iSW MOET 6 Practice Test

UNIT TEST 9 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. I think students ............ to school on a special bus in the future. A. will travel B. are travelling C. travel 2. Jack ............ go swimming than do athletics on hot and sunny days. A. would prefer B. would rather C. would like 3. Be careful! There may be a snake ............ the grass. A. on B. under C. in 4. ............ will life be like in 100 years? A. What B. How C. Where 5. Mary likes ............ . She can make very beautiful things from paper and cloth. A. sports B. crafts C. building 6. What does the sign say? A. Your dog is not in our place. B. You cannot bring your dog along in this area. C. You must not take our dog away. 7. What does the notice say? AUTOMATIC A. Remember to clean the door. DOOR B. Do not forget to close the door. C. Do not stay near the door. KEEP CLEAR 8. A fly-cam records images from above, and a person ............ the ground controls it. A. at B. in C. on 9. Helen enrols in a sports club ............ she loves volleyball a lot. A. when B. because C. or 10. Don’t buy any milk. We have ............ in the fridge. A. many B. a little C. a lot 11. Teenagers now can store many ............ on their mobile phones. A. e-books B. information C. mail 12. Students can use ............ libraries from home. A. traditional B. digital C. actual 13. There is a huge ............ for kids in the central park. A. playground B. megacity C. jetback 14. Choose the word whose ending sound is the same as that of “books”. A. dogs B. classrooms C. tablets 15. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. A. notebook B. homework C. machine 52

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct response. (10 points) 1. Mary: I think robots will rule the world. 4. Helen: Let’s try this computer game. Tom: ............ Tom: ............ A. Robots are stupid. A. I hope not. B. That’s what I think. B. Good idea. C. Really? I’d love to. C. How often? 2. P eter: Shall we go to the cinema or stay in to play 5. P eter: ............ computer games? Helen: I agree. Jack: ............ A. Why don’t we buy a new smart phone? A. I’d rather stay in. B. Would you like a new smart phone? B. I’d rather not. C. A smart phone is useful for our school work. C. Why not? 3. Jack: ............ . Helen: I’d love to, but I’m afraid I can’t. A. Why not go swimming? B. Would you rather go swimming than watch TV? C. Would you like to go swimming with us? Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. ___________________ TVs will be very popular in the future. (INTERACTIVE) 2. Japan is the most ___________________ advanced country. (TECHNOLOGY) 3. This software is very ___________________ for online classes. (USE) 4. Mom says she will buy a new ___________________ tomorrow. (PRINT) 5. There are a lot of ___________________ between present schools and future ones. (DIFFER) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and choose the correct answers to the questions. (5 points) Humans have applied technology to better their life. Humans can build tunnels through huge mountains. Nothing can stop humans from travelling from one place to another. There are canals to cross huge rivers and seas. Scientists even send humans into space, searching for new homes for mankind. The sea also offers a lot of potentials. Some governments are thinking of floating cities or undersea communities. A bright future is waiting for us! 53

UNIT TEST 9 1. W hat is an example of better life that the text mentions? 4. W hich of the following is NOT mentioned as a A. Transportation system possible place for human homes? B. Space exploration A. Mountains C. Human homes B. Seas C. Space 2. Which of the following is a plan of some governments? A. Making canals across rivers 5. How does the writer feel about technology? B. Sending humans to space A. It is useless. C. Building cities at sea B. It will bring many good things. 3. W hat is humans’ solution to travelling in the mountains? C. It costs us a lot of time and money. A. A tunnel B. A canal C. Nothing Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) A dozen years ago, students had to go to school or university to take courses. Some students even go abroad for their favourite course. Nowadays, things are (6).............. . With a computer connected to the Internet, a student can learn (7).............. anything at home. Universities now have (8.............. online courses to offer. Students no longer (9).............. to leave their country to take a degree. They can attend lectures and sit exams from home. This (10).............. a lot of money and effort. 6. A. different B. the same C. similar 7. A. mostly B. most C. almost 8. A. much B. a lot of C. few 9. A. must B. need C. want 10. A. costs B. uses C. saves Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) A smart phone goes with us everywhere all day long. It can help us (11)................... many things. It can remind us of our classes and meetings. It can show us (12)................... to get to places. With a mobile phone, we can enjoy ourselves with music and books. We can even buy things (13)................... going to the supermarket. A mobile phone connects us with the world. We can chat with friends in another continent. We can (14)................... lectures from afar. In one word, a smart phone is our tireless personal (15)................... . Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. rather/table/Mary/Sunday./tennis/would/next/play ______________________________________________________________________________________ 2. television programs/will/think/watch/smart/I/people/walls./that/on ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. in their life./will use/that/the organizer/plastic bags/the students/few/this project/of/hopes ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. read/use/online./young/books/students/tablets/and/can/go/to __________________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. a /his/in/would/John/sandwich./like/cheese/like ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 54

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. Mary prefers typing essays to writing them. Mary would rather ______________________________________________________________________________. 7. John doesn’t feel like working online. (RATHER) John would _____________________________________________________________________________________. 8. Not many students go to Ms. Brown’s class. (ATTEND) Only a _________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. There’s no need to go to school to learn a language now. You ___________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. John predicts rain tomorrow. John thinks _______________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the tasks. Task 1: L isten once and choose 5 things that the speaker mentions the island has. (10 point) a. A church 1. ____________________ b. A school 2. ____________________ c. A cinema 3. ____________________ d. A playground 4. ____________________ e. A zoo 5. ____________________ f. A theatre g. A stadium h. A hotel i. A megacity j. A supermarket Task 2. Listen again and choose the best answers. (10 point) 6. What is the speaker doing? 9. Which of the following can the guest enjoy? A. He’s advertising a resort. A. Swimming with dolphins B. He’s announcing the opening of a resort. B. Researching on plants C. He’s describing a resort. C. Performing in a theater 7. W here is the resort located? 10. H ow many cinemas are there in the resort? A. In the mountains A. Two B. At sea B. Three C. In space C. Five 8. H ow many people can the resort welcome? 55 A. 10,000 people B. 1,000 people C. 100 people

