Important Announcement
PubHTML5 Scheduled Server Maintenance on (GMT) Sunday, June 26th, 2:00 am - 8:00 am.
PubHTML5 site will be inoperative during the times indicated!

Home Explore NBSE Question Papers Social Science Term-1 (Set-2) for Class 10

NBSE Question Papers Social Science Term-1 (Set-2) for Class 10

Published by Full Marks Pvt Ltd, 2021-11-15 07:20:11

Description: NBSE Question Papers Social Science Term-1 (Set-2) for Class 10

Keywords: NBSE Question Papers Social Science Term-1 (Set-2) for Class 10

Search

Read the Text Version

Class 10  TERM-I SET-2 Series NBSE/X/2021 Code No. 087/10/2 Roll No.  Candidates must write the Code No. on the title page of the OMR sheet. l Please check that this question paper contains 12 printed pages. l Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the OMR sheet. l Please check that this question paper contains 60 questions. l 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. SOCIAL SCIENCE Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 40 General Instructions: 1. The Question Paper contains four sections. 2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions. 3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions. 4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions. 5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions. 6. All questions carry equal marks. 7. There is no negative marking. NBSE 2021 1 [P.T.O.

SECTION-A (Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions) 1. Greece was recognized as an independent nation by the: (a) Treaty of London, 1832 (b) Treaty of Paris, 1871 (c) Treaty of Greece, 1871 (d) Treaty of Constantinople, 1832 2. In 1789 France was under the rule of (a) federal government (b) an absolute monarch (c) socialist (d) capitalist 3. Identify the correct option that describes a utopian society. (a) A vision of a society that existed in ancient age. (b) A vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to exist. (c) A vision of modern society in the USA. (d) A vision of a society that exists at all places. 4. In 1834 zollverein or customs union was formed by initiative of which of the following nations? (a) Prussia (b) Russia (c) Italy (d) France 5. Identify the society formed by Giuseppe Mazzini for achieving his goals. (a) Young Europe (b) Young Austria (c) Young Italy (d) Young Germany 6. Choose the correctly matched pair with the farming and its related state. (a) Jhumming – Assam (b) Bewar – Manipur (c) Dipa – Madhya Pradesh (d) Pamlou – Chhattisgarh 7. The term used to achieve development without damaging the environment and without compromising with the needs of the future generations is referred to as __________ development. Choose the correct option. (a) Socio-economic (b) Global environmental (c) Physical (d) Sustainable 8. For agriculture, the keyword today is ‘gene revolution’. What does it include? (a) Green Revolution (b) Genetic Engineering (c) White Revolution (d) Blue Revolution 9. A type of natural resource that exists in a region but have not been utilised is known as (a) Potential resource (b) Actual resource (c) Available resource (d) Developed resource 10. Which one of the following types of farming is practised in areas with high population? (a) Primitive Subsistence Farming (b) Intensive Subsistence Farming (c) Commercial Farming (d) Plantation NBSE 2021 2

11. Population of Sri Lankan Tamils is concentrated in which of the following regions of Sri Lanka? (a) South and East (b) North and South (c) North and East (d) East and West 12. Identify the subject which is not included in the Union List? (a) Defence of the country (b) Agriculture and irrigation (c) Communication and currency (d) Foreign Affairs 13. In a democracy, political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible because: (a) It would push the conflict among communities further. (b) It would lead to messy partition of the country. (c) It would bring about better outcomes. (d) It would undermine the unity of the nation. 14. The distinguishing feature of a Federal Government is (a) The National Government gives some powers to the Provincial Government. (b) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary. (c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government. (d) Government power is divided between different levels of government. 15. Why did Tamilians form various political organisations during 1980s? Identify the correct reason. (a) Their demand for separate state was denied. (b) Their demand for separate election to provinces populated by the Tamils was denied. (c) Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. (d) All of the above 16. Two examples of countries with federal forms of government are (a) Sri Lanka and Belgium (b) India and Sri Lanka (c) India and Pakistan (d) Russia and England 17. Power shared among different organs of the government is called - (a) Community government (b) Separation of powers (c) Division of powers (d) Coalition government 18. What does Infant Mortality Rate refer to? (a) The number of children that die before the age of 2 years as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year. (b) The number of children that die before the age of 5 years as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year. NBSE 2021 3 [P.T.O.

