beas 10. Salal Dam is built on which river? (a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi (c) Krishna (d) Satluj Answer: (a) Chenab 11. Name a multi-purpose projects which are used for hydel power production and irrigation (a) Jalaput project (b) Bhakra – Nangal project (c) Hirakud project (d) Tehri Dam Answer: (b) Bhakra-Nangal project 12. Which dam integrates conservation of water with flood control? (a) Sutluj-Beas river basin

(b) Bhakra – Nangal project (c) Hirakud project (d) Tehri Dam Answer: (c) Hirakud project 13. Which is the largest water resource project of India covering four states ? (a)Satluj Beas Project (b) Bhakra Nangal dam (c) Tehri Dam (d) Sardar Sarovar Dam Answer: (d) Sardar Sarovar dam 14. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes. Column 1(Dams) Column 2(Rivers) a. Hirakud 1. Satluj b. Bhakra Nangal 2. Mahanadi c. Nagarjuna Sagar 3. Krishna d. Sardar Sarovar 4. Narmada (a) a−2, b−1, c−4, d−3 (b) a−2, b−1, c−3, d−4 (c) a−1, b−4, c−2, d−3 (d) a−4, b−2, c−3, d−1 Answer: (b) a−2, b−1, c−3, d−4 15. Tungabhadra reservoir is across the river – (a) Kaveri (b) Krishna (c) Tungabhadra (d) Mahanadi Answer: (c) Tungbhadra 16. Name an important dam in Jammu and Kashmir and Odisha respectively. (a) Salal and Rihand (b) Hirakud and BhakraNangal (c) Salal and Hirakud (d) Hirakud and Tungabhadra. Answer: (c) Salal and Hirakud 17. Which one of the following combination of river and dams is not correct ? (a) Salal dam on Chenab river

(b) Koyna on Krishna river (c) BhakraNangal on Satluj river (d) Tehri on Yamuna river. Answer: (d) Tehri on Yamuna 18. In which state is the Salal dam located? (a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Kerala Answer: (c) Jammu and Kashmir 19. On which one of the following rivers the Tehri Dam is being constructed? (a) Bhagirathi (b) Yamuna (c) Kosi (d) Sutlej Answer: (a) Bhagirathi 20. Which of the following dams are part of Chambal Project? (a) Maithon, Panchet, Tilaiya, Konar, Bokaro (b) Pravara, Ramagundam (c) Rana Pratap Sagar, Gandhi Sagar (d) Sardar Sarovar Dam Answer: (c) Rana Pratap Sagar, Gandhi Sagar MAP BASED QUESTIONS 1. Identify the dam constructed across the Bhagirathi River. a) Hirakud Dam b) Bhakra Nangal Dam c) Tehri Dam d) Salal Dam Answer: (c) Tehri 2. On which river, Salal Dam is built? a) Krishna River b) Indus River c) Godavari d) Chenab Answer: (d) Chenab 3. _____ Dam is a gravity masonry dam of 53.8m.

a) Hirakud Dam b) Rana Pratap Sagar c) Nizam Sagar Dam d) Kallanai Dam Answer: (b) Rana Pratap Sagar 4. Name the longest earthen dam of the World. a) Hirakud Dam b) Singur Dam c) Indravati Dam d) Mettur Dam Answer: (a) HIrakud Dam 5. Name the tallest dam in India. a) Gandhi Sagar Dam b) Koyna Dam c) Bargi Dam d) Tehri Dam Answer: (d) Tehri Dam 6. Which dam is located in between the states Telangana and Andhra Pradesh? a) Idukki Dam b) Harangi Dam c) Nagarjuna Dam d) Tungabhadra Dam Answer: (c) Nagarjuna Dam 7. Identify the dam which is related to the ‗Narmada Bachao Andolan‘? a) Sardar Sarovar Dam b) Kadra Dam c) Uri Hydroelectric Dam d) Singur Dam Answer: (a) Saradar Sarovar Dam 8. Name the river on which Bhakra Nangal Dam is constructed. a) Krishna River b) Ravi River c) Satluj River d) Beas River Answer: (c) Satluj River 9. Name the first hydro Power Project built in Jammu and Kashmir. a) Bhakra Dam b) Sardar Sarovar Dam c) Chandil Dam d) Salal Dam Answer: (d) Salal Dam 10. Name the Dam build on the Chambal River. a) Walayar Dam b) Rana Pratap sagar Dam

