Class 10 TERM-I SET-1 Series NBSE/X/2021 Code No. 087/10/1 Roll No. Candidates must write the Code No. on the title page of the OMR sheet. l Please check that this question paper contains 12 printed pages. l Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the OMR sheet. l Please check that this question paper contains 60 questions. l 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. SOCIAL SCIENCE Maximum Marks : 40 Time Allowed : 90 Minutes General Instructions: 1. The Question Paper contains four sections. 2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions. 3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions. 4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions. 5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions. 6. All questions carry equal marks. 7. There is no negative marking. NBSE 2021 1 [P.T.O.
SECTION-A (Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions) 1. Which one of the following statements is not true about Aristocracy? (a) The members of this class owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses. (b) The members of this class spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society. (c) The family members of this class were often connected by ties of marriage. (d) The members of this class often clashed with the ideas of the monarchs. 2. Who was the Commander of the Prussia Army during the mid-nineteenth century? (a) Friedrich Wilhelm II (b) Friedrich Wilhelm IV (c) General von Roon (d) Otto von Bismarck 3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the spirit of conservatism after 1815? (a) Conservatives believed that modern institutions of state should be preserved. (b) A modern army and an efficient bureaucracy could strengthen the autocratic monarchies. (c) They proposed a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. (d) They abolished external custom duties. 4. Which of the following is not true with respect to Allegory? (a) It is a symbol representing an abstract idea. (b) Artist became an allegory of a nation. (c) It is an idea expressed through a person or a thing. (d) An allegorical story has two meanings, one literal and one symbolic. 5. Identify the symbols of the New Britain which were actively promoted. (a) The British Flag, the national anthem, the national song (b) The British Flag, the national anthem, the catholic church (c) The British Flag, the national anthem, the English language (d) The British Flag, the national anthem, the national currency 6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the soils in India from the following options. (a) Alluvial soils – Himalayan river systems (b) Arid soils – Tropical and sub-tropical climate (c) Forest soils – Generally deficient in plant nutrients (d) Laterite soils – Red to brown is colour 7. For agriculture, the keyword today is ‘gene revolution.’ It signifies ____________. Choose the correct option. (a) Green Revolution (b) Genetic Engineering (c) White Revolution (d) Blue Revolution NBSE 2021 2
8. The Report which introduced the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’ and advocated it as the means for resource conservation— (a) Brundtland Commission (b) Agenda 21 (c) Earth Summit (d) Rio Convention 9. Identify the cause that is responsible for uneconomical land-holding in the agriculture sector in India. (a) Zamindari system (b) Moneylender (c) The right of inheritance (d) Collectivisation 10. Land left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years is referred to as (a) Current fallow (b) Other than current fallow (c) Cultruable waste land (d) Waste land 11. Which of the following is the reason for low production of Jute in India? (a) It needs well drained fertile soils. (b) It needs flood plains that should be renewed every year. (c) Due to high cost, it is losing its market to synthetic fibres. (d) Jute mills are technically advanced. 12. Identify the correct reason for very little decentralisation in effective terms before 1992. (a) There were not many Hindi speaking states. (b) No single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. (c) Elections to Local Governments were not held regularly. (d) In case of any dispute the Supreme Court could not make correct decisions. 13. Why is power sharing between different organs of the government being referred to as the horizontal distribution of power? (a) Different organs of the government can exercise unlimited power. (b) Different organs of the government are placed at the same level and can check each other. (c) Different levels of the government can exercise different powers. (d) Different levels of the government can exercise unlimited power. 14. What does Zila Parishad include? (a) Members of Rajya Sabha, MLAs of that district, other officials. (b) Members of Vidhan Parishad, MLAs of that district, other officials. (c) Members of Vidhan Sabha, MPs of that district, other officials. (d) Members of Lok Sabha, MLAs of that district, other officials. 15. Which one of the following statements about power sharing arrangements is correct? (a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions. (b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions. (c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions. (d) Power sharing is not necessary at all. NBSE 2021 3 [P.T.O.