(c) The number of children that die before the age of 1 year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year. (d) The number of children that die before the age of 7 years as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year. 19. Which of the following statements is true in respect of the Public Sector? (a) Big companies own most of the assets. (b) Government owns the assets. (c) A group of people owns most of the assets. (d) An individual owns most of the assets. 20. A person is overweight, if the Body Mass Index (BMI) is more than (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 25 21. Which of the following is not correct about unorganised sector? (a) Workers do not have job security. (b) Workers do not get many benefits like medical, etc. (c) Working hours are fixed. (d) Working conditions are not favourable. 22. Which one among the following is a development goal for the landless rural labourers? (a) To get electricity and water (b) To educate his children in abroad (c) More days of work and better wages (d) To shift in different nations 23. A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are optimally required is: (a) Structural unemployment (b) Disguised unemployment (c) Cyclical unemployment (d) Seasonal unemployment 24. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. GDP is calculated by: Choose the correct option: (a) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year and the sum of production in the three sectors. (b) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the approximate production of the sector for that year. (c) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of sector for that year, and the sum of production in the three sectors. (d) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during last three years provides the total production of the sector for that year. NBSE 2021 4

SECTION-B (Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions) 25. Following picture is depicting Kaiser William I, who is standing at the centre with the chief commander of the Prussian army. Near him is Otto von Bismarck. Which of the following aspects best signifies this pictures? Which of the following aspects best signifies this image? (a) Proclamation of German empire (b) Coronation of Bismarck at Hall of Versailles (c) Frankfurt Parliament in the Church of St. Paul (d) Treaty of Constantinople 26. According to conservatives’ beliefs, which of the following could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe? I. A modern army II. An efficient bureaucracy III. A strong monarch Options: (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only II (d) Only I 27. Which of the following is an allegory for ‘liberty’? (a) Red Cap (b) Crown of Oak (c) Olive Branch (d) Sword 28. Each power was keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans. Identify the best suitable option with regard to the result of this rivalry. (a) It led to regional unification (b) It led to formation of independent states (c) It led to the victory of Balkan states (d) It led to the First World War NBSE 2021 5 [P.T.O.

29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below. ● originally belongs to India ● requires bright sunshine for its growth ● best cultivated in black soil (a) Rubber (b) Jute (c) Sugarcane (d) Cotton 30. Which of the following methods will not be helpful in soil conservation? (a) Contour Ploughing (b) Creating Shelter Belts (c) Strip Cropping (d) Ploughing up and down the slopes 31. Which arguments are in favour of power sharing? I. It reduces conflicts among different communities. II. It accommodates diversities. III. It decreases the possibility of arbitrariness. IV. It denies equal political rights. Options: (a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV (c) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV 32. Which group of countries follows the unitary system? (a) France, Germany and India (b) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka (c) The United States, Japan and Spain (d) Belgium, India and Spain 33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): French-speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful. Reason (R): Belgian Government favoured French-speaking community. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Column A Column B I. Major step towards decentralisation in India 1. 1947 II. The boundaries of Indian states were changed 2. 1992 III. The rise of regional political parties 3. 2019 IV. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill was presented in the Rajya Sabha 4. 1990 NBSE 2021 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2 (b) I-2, II-4, III-1, IV-3 (c) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1 (d) I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3 35. Power shared by two or more political parties is called the- (a) Unitary government (b) Federal government (c) Community government (d) Coalition government 36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following information. • Two or more levels of government. • Sub-units are not subordinate to the central government. • State Government has it own powers. Select the appropriate option from the following. (a) Decentralised system (b) Federal system (c) Unitary system (d) Centralised system 37. Which of the following options prove that power sharing keeps up with the spirit of democracy? I. Ensures maximum participation of people II. Hinders diverse groups III. Brings better outcomes in democracy IV. Upholds the concepts of people’s rule Options: (a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III 38. Identify the correct statements about the federation. I. In a federation the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly demarcated. II. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are specified in the Constitution. III. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces. IV. India is no longer a federation because some power of the states have been devolved to the government bodies. Options: (a) I and II (b) II and IV (c) I and III (d) I and IV 39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals. Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. NBSE 2021 7 [P.T.O.