UNIT TEST 10 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Peter says it ............ three hours to get to the town centre. A. spends B. takes C. needs 2. Make sure you turn off the ............ before leaving the bathroom. A. sink B. faucet C. mirror 3. Farmers in this area ............ sheep for a living. A. raise B. gro C. care 4. Each student should ............ up garbage in the school yard to keep it clean. A. take B. look C. pick 5. Jack has a bottle and he fills it ............ water before school every morning. A. of B. in C. with 6. Mom is annoyed ............ Jack leaves the air-conditioner on. A. because B. so C. unless 7. Water ............ three-quarters of the earth’s surface. A. is covering B. covers C. covered 8. Visiting Hanoi, you ............ stay with Helen. She has a spare room. A. should B. may C. can 9. More and more people ............ things nowadays. A. recycled B. recycle C. are recycling 10. 10. Going to school ________ bus helps save the environment. A. on B. by C. in 11. In the summer, the water ............ of the village is running low. A. supply B. resource C. quality 12. What does the sign say? A. Don’t forget to hold water in your hands. B. Don’t waste water. C. Don’t pollute the water with blue ink. 13. What does the sign say? A. Flush nothing except toilet paper. B. Remember not to use too much paper. C. Flush different things here. 14. Find the word whose underlined part sounds the same as that in “brushes”? A. garages B. mouths C. bottles 15. Find the word whose underlined part sounds differently? A. boxes B. matches C. books 56

Part 2 SPEAKING Make questions to complete the following conversation. (10 points) Mary: There’s a long weekend at the end of next month. Shall we go somewhere? Tom: (1)............................................................? Mary: We can either cycle to the countryside or go to the seaside. Tom: I prefer the sea. (2)............................................................? Mary: I would like to go to Nha Trang or Vung Tau. Tom: (3)............................................................? Mary: I’d prefer Vung Tau Beach. It’s nearer. Tom: (4)............................................................? Mary: It takes 2 hours by car. Tom: (5)............................................................? Mary: I know some excellent hotels and I’ve got a friend there. We can stay with her. Tom: That’s great! Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. This project aims to make our water ___________________ to use. (SAFETY) 2. Air pollution is just one of the ___________________ problems we are facing. (ENVIRONMENT) 3. The supermarket says that their customers always ___________________ these shopping bags. (USE) 4. Surprisingly, farms use the lowest ___________________ of water in our country. (PERCENT) 5. The government has made various ___________________ to schools and hospitals. (IMPROVE) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and match the numbers with the facts. (5 points) Water is very important to human beings. Water does a lot of things to our body. 75% of a human brain is water. A human can stop eating for a month, but he can only live without water for a week. Doctors say we should drink water regularly during the day. About 75% of the Earth’s surface is water, but humans can only use a very small amount of that, about 1% only. 99% of the world’s water is salty, so we cannot drink it. We have to save fresh water. NUMBER FACT 1. 7 days a. the time humans can live without eating 2. Three quarters b. the time humans can live without drinking 3. 1% c. the percentage of water in a brain 4. 99% d. the percentage of salt water 5. A month e. the percentage of world’s water for humans to use 57

UNIT TEST 10 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) The school is planning a four-day (6).............. to Da Lat. The students can enjoy the cool climate, the beautiful sights and (7).............. part in different activities. Members of the trip can choose to (8).............. sightseeing to beautiful lakes, valleys and Lang Biang Mountain. Strong members may like to (9).............. sports in the waterfalls. (10).............. the first night, the whole school will camp in a valley. The next two nights, students will join in groups and stay in families to learn about their life. This is going to be a trip to remember. 6. A. travel B. camp C. trip 7. A. play B. do C. take 8. A. go B. have C. get 9. A. play B. take C. practise 10. A. In B. On C. At Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Quang Binh Province is famous (11)................... its nature. It has a lot of terrific caves. The most popular among tourists is Phong Nha Cave. Its (12)................... means “wind through the teeth”. This name (13)................... from its various branches, smaller caves and stalagmites. Phong Nha Cave is 7,729 meters long, 83 meters deep, and 50 meters high. It is the most beautiful cave in Asia. It (14)................... 30 minutes to get to the cave (15)................... boat from the Son River. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. d ifferent/help/many/students/things./can/recycle ______________________________________________________________________________________ 2. g row trees./use/John says/a lot of water/people/to/in his village ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. w ater/plans/quality/supply./the/to/the/improve/of/government ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. summer?/do/think/what/should/this/you/we/do __________________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. m inutes./school/me/takes/walking/twenty/to ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 58

