NEET_Major-Test_X-AT-31-16_A

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Tes t Code: X-AT-31-16 Set A INST RUCT IONS 1. T his paper has 180 questions. 2. Each question has four options, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 3. Each question carries 4 marks. 4. T he paper carries negative marking. 1 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. Maximum T ime: 180 Minutes Total Marks: 720 Name:_____________________________ Roll Number:__________________ SECT ION I-BIOLOGY Q1. Exotic species A) are often endangered. B) usually increase biodiversity. D ) usually reduce biodiversity C) often enhance the habitat for native species. Q2. Which vertebrate group is more vulnerable to extinction? A) Birds B) Amphibians C) Mammals D ) Fishes Q3. From origin of life to its diversification on earth, there have occurred following number of episodes of mass extinction. A) T wo B) T hree C) Four D ) Five Q4. Amazon rain forest, called the 'Lungs of the Planet', contribute following percentage of oxygen by photosynthesis, to earth atmosphere. A) B) C) D) Q5. Which of the following is not the approach for in situ conservation? A) Biosphere reserve B) Sanctuary C) Zoological Park D ) Sacred groove Q6. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our country? A) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch B) Eastern G hats and West Bengal C) Eastern Himalayas and Western G hats D ) Kerala and Punjab Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 1 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q7. A high density of a protected animal in a National Park can result into A) mutualism B) intraspecific competition C) emigration D ) predation Q8. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India? A) Indo-G angetic Plain B) Eastern G hats C) Aravalli Hills D ) Western G hats Q9. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation? A) National park B) Wildlife sanctuary C) Seed bank D ) Sacred groves Q10. IUCN stands for B) International Union for Conservation of A) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature Nature C) Indian Union for Chemical Nomenclature D ) International Union for Conservation of Nutrients Q11. Hotspots of biodiversity means A) areas of the earth that contain many B) species serves as proxy for entire endemic species. communities in particular area. C) species in particular niche/area. D ) species diversity at particular area. Q12. Which of the following is the most serious threat to biodiversity? A) Competition from exotic species B) Commercial harvesting C) Habitat loss D ) Overexploitation Q13. Which of the following characteristics would cause a country to be considered a high-priority region for conservation efforts? A) A high degree of endemism B) Having low species richness C) Having little natural habitat remaining D ) All of the above Q14. In cryopreservation, germplasm is maintained at _______. A) B) C) D ) none of these Q15. E nd emic plants and animals are those w hic h are A) cosmopolitan in distribution. B) restricted to certain area. C) found in arctic region. D) gregarious in habitat. Q16. Which of the following is not currently a major cause of the global reduction in biodiversity? A) Overexploitation B) G lobal warming C) Habitat destruction D ) Introduction of foreign predators and disease Q17. T he total number of national parks and sanctuaries in India are A) 82 national parks and 410 sanctuaries. B) 83 national parks and 421 sanctuaries. C) 85 national parks and 450 sanctuaries. D ) 90 national parks and 448 Sanctuaries Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 2 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q18. T he Cichlid species of Lake Victoria were driven to, or nearly to, extinction by the introduction of _________. A) North American sturgeon B) Nile perch C) Eels D ) Bass Q19. Mark the correct statement A) Amazon rain forest has greatest B) According to Robert May estimates, the biodiversity on earth. global species diversity is 7 million. C) Biodiversity is greatest in tropics D ) All of the above. Q20. B est w ay to preserv e the w ild life is A) to kill the predators C) to preserve natural habitat. B) vaccinize the animals D ) optimize the breeding habit. Q21. Which one of the following shows concept of species-area relationship? A) T he number of species in an area increases B) Large species require larger habitat areas w ith the siz e of the area. than do smaller species. C) Most species within any given area are D ) T he larger the area, the greater the endemic. extinction rate. Q22. Which one of the following statement is true for genetic diversity? A) T he total genetic information is within all B) T he total phenotypic information is within individuals of species. all individuals of a species. C) T he variety of life-forms on earth have the D ) T he variety of biotic communities in a same genetic information. region along with abiotic components. Q23. Scared groves are found in A) Khasi and jaintia Hills