c) Bisalpur Dam d) Rihand Dam Answer: (b) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam 11. Which dam is built across the Mahanadi River? a) Tungabhadra Dam b) Hirakud Dam c) Tehri Dam d) Gandhi Sagar Dam Answer: (b) Hirakud Dam 12. On which River, Tungabhadra Dam is built? a) Godavari River b) Kaveri River c) Mahanadi River d) Krishna River Answer: (d) Krishna River 13. Which Dam is also known as Pampa Sagar? a) Tungabhadra Dam b) Ukai Dam c) Dantiwada Dam d) Supa Dam Answer: (a) Tungabhadra Dam 14. Which Dam is largest water resource project of India covering four states- Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. a) Tungabhadra Dam b) Bansagar Dam c) Bargi Dam d) Sardar Sarovar Dam Answer: (d) Sardar Sarovar Dam 15. A concrete gravity dam built on Satluj river. a) Bhakra Dam b) Salal Dam c) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam d) Dantiwada Dam Answer: (a) Bhakra Dam 16. On which river, Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built? a) Godavari River b) Satluj River c) Krishna River d) Mahanadi River Answer: (c) Krishna River 17. Name the State in which Hirakud Dam is located. a) Rajasthan b) Odisha c) Jharkhand

d) West Bengal Answer: (b) Odisha 18. Name the state in which Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is built. a) Rajasthan b) Gujarat c) Maharashtra d) Madhya Pradesh Answer: (a) Rajasthan 19. Name the state in which Tehri Dam is built. a) Himachal Pradesh b) Jammu and Kashmir c) Punjab d) Uttarakhand Answer: (d) Uttarakhand 20. Name the state in which Sardar Sarovar Dam is located. a) Rajasthan b) Uttar Pradesh c) Madhya Pradesh d) Gujarat Answer: (d) Gujarat

HISTORY AND POLITICAL SCIENCE CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS Read the sources given below and answer the questions the following questions: Q1. SOURCE 1: In 1848, Frédéric Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‗democratic and social Republics‘, ashe called them. The first print of the series, shows the peoples of Europe and America – men and women of all ages and social classes – marching in a long train, and offering homage to the statue of Liberty as they pass by it. i. The statue of liberty is holding the _ and inher hand in Sorrieu‘s print. a. Torch of Enlightenment and shattered remains of absolutist institutions. b. Torch of Enlightenment and Charter of Rights of Man c. Flags of France and USA d. Charter of Rights of man and Crown of Oak LeavesCorrect answer: b ii. Identify the two nations that have crossed Statue of Liberty in this imageas they had become nation states: a. France and USA b. France and Germany c. USA and Switzerland d. USA and ScotlandCorrect answer: c iii. How can we identify the people of Europe and America in Sorrieu‘sutopian vision? a. Through their national flags and costumes b. Through their constitutions c. Through their demands d. Through the allegory of their nationsCorrect answer: a

iv. The angels and saints are blessing this scene from above as: a. People are paying homage to Statue of Liberty b. It is highlighting the spirit of readiness to fight c. It symbolises fraternity among the nations of the world. d. People are walking in a long trail Correct answer: c Q2. SOURCE 2: Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states,of which only one was ruled by an Italian princely house. i. Which of the following is incorrectly paired with respect to the dynasties ruling in Italy? a. Northern Italy- Austrian Habsburgs b. Central Italy- Pope c. Southern Italy- Bourbon kings of France d. Sardinia Piedmont-Italian Princely House Correct answer- c ii. During the 1830s, had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. a. Giuseppe Garibaldi b. Giuseppe Mazzini c. Victor Emanuel II d. Cavour Correct answer: b iii. Which of the following statements in NOT TRUE with respect to the unification of Italy? a. Due to the failure of revolutionary uprisings in 1831 and 1848, themantle fell on Sardinia-Piedmont to unify the Italian states throughwar. b. Cavour engineered a tactful diplomatic alliance with France and succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. c. Giuseppe Garibaldi marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the localpeasants in order to drive out the Spanish rulers. d. In 1861, Kaiser William I was proclaimed king of united Italy.Correct answer: d