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. Jack spends two hours cycling to the countryside. It takes _________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. Mary and John have the habit of reusing water bottles. Mary and John always ____________________________________________________________________________. 8. My mother always remembers to turn the lights off. (ON) My mother never _________________________________________________________________________________. 9. Accidents happen because we are careless. (TAKE) We are _________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. Mary says Helen should join the camping trip. Mary advises _____________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the tasks. Task 1. Complete each blank with ONE word or number. (10 points) 1. The speaker is joining a “Green Day” at her ___________________. 2. The school wants the students to save the ___________________. 3. There are ___________________ colours for the bins. 4. The bins are put around the school ___________________. 5. The bins are in red, ___________________, white or yellow. Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. The “Green Day” is in the middle of the week. _______ 7. We should put our fruit waste in the red bins. _______ 8. Paper boxes go into the white bins. _______ 9. The green bins are also called the compost bin. _______ 10. It is easy to sort out garbage. _______ 59

PROGRESS TEST 54 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Young people prefer the city because it has many places of ........... . A. entertainment B. environment C. government 2. Do you think humans will live ........... the moon? A. in B. on C. at 3. In the ..........., students will not need pens and paper any more. A. past B. present C. future 4. John _________ play tennis than go jogging. A. would like B. would prefer C. would rather 5. In the video clip, the astronaut is _________ around on the space station. A. floating B. flying C. flowing 6. Each student should _________ up the garbage and put it in the garbage can. A. take B. pick C. lift 7. The musicians arrived _________ a taxi. A. by B. in C. on 8. This area is a perfect place for those who love rock _________. A. climbing B. hiking C. rafting 9. Remember to clean up before you _________ the campsite. A. visit B. reach C. leave 10. John and his father are planning to _________ fishing next week. A. do B. play C. go 11. It’s near here, _________ let’s walk there. A. because B. so C. but Choose the option whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 12. A. stays B. news C. wishes A. natural B. lake C. paper 13. 14. What does the sign say? A. You cannot borrow books on October 17th and October 18th. B. You cannot close your books on October 17th and October 18th. C. You cannot develop books October 17th and October 18th. 15. What does the sign say? FREE A. You have to pay to use the Internet here. B. You don’t have to pay for the internet connection here. C. You have to use the Internet when you are free. 60

Part 2 SPEAKING Match the questions with the appropriate responses. (10 points) QUESTIONS RESPONSES 1. How long does it take to travel from Ho Chi a. We can stay at my grandfather’s. Minh City to Hanoi? b. We are going to tour Europe. c. About 2 hours by plane. 2. Where can we stay while we are in Hue? d. Because we can save lives that way. 3. How are John and Mary travelling to Hanoi? e. They are going by plane. 4. Why should we replace soldiers with robots? 5. What are your plans for the summer holiday? Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. Big cities are always more _____________________________ than small towns. (POPULATION) 2. What should we do to develop the country’s _____________________________? (INDUSTRIAL) 3. This _____________________________ will help the police find the missing boy. (INFORM) 4. Jack is always _____________________________ dressed when he goes out. (SMART) 5. In the future, each home will have a(n) _____________________________ food machine. (AUTOMATION) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and choose the best answers. (5 points) Grand Canyon is a famous sight in Arizona, the United States. It has two parts: the North Rim and the South Rim. Grand Canyon measures 446 kilometres in length, 29 kilometres in width. Some of its places are as deep as 1.83 kilometres. Grand Canyon’s attraction lies in its wonderful scenery. To admire its beauty, some people can hike from the North Rim or the South Rim to the bottom. Others go by car or take free shuttles. Some tourists can even afford a helicopter ride to admire the canyon from above. Visitors can visit the North Rim between May and October. The South Rim welcomes tourists all year round. 1. Where is the Grand Canyon? 4. How much do the shuttle tickets cost? A. It is in Europe. A. A lot B. It is in America. B. A little C. It is in Asia. C. Free of charge 2. H ow long is the Grand Canyon? 5. According to the passage, what means of A. 446 kilometres transport is not available for tourists? B. 29 kilometres A. Cars C. 1.83 kilometres B. Helicopters C. Horses 3. W hen can tourists visit the North Rim? A. In January 61 B. In August C. In December

PROGRESS TEST 54 Choose the options that best complete the passage. A new reading centre has just been opened in town. It covers an area of 1,000 square meters, with three main (6) .............. of buildings and a huge playground. The main attraction of the centre is the digital library of multimedia resources. Visitors (7) .............. this digital library are welcomed by “Lybries”, the hologram librarians. They work perfectly. They (8) .............. feel hungry, angry, tired or impatient. One Lybrie (9) .............. you at the door, helping you if necessary. Books are stored on user-friendly computers. Different programs will help you enjoy the books in (10 .............. ways. 6. A. parts B. blocks C. sections 7. A. at B. for C. to 8. A. never B. always C. often 9. A. greets B. says hello C. invites 10. A. less entertaining B. more entertaining C. the most entertaining Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. To: [email protected] Send Subject: Dear Mom, I can’t stand Helen. She throws her things around the house. She never (11) ......................... off the lights after use. She always (12) ......................... the air-conditioner on all day and night. Doesn’t she know she is destroying the Earth? Look at how (13) ......................... plastic bags she brings back after shopping. (14) ......................... and reusing are not in her dictionary! She never recycles or reuses things. What should I (15) ......................... , Mom? Please tell me. Lisa Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. b etter technology/a lot./our homes/will have/will change/we/so _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. b ecause/waste electricity./leave the lights on/should not/they/you/all night _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. in the next century./under the sea/will/most people/live _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. a re trying the coming examination./their best/the students/to pass _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. the lesson/the students./the teacher/to learn/will make/for/more interesting _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 62