in Meghalaya. B) Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan. D ) All of the above C) Western ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra and Sarguja, Chanda and B astar areas of Mad hy a Prad esh. Q24. Modern ex-situ conservation includes i. cryopreservation techniques ii. in vitro-fertilization iii. propagation of plants by using tissue culture methods A) Only i B) Only iii C) ii and iii D ) All of these Q25. Biodiversity loss occurs due to the reasons given below. i. Habitat loss and fragmentation B) i, ii and iii ii. Co-extinction D ) all of these iii. Over-exploitation iv. Alien species invasion Identify the correct reasons. A) i and ii C) ii, iii and iv Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 3 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q26. T he major cause of loss of numbers of migratory birds is/are I. bad weather II. urbanization III. pesticides IV. fragmentation V. loss of habitat A) I and II B) IV and V C) II, III and V D ) II, IV and V Q27. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II a. Nile Perch in Lake Victoria i. Obvious reasons for biodiversity conservation b. Narrowly utilitarian ii. Habitat destruction c. Main cause for biodiversity iii. High endemism loss d. Hotspots iv. Alien Species A) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii B) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii C) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv D ) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv Q28. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II a. Term biodiversity i. Edward Wilson b. In-situ conservation ii. Co-extinction c. Plant pollinator Mutualism iii. On-site conservation d. Ex-situ conservation iv. Off-site conservation A) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii B) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii C) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv D ) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 4 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q29. Match the following and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II a. Narrowly i. Conserving biodiversity for major ecosystem services. utilitarian argument b. Broadly ii. Conserving biodiversity for the philosophically or spiritually utilitarian need to realiz e that ev ery spec ies has intrinsic v alue and argument moral duty to pass our biological legacy in good order to future generation. c. Ethical iii. Conserving biodiversity for direct economic benefits like argument food, medicine, industrial products etc. A) a - i, b - ii, c - iii B) a - iii, b - i, c - ii C) a - ii, b - i, c - iii D ) a - i, b - iii, c - ii Q30. Match the following and then choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II a. Over-exploitation by humans i. Environment damage and treat to native b. Introduction of Nile Perch in ii. D ecline in plant production Lake Victoria c. Lesser solar energy iii. Extinction of more than 2000 species of native birds d. Introduction of Water Hyacinth iv. Extinction of Cichlid fish in India e. Colonization of tropical pacific v. Extinction of Passenger pigeon Islands A) a - ii, b - v, c - iv, d - iii, e - i B) a - v, b - iv, c - ii, d - i, e - iii C) a - i, b - ii , c - iii, d - iv, e - v D ) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - v, e - iii Q31. T he species, though insignificant in number, determine the existence of many other species in a given ecosystem. Such species are known as _________. A) endemic species B) sacred species C) extinct species D ) keystone species Q32. If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct B) the wild areas will be safe for man and A) hyenas and wolves will become scarce. domestic animals. C) its gene pool will be lost forever. D ) the populations of beautiful animals like d eers w ill g et stabiliz ed . Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 5 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q33. Matc h the animals g iv en in c olumn A w ith their loc ation in c olumn B and selec t the c orrec t option from the codes given below. Column-A Column-B a. D odo i. Africa b. Quagga ii. Russia c. T hylacine iii. Mauritius d. Steller's sea cow iv. Australia A) a - i; b - iii; c - ii; d - iv B) a - iv; b - iii; c - i; d - ii C) a - iii; b - i; c - ii; d - iv D ) a - iii; b - i; c - iv; d - ii Q34. Which of the following forest plants controls the light conditions at the ground? A) Lianas and climbers B) Shrubs C) Tall trees D ) Herbs Q35. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Parthenium is an endemic species of our B) African catfish is not a threat to country. indigenous catfishes. C) Steller's sea cow is an extinct animal. D ) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass. Q36. Which of the following parts has a high density of organisms? A) G rasslands B) Savannahs C) D eciduous forests D ) T ropical rain forests Q37. T he historic convention on Biological D iversity held in Rio-de-Janeiro in 1992 is known as ________. A) CIT IES convention B) T he earth summit C) G -16 summit D ) MAB programme Q38. A stable biological community with high species richness shows A) Too much variation in productivity from B) No resistance to invasions by alien species year to year C) Resistance to occasional, natural or man- D ) Lower productivity made disturbances Q39. Select the correct statement: A) Within a region species richness B) Nearly 45,000 species of animals and twice as many plants have been recorded decreased with increasing explored area from India upto a limit as observed by G erman In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the poles towards the naturalist Alexander von Humboldt equator C) More solar energy available in the tropics, D ) contributes to higher productivity Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 6 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q40. T he sixth extinction presently in progress is different from the previous episodes of extinction as A) Mass extinction of species is taking place B) Earlier episodes were anthropogenic for the first time on earth C) It is to times faster D ) Extinction rates faster in pre-human times Q41. Select the odd one out w.r.t. biodiversity hotspot regions. A) Show very high levels of species richness B) High degree of endemism C) Identified for minimum protection D ) Are regions of accelerated habitat loss Q42. Identify and in the given figure showing global biodiversity of proportionate number of species of major taxa of plants A) Fungi; Angiosperms; B) Angiosperms.; Fungi; Lichens Lichens Lichens; Mosses D ) Mosses; Ferns; Algae C) Algae; Q43. Select the inc or r e c t match w.r.t. protected animal and their National Park/Sanctuary A) One horned rhinoceros : Kaziranga B) Elephants : Periyar sanctuary National Park D ) Snow Leopard : Ranthambore National C) Lion : G ir National Park Park Q44. Select the correct statements w.r.t. biodiversity conservation a. Whole ecosystem and its biodiversity at all levels is protected and conserved in ex-situ approach. b. Sacred groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants. c. Core zone of a biosphere comprises an undisturbed and legally protected ecosystem d. Animals that have become extinct in the wild cannot be maintained in zoological parks. A) and B) and C) and D ) and Q45. Which of the following traits makes a species susceptible to extinction? A) High genetic variability B) Large population size C) Pest infestation D ) Low reproductive rate Q46. According to D avid T ilman, greater is the diversity greater is the primary productivity. Which of the following types of ecosystems do not follow the above statement? A) T ropical rain forests B) Coral reef C) T ropical deciduous forest D ) Sugar cane fields Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 7 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q47. T ropics are more diverse than temperate regions because they/their A) Remained disturbed for many years B) Environment was more seasonal D ) Received less solar energy C) Environment was more constant and predictable Q48. In his famous ‘R ivet popper hypothesis’ Stanford ec olog ist Paul E hrlic h c ompared the rivets on the wings of an airplane with A) Exotic species B) Key stone species C) Endemic species D ) Ecosystem Q49. Find odd one out w.r.t. narrowly utilitarian reasons for conserving biodiversity. A) Food and fibres B) D rugs and industrial products C) Pollination D ) Bioprospecting Q50. T he chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is A) Australopithecus Ramapithecus B) Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo Homo habilis Homo erectus habilis Homo erectus C) Ramapithecus Homo habilis D ) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus Homo erectus Ramapithecus → Homo erectus Q51. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents A) stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this B) disruptive as it splits the population into character in the population two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output C) stabilizing followed by disruptive as it D ) directional as it pushes the mean of the stabiliz es the population to prod uc e hig her character in one direction yielding cows Q52. Whic h of the follow ing amino-ac id s w as not found to be sy nthesiz ed in Miller's ex periment? A) alanine B) glycine C) aspartic acid D ) glutamic acid Q53. If you want to see a dinosaur, it would be best to see the controls of your machine for the A) Mesozoic era B) Coenozoic era C) Palaeozoic D ) Proterozoic Q54. Part of endosperm remains liquid in coconut because A) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis B) Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis C) Formation of liquid endosperm is not D ) None of the above dependent upon karyokinesis and cytokinesis Q55. What would be the number of chromosomes in endosperm layer if megaspore mother cell contains chromosomes? A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 