16. Identify the aspect which is not crucial for the practice of federalism. (a) To accommodate regional diversity (b) To promote unity of the country (c) To promote social conflicts (d) Mutual trust and agreement 17. Moral reasons of power sharing stresses on the fact that: (a) It ensures the stability of political order. (b) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups. (c) It gives a fair share to minorities. (d) It is the very spirit of democracy. 18. The literacy rate is highest in Kerala while the Infant Mortality Rate is highest in Bihar. In relation to this information, which of the following statements is true? (a) The standard of living in Kerala is better than Bihar. (b) The standard of living in Bihar is better than Kerala. (c) Most of the people in Kerala and Bihar have good living conditions. (d) Both Bihar and Kerala lack basic necessities of life. 19. A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are optimally required is: (a) Structural unemployment (b) Disguised unemployment (c) Cyclical unemployment (d) Seasonal unemployment 20. Why is groundwater overused? (a) Due to overpopulation (b) Due to industrialisation (c) Due to commercialisation of agriculture (d) All of these 21. Animal husbandry is a part of which of the following sectors? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) None of these 22. What does development criteria include? (a) Income (b) Equal treatment (c) Freedom (d) All of these 23. In the last 100 years, the sector gaining prominence is (a) Secondary Sector (b) Primary Sector (c) Tertiary Sector (d) All of these 24 A big landowner has purchased farm machinery worth 10 lakh to mechanise his farms. 20 small labourers and their families working in his farms are dissatisfied with this decision because they fear unemployment. With reference to the above context, infer the appropriate option. (a) Per capita income is an adequate measure of development. (b) India has low HDI ranking. (c) Different individuals have different development goals. (d) Total income is more suitable for comparison. NBSE 2021 4
SECTION-B (Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions) 25. Following image shows Napoleon on his way back to France after he lost the battle of Leipzig in 1813. What is Napoleon in the image represented as? Options: (a) Postmaster of Rhineland (b) Messenger of Rhineland (c) Courier of Rhineland (d) Guard of Rhineland 26. Why did the Balkan region become very explosive? Select the best suitable option from the following in reference to the context. I. Spread of ideas of intense rivalry II. Spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism III. Spread of the ideas of imperial domination Options: (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) Only II 27. In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are identified through which among the following? (a) Flags (b) National costume (c) Both flags and national costume (d) None of these 28. What does Romanticism refer to? (a) Literary movement (b) Political movement (c) Cultural movement (d) Religious movement 29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below. l found in mountainous regions of Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka l develops in regions with high temperature and heavy rainfall l is low in humus content (a) Laterite soil (b) Alluvial soil (c) Arid soil (d) Forest soil NBSE 2021 5 [P.T.O.
30. Which of the following varieties of coffee is grown in India? (a) American (b) Arabica (c) Espresso (d) Cappuccino 31. Consider the following statements on accommodation in Belgium and select the answer using the codes given below. I. The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government. II. No single community can make decisions unilaterally. III. The state governments are not subordinate to the central government. IV. The government followed preferential policies towards Dutch people. Options: (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV 32. Most of the Sinhala speaking people are ________________, while most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims. (a) Jains (b) Buddhists (c) Christians (d) Parsis 33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): The federal experiment has been successful in India. Reason (R): The nature of democratic principles has been one of the redeeming feature of Indian political System. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true and R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Column A Column B I. Ethnic 1. Either only one or two level of the government II. Majoritarianism 2. A violent conflict between opposing groups within a country III. Civil war 3. Belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country IV. Unitary system 4. A social division based on shared culture Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2 (b) I-2, II-4, III-1, IV-3 (c) I-3, II-1, III-2, IV-4 (d) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1 NBSE 2021 6
35. Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement. (a) Central government, state government, local bodies (b) Legislature, Executive, Judiciary (c) Among different social groups (d) Among different pressure groups 36. Identify the type of federation with the help of the following information. l A large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the national government. l India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of federation. l The central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the states. Select the appropriate option from the following. (a) Balancing together federations (b) Coming together federations (c) Planning together federations (d) Holding together federations 37. Which of the following options prove the impact of the civil war in Sri Lanka? I. Thousands of people of both the Sinhala community and Tamil community were killed. II. Finally preferences were given to Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. III. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods. IV. It caused a terrible setback to the social, cultural and economic lives of the country. Options: (a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV 38. Identify the correct statements about the beginning of the era of coalition governments at the Centre. I. No single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. II. The major national parties had to enter into an alliance with many parties. III. This led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of the National Government. IV. A major judgment of the High Court that made it difficult for the Central Government to dismiss State Governments in an arbitrary manner. Options: (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) II and IV NBSE 2021 7 [P.T.O.
39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): For comparing countries, their average income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Reason (R): Average income is the right tool to compare countries. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true and R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 40. Choose the correct option from the following: List I (Example) List II (Sectors) (a) Aditya Birla Group Tertiary Sector (b) MTNL Private Sector (c) IT and Communication Public Sector (d) Regular terms of employment Organised Sector 41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options : Table For Comparison of Three Countries Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees) Countries I II III IV V Country A 10200 Country B 9500 10500 9800 10000 48000 Country C 25000 500 500 500 500 5000 1000 15000 4000 Mohan is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after every three years of service. He has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as his next job location. He calculates average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to Country A. Identify the reason for which Mohan has chosen country A. (a) National income of its citizens is higher (b) Average income of its citizens is lower (c) Has most equitable distribution of income (d) Most of its citizens are rich and stable 42. Which of the following is also called average income? (a) Per capita income (b) National income (c) Total income (d) None of these 43. There is a strike by the transporters. Thus, the lorries to the cities carry no vegetables, milk, etc. This in turn results in scarcity of goods in the city. The farmers also face losses, as they are not able to sell their goods. Analyse the situation and select the most appropriate option. (a) Interdependence of the three sectors. (b) Transportation of the goods from rural areas to urban areas. (c) Scarcity of goods in the urban areas. (d) Dependence of Primary Sector on Tertiary Sector. NBSE 2021 8
44. As per the workers in different sectors (in millions) the data shown only for organised sector is l Primary Sector — 0.12% (approx) l Secondary Sector — 50% l Tertiary Sector — 48.8% (approx) Out of the three sectors, why did employment in the secondary sector increase? (a) An increase in machinery on farms. (b) People tend to migrate to urban areas to get jobs in factories. (c) Most people are engaged in agricultural activities. (d) All of the above are correct reasons. 45. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature. Reason (R): Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished over a period of time. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true and R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 46. Kamal works in a grocery shop. He works for the entire day and gets no other allowances apart from his wages. He has no leave or paid holidays. Moreover, he can be asked to leave anytime by his employer. Find out in which of the following sectors he is working? (a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector (c) Organised Sector (d) Unorganised Sector SECTION-C (This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive. All through the nineteenth century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen itself through modernisation and internal reforms but with very little success. One by one, its European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence. The Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or political rights on nationality and used history to prove that they had once been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers. Hence the rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long-lost independence. NBSE 2021 9 [P.T.O.
47. Which of the following modern day cities was not a part of the Balkan region? (a) Macedonia (b) Austro-Hungary (c) Croatia (d) Bulgaria 48. Fill in the blank from the given options: The inhabitants of the Balkan region were broadly known as the ________________ . (a) Slavs (b) Hungarians (c) Turks (d) Ottomans 49. An important part of the Bankans was under the control of (a) Italy (b) Germany (c) Ottoman Empire (d) US 50. Each power was keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans. Select the best suitable option with regard to the result of this rivalry. (a) It led to regional unification. (b) It led to formation of independent states. (c) It led to the victory of Balkan states. (d) It led to the First World War. 51. How matters became more complicated for the Balkan states? With reference to the above context, infer the appropriate option: (a) The Balkans became the scene of new regional parties. (b) The Balkans became the scene of conservatism. (c) The Balkans became the scene of big power rivalry. (d) The Balkans became the scene of progress and development. 52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): After 1871, the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe was the area called the Balkans. Reason (R): In the Balkans, the spread of romantic nationalism ideas with the integration of the Ottoman Empire the region very explosive. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true and R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. NBSE 2021 10
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Through, these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir (UT), Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones help in the success of these crops. However, the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and Parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean. Some of the most important rice growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Recently, paddy has also become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro. 53. Which of the following crops grown in rabi season? (a) Wheat, barley, gram, maize (b) Gram, wheat, peas, barley (c) Peas, paddy, cotton, jute (d) Bajra, paddy, wheat, watermelon 54. Read the following statements and find the correct answer from the given options. I. Gram, wheat, barley and peas are rabi crops. II. Kharif crops are harvested in September-October. III. In Assam, two crops of paddy are grown in a year. (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I only (d) III only 55. This important kharif crop is used both for food and fodder– (a) Maize (b) Barley (c) Muskmelon (d) Wheat 56. Which of the following is not a kharif crop? (a) Arhar (b) Moong (c) Mustard (d) Cotton 57. The staple food of India is (a) Soyabean (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Gram 58. Boro, Aus and Aman are types of which of the following crops? (a) Paddy (b) Bajra (c) Maize (d) Jowar NBSE 2021 11 [P.T.O.
SECTION-D (Attempt both the map based questions) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information. A B 59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a soil type. Identify it from the following options. (a) Laterite Soil (b) Black soil (c) Arid soil (d) Forest and Mountainous soil 60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the following options. (a) Meghalaya (b) Sikkim (c) Tripura (d) Assam NBSE 2021 12
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