40. Choose the correct option from the following: List I (Example) List II (Sector) (a) Washerman Service Sector (b) Forestry Tertiary Sector (c) Banking Secondary Sector (d) Manufactured goods Tertiary Sector 41. Read the given data which gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil. Select the correct option which defines how it is essential for the development process of a country. Region/Country Reserves (2017) Number of Years (Thousand Million Barrels) Reserves will last Middle East United States of America 808 70 World 50 10.5 1697 50.2 (a) If prices of crude oil increase this becomes a burden for all. (b) Reserves of crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more. (c) Middle East and USA may face energy crisis in future due to exhaustion of crude oil. (d) Crude oil is a major source of energy for agriculture and industrial development. 42. When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources, this activity belongs to which sector of the economy? (a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector (c) Tertiary Sector (d) Public Sector 43. A man works in a shoe shop and gets little salary after working the whole day. He does not get paid leave, rather than his employer deducts his salary whenever he is absent from work. Find out in which of the following sectors he is working. (a) Organised Sector (b) Unorganised Sector (c) Service Sector (d) Primary Sector 44. According to 2018-19 data, the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and literacy rate of Kerala, Bihar and Haryana are:  Kerala — 10 (IMR), 94 (literacy rate)  Bihar — 35 (IMR), 62 (literacy rate)  Haryana — 30 (IMR), 82 (literacy rate) The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is lowest in Bihar while the literacy rate is highest in Kerala. What does it indicate? (a) Bihar and Kerala lack essential necessities in life. (b) The standard of living in Bihar is better than Kerala. (c) The standard of living in Kerala is better than Bihar. (d) Mostly people in Bihar and Kerala have good living condition. NBSE 2021 8

45. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): An individual who manufactures flour from wheat, is engaged in secondary activity. Reason (R): When some process of manufacturing is used, the product is a part of primary activity. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 46. The human development approach has been the cornerstone of the planning of India since the Eighth Five Year Plan. The Human development report published by UNDP compares countries based on which of the following? (a) Educational level (b) Health status (c) Per capita income (d) All of these SECTION-C (This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France, as you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation. 47. The first expression of nationalism came with which of the following revolutions? (a) The Russian Revolution (b) The French Revolution (c) Greek War of Independence (d) The American Revolution 48. When did the French Revolution take place? (a) In 1889 (b) In 1789 (c) In 1788 (d) In 1751 NBSE 2021 9 [P.T.O.

49. Fill in the blank from the given options. The idea of la patrie mean ___________ . (a) The fatherland (b) The motherland (c) The citizen (d) The constitution 50. Identify the purpose of the French revolutionaries from the following options: (a) To establish republic (b) To provide equal rights for all (c) To create a sense for collective responsibility (d) All of these 51. Which of the following measures was not adopted by the French revolutionaries? (a) Ideas of la patrie and le citoyen (b) The tricolour French flag (c) Hymns composed (d) Regional dialects were encouraged 52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A) : The major changes that came with the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to the body of French people. Reason (R) : External customs duties were abolished and a uniform system of measures was abandoned. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels. Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. NBSE 2021 10

53. Which of the following is not essential for a developed region? (a) Availability of resources (b) Valuation of resources (c) Utilisation of resources (d) Valuation of planning 54. Read the following statements and find the correct answer from the given options. I. Rajasthan has abundance of solar and wind energy. II. Jharkhand, Ladakh and Tripura are very rich in minerals and coal deposits. III. Arunachal Pradesh is also rich in infrastructural development. Options: (a) II and III (b) I and II (c) I Only (d) III Only 55. The state of Rajasthan lacks in (a) Water resources (b) Soil resources (c) Biotic resources (d) Potential resources 56. Which of the following processes is involved in resource planning? (a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. (b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology. (c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. (d) All of the above 57. Which of the following union territories is isolated from other parts of India despite of its very rich cultural heritage? (a) Delhi (b) Chandigarh (c) Ladakh (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 58. Which two famous coal deposits are located in Jharkhand? (a) Bokaro and Jharia (b) Raniganj and Bokaro (c) Singrauli and Korba (d) Jharia and Singrauli NBSE 2021 11 [P.T.O.

SECTION-D (Attempt both the map based questions) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information. B A 59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a dam. Identify it from the following options. (a) Tehri (b) Salal (c) Tungabhadra (d) Hirakud 60. On the same map, ‘B’is also marked as a major wheat cultivating state. Identify it from the following options. (a) West Bengal (b) Kerala (c) Gujarat (d) Punjab NBSE 2021 12


Like this book? You can publish your book online for free in a few minutes!
Create your own flipbook