8 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q56. Recognise the figure given below and select the correct option: B) d - egg, c - antipodals, b - synergids, a - polar nuclei A) a - egg, b - antipodals, c - synergids, d - polar nuclei D ) c - egg, a - antipodals, b - synergids, d - polar nuclei C) c - egg, a - antipodals, d - synergids, b - polar nuclei Q57. D uring formation of pollen grains, a microscope mother cell undergoes A) One meiotic division B) One mitotic division C) One meiotic and one mitotic division D ) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions Q58. One of the most resistant biological material is A) Lignin C) Lignocellulose B) Hemicellulose D ) Sporopollenin Q59. Match the following and choose the correct option: A. T rophoblast P. Embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium B. Cleavage Q. G roup of cells that would differentiate as embryo C. Inner cell mass R. Outer layer of blastocyst attached to the endometrium D . Implantation S. Mitotic division of zygote A) A Q; B P; C R; D S B) A R; B S; C Q; D P C) A R; B P; C Q; D S D ) A Q; B S; C R; D P Q60. After implantation, finger - like projections appear on the trophoblast called A) Placenta B) Umbilical cord C) Amnion D ) Chorionic villi Q61. Identify the wrong statement from the following: A) High levels of Oestrogen triggers the B) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give ovulatory surge rise to functional ova in regular cycles from puberty C) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules D ) are poorly motile/non-motile Progesterone level is high during the postovulatory phase of menstrual cycle Q62. Which among the following has chromosomes? A) Spermatogonia B) Zygote C) Secondary oocyte D) Oogonia Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 9 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q63. Match the following parts of a sperm with their respective functions and choose the correct option: Column I Column II A. Head P. Enzymes B. Middle piece Q. Sperm motility C. Acrosome R. Energy D . Tail S. G enetic material A) A Q; B S; C P; D R B) A S; B R; C P; D Q C) A S; B P; C Q; D R D ) A Q; B P; C R; D S Q64. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II A. T raditional method P. Saheli B. Once a week pill Q. T ubectomy C. Sterilisation technique R. Progestasert D . IUD s S. Periodic abstinence A) A R; B Q; C P; D S B) A P; B S; C Q; D R C) A S; B P; C Q; D R D ) A Q; B R; C S; D P Q65. ST D s which are transmitted by blood transfusion is A) HIV, Hepatitis - B B) HIV, Hepatitis - B and G enital warts C) HIV, Hepatitis - B and G enital Herpes D) All of the above Q66. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option: Column I Column II A. Oral contraceptives P. Blocks gamete transport B. Condoms Q. Prevents implantation C. Cu 7 R. Prevents ovulation D . T ubectomy S. Prevents sperm from reaching the cervix A) A Q; B S; C R; D P B) A R; B S; C Q; D P C) A R; B P; C Q; D S D ) A S; B R; C P; D Q Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 10 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q67. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the Fallopin tube? A) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage B) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell C) Embryo at 32 cell stage stage D ) Zygote only Q68. T he permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for A) detecting sex at the unborn foetus B) artificial insemination D ) detecting any genetic abnormality C) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother Q69. Sickle cell anemia caused by the presence of mutant allele in ________ chromosome A) seventh B) eighth C) tenth D ) eleventh Q70. (Cat-cry) syndrome A) D ue to loss of segment of -chromosome B) '' due to loss of segment of chromosome C) -due to loss of segment of chromosome D ) None of the above Q71. Who was the first map to chromosomes? A) Alfred Sturtevant C) D own B) Slton D ) Mendel Q72. Haploids are more suitable for studies of mutation than the diploids. T his is because A) haploids are reproductively more stable B) mutagens penetrate in haploids more than diploids. effectively than diploids. C) haploids are more abundant in nature than D ) all mutations, whether dominant or diploids. recessive are expressed in haploids. Q73. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing A) between two genotypes with recessive B) between two hybrids trait D ) between two genotypes with dominant C) the hybrid with a double recessive trait genotype Q74. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show recombination frequency? A) T he genes are tightly linked B) T he genes may be on different chromosomes C) If the genes are present on the same D ) T he genes show independent assortment chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis Q75. In eukaryotes which of the following is removed from initially transcribed RNA before it is transported to the cytoplasm for translation? A) Intron B) Poly A tail C) Ribosome binding site D ) cap Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 11 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q76. In prokaryotes, the predominant site for control of gene expression is the A) transcription initiation B) processing level C) transport of mRNA D ) translation level Q77. In Hershey and Chase experiment, what finding led to the conclusion that D NA is the genetic material? A) T he presence of radioactivity in the B) T he presence of radioactivity in the bacteria when was used supernatant when was used C) T he presence of radioactivity in the D ) T he presence of radioactivity in the bacteria when was used supernatant when was used Q78. In eukaryotes RNA polymerase II transcribes A) RNA C) RNA B) RNA D) RNA Q79. VNT R are useful in D NA profiling because they I. Are hypervariable II. Are inherited III. Synthesize constitutive enzymes A) I, II, III are correct B) I and II are correct C) I and III are correct D ) II and III are correct Q80. Proto-oncogenes are seen in A) Normal cells C) Virus infected cells B) Malignant cells D ) Cells exposed to -rays Q81. T he type of immunity responsible for graft rejection by a recipient body is A) Innate immunity B) Humoral immunity C) Cell mediated immunity D ) Either B or C Q82. Infec tion w ith Hemophilus influenz a, espec ially in c hild ren, c an c ause A) D iptheria B) SARS C) Pneumonia D ) D ysentry Q83. T he disease chikungunya is transmitted by A) House flies C) Cockroach B) Aedes mosquitoes D ) Female anopheles Q84. A person was saved from poisonous snake bite by anti-venom injection. Which of the following immunity explains this form of protection? A) Artificially acquired passive immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Naturally acquired active immunity D ) Artificially acquired active immunity Q85. Morphine is obtained from A) the latex of poppy plant Papaver B) the inflorescences of Cannabis sativa somniferum D ) Atropa belladona C) coca plant Erythroxylum coca Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 12 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q86. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of A) two different related species B) more closely related individuals within same breed for - generations C) animals within same breed without having D ) superior males and females of different common ancestors breeds Q87. Match the following. Column I Column II A. Streptokinase P. To prevent blood clotting B . Penic illin Q. To decrease cholesterol C. Statins R. Immunosuppressor D . Cyclosporin- S. Antibiotic A) A P, B Q; C R; D S B) A P, B R; C S; D Q C) A R, B P; C Q; D S D ) A S, B R; C P; D Q Q88. Which microorganism is irrelevant as a biocontrol agent? A) Virus B) Bacteria C) Algae D ) Fungus Q89. T his is an inverted pyramid B) pyramid of number in a grassland A) pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem. ecosystem. C) pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem. D ) pyramid of biomass a grassland ecosystem. Q90. Pyramid of energy in a river ecosystem is A) always upright C) always erect B) constant D ) declining SECT ION II-PHYSICS Q91. A charge is located at the center of a cube. T he electric flux through any face of the cube is: A) B) C) D) Q92. T he electric potential and electric field due to an extremely short dipole at a distance from it is proportional to A) and B) and C) and D ) and Q93. A particle of mass 2 kg and charge is projected vertically with a velocity . T here is a uniform horiz ontal elec tric field of . Mark the incorrect option. A) T he horizontal range of the particle is B) T he time of flight of the particle is C) T he maximum height reached is D ) T he horizontal range of the particle is Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 13 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q94. If four charges each of magnitude q are fixed at the vertices of a square while a charge is placed at the center of the square is free to move starting. T he acceleration of charge at when it is released from rest is A) B) C) D) Zero Q95. T hree capacitance, each of are provided. T hese cannot be combined to provide the resultant capacitance of: B) A) D) C) Q96. A parallel-plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the source of potential difference. If the plates of the capacitor are then moved farther apart by the use of insulated handle, which one of the following is true? A) T he charge on the capacitor increases B) T he charge on the capacitor decreases C) T he capacitance of the capacitor D ) T he potential difference across the plates increases increases Q97. In the given arrangement of the capacitors, each capacitor has got of energy. T hen the potential difference across capacitor is: A) B) C) D) Q98. If we take two capacitors of capacitances and connected in series with a battery, the charge flowing through the circuit is . What is the potential difference produced by the battery? A) B) C) D) Q99. Six resistors each of resistance