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 points) 6. Its story and characters are interesting, so teenagers like the book a lot. (POPULAR) Because _________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. Mary advises me to visit Ha Long Bay. Mary says _______________________________________________________________________________________. 8. Jack is going to buy a smartphone. Jack plans _______________________________________________________________________________________. 9. M y sister spends two hours every week sorting out her stamps. It takes ___________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. John likes camping better than staying in hotels. John would rather ________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING You are listening to a dialogue between Mr. Brown, a teacher, and Mary, the class monitor. Task 1: Listen to the first part and tick the FIVE activities that the class will do. (10 points) a. making posters 1. ____________________ b. cleaning up the street 2. ____________________ c. planting trees 3. ____________________ d. sorting out garbage 4. ____________________ e. recycling things 5. ____________________ f. collecting old batteries g. repainting classroom walls h. writing environmental songs Task 2: Listen to the second part and match the fraction with the task. (10 points) FRACTION TASK 1. 100% a. making posters 2. 50% b. cleaning up the street 3. 25% c. planting trees 4. 15% d. sorting out garbage 5. 10% e. recycle things f. collect old batteries g. repaint classroom walls h. write environmental songs i. join in the environment day 63

SEMESTER TEST 1 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Tran Hung Dao is famous ........... the three battles against the Mongols. A. about B. for C. with 2. In order to prepare for Tet, Vietnamese people often paint and ........... their houses. A. decorate B. celebrate C. set up 3. Would you like to come and visit my new house? I can’t wait ........... you. A. to seeing B. to see C. seeing 4. Bill has ........... . A. short brown hair B. brown short hair C. hair short brown 5. I ........... shopping with Kate tomorrow. Do you want to join us? A. go B. goes C. am going 6. Mark ........... the cartoon program on TV every night. A. watch B. watches C. is watching 7. Make sure you have some ........... at home in case there is a power cut. A. pillows B. sleeping bags C. flashlights 8. In this area, it usually gets cold ........... night. A. in B. on C. at 9. Cam is very mean to Tam ........... Tam always treats her well. A. and B. so C. but 10. Le Loi ........... the Ming army in Chi Lang - Xuong Giang Battle in 1427. A. won B. defeated C. fought 11. Tim is never afraid of speaking in front of a large audience - he’s ........... . A. serious B. generous C. confident 12. What does the sign say? A. Anyone entering this area has to wear hearing protection. B. This area is noisy so you shouldn’t enter to protect your ears. C. Hearing protection is available in this high noise area. 13. What does the sign say? A. Watch out! You may slip and fall. B. Beware! You may have an electric shock. C. Electric currents can cause injuries. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. 14. A. biology B. examination C. activity Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. 15. A. construct B. lucky C. student 64

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points) 1. Mai: How do you prepare for Tet? 4. Police: Where were you from 11:30 to 12:00? Nam: ............ . Kate: ............ . A. We go shopping at weekend A. I made lunch B. We buy food, fruits and flowers B. I was cleaning the floor C. We visit our relatives and friends C. I was tired 2. John: When’s Thanksgiving 5. Leon: What’s Harry like? Susan: ............ . Matt: ............ . A. It’s on the fourth Thursday of November A. H e’s quite shy but very friendly B. It’s on December 25th B. H e has fair skin C. It often takes place in January or February C. He helps his friends 3. May: Which club do you want to sign up for? Ben: ............ . A. I like reading books. B. No, how about you? C. I haven’t decided yet. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. The sales assistant spoke _____________________________ to the children. (KIND) 2. The story ends with the two main characters getting _____________________________. (MARRY) 3. It’s raining hard outside but luckily, we still have a(n) _____________________________ swimming pool. (DOOR) 4. The resort offers a wide range of nightly _____________________________. (ENTERTAIN) 5. Peter doesn’t like _____________________________ because he thinks they are boring. (MUSIC) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Rio Carnival in Brazil is the biggest festival in the world. Every year, hundreds of thousands of people from all over the world visit the city Rio during this festival. They dance wildly and watch parades and samba dancers. The Rio Samba parades are the main attraction of this carnival. Competing samba schools in Rio spend the whole year preparing for the parades. Each school chooses a social or historical theme and they design their costumes and music based on the theme. After the performances, a winner will be announced. 1. Rio Carnival is a festival that takes place every year. _______ 65 2. Only local people are allowed to join the event. _______ 3. There is a competition for samba schools. _______ 4. Samba schools have different themes. _______ 5. Samba schools are not quite serious about the parades. _______

SEMESTER TEST 1 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Home Alone is an American (6) .............. film released in 1990. The film is about an eight- year-old boy (7) .............. Kevin. Kevin’s family accidentally left him behind (8) .............. their Christmas holiday and he had to (9) .............. his house from the two burglars, Harry and Marv. The film receives some negative (10) .............., but it is still regarded as one of the best family movies. Get ready for a good laugh! 6. A. romance B. horror C. comedy 7. A. naming B. name C. named 8. A. on B. at C. in 9. A. prevent B. protect C. keep 10. A. reviews B. suggestions C. ideas Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Sushi is a traditional Japanese dish usually made (11) ............................ rice mixed with vinegar, salt and sugar. It also contains seafood and/or vegetables. There (12) ........................... many types of sushi, for (13) ..........................., Ngiri, Maki, Uramaki or Sashimi. If you are (14) ........................... to sushi, you should start with cooked types first. Sushi is believed to be good (15) ...........................health because it brings nutritional benefits. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. w ith their family/On Thanksgiving,/eat/and friends./people/special meals _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. really admire/is/Someone/I/Ngo Quyen./that _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. b ecause he’s/My father/the day./the/housework/least/for/most of/does/at work _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. o pposite/You/can/at/the bakery/buy hamburgers/the police station. _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. c haracter/your/favorite/a comic book?/Who’s/from _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 66

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 points) 6. M y apartment has a living room, two bedrooms and a kitchen. There is _________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. T im plans to make a pizza this Saturday with his classmates. Tim is going _____________________________________________________________________________________. 8. T he subject I like most is physics. My _____________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. Y ou don’t need to bring sleeping bags. It’s not ___________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. Let’s go to the movies tonight! Why don’t ______________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING You are listening to a dialogue between Mr. Brown, a teacher, and Mary, the class monitor. Task 1: Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. Susan is invited to Laura’s house-warming party. _______ _______ 2. Laura finds it tiring to move house. _______ _______ 3. The new house is next to the post office. _______ 4. Laura wants Susan to phone her when she comes to the party. 5. Laura needs Susan’s help in preparing food for the guests. Task 2: Listen again and answer the following questions. (10 points) 6. How long did it take Laura to finish moving her house? _________________________________________________________________________. 7. When is Laura having the party? _________________________________________________________________________. 8. What time is the party? _________________________________________________________________________. 9. What’s Laura’s phone number? _________________________________________________________________________. 10. What time does Laura want Susan to come? L5A0KmE_________________________________________________________________________. 67

SEMESTER TEST 2 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Peter ........... to go on a camping trip rather than go fishing. A. would rather B. would prefer C. would like 2. You ........... finish the whole novel. Half of it is enough. A. must not B. don’t need to C. are not able to 3. Mary ........... a parade twice before. A. watched B. watches C. has watched 4. Remember to turn off the ........... before leaving the bathroom to save water. A. faucets B. lights C. air-conditioners 5. E-books and ______ libraries are more popular. They are available on smartphones. A. modern B. digital C. mobile 6. This plastic bottle is too old. You should ______ it with a new one. A. recycle B. reuse C. replace 7. My doctor says I should ______ yoga regularly to improve my health. A. go B. do C. play 8. When its energy runs ______, the robot stops working. A. out B. off C. on 9. Tourists shouldn’t visit Phu Quoc in July ______ the rain. A. so B. and C. because of 10. From Hanoi, you can easily get to Sapa ______ the summer. A. in B. on C. at 11. I believe most boys enjoy rock ______. A. climbing B. trekking C. hiking SAVE 12. What does the sign say? 20 % A. Our products are cheaper by 20% now. B. Our products are more expensive by 20% now. C. Our products are better by 20% now. 13. What does the sign say? DAY OFF A. We are closed on Saturday. B. We are closed on 2nd September. 1st September C. We are closed on Friday. 2017 (friday) OPEN ON NEXT DAY 101 Breakfast Choose the words whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 14. A. washed B. cleaned C. looked Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. 15. A. robot B. machine C. future 68

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points) 1. Tom: ............ . B. I don’t agree. Robots don’t have Mary: I rarely eat out. feelings like teachers. A. How often do you eat at a restaurant? B. Why do you eat at a restaurant? C. That sounds great. Robots cannot C. When do you eat at a restaurant? teach young students. 2. Tom: London has more to explore. We should go to London. 4. Tom: I’m having a party next Sunday. Would Mary: ............ . you like to come? A. Y ou may be right. But it’s too expensive to visit London. Mary: ............ . I’m visiting my grandmother then. B. It’s true. London has terrible weather. A. Sorry I can’t C. I hope not. I prefer Paris. B. That’s great fun C. OK 3. Tom: Robots are going to replace teachers. 5. Tom: Let’s walk to school. Mary: ............ . Mary: ............ . A. I agree. Teachers are best. A. Why? It’s good exercise. B. Sure! It’s good exercise. C. N o! It’s good exercise. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. Foreign tourists are amazed by the _____________________________ beauty of Viet Nam. (NATURE) 2. The couple lived _____________________________ in the countryside. (PEACE) 3. John is proud of his lasting _____________________________ with Peter. (FRIEND) 4. _____________________________ want everyone to save the polluted rivers. (ENVIRONMENT) 5. John has just been back from a(n) _____________________________ trip to the seaside. (EXCITE) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and choose the correct answers to the questions. (5 points) Travel is one of the most popular forms of recreation. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? Because transportation has improved a lot, it is easy A. Travelling and its benefits and cheap to travel. People travel with their family, B. Travelling and its harms friends and colleagues. They often plan a trip long C. Travelling and its price before the holiday. Early bookings mean lower prices and more choices. Travel helps people relax after 2. W hy is travelling easy now? work. It also provides A. Because we have better chances to learn about transportation now. geography and culture. B. Because we have cheap Travelling together brings transportation now. family members and C. Because we have popular friends closer. transportation now. 3. Who usually travel together? 69 A. Company bosses B. Family members C. Idols and fans

SEMESTER TEST 2 4. W hy should people book holidays early? A. Because we will pay more. B. Because we will plan a trip. C. Because we will have more choices. 5. W hich of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of travelling? A. It improves people’s relationship. B. It betters our health. C. It brings new knowledge. Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) The environment needs our help. The air is (6) .............. dirty. The river is (7) .............. of rubbish. Land is polluted. Humans cannot live without air, water or food. Each of us must act now. Each of us can help. We can use (8) .............. energy. We can stop using plastic bags carelessly. We can reuse and recycle things. It is not too (9) .............. to find new uses for an old thing. It doesn’t (10) .............. much time to sort out garbage. It sounds simple to save the environment. It depends on us! 6. A. very B. too C. enough 7. A. filled B. full C. lot 8. A. less B. fewer C. more 9. A. easy B. comfortable C. difficult 10. A. waste B. spend C. take Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Technology has made our world a small village. People can travel across the world in a (11) ........................... hours. It is comfortable to travel (12) ........................... plane. With a mobile phone, you can (13) ........................... to your friend in another country. The Internet allows you to send mail in a second. The television brings you around the world. You (14) ........................... travel to famous sights without leaving your living-room. Technology (15) ........................... brought us a wonderful life. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (20 points) 1. that one./more/than/this book/interesting/is _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. a ny mistakes./are able to/making/robots/all day and night/without/work _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 70

3. c omplete/homework/students/class./their/have to/before _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. is/go/teacher/on/my/going/holiday./to _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. teenagers/sports/school/friends./think/play/I/their/should/after/with _______________________________________________________________________________________________. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. 6. P eter and Tom have never met before. This _____________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. John is the most intelligent student in his class. No one _________________________________________________________________________________________. 8. M r. John is too busy, so he can’t attend the party. Because _________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. Jack is travelling around the world next year. Jack plans ________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. M ary is not as fast as Helen. Helen is _________________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the tasks. Task 1: Choose 4 highlights of Vietnam as a destination. (10 points) a. Food 1. ____________________ b. Equipment 2. ____________________ c. Scenery 3. ____________________ d. Transportation 4. ____________________ e. Culture f. Climate g. People Task 2: R ead the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 5. Vietnam has a few beaches. _______ 6. The caves in Vietnam are very special. _______ 7. Vietnamese food is good for our health. _______ 8. Vietnamese people use a lot of vegetables in their cooking. _______ 9. Vietnamese dishes are the same around the country. _______ 10. Vietnam has a lot of snowy weather. _______ 71

ADVANCEDS 1 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. My uncle ............ cattle on his farm. A. rises B. raises C. grows 2. Who was the first human ............ foot on the Moon? A. set B. setting C. to set 3. Robots can replace humans in ............ jobs such as coal mining or seabed exploration. A. risky B. boring C. dangerous 4. ............ does Jimmy do yoga? - Three times a week. A. How long B. How often C. When 5. Of the two brothers, John is ............ . A. the taller B. the tallest C. more taller 6. AI, Artificial ............, enables machines to learn from experience. A. Information B. Intelligence C. Intellectual 7. I would rather you ............ travel during this coronavirus lockdown. A. don’t B. not C. didn’t 8. Which ............ of book do you love reading the most? A. type B. category C. genre 9. ............ the council is trying to improve the quality of water, little has been achieved so far. A. Despite B. Because C. Although 10. The percentage of biker users has increased ............ 9% from 10% to 19% in the last two years. A. by B. in C. of 11. Last year, we spent our summer holiday at a beautiful stone house ............ a riverbank. A. in B. by C. on 12. What does the sign say? A. This lot is reserved for the handicapped to park. B. We need more parking space for handicapped people. C. Parking for handicapped people can be accessed from here. 13. What does the sign say? A. This water is safe to drink. B. You can wash your hands here. C. Please save water! Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. 14. A. projector B. digital C. newspaper Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. 15. A. campsite B. trampoline C. dynamite 72

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points) 1. Peter: What furniture does your bedroom have? 4. Bill: Shall we go to the movies this weekend? Mary: ............ . Kate: ............ . A. It is painted blue. B. It has a bed, a desk and a bookshelf. A. Yes, let’s C. It’s on the second floor. B. I’m happy to hear that 2. John: How long does it take to repair this scanner? Susan: ............ . C. Unbelievable A. Once a week. B. About 2 days 5. Leon: Excuse me, could you please direct me to C. Two weeks ago the nearest post office? Matt: ............ . 3. May: What a lovely dress! Ben: ............ . A. It’s around 2 kilometer away A. Thanks. It’s nice of you to say so B. You’re welcome B. It takes 20 minutes on foot C. You can say that again C. Take a left turn at the first intersection Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. She ____________________________ to call the police if Newt didn’t leave. (THREAT) 2. The famous painting has ____________________________ disappeared this morning. (MYSTERY) 3. This lake is popular among ____________________________ in the summer. (PICNIC) 4. My father shook his head in ____________________________ . (AGREE) 5. Finding the film ____________________________, we left the cinema early. (INTEREST) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Robots have played an important role in space exploration due to the dangerous nature of the work. Before robots are sent to the the space, animals like monkeys or dogs were often sent to help humans conduct experiments to explore the conditions on other planets. Since the robotic technology has flourished in recent decades, robots have been sent to the space instead to carry out those experiments and do other tasks. So far our knowledge about conditions on other planets such as Mars or Venus mostly comes from experiments performed by robots. The more the technology develops, the faster robots can reach those planets and the more information they can send back to the Earth. 1. Because space exploration is dangerous, robots are often used to replace humans. _______ _______ 2. Animals were sent to the space to help robots do their tasks. _______ _______ 3. Robots’ tasks in space include creating the living conditions on other planets. _______ 4. Most of the information about conditions on other planets is sent by robots. 5. If robots can reach other planets faster, the technology can also develop better. 73

ADVANCEDS 1 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Having good friends is crucial to one’s happiness in life, but what (1) .............. a good friend? Different people will have different answers (2) .............. this question. Many people believe that the first quality of a good friend is (3) .............. . This means that good friends will (4) .............. you what you need to hear. A good friend is also loyal. They accept who you are and stay by your side through thick and (5) .............. - through good and bad times. 6. A. makes B. creates C. produces 7. A. for B. to C. about 8. A. honest B. honestly C. honesty 9. A. speak B. talk C. tell 10. A. thin B. thrilled C. thirsty Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) It’s (11) .......................................... knowledge that outdoor recreation can bring benefits to our mental and physical health. People who take (12) .......................................... in activities such as walking, hiking or skiing make fewer office visits and have (13) .......................................... blood pressure and cholesterol levels. They also manage their stress better. It’s because (14).......................................... time on oneself provides a sense of balance and it helps reduce stress. In a study conducted in America, it is found out that 90% of people who understand the importance of recreation feel satisfied (15) .......................................... their lives overall. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (20 points) 1. the water system? /What/think/the government/to improve/do you/is/do/going to _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. It/Amanda who/must/be/then./she was/opened/ the door /at home / because _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. D avid/the gardening./feeds/the fish/, I/will do/If _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. the Mongols/the Battle/After/they/left/lost/Vietnam./of Bach Dang River, _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. in the next decade./will live/is/that/in houses/solar energy/My prediction/by/people/powered _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 74

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. 6. Tom is the tallest student in my class. No one else ____________________________________________________________________________________. 7. W e had to cancel the picnic because it rained heavily. Because of ___________________________________________________________________________________. 8. W hose book is this? Who _________________________________________________________________________________________? 9. B aby Fred can walk quite fast now. Baby Fred is __________________________________________________________________________________. 10. T here are more facilities in big cities than in the country. (FEWER) There are _______________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen to Mai’s campaign to make her school greener. Task 1. Listen and decide if the statement is TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. Mai is a teenage student. _______ 2. Mai worked alone in this campaign. _______ 3. Mai’s campaign aimed at saving energy for her school. _______ 4. Mai’s campaign includes replacing recycle bins in the dining hall. _______ 5. The old lightbulbs in Mai’s school auditorium consumed a lot of energy. _______ Task 2. Listen again and complete the notes. Fill in the blank with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the recording. • Mai’s campaign was to make her school more energy (6) .......................................... . • One activity in the campaign was to ensure that lights are (7) .......................................... in the classroom which are not (8) .......................................... . • Mai and her friends installed (9) .......................................... trays of vegetation to improve (10) .......................................... . 75

ADVANCEDS 2 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Big cities consume ............ of the world’s energy, which is around 65%. A. one third B. two thirds C. two quarters 2. In the UK, it’s against the law to ........... fireworks between 11p.m. and 7 a.m., except on some certain occasions. A. set off B. burn up C. break off 3. He will have to have his eyes operated ........... next Tuesday. A. on B. in C. no article 4. Fred: How far is it from your house to the school? George: ........... . A. Two hours B. Five kilometers C. On foot 5. New artificial intelligence can detect coronavirus ........... faster than human doctors. A. far B. more C. many 6. Ted is quick witted. ..........., he is quite lazy. A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However 7. Listening to instrumental music always makes me feel ........... . A. relax B. relaxed C. relaxing 8. The small boats are ........... gently down the river. A. floating B. flowing C. riding 9. In the future, ........... school will use interactive whiteboards. A. nearly most B. nearly all C. nearly every 10. I think I’ve ........... the right decision not to visit Sapa in this rainy season. A. done B. given C. made 11. The principal agreed with the student council ........... the need to recycle more. A. in B. over C. on 12. What does the notice say? A. There will be no classes prior to July 16. School Announcement B. The school is off from May 11 to mid July. C. On July 15, classes start. School Holidays from May 11 to July 15. 13. What does the notice say? School resumes on July 16. A. The construction workers are sorry for causing any inconvenience while they are working. B. The construction workers will compensate for any inconvenience that they We apologise for any inconvenience cause while they are working. caused during C. Don’t cause any inconvenience or you will have to apologise. these construction works. 76

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. 14. A. special B. ancient C. exercise 15. A. technology B. school C. teacher Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points) 1. Sue: Thank you for giving us a lift last night! 4. Sue: Met is the best student in the class. Mary: ............ . Mary: ............ . A. Not at all A. No doubt about it B. All the same B. There’s no point C. The pleasure is all mine C. Yes, I think so 2. Sue: Can I try your new bike? 5. Sue: What do you think we can do to save water? Mary: ............ . Mary: ............ . A. Never mind. A. I suggest we fix any leaking pipe. B. Be my guest. B. We’d better purify the water before use. C. Are you sure? C. How about doing laundry every day? 3. Sue: Sorry, I forgot to bring your book. Mary: ............ . A. No big deal B. You’re welcome C. I can’t agree with you more Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. It’s interesting to observe how Vietnamese people make ______________________ for Tet, the traditional new year celebration. (PREPARE) 2. The soldiers fought ______________________ for their country’s freedom. (HERO) 3. Be careful with those parts of the machine. They are ______________________ . (REPLACE) 4. Everyone loves John for his ______________________ . (GENEROUS) 5. The classrooms are old and really need ______________________ . (MODERN) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) One of the most popular tourist attractions in Vietnam is Hoi An Ancient Town. This town is located 30 kilometers south of Da Nang City, Quang Nam province. It’s a great place to gain an insight into Vietnamese people’s life, present and past as well. What tourists like most about the town is that it still retains the spirit and beauty of an ancient trading port, with its buildings and architecture dating back to the 15th century. Festivals are also a typical feature of Hoi An. The most exciting one is the lantern festival. The town is decorated with colorful paper lanterns on the 15th of every lunar month. All electrical appliances are turned off and the town bathes in the flickering glow of the lanterns. This mysterious beauty impresses even the hardest to please tourists. 77

ADVANCEDS 2 1. Hoi An is to the south of Da Nang City. _______ _______ 2. Hoi An used to be a trading town for architects. _______ _______ 3. The architecture in Hoi An is around 6 centuries old. _______ 4. The lantern festival takes place every month. 5. When the lantern festival takes place, the town falls into darkness. Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Drone racing is one of the (6) .............. growing sports in recent years. In this race, small and lightweight drones are steered over courses with obstacles. The goal is to (7) .............. the courses within the shortest time. The pilots wear a headgear which is connected (8 ).............. a camera installed on the drone. (9) .............. to this device, the pilots can see what the drone “sees”. Competitions take place outdoors and are short, (10) .............. less than a minute. 6. A. fast B. faster C. fastest 7. A. achieve B. complete C. fulfill 8. A. for B. to C. with 9. A. Thanks B. According C. Owing 10. A. continuing B. lasting C. prolonging Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Homeschooling enables parents to teach their children at home (11) .................................. of letting them attend school. There are two main (12) .................................. why parents want to educate their children at home. First, they are dissatisfied with the local schools. They want to have greater (13) .................................. over what and how their children are taught. This will allow the child to spend more time on other activities (14) .................................. as playing or socializing. Second, parents are interested (15) ........................................ getting more involved in their children’s development. By homeschooling, parents can have more time with their children, which facilitates more mutual understanding. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (20 points) 1. we were/Someone/television./our house/on vacation/and stole/broke into/our/while _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. don’t/mistakes/, so/Robots/work perfectly./the things/always/make/they make _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. I/love/in the countryside/life/as/it/is/than/in big cities./more peaceful _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. A trip/the north of Vietnam/highly/to visit our country./is recommended/if/you/have a chance/to _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. in Nha Trang./sure/you/will have/I’m/a fantastic vacation _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 78

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. 6. N o other student in my class studies physics as well as Tony. Tony is the ____________________________________________________________________________________. 7. W e had to cancel the picnic because it rained heavily. Because of ___________________________________________________________________________________. 8. Y ou don’t need to bring your laptop to the meeting. It’s not ________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. W hy don’t we go skating tomorrow? What ________________________________________________________________________________________? 10. How amazing the adventure is! What ________________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING You will hear a teacher giving information about the school visit. Task 1. Listen and choose the correct answer. (10 points) 1. What are the students going to visit? A. a local factory B. a local farm C. a local zoo 2. When is the visit? A. August 3rd B. August 13th C. August 30th 3. At what time will they depart? A. 7.45 B. 8.00 C. 8.15 4. How long is the journey? A. 30 minutes B. 60 minutes C. 90 minutes 5. How do they get to the place? A. by train B. by bus C. by coach Task 2. L isten again and complete the notes. For each blank, use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. (10 points) • Wear the school (6) .................................... • Bring a (7) .................................... and some (8) .................................... • Tour: visit the cow stables and the (9) .................................... to see how milk is collected and stored. • Always follow the guide’s (10) .................................... . 79

ADVANCEDS 3 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Cheese and wine are an important part of French ........... . A. food and drinks B. cuisine C. menu 2. Argentina beat Holland ........... 3-1 in the final. A. in B. by C. from 3. Bill: How do you go to school? Percy: ........... foot. A. On B. In C. By 4. Please sit down and ........... . A. make you at home B. feel at the home C. make yourself at home 5. I’m not quite accustomed to ........... up early in the morning. A. get B. got C. getting 6. The machine is very simple. ..........., it is quite easy to operate. A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However 7. Some children find it ........... to concentrate. A. difficult B. difficultly C. difficulty 8. Tina ........... a birthday party tonight. Are you coming? A. has B. had C. is having 9. When the lockdown policy started, companies had to ........... a lot of changes in a rush. A. do B. create C. make 10. Turn off the faucets when they are not in ........... . A. use B. using C. usage 11. ........... classes in this school have a projector to show the lessons. A. Most the B. Most of the C. Almost 12. What does the notice say? A. Employees cannot access this room. B. If you are not an employee, you cannot go further. C. This room is inaccessible to all. 13. What does the warning say? A. Y ou should look after your belongings all the time. SECURITY NOTICE B. Y ou are not allowed to leave your things here. Don’t leave bags or C. Bags or luggage left here will be removed. luggage unattended. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. 14. A. machine B. watch C. church 15. A. change B. danger C. hand 80

Part 2 SPEAKING Match the question in column A with the response in column B. (10 points) A B 1. How soon can you finish the painting? a. Sorry, I’m not an expert. 2. What ingredients do you think they have b. In two hours, I think. c. I beg to differ. added to the dish? d. So do I. They’ll probably use projectors. 3. I think future classes won’t use e. In my imagination, we will have flying blackboards. cars in the next decade. 4. How do you think transportation will change in the future? 5. I think teachers shouldn’t give students homework. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. T he actress bears strong _____________________________ to her mother. (SIMILAR) 2. Don’t worry about that door. It closes _____________________________ . (AUTOMATIC) 3. _____________________________ fruits make excellent snacks. (DRY) 4. We had to wait for the _____________________________ to work out the prescription. (PHARMACY) 5. I bