ENGLISH Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CT102116064 CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2016 - 2017) JEE (Main + Advanced) LEADER COURSE (SCORE-I) & ENTHUSIAST COURSE (SCORE-II) Test Type : FULL SYLLABUS Test Pattern : JEE-Main TEST DATE : 21 - 03 - 2017 Important Instructions Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. 1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. 6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room. 9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2017 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING PART A - PHYSICS 1. Two particles in same vertical plane are thrown 4. A rod of mass M and length is at rest on to strike at same time. One from ground and plane horizontal smooth surface. A particle of other from height h vertically above it. Ground same mass M strike one end with velocity u particle is thrown obliquly and it achives a perpendicular to rod, elastically. Now just after maximum height H. The second particle is collision what is the kinetic energy of upper thrown horizontally with same speed. What can half part of rod. M, Mu 2 be maximum h so that two particles strike in air. (1) (1) H (2) 2H (3) 3H (4) 4H 25 2. A cuboidal block has dimension (1.5 × 1.5 × 1.0) cm what is the surface area of Mu 2 Mu cuboid (in cm2) (2) (1) 5.2 (2) 10.4 (3) 5.25 (4) 10.5 3. Two persons A & B are throwing ball of 200 g 16 on wall as shown in figure. Balls strike wall Mu 2 (3) 9 perpendicularly at same point height 2m from Mu 2 ground. Ball strike wall elastically at same time (4) 4 and returns back to A & B, at same time. They 5. A disc of mass m and radius R is attached to again repeat the same. What is the average force celling with the help of ropes of length l. Find on wall. (take g = 10 m/s2) the time period of small oscillation of disc in Wall the plane of disc. (1) 2 lR/2 l l g R R/2 BA 2m l2 R / 22 (2) 2 g R / 2 l 5m 5m (3) 2 l g (1) 3.25 N (2) 6 N (3) 7.5 N (4) 10 N (4) none of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-1/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 6. A bungee jumper is jumping with help of elastic 8. A trianguler pulse moving at 2cm/s on a rope ideal rope (Force constant K). Jumper steps off approches an end at which it is free to slide on the bridge and falls from the rest towards the vertical pole. What is the particle speed at the river below. He does not hit the water. The mass free end at 3 sec from the instant shown. of jumper is m, natural length of rope is l. 4 Gravity is g, assume every thing ideal. then, choose the incorrect option : 2cm/s (1) Jumper comes to rest first time after falling 1cm a distance k mg 2mgk m2g 2 1cm 1cm 1cm S is (1) 2cm/s (2) 1cm/s k (2) Maximum speed attained 2gl mg2 (3) 3cm/s (4) 4cm/s k (3) time of free fall from rest 2l / g 9. One mole of an ideal gas Cp heated by =γ (4) time to come to rest for the first time Cv law P=V where P is pressure of gas, V is m 2l volume, is a constant what is the heat 2 k g capacity of gas in the process- 7. A screwgauage has pitch 1.5 mm and there is C R 1 no zero error. Linear scale has marking at (1) MSD = 1mm and there are 100 equal division of circular scale. When diameter of a sphere is (2) C R 1 measured with instrument, main scale is having 2mm mark visible on linear scale, but 3mm 1 1 mark is not visible, 76th division of circuler (3) C R 2 scale is in line with linear scale. What is the diameter of sphere. (1) 2.64 mm (2) 3.14 mm (4) C R 1 2 1 (3) 1.14 mm (4) 2.76 mm SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-2/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 10. A planet of core density 3 ρ and outer crust of 12. Find effective thermal resistance between A & B of cube made up of 12 rods of same density ρ has small tunnel in core. A small dimensions and shown given thermal particle of mass m is released from end A then time required to reach end B : conductivity. [ = length of rod, a = cross section area of rod] Thermally insulator H K K G (1) ka K F K C AB 2 E 2K (2) K K 2K ka 2K B 4 (3) 7ka D 2K (4) 2ka AK 1 13. Two immiscible liquid are filled in conical flask (1) G (2) 2 G as shown in figure. The area of cross section is shown, a small hole of area a is made in lower (3) 1 (4) 2 1 end of cone. Find speed of liquid flow from G G hole open to air 11. On a hypothetical planet satellite can only 2gh h revolve in quantized energy level i.e. magnitude h of energy of a satellite is integer multiple of a (1) 1 17a2 A fixed energy. If two successive orbit have radius A2 3R gh R and 2 what could be maximum radius of satellite (2) 1 17a2 A2 (1) 9R (2) 6R 2gh 3gh (3) 4R (4) 3R (3) 1 17a2 (4) 1 17a2 32 A2 32 A2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-3/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 14. Two vertical parallel plates are partially 16. Figure shows, 2 identical bulbs B1 & B2 and a submerged in water. The distance between plate game of spinning wheel divided into 6 equal is equal to d. Water rises due to surface tension T, the width of plate is l, and contact angle of parts of different colour as shown. At t = 0, w ater w ith glass i s 00. Find the force of switch S is closed and simultaneously the wheel attraction between the plates. is set to rotation about its centre O in clockwise direction with initial angular velocity of 2.5 rad/s. Find the colour on which student h should place bet if the color appearing on pointer at an instant when both bulbs give same T 2 2T 2 illumination is selected for winning given (1) gd 2 (2) gd 2 angular retardation of wheel due to friction and other effects is 2 rad/s2 & take (ln 2 = 0.7) T 2 T 2 (3) 2 gd 2 (4) 4 gd 2 15. For a system with newtons law of cooling Orange Violet applicable the initial rate of cooling is R °C/sec find the time when temperature diff. Yellow O Indigo Position of wheel at t = 0 2 2 Green Blue B1 T0 = initial temperature difference, is reduced 20H 2 to half. B2 (1) T0 S 4V 2R (2) 2T0 (1) Yellow R (2) Blue (3) green (3) n(2).T0 (4) Indigo R SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK T0 (4) n2 R E-4/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 17. A thin metallic partition of negligible thickness 18. Consider a gravity free container as shown. is inserted between two shaded metallic plates System is initially at rest and electric potential as shown. The remaining ends are then packed in the regon is V = (y3+2) J/C. A ball of charge with insulating plates to form a container like q and mass m is released from rest from base structure. starts to move up due to electric field and 2 taps shown are opened at t = 0 and finally collides with the shaded face as shown. closed at t = 5s. Find capacitance of system y between A and B after closing taps. (Assume liquid to be non conducting) Volumetric flow rates and dieletric constants of liquid are given. k = 3 2m3/s k=2 2m 1m3/s x A B q 1 C, m 2kg 10 m z2 2m 1m If its speed just after collision is 1.5 m/s and 1m time for which ball is in contact with shaded (1) 8.85×10–11F face is 0.1sec, find external force required to (3) 4.42×10–10F (2) 8.85×10–10F hold the container fixed in its position during (4) 4.42×10–11F collision assuming ball exerts constant force on wall during entire span of collision. (1) 70 N (2) 72 N (3) 74 N (4) 76 N SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-5/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 19. If the figure shown are 2 LED's that can be 20. Captain jack sparrow tries to observe a fish used as a polarity detector. Apply a positive almost vertically below him in a magical sea source voltage and a green light results. of variable y2 1 where y is depth below Negative supplies result in a red light. Packages water surface. Find the apparent depth of fish of such combination are commercially below water level as seen by captain jack available. Find resestor R to ensure a current sparrow. of 20mA through the ON diode for the Captain Jack configuration. Both diodes have reverse Sparrow breakdown voltage of 3V and average turn on voltage of 2V. +- 8V 1m y (=y2+1) Green (1) m (2) m 4 2 Red (3) m (4) m 3 (1) 250 (2) 300 21. Figure shows 2 NAND gates followed by a (3) 325 (4) 400 NOR gate. The system is equivalent to one gate G with inputs X, Y, Z and output R. What is G? X YR Z (2) NAND (4) AND (1) OR (3) XOR SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-6/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 22. A radiowave has maximum electric field A intensity of 10–4V/m on arrival at a receiving K antenna. The maximum magnetic flux density of such a wave is (1) 2×103T (2) 3×104T (3) 5.2×10–9T (4) 3.3×10–13T 23. Figure shows the waveform of an amplitude modulated wave. Its modulation factor is 25. 1 V (in Volt) (1) 5 3 10 A (2) 4 2 t Figure shows a system of inductor and parallel 2 -2 plate capacitor made of 2 parallel circular plates (3) 3 -10 of area A and filled with dielectric liquid of dielectric constant K as shown. 2 (4) 5 A small leak develops in capacitor and liquid starts to fill the inductor of same dimensions 24. A conducting rod PQ of l = 5m oriented as having n turns / unit length. Find the ratio of magnitude of initial to final reactance of circuit shown is moving with V = (2m/s) iˆ without after liquid fills the inductor completely any rotation in a uniform magnetic field (3 ˆj + 4 kˆ ) Tesla. Emf induced in the rod is Given : 2 A2 n2 = c2 y angular frequency of AC c speed of light (1) 32 V and r relative permeability of liquid (2) 40 V (3) 50 V 5m 2m/s (1) K (K 1) 1 (1 K) (4) None 53° (r 1) (2) K (1 r ) (1 r )K 1 K 1 (1 K) x (3) (4) K (1 r ) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-7/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 ice 28. A plane wavefront travelling in a straight line 26. in vacuum encounters a medium of refractive index . At P, the shape of the wavefront is : Figure shows a thick shell made of electrical conductivity and has inner & outer radii of P 10 cm & 20 cm respectively and is filled with (2) ice inside it. Its inside and outside surface are P kept at different potentials by a battery of internal resistance 2 & = 5V. Find value of for which ice melts at maximum possible rate if 25% of heat generated by shell due to joule heating is used to melt ice. (1) 5 siemen / m (2) 2 siemen / m 3 (3) 1 siemen / m (4) 5 siemen / m (1) 2 8 P 27. Using thomson's model of the atom, consider an atom consisting of two electrons, each of charge –e, embeded in a sphere of charge +2e and radius R. In equilibrium each electron is at a distance d from the centre of the atom. What is the equilibrium separation between electrons. R ed de (3) (4) (1) R (2) R/2 P P (3) R/3 (4) R/4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-8/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 29. In a YDSE light of two different wavelengths 30. The K, L and M energy levels of platinum lie ( 1 & 2) are incident normal to the plane of roughly at 78, 12 and 3 keV respectively. The slits. The nth maxima of 1 coincides with the ratio of wavelength of K line to that of K mth maxima of exactly in front of one of the 2 line in X-ray spectrum is : slits. d = 3 mm 22 (1) 3 D = 1.5 m 3 (2) 22 Given D = 1.5 m d = 3 mm 22 (3) 25 4500 Å < 1 , 2 < 7000 Å then n, m and are 25 (4) 22 1 (1) 3, 4, 4000 Å (2) 5, 6, 6000 Å (3) 2, 3, 5000 Å (4) 4, 5, 3000 Å SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-9/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 PART B - CHEMISTRY 31. Relative abundance 33. Select the correct statement about water. Isotope (%) Atomic mass (u) (i) Critical temperature of H2O is less than NH3 12C 98.8 12 13C 1.18 13.1 (ii) Standard boiling point of water is 100°C. 14C 0.02 14.1 (iii) Critical volume of H2O is less than NH3. (1) Only (ii) From above data what is the molecular mass of CH4 containing all isotopes of carbon but hydrogen on 1 H . (Given that atomic mass of (2) Only (ii), (iii) 1 hydrogen = 1.008) (3) Only (iii) (1) 16.004 u (2) 16.21u (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (3) 16.125 u (4) 16.42u 32. Select the correct statements for quantum 34. For 1st law of thermodynamics, select the correct option. numbers. (i) Magnet ic quant um no. (m ) gives (1) The energy of a closed system is constant. information about the spatial orientation of orbitals with respect to standard set of (2) 1st law is commonly started as the law of co-ordinate axis. conservation of energy i.e., energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. (ii) Electron spin quantum no. is represented by 's' and have value ' 1 ' (3) It is applicable only for reversible process. 2 (4) Both (1) & (2) (iii) Principal quantum no. (n) determine the size of the orbitals and also to a large extent 35. At 1 bar and 298 K, standard molar enthalpy of formation of which substance is zero. of the energy of the orbitals. (1) Only (i), (iii) (1) H(g) (2) Only (iii) (2) H+ (aq) (3) Only (i) (3) H+ (g) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) All correct SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-10/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 36. Order of solubility of solid AgCl(s) in given 39. Select the correct option : cases. (1) Gold sol is negatively charged (i) In pure water (2) Peptization is method of purification of (ii) In presence of 0.1 M AgNO sols. 3 (3) Persistent dialysis is met hod of (iii) In presence of 2 M aq. solution of KCN (iv) In presence of 1M aq. solution of Ca(CN) coagulation. 2 (v) In presence of 2M aq. solution of NH (4) Both (1) and (3) 3 (Assuming 100% dissociation of AgNO , KCN 40. Conductivity of 0.001 M aq.solution of Na SO 3 24 and Ca(CN)2) and complex formation with NH3 is found to be 2.6 × 10–3 S cm–1 at 25°C. If and CN– will take place. limiting molar conductance of Na+ is 50 S cm2 (1) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (v) mol–1, then limiting molar conductance of (2) (ii) < (i) < (v) < (iv) < (iii) SO42– will be (neglect conductivity of water). (3) (ii) < (i) < (v) < (iii) < (iv) (1) 80 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 160 S cm2 mol–1 (4) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (v) (3) 40 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 120 S cm2 mol–1 37. Select the incorrect option : 41. The following compound has four aromatic (1) Each species appearing in balanced rings marked as A,B,C and D. Rank them in chemical equation must appear in kinetic terms of increasing reactivity towards rate law. electrophilic aromatic substitution? (2) Bimolecular elementary reaction is always Compound is O second order. CH3 C (3) Hydrolysis of ester in alkaline medium is N bimolecular second order reaction. A (4) Order and molecularity may be same for O a chemical reaction. 38. In CsCl type structure if radius of cation and B O anion are 80 pm and 100 pm respectively then closest distance between two cations is : D (1) 180 pm (2) 60 3 pm (1) C < D < A < B (2) C< B< D < A (3) 90 pm (4) 120 3 pm (3) C < B < A < D (4) B < C < D < A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-11/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 42. Some addition reactions of alkene are given 43. Select the reaction NOT representing correct below. Identify the one which fits on ALL the major product ? Cl given criteria. OH SOCl2 Reaction must have- (1) (A) Stereochemistry of addition - SYN ONLY N Br (B) Regiochemistry of addition- OH ANTI-MARKOVNIKOV (2) PBr3 OR O (3) Br OH NaH ANTI-MARKOVNIKOV LIKE Cl (1) HHBera,Rt/lOigOhRt (4) ICl CH3 Anhy.AlCl3 44. Which among the following compounds, is a -ketohexofuranose? HO O OH (2) Br2 -H2O HO CH3 (1) OH OH HOH2C (3) (1)B2H6 -THF H O (2)H2O2 -OH- OH (2) HO OH CH3 HOH2C OH HO (3) HO O (4) HBr OH OH CH3 OH (4) O CH2OH OH OH OH SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-12/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 45. Identify the one which will NOT produce 47. Identify the correct option : OH Pair of compounds Reagent used Response of compounds (I) (II) to distinguish the toward the reagent as a major product? pair of compounds (1) HCHO CH3CHO NaOH – I2 I compound form yellow ppt, II does not Cl (1) Mg, diethyl ether PhCHO CH3CHO Tollen’s reagent II compound form (1) (2) O (2) (AgNO3 – NH4OH) black suspension (3) H2O or a silver mirror (2) H3O+ deposition, I does not Glucose Fructose Bromine water (Br – H2O) (3) I II O CH3CHO 2, 4-DNP/pH 4-5 I Dinitrophenyl (4) hydrazine II O X? H3C OH O (1)CH(32M)Hg2COl(1 eq.) O (3) 48. H3C Cl Y? H3C H Cl X & Y are respectively : (4) CH3MgCl(1 eq.) XY O (1) (a) Li (t–BuO) AlH (a) LiAlH 34 46. Which does NOT liberate H2 gas on reaction (b) H O (b) H O with Na-metal ? 2 2 (2) (a) NaBH , H – Raney Ni 4 2 (2) OH (b) H2O (1) (3) (a) DIBAL – H (a) LiAlH 4 (b) H O (b) H O 2 2 (4) (a) NaBH4 , (a) DIBAL – H (3) (4) CH3COOH (b) H2O (b) H2O (DIBAL - H : Diisobutylaluminium hydride) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-13/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 49. Which is correctly matched ? O 50. You have two C6H10O ketones, I and II. Both H are optically active, but I is racemized by O treatment with acid and II is not. Wolff kishner (1) H & reduction of both ketones gives the same achiral hydrocarbon, formula C6H12. What reasonable structures may be assigned to I and II respectively ? are Positional isomers (1) I is 3-Methyl-4-Penten-2-one II is 4-Methyl-1-Penten-3-one (2) & (2) I is 2-Methyl cyclopentanone H H II is 3-Methyl cyclopentanone Br Br (3) I is 3-Methyl cyclopentanone are enantiomers II is 2-Methyl cyclopentanone (4) I is 2-Ethyl cyclobutanone Cl Br II is 3-Ethyl cyclobutanone (3) & are enantiomers 51. Which of the following does not have the Br Cl correct order of given property ? (1) Ga < Al < In < Tl (Atomic size) (2) I < F < Cl < Br (Bond energy) 22 2 2 (4) & (3) PH < NH < HF < H O (Boiling point) 33 2 (4) BF < NF < NH (Dipole moment) 33 3 are Positional isomers 52. The distance between two adjuscent carbon atoms is maximum in : (1) Diamond (2) Graphite (3) Benzene (4) Ethene SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-14/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 53. Which of the following does not liberate a 57. The reaction of white phosphorus with sodium brown gas ? hydroxide solution gives : (1) Action of heat on LiNO (1) Phosphine and sodium salt of a dibasic acid 3 (2) Action of heat on KNO3 (2) Phosphine and sodium salt of a monobasic acid (3) Reaction of zinc with conc HNO3 (3) Phosphine and sodium salt of a tribasic acid (4) Addition of conc H2SO4 on NaNO3 (4) None of these 54. Self reduction process is used in the extraction 58. The qualitative distinction of ZnSO4 and of - Al (SO ) can be done by using the reagent : (1) Iron (2) Zinc 2 43 (3) Aluminium (4) Lead (1) NH4OH (2) NaOH 55. The ammine complex of metal ions Cu2+, Ni2+ (3) Any of these (4) none of these and Zn2+ have shapes respectively - 59. KI is oxidised into I2 by using the reagent : (1) Octahedral, Square planar, Tetrahedral (1) KMnO4 (neutral or slightly alkaline solution) (2) Square planar, Octahedral, Tetrahedral (3) Square planar, Tetrahedral, Octahedral (2) Ozone (alkaline solution) (4) Tetrahedral, Square planar, Octahedral (3) CuSO solution 4 56. Geometrical as well as optical isomerism is (4) All of these shown by : (1) Cr C2O4 3 3 60. Ammonia is liberated in the reaction of : (1) Mg3N2 + H2O (2) Co NH3 3 Cl3 (2) NaNO + Zn + NaOH 3 (3) Cr H2O C2O4 (3) CaNCN + H O 2 2 2 (4) CoenCl4 (4) All of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-15/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 61. The solution of D.E. PART C - MATHEMATICS 65. If f(x) satisfies the relation (x cot y + ln cos x) dy+ (ln sinyy tan x)dx = 0 f 5x 3y 5 f x 3 f y x, y R (1) (sin x)y (cos y)x = c 2 2 (2) (sin y)x (cos x)y = c f(0) = 1, f '(0) = 2 then period of sin (f(x)) is (3) (sin x)y (sin y)x = c (1) 2 (2) (4) (cot x)y (cot y)x = c (3) 3 (4) 4 If f(x) be such that f(x) = max (|2x|, 2x3), 12 xR 62. If 12K. 12CK .11CK 1 is equal to 66. K 1 (1) f(x) is discontinuous at one point 12 2119 17 ..........3 212 p then p is (2) f(x) is differentiable x R 11! (3) f(x) is non differentiable at one point only (4) f(x) is non differentiable at 4 points only (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 6 63. If the range of f(x) 2x4 14x2 8x 49 is 67. The line x 2 y 1 z 1 intersects the x4 7x2 4x 23 3 2 1 curve xy = c2, z = 0 if c is equal to (a, b], then (a +b) is (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) ± 1 1 (3) 5 (4) 6 (2) ± 3 64. Let f(x) = x3 3x2 + 3x + 1 and g be inverse of (3) ± 5 (4) ± 2 it, then area bounded by the curve y = g(x) with 1 x x axis between x = 1, x = 2 is (in square units) 68. If f x dx 1 then f x dx 1 1 (2) 1 (1) 2 (2) 4 (4) 2 (4) 1 is equal to 3 (3) 4 (1) 0 (3) 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-16/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 69. ABCD is a rhombus. The circumradii of ABD x 25 73. Let f x t 2 2t 2 dt, where x is set of and ACD are 2 and 25. Then the area of 0 real numbers satisfying the inequation rhombus is log 1 (1) 400 sq.unit 2 6x x2 8 0 . If range of f(x) is (2) 600 sq. unit [a, b] then (a + b) is (3) 200 sq. unit (1) 50 (2) 56 (4) 800 sq. unit (3) 72 (4) 32 70. If z is a complex number satisfying 74. The equation of the plane t hrough t he |z|2 |z| 2 <0, then the value of z2 z sin , intersection of the planes x + 2y + z 1 = 0 for all values of , is and 2x + y + 3z 2 = 0 and perpendicular to the plane x+y+z1=0 and x + ky + 3z 1 = 0. (1) equal to 4 (2) equal to 6 Then the value of k is (3) more than 6 (4) less than 6 (1) 5 (2) 3 2 2 71. If the graph of y = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is symmetric about the line x = k then (1) k = c (2) k c 5 3 b (3) 2 (4) 2 (3) a c k 0 (4) none of these 1 2b x x p sin x x3 , x0 72. The solution set of inequality 75. Let f x 1 1 sec1 0, x0 2 2 2 tan1 x cot1 x tan1 x 2cot1 x 2 lim x x is (where [.] denotes the greatest integer then complete set of values of p for which f\"(x) function) is continuous at x = 0 is (1) (tan 1, tan 2) (2) (cot 1, cot 2) (1) [2, ) (2) [3, ) (3) (tan 1, tan2) (4) (tan1, ) (3) (4,) (4) [2,) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-17/21
76. If lim ax2 bx c 1 Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 2 80. If g(x) = 2f (2x3 3x2) + f(6x2 4x3 3), x 1 2x 12 2 x R and f\"(x) > 0, x R , then g'(x) > 0 for x belonging to then lim x ax bx c is 1 2 x2 x 2 (1) , 0,1 1 (2) 1 , 0 1, (1) 0 (2) 2 2 (3) 2 (4) 6 d 2x3 3x2 x 3 B C (3) 0, dx x2 x 2 77. If A 12 x 22 (4) ,1 x then (A B + C) is 81. Let I /6 cos x dx, J /2 cos x dx . Which of (1) 4 (2) 7 0x /3 x (3) 2 (4) 0 the following is CORRECT ? 78. Lines are drawn from a point P (1, 3) to a (1) I ,J (2) I ,J circle x2 + y2 2x + 4y 8 = 0. Which meets 6 6 6 6 the circle at 2 points A & B, then the minimum value of PA + PB is (3) I ,J (4) I ,J 6 6 6 6 (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 82. A variable line ax + by + c = 0, where a, b, c 79. If Tn n2 1 n! & Sn= T1 + T2 + T3 +......Tn are in A.P., is normal to a circle Let T10 a where a & b are realtively prime x 2 y 2 , which is orthogonal to S10 b circle x2 + y2 4x 4y1 = 0. The value of natural numbers, then the value of (b a) is is equal to (1) 8 (2) 9 (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 11 (3) 10 (4) 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-18/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 1 1 2 87. Let b iˆ 4 ˆj 6kˆ and 2iˆ 7 ˆj 10kˆ . If c a 83. If A 0 2 1 and A3 = (aAI) (bAI), be a unit vector and the scalar triple product 1 0 2 a b c has the greatest value, then is a where a, b are integers and I is a 3 × 3 unit matrix then value of (a + b) is equal to equal to (1) 4 (2) 5 (1)1 (3) 6 (4) 7 3 iˆ ˆj kˆ 84. The statement p q p q ~ q is 1 (1) tautology (2) 5 (2) contradiction 2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ (3) open statement (4) neither tautology nor contradiction (3)1 3 2iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ 85. The average marks of 10 students in a class 1 3iˆ 7 ˆj kˆ was 60 with a standard deviation 4, while the 59 (4) average marks of other ten students was 40 with a standard deviation 6. If all the 20 students 88. The locus of the orthocentre of the triangle are taken together, their standard deviation formed by the focal chord of the parabola will be y2 = 4ax and the normals drawn at its (1) 5 (2) 7.5 extremeties is (3) 9.8 (4) 11.2 (1) y2 = a (x 3a) (2) y2 = a (x + 3a) 86. The number of ways in which 3 children can (3) y2 = a (x 4a) distribute 10 tickets out of 15 consecutively (4) y2 = a(x + 4a) numbered tickets themselves such that they get consecutive blocks of 5, 3 and 2 tickets is (1) 8C (2) 8C 3! 5 5 (3) 8C (3!)2 (4) none of these 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-19/21
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 89. In a tournament there are twelve players P1, 90. Point from which two distinct tangents can be P2, P3,........ P12 and divided into six pairs at drawn on two different branches of the random. From each game a winner is decided x2 y2 on the basis of game played between the two hyperbola 1 but no two different players of the pair. Assuming each player is of equal strength, then the probability that exactly 25 16 one out of P1 and P2 is among the losers is . tangent can be drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = 36 is (1) (1, 6) 5 6 (2) (1, 3) (1) 11 (2) 11 (3) (7, 1) 1 5 1 (3) 2 (4) 22 (4) (1, 2 ) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-20/21 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT102116064 E-21/21
Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CT102116064 HINDI CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2016 - 2017) JEE (Main + Advanced) LEADER COURSE (SCORE-I) & ENTHUSIAST COURSE (SCORE-II) Test Type : FULL SYLLABUS Test Pattern : JEE-Main TEST DATE : 21 - 03 - 2017 Important Instructions Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. 1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the 1. Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. 2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 3. 3 4. 90 360 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum 5. A,B,C 30 marks are 360. 4 5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics 6. having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. 7. 6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 8. 7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side 2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 9. 8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, 10. printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room. 11. 9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/ Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2017 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING PART A - PHYSICS 1. Two particles in same vertical plane are thrown to 1. strike at same time. One from ground and other from height h vertically above it. Ground particle h is thrown obliqulyand it achives a maximum height H H. The second particle is thrown horizontally with same speed. What can be maximum h so that two h particles strike in air. (1) H (2) 2H (3) 3H (4) 4H (1) H (2) 2H (3) 3H (4) 4H 2. A cuboidalblock has dimension 2. (1.5 × 1.5 × 1.0) cm (1.5 × 1.5 × 1.0) cm what is the surface area of (incm2) cuboid (in cm2) (1) 5.2 (2) 10.4 (3) 5.25 (4) 10.5 (1) 5.2 (2) 10.4 (3) 5.25 (4) 10.5 3. Two personsA& B are throwing ball of 200 g on 3. AB, 200 g wall as shown in figure. Balls strike wall 2m perpendicularly at same point height 2m from AB ground. Ball strike wall elastically at same time and returns back to A & B, at same time. They again repeat the same. What is the average force (take g = 10 m/s2) on wall. (take g = 10 m/s2) Wall Wall BA 2m BA 2m 5m 5m 5m 5m (1) 3.25 N (2) 6 N (1) 3.25 N (2) 6 N (3) 7.5 N (4) 10 N (3) 7.5 N (4) 10 N 1001CT102116064 H-1/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 4. A rod of mass M and length is at rest on plane 4. M horizontal smooth surface.Aparticle of same mass Mu M strike one end with velocity u perpendicular to rod, elastically. Now just after collision what is the kinetic energy of upper half part of rod. Mu 2 M, Mu 2 M, (1) (1) 25 25 Mu 2 Mu Mu 2 Mu (2) (2) 16 16 Mu 2 Mu 2 (3) (3) 9 9 Mu 2 Mu 2 (4) (4) 4 4 5. A disc of mass mand radius R is attached to celling 5. m R l with the help of ropes of length l. Find the time period of small oscillation of disc in the plane of disc. (1) 2 lR/2 l l (1) 2 lR/2 l l g R R/2 g R R/2 (2) 2 l2 R / 22 (2) 2 l2 R / 22 gR/2l gR/2l (3) 2 l (3) 2 l g g (4) none of these (4) H-2/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 6. A bungee jumper is jumping with help of elastic 6. Bungee jumper ideal rope (Force constant K). Jumper steps off (K ) Jumper the bridge and falls from the rest towards the river below. He does not hit the water. The mass of jumper m jumper is m, natural length of rope is l. Gravity is l g g, assume every thing ideal. then, choose the incorrect option : (1) Jumper S k mg 2mgk m2g 2 (1) Jumper comes to rest first time after falling a k k mg 2mgk m2g 2 distance S k (2) Maximum speed attained is mg 2 (2) Jumper mg 2 2gl 2gl k k (3) time of free fall from rest 2l / g (3) t 2l / g (4) time to come to rest for the first time 2l m 2l (4) m g 2 k g 2 k 7. A screwgauage has pitch 1.5 mm and there is no 7. 1.5 mm zero error. Linear scale has marking at 1m m MSD = 1mm and there are 100 equal division of circular scale. When diameter of a sphere is 2mm 3mm measured withinstrument, mainscaleishaving2mm 76th mark visible on linear scale, but 3mm mark is not visible, 76th division of circuler scale is in line with linear scale. What is the diameter of sphere. (1) 2.64 mm (2) 3.14 mm (3) 1.14 mm (4) 2.76 mm (1) 2.64 mm (2) 3.14 mm (3) 1.14 mm (4) 2.76 mm 1001CT102116064 H-3/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 8. A trianguler pulse moving at 2cm/s on a rope 8. 2cm/s approches an end at which it is free to slide on vertical pole. What is the particle speed at the free 3 sec end at 3 sec from the instant shown. 4 4 2cm/s 2cm/s 1cm 1cm 1cm 1cm 1cm 1cm 1cm 1cm (1) 2cm/s (2) 1cm/s (1) 2cm/s (2) 1cm/s (3) 3cm/s (4) 4cm/s (3) 3cm/s (4) 4cm/s 9. One mole of an ideal gas Cp heated by law 9. CCpv=γ P = V P V Cv =γ P=V where P is pressure of gas, V is volume, is a constant what is the heat capacity of gas in the process- (1) C R (1) C R 1 1 (2) C R (2) C R 1 1 (3) C R 1 (3) C R 1 2 1 2 1 (4) C R 1 (4) C R 1 2 1 2 1 H-4/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 10. A planet of core density 3 ρ and outer crust of 10. 3ρρA density ρ has small tunnel in core.Asmall particle B m of mass m is released from end A then time A B required to reach end B : AB AB 1 1 (1) G (2) 2 G (1) G (2) 2 G (3) 1 (4) 2 1 (3) 1 (4) 2 1 G G G G 11. On a hypothetical planet satellite can only revolve 11. in quantized energy level i.e. magnitude of energy of a satellite is integer multiple of a fixed energy. If R 32R 3R two successive orbit have radius R and 2 what could be maximum radius of satellite (1) 9R (2) 6R (1) 9R (2) 6R (3) 4R (4) 3R (3) 4R (4) 3R 1001CT102116064 H-5/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 12. Find effective thermal resistance between A& B 12. of cube made up of 12 rods of same dimensions tksM+dj cus ?ku ds fAcUnqB and shown given thermal conductivity. [ = length [=a= of rod, a = cross section area of rod] ] Thermally insulator Thermally insulator (1) ka (1) ka H K K G H K K G 2 K F K 2 K F K (2) ka (2) ka E 2K E 2K 4 4 (3) 7ka K C (3) 7ka K C 2K 2K D D 2K K 2K 2K K 2K (4) 2ka A K B (4) 2ka A K B 13. Two immiscible liquid are filled in conical flask as 13. shown in figure. The area of cross sectionis shown, a a small hole of area a is made in lower end of cone. Find speed of liquid flow from hole open to air open to air 2gh 2gh h (1) 17a 2 A A2 (1) 1 17a2 h 1 h A2 A gh gh h (2) 17a 2 A2 (2) 1 17a2 1 A2 2gh 3gh 2gh 3gh (3) 1 17a2 (4) 1 17a2 (3) 1 17a2 (4) 1 17a2 32 A2 32 A2 32 A2 32 A2 H-6/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 14. Two verticalparallelplates are partiallysubmerged 14. in water. The distance between plate is equal to d. dT Water rises due to surface tension T, the width of l00 plate is l, and contact angle of water with glass is 00. Find the force of attraction between the plates. hh T 2 2T 2 T 2 2T 2 (1) gd 2 (2) gd 2 (1) gd 2 (2) gd 2 T 2 T 2 T 2 T 2 (3) 2 gd 2 (4) 4 gd 2 (3) 2 gd 2 (4) 4 gd 2 15. For a system with newtons law of cooling 15. applicable the initial rate of cooling is R°C/sec R°C/sec find the time when temperature diff. T0 = T0 = initial temperature difference, is reduced to half. (1) T0 (1) T0 2R 2R (2) 2T0 (2) 2T0 R R (3) n(2).T0 (3) n(2).T0 R R T0 T0 (4) n2 R (4) n2 R 1001CT102116064 H-7/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 16. Figure shows, 2 identical bulbs B1 & B2 and a 16. 2B1 B2 game of spinning wheel divided into 6 equal parts of different colour as shown. At t = 0, switch S is t=0S closed and simultaneously the wheel is set to O rotation about its centre O in clockwise direction with initial angular velocity of 2.5 rad/s. Find 2.5 rad/s the colour onwhich student should place bet if the color appearing on pointer at an instant when both bulbs give same illumination is selected for winning 2rad/s2 (ln 2 = 0.7) given angularretardationofwheeldueto friction and other effects is 2 rad/s2 & take (ln 2 = 0.7) Orange Violet 2 2 B1 Orange Violet Yellow O Indigo Position of wheel at t = 0 20H 2 B2 Yellow O Indigo Position of Green Blue wheel at t = 0 S 4V 2 2 Green Blue B1 20H 2 B2 S 4V (1) Yellow (1) Yellow (2) Blue (2) Blue (3) green (3) green (4) Indigo (4) Indigo H-8/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 17. A thin metallic partition of negligible thickness is 17. inserted between two shaded metallic plates as shown. The remaining ends are then packed with insulating plates to form a container like structure. 2 taps shown are opened at t = 0 and finally closed 2t=0 t=5 s at t = 5s. Find capacitance of system between A AB and B after closing taps. (Assume liquid to be non () conducting) Volumetric flow rates and dieletric constants of liquid are given. k = 3 2m3/s k=2 k = 3 2m3/s 1m3/s k=2 1m3/s A B A B 10 m 10 m 1m 1m 1m 1m 2m 2m (1) 8.85×10–11F (2) 8.85×10–10F (1) 8.85×10–11F (2) 8.85×10–10F (3) 4.42×10–10F (4) 4.42×10–11F (3) 4.42×10–10F (4) 4.42×10–11F 1001CT102116064 H-9/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 18. Consider a gravityfree container as shown. System 18. is initially at rest and electric potential in the regon V=(y3+ 2) J/C m is V = (y3+2) J/C. A ball of charge q and mass m q is released from rest from base starts to move up due to electric field and collides with the shaded face as shown. yy 2m 2m xx q 1 C, m 2kg q 1 C, m 2kg z2 z2 If its speed just after collision is 1.5 m/s and time 1.5m/s for which ball is in contact with shaded face is 0.1 5 s 0.1sec, find external force required to hold the container fixed in its position during collision assuming ball exerts constant force on wall during entire span of collision. (1) 70 N (2) 72 N (1) 70 N (2) 72 N (3) 74 N (4) 76 N (3) 74 N (4) 76 N H-10/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 19. If the figure shown are 2 LED's that can be used 19. 2LED's as a polarity detector. Apply a positive source voltage and a green light results. Negative supplies result in a red light. Packages of such combination are commercially available. Find resestor R to ON20mA ensure a current of 20mA through the ON diode for the configuration. Both diodes have reverse R breakdown voltage of 3V and average turn on 3V voltage of 2V. 2V +- 8V +- 8V Green Green Red Red (1) 250 (1) 250 (2) 300 (2) 300 (3) 325 (3) 325 (4) 400 (4) 400 1001CT102116064 H-11/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 20. Captain jack sparrow tries to observe a fish almost 20. vertically below him in a magical sea of variable y2 1 where y is depth below water surface. y2 1 y Find the apparent depth of fish below water level as seen by captain jack sparrow. Captain Jack Captain Jack Sparrow Sparrow 1m 1m y (=y2+1) y (=y2+1) (1) m (2) m (1) m (2) m 4 2 4 2 (3) m (4) m (3) m (4) m 3 3 21. Figure shows 2 NAND gates followed by a NOR 21. 2 NAND NOR gate. The system is equivalent to one gate G with GX,Y, Z inputs X, Y, Z and output R. What is G? R G? XX Y RY R ZZ (1) OR (2) NAND (1) OR (2) NAND (3) XOR (4) AND (3) XOR (4) AND H-12/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 22. A radiowave has maximum electric field intensity 22. of 10–4V/m on arrival at a receiving antenna. The 10–4V/m maximum magnetic flux density of such a wave is (1) 2 × 103T (2) 3 × 104T (1) 2 × 103T (2) 3 × 104T (3) 5.2 × 10–9T (4) 3.3 × 10–13T (3) 5.2 × 10–9T (4) 3.3 × 10–13T 23. Figure shows the waveform of an amplitude 23. modulated wave. Its modulation factor is – 1 V (in Volt) 1 V (in Volt) (1) (1) 5 10 5 2 3 10 3 -2 (2) 4 -10 (2) 4 2 2 (3) 3 t t 2 (4) 5 2 -2 (3) 3 -10 2 (4) 5 24. A conducting rod PQ of l = 5moriented as shown 24. PQ l = 5m is moving with V = (2m/s) iˆ without any rotation V = (2m/s) iˆ in a uniform magnetic field (3ˆj + 4 kˆ ) (3 ˆj + 4 kˆ ) Tesla. Emf induced in the rod is y y (1) 32 V (1) 32 V (2) 40 V (3) 50 V 5m 2m/s (2) 40 V 5m 2m/s (4) None 53° x (3) 50 V 53° x (4) 1001CT102116064 H-13/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 A K A K 25. 25. A A Figure shows a system of inductor and parallel A plate capacitor made of 2 parallel circular plates of areaAand filled withdielectricliquid of dielectric K constant K as shown. n A small leak develops in capacitor and liquid starts to fill the inductor of same dimensions having n turns / unit length. Find the ratio of magnitude of initial to final reactance of circuit after liquid fills : 2 A2 n2 = C2 the inductor completely AC Given : 2 A2 n2 = c2 c angular frequency of AC r c speed of light and r relative permeability of liquid (K 1) 1 (1 K) K (2) K (1 r ) (K 1) 1 (1 K) (1) (r 1) K (2) K (1 r ) (1) (r 1) (1 r )K 1 K 1 (1 r )K 1 K 1 (1 K) (1 K) (3) (4) K (1 r ) (3) (4) K (1 r ) H-14/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 ice 26. ice 26. Figure shows a thick shell made of electrical 10 cm 20 cm conductivity and has inner & outer radii of 10 cm & 20 cm respectively and is filled with ice 2 = 5V inside it. Its inside and outside surface are kept at different potentialsbya batteryofinternalresistance 25% 2 & = 5V. Find value of for which ice melts at maximum possible rate if 25% of heat generated by shell due to joule heating is used to melt ice. (1) 5 siemen / m (2) 2 siemen / m (1) 5 siemen / m (2) 2 siemen / m 3 3 (3) 1 siemen / m (4) 5 siemen / m (3) 1 siemen / m (4) 5 siemen / m 2 8 2 8 27. Using thomson's model of the atom, consider an 27. atom consisting of two electrons, each of charge –e +2e –e, embeded in a sphere of charge +2e and radius R R. In equilibrium each electron is at a distance d d fromthe centre ofthe atom. What is the equilibrium separation between electrons. RR ed de ed de (1) R (2) R/2 (1) R (2) R/2 (3) R/3 (4) R/4 (3) R/3 (4) R/4 1001CT102116064 H-15/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 28. A plane wavefront travelling in a straight line in 28. vacuum encounters a medium of refractive index . At P, the shape of the wavefront is : P PP (1) (2) (1) (2) P P P P (3) (4) (3) (4) P PP P H-16/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 29. In a YDSE light of two different wavelengths 29. YDSE (12) ( & ) are incident normal to the plane of slits. (slits) 1n 12 The nth maxima of 1 coincides with the mth 2m maxima of exactly in front of one of the slits. (slits) 2 d = 3 mm d = 3 mm D = 1.5 m D = 1.5 m Given D = 1.5 m D= 1.5 m d = 3 mm d = 3 mm 4500 Å < , < 7000 Å 4500 Å < 1 , 2 < 7000 Å 12 n, m 1 (1) 3, 4, 4000 Å then n, m and 1 are (2) 5, 6, 6000 Å (1) 3, 4, 4000 Å (3) 3, 3, 5000 Å (2) 5, 6, 6000 Å (4) 4, 5, 3000 Å (3) 2, 3, 5000 Å (4) 4, 5, 3000 Å 1001CT102116064 H-17/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 30. The K, L and M energy levels of platinum lie 30. K,L M 78, 12 roughly at 78, 12 and 3 keV respectively. The 3 keV X-ray KK ratio of wavelength of K line to that of K line : 22 (1) 3 in X-ray spectrum is : 3 22 (2) 22 (1) 3 3 (2) 22 22 22 (3) 25 (3) 25 25 25 (4) 22 (4) 22 H-18/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 PART B - CHEMISTRY 31. Relative abundance 31. (u) Isotope (%) Atomic mass (u) (%) 12C 98.8 12 12C 98.8 12 13C 1.18 13.1 13C 1.18 13.1 14C 0.02 14.1 14C 0.02 14.1 From above data what is the molecular mass of CH4 CH4 containing all isotopes of carbon but hydrogen 11H ( on 1 H . (Given that atomic mass of hydrogen =1.008) 1 = 1.008) (1) 16.004 u (2) 16.21u (1)16.004 u (2)16.21 u (3) 16.125 u (4) 16.42u (3)16.125 u (4)16.42 u 32. Select the correct statements for quantumnumbers. 32. (i) Magnetic quantum no. (m) gives information (i) (m) about the spatial orientation of orbitals with respect to standard set of co-ordinate axis. (ii) Electron spin quantum no. is represented by (ii) 's' '12 ' 's' and have value '1 ' 2 (iii) Principal quantum no. (n) determine the size (iii) (n) of the orbitals and also to a large extent of the energy of the orbitals. (1) (i), (iii) (1) Only (i), (iii) (2) (iii) (2) Only (iii) (3) (i) (3) Only (i) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) 1001CT102116064 H-19/40
33. Select the correct statement about water. Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 33. (i) Critical temperature of H2O is less than NH3 (i) H2O NH3 (ii) Standard boiling point of water is 100°C. (ii) 100°C (iii) Critical volume of H O is less than NH . (iii) H2O N H3 (1) (ii) 23 (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (iii) (1) Only (ii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) Only (ii), (iii) (3) Only (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) 34. For 1st law of thermodynamics, select the correct 34. option. (1) (1) The energy of a closed system is constant. (2) 1st law is commonly started as the law of (2) conservation of energyi.e., energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. (3) It is applicable only for reversible process. (3) (4) Both (1) & (2) (4) (1) (2) 35. At 1 bar and 298 K, standard molar enthalpy of 35. 298 K formation of which substance is zero. (1) H(g) (1)H (2) H+ (aq) (g) (3) H+ (g) (2)H+ ( ) (4) All correct (3)H+ (g) (4) H-20/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 36. Order of solubilityof solid AgCl(s) in given cases. 36. AgCl (i) In pure water (ii) In presence of 0.1 M AgNO3 (i) (iii) In presence of 2 M aq. solution of KCN (ii) 0.1 M AgNO3 (iv) In presence of 1M aq. solution of Ca(CN)2 (iii) 2M KCN (v) In presence of 2M aq. solution of NH (iv) 1M Ca(CN)2 3 (v) 2M NH (Assuming 100% dissociation of AgNO3, KCN 3 and Ca(CN) ) and complex formation with NH (AgNO3, KCN, Ca(CN)2 100% 23 NH CN– ) and CN– will take place. 3 (1) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (v) (1)(ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (v) (2) (ii) < (i) < (v) < (iv) < (iii) (2)(ii) < (i) < (v) < (iv) < (iii) (3) (ii) < (i) < (v) < (iii) < (iv) (3)(ii) < (i) < (v) < (iii) < (iv) (4) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (v) (4)(i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (v) 37. Select the incorrect option : 37. : (1) Each species appearing in balanced chemical (1) equation must appear in kinetic rate law. (2) Bimolecular elementary reaction is always (2) second order. (3) Hydrolysis of ester in alkaline medium is (3) bimolecular second order reaction. (4) Order and molecularity may be same for a (4) chemical reaction. 38. In CsCltype structure if radius of cation and anion 38. CsCl are 80 pm and 100 pm respectively then closest 80 pm 100 pm distance between two cations is : (1) 180 pm (2) 60 3 pm (1) 180 pm (2) 60 3 pm (3) 90 pm (4) 120 3 pm (3) 90 pm (4) 120 3 pm 1001CT102116064 H-21/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 39. Select the correct option : 39. : (1) Gold sol is negatively charged (1) (2) Peptization is method of purification of sols. (2) (3) Persistent dialysis is method of coagulation. (3) (4) Both (1) and (3) (4)(1) (3) 40. Conductivity of 0.001 M aq.solution of Na SO 40. 25°C 0.001 M Na SO 24 24 is found to be 2.6 × 10–3 S cm–1 at 25°C. If limiting 2.6 × 10–3 S cm–1 Na+ molar conductance of Na+ is 50 S cm2mol–1, then 50S cm2 mol–1 SO42– limiting molar conductance of SO 2– will be ( 4 ). (neglect conductivityof water). (1) 80 S cm2mol–1 (2) 160 S cm2mol–1 (1)80 S cm2mol–1 (2)160 S cm2mol–1 (3) 40 S cm2mol–1 (4) 120 S cm2mol–1 (3)40 S cm2mol–1 (4)120 S cm2mol–1 41. The following compound has four aromatic rings 41. A,B,CD marked as A,B,C and D. Rank them in terms of increasing reactivitytowards electrophilic aromatic substitution? Compound is O CH3 O C N O CH3 C N A A O BO BO D D (1) C < D < A < B (2) C< B< D < A (3) C < B < A < D (4) B < C < D < A (1) C < D < A < B (2) C< B< D < A (3) C < B < A < D (4) B < C < D < A H-22/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 42. Some addition reactions of alkene are given be- 42. low. Identify the one which fits on ALL the given criteria. - Reaction must have- (A) (syn-addition) (A) Stereochemistryofaddition - SYN ONLY (B) Regiochemistryof addition- (B) (Regiochemistry) ANTI-MARKOVNIKOV - OR ANTI-MARKOVNIKOV LIKE (1) HHBera,Rt/lOigOhRt (1) HHBera,Rt/lOigOhRt CH3 CH3 (2) Br2 -H2O (2) Br2 -H2O CH3 CH3 (3) (1)B2H6 -THF (3) (1)B2H6 -THF (2)H2O2 -OH- (2)H2O2 -OH- CH3 CH3 (4) HBr (4) HBr CH3 CH3 1001CT102116064 H-23/40
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 43. Select the reaction NOT representing correct 43. ? major product ? Cl OH Cl OH SOCl2 SOCl2 (1) (1) N Br N Br (2) OH (2) OH (3) Br PBr3 (3) Br PBr3 O O OH NaH OH NaH Cl Cl (4) ICl (4) ICl Anhy.AlCl3 Anhy.AlCl3 44. Which among the following compounds, is a 44. -? -ketohexofuranose? HO O OH HO O OH HO HO (1) OH (1) OH OH OH HOH2C HOH2C H O H O OH OH OH (2) HO (2) HO OH OH HOH2C OH HOH2C HO O (3) HO O (3) HO HO OH OH OH OH OH OH (4) O CH2OH (4) O CH2OH OH OH OH OHOH OH H-24/40 1001CT102116064
Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 45. Identify the one which will NOT produce 45. OH OH as a major product? ? Cl (1) Mg, diethyl ether Cl (1) Mg, diethyl ether (1) (2) O (1) (2) O (3) H2O (3) H2O (2) H3O+ (2) H3O+ (3) O (1)CH(32M)Hg2COl(1 eq.) (3) O (1)CH(32M)Hg2COl(1 eq.) Cl Cl (4) CH3MgCl(1 eq.) (4) CH3MgCl(1 eq.) O O 46. Which does NOT liberate H2 gas on reaction with 46. Na- H2 ? Na-metal ? (1) (2) OH (1) (2) OH (3) (4) CH3COOH (3) (4)CH3COOH 1001CT102116064 H-25/40
47. Identify the correct option : Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/21-03-2017 47. Pair of compounds Reagent used Response of compounds (I) (II) to distinguish the toward the reagent pair of compounds (I) (II) (1) HCHO CH3CHO NaOH – I2 I compound form (1) HCHO CH3CHO NaOH – I2 I yellow ppt, II does , II not PhCHO CH3CHO Tollen’s reagent II compound form (2) PhCHO CH3CHO II (AgNO3 – NH4OH) (2) (AgNO3 – NH4OH) black suspension or a silver mirror , I deposition, I does not Glucose Fructose Bromine water (3) (Br – H2O) (Br2 – H2O) (3) I II O CH3CHO 2, 4-DNP/pH 4-5 I (4) O Dinitrophenyl (4) CH3CHO 2, 4-DNP/ pH 4-5 hydrazine II O X? H3C OH O X? H3C OH O O 48. H3C Cl Y? 48. Cl Y? H3C H H3C H H3C X & Y are respectively : X Y XY XY (1) (a) Li (t–BuO) AlH (a) LiAlH (1)(a) Li (t–BuO) AlH (a) LiAlH 34 34 (b) H2O (b) H2O (b) H2O (b) H2O (2) (a) NaBH , H – Raney Ni (2) (a) NaBH , H – Raney Ni 4 2 4 2 (b) H2O (b) H2O (3) (a) DIBAL – H (a) LiAlH (3) (a) DIBAL – H (a) LiAlH4 4 (b) H2O (b) H2O (b) H O (b) H O 2 2 (4) (a) NaBH4 , (a) DIBAL – H (4)(a) NaBH4 , (a) DIBAL – H (b) H2O (b) H2O (b) H O (b) H O 2 2 (DIBAL - H : Diisobutylaluminium hydride) (DIBAL - H : Diisobutylaluminium hydride) H-26/40 1001CT102116064
49. Which is correctly matched ? Leader Course (Score-I) & Enthusiast Course (Score-II)/21-03-2017 49. ? O (1) H & O OO are Positional isomers H (1) H& H (2) & (2) & H H H H Br Br Br Br are enantiomers Cl Br Cl Br (3) & are enantiomers (3) & Br Cl Br Cl (4) & (4) & are Positional isomers 1001CT102116064 H-27/40
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