are connected as shown in fig. What is the effective resistance between points and ? A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 14 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q100. T he effective resistance between points A and B in the network shown in the figure is: A) B) C) D) Q101. When a current of is passed through a galvanometer having a coil of resistance , it shows full scale deflection. T he value of the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer to convert it into a voltmeter of range is: A) B) C) D) Q102. A copper wire of length and area of cross section carries a current of . If the resistivity of copper is , the electric field across the wire is: A) B) C) D) Q103. T hree infinite straight parallel current carrying conductors are shown in the figure. T he force experienced by the middle conductor of length is A) towards right B) towards left C) towards left D) Zero Q104. A current is flowing through the sides of an equilateral triangle of a side . T he magnitude of the magnetic field at the centroid of the triangle is A) B) C) D) zero Q105. Statement– : A charged particle can never move along a magnetic field line in absence of any other force. Statement– : Force due to the magnetic field is given by . A) Statement- is true, Statement- is true B) Statement- is true, Statement- is true and Statement- is correct explanation for and Statement- is not correct explanation Statement- . for Statement- . C) Statement- is true and Statement- is D ) Statement- is false and Statement- is false. true. Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 15 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q106. What is the magnitude of a magnetic force per unit length on a wire carrying a current of and making an angle of with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of A) B) C) D) Q107. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic field. T he field is increased till the magnetization bec omes c onstant. If the temperature is now d ec reased , the mag netiz ation A) Will increase B) Will decrease C) Remains constant D ) May increase or decrease Q108. A magnetic needle of negligible width and thickness as compared to its length oscillates in horizontal plane with period . If it is broken into equal parts, then the time period of each part in same field will be A) B) C) D) Q109. If the ind iv id ual mag netic moment of atom of a substanc e is non-z ero, then A) It is magnetic B) It may diamagnetic C) It may not be magnetic D ) It is definitely not paramegntic Q110. Angle of dip at places is and T he ratio of the vertical component of earth magnetic field in these areas will be B) A) C) D) Q111. A long horiz ontal w ire ex tend s from North E ast to South West. It is falling w ith a speed of , at rig ht ang les to the horiz ontal c omponent of the earth's mag netic field , of A) . T he value of the induced emf in wire is: C) B) D) Q112. T here are two long co-axial solenoids of same length . T he inner and outer coils have radii and and number of turns per unit length and respectively. T he ratio of mutual inductance to the self-inductance of the inner-coil is: A) B) C) D) Q113. T he self induced emf of a coil is volts. When the current in it is changed at uniform rate from to in , the change in the energy of the inductance is: A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 16 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q114. In the branch of a circuit, as shown in figure, a current is flowing, where ' ' is the time in second. At t=0, the value of is A) B) C) D) Q115. A conducting rod of length is moving at a speed of making an angle of with its length. A uniform magnetic field exists in a direction perpendicular to the plane of motion. T hen A) B) C) D) Q116. In a series resonant circuit, the voltage across is and with . T he resonant frequency is . At resonance, the voltage across is A) B) C) D) Q117. In a circuit, and are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency . T he current leads the voltage by . T he value of is A) B) C) D) Q118. A resistance of is connected to a source of an alternating potential T he time taken by the current to change from the peak value to rms value, is and A) B) C) D) Q119. T he e.m.f volts is applied to an circuit containing inductance resistance . T he amplitude of current is - A) B) C) D) Q120. A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices and as shown in the figure. T he surfaces of all media are parallel . If the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray , we must have A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 17 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q121. What is the position and nature of image formed by lens combination shown in figure? ( are focal lengths) A) from point at left; virtual B) from point at right; real C) from point at right, real D ) from point at right, real Q122. A liquid is placed in a hollow prism of angle If angle of minimum deviation is , what is the refractive index of the liquid? B) A) D) C) Q123. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vaccum is T hen the velocity of light in medium is A) B) C) D) Q124. An Astronomical Telescope has objective focal length and eyepiece focal length . T hen the length of telescope tube is A) B) C) D ) None of these. Q125. A plane polarised light is incident normally on a tourmaline plate. Its vector make an angle of with the optic axis of the plate. Find the percentage difference between initial and final intensities. Q126. In a single slit diffraction experiment first minima for coincides with first maxima for wavelength . Calculate Q127. In a Young's double slit experiment, the path different at a certain point on the screen between two interfering waves is of wavelength. T he ratio of the intensity at this point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to Q128. T wo beams of light having intensities and interferes. T he phase difference between the beams is at point A and at point . T hen the difference between the resultant intensities at and is A) B) C) D) Q129. T he surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of wavelength . T he kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was found to be . T he work function of the metal used is . A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 18 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q130. T he figure shows variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a photo-sensitive surface for three different radiations.Let and be the intensities and and be the frequencies for the curves and respectively. T hen A) and B) and C) and D) and Q131. T he ratio of de Broglie wavelength of an electron and an particle which are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100 V is A) B) C) D) Q132. T he maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy fall on it is T he stopping potential in volts is A) B) C) D) Q133. If microwaves, rays, infrared, gamma rays, ultra-violet, radio waves and visible parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are denoted by respectively, which of the following is the correct arrangement in ascending order of wavelength : A) B) C) D) Q134. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy : I. Blue light II. Yellow light III. X-ray IV. Radiowave. A) IV, II, I, III B) I, II, IV, III C) III, I, II, IV D ) II, I, IV, III Q135. D uring the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium : A) Electric energy density is double of the B) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density. magnetic energy density. C) Electric energy density is equal to the D ) Both electric and magnetic energy magnetic energy density. d ensities are z ero. Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 19 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A SECT ION III-CHEMIST RY Q136. Among the followng the azeotropic mixture is A) B) C) D ) Chloro benzene bromobenzene Q137. When of naphthoic acid is dissolved in of benzene , a freez ing point d epression of is observed. T he van ’t Hoff factor is A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 2 D ) 0.2 Q138. is dissociated in aqueous solution of concentration. (G iven for water ). T he solution freezed at A) B) C) D) Q139. T he increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following nucleophiles is: A. B. C. D . A) (B) < (C) < (A) < (D ) B) (A) < (D ) < (C) < (B) C) (D ) < (A) < (C) < (B) D ) (B) < (C) < (D ) < (A) Q140. -chloro- -butanol B) Product of the above reaction is: A) C) D) Q141. In the given pair of compound, in which pair the second compound is more reactive than first toward reaction? A) B) C) D) Q142. How many unit cells are present in cube shaped ideal crystal of of mass ? [Atomic masses , for ] A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 20 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q143. A metal c ry stalliz es in lattice. T he of fraction of edge length not covered by atom is A) B) C) D) Q144. T he order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide with the following compounds is A) III > IV > I > II B) III > I > II > IV C) IV > II > I > III D ) IV > III > II > I Q145. Which of the following is correct for Frenkel defect? A) D ensity of the crystal decreases B) Conduction increases C) Conduction decreases D ) Crystal becomes charged electrically Q146. Which one of the following graphs between molar conductivity versus is correct? A) B) C) D) Q147. Pure water does not conduct electricity A) It is neutral C) It almost totally unionized B) It readily decomposed D ) Has a low boiling point Q148. current is passed for minutes in aq . If volume of gas evolved at cathode is at ST P then volume of gas evolved at anode. A) B) C) D) Q149. T he Brownian motion in colloids is a consequence of A) Enthalpy change during the formation of B) Attractive forces between the colloidal colloids particles and the molecules of dispersion medium C) T he impact of molecules of the dispersion D ) T he movement of positively charged medium on the colloidal particles colloidal particles to negatively charged particles Q150. reacts with in alkaline to give A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 21 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q151. and are respectively B) A) D) C) Q152. When is added to an aqueous solution containing the complex ion produced is B) A) D) C) Q153. Which of the following is true for -methyl butan- -one? 1. T his compound is an isomer of pent- -en- -ol. 2. It may be prepared by acidic catalysed hydration of -methyl- -butyne. 3. T his compound on oxidation with followed by acidic hydrolysis gives propionic acid. 4. It gives negative Fehling’s test while positive Iodoform test. A) B) solution, the product(s) obtained is/are C) D) Q154. When -chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with A) B) C) D) Q155. ( ) on reaction with and , followed by an acid hydrolysis produces ( ) (an aldehyde). T he conversion of ( ) to ( ) can also be carried out by which of the following reagents? A) B) C) D) Q156. In this sequence of reaction, the (Z) is B) Ethanol A) Ethylene bromide D ) Ethylidene bromide C) Ethyl bromide Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 22 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q157. , is known as T he reduction reaction, A) Clemmensen reduction B) Wolff-Kishner reduction C) Rosenmund reduction D ) Catalytic reduction Q158. T he half-life period of a reaction at initial concentrations and are and respectively. T he order of reaction is A) B) C) D) Q159. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism? A) B) C) D) Q160. In spectrochemical series chlorine is above than water i.e., , this is due to A) good acceptor properties of B) strong donor and good acceptor C) good donor properties of properties of D ) larger size of than Q161. Metal carbonyls are one of the most important compounds that carbon forms. T he ability of to form metal carbonyls like arises due to A) Lone pair on the carbon atom B) Lone pairs on the oxygen atom C) T he bond between carbon and oxygen D ) High electronegativity of oxygen Q162. T he IUPAC name for is ) cobalt (III) B) A) Pentaammine (thiocyanato- Pentaammine (thiocyanato- ) cobalt (III) chloride ) cobalt (III) D ) chloride C) Pentaamine (thiocyanato- Pentaammine (mercapto- ) cobalt (III) chloride chloride Q163. Amongst the following amines, which one has the highest value in aqueous solution? A) Methanamine B) , C) Ethanamine D ) Benzenamine Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 23 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q164. An organic compound is found to be insoluble in dilute acid and base. On treatment with , the compound formed is devoid of nitrogen and is soluble in . On nitration, it produces mono nitrosubstituted product. T he organic compound is: A) B) C) D) Q165. Identify the strongest and weakest bases among the following I. II. III. IV. A) Strongest Weakest B) Strongest Weakest IV I III II C) Strongest Weakest D ) Strongest Weakest I IV III IV Q166. Isopropylamine In the above sequence, and are respectively A) isopropyl alcohol, ethanal B) ethanal, imine C) imine, acetone D) acetone, propan-2-ol Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 24 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q167. Amine is not formed in the reaction I. hydrolysis of B) I, IV II. reduction of D ) I, II, III III. hydrolysis of IV. hydrolysis of T he correct answer is A) I, II, IV C) II, III Q168. Which among the following is/are correct order of basicity? A) B) C) D ) Both A and B Q169. Acetonitrile on complete reduction gives A) Propanamine C) Ethanamine B) Methanamine D ) Butanamine Q170. B) T he compounds (A), (B) and (C) respectively are A) C) D) Q171. Identify the product in the reaction A) B) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 25 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q172. T he acid obtained through the following sequence of reaction is: A) Succinic acid B) Malonic acid C) Maleic acid D ) Oxalic acid Q173. T he compound that undergoes decarboxylation most readily under the given conditions is A) B) C) D) Q174. on heating gives A) Open chain ketone B) monocarboxylic acid C) cyclic ketone D ) cylic anhydride Q175. In the reaction, , the product is : A) Acetaldehyde B) Acetylene C) Ethylene D ) Acetyl chloride Q176. T he reaction of the following labelled acid with will give which ester(s) from and A) only B) only C) and D ) only Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 26 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q177. Which of the following is the correct set of reagents for the given conversion? A) B) C) D) Q178. ' ' and ' ' are respectively B) A) C) D) Q179. B) A) D) C) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 27 / 28

Av anti - 1 2-PC MB (SI-1 )-PC B -22 NOV - Set A Q180. Consider the following reaction T he product is B) A) C) D) Avanti Learning Centres Pvt Ltd. All rights reserved. Page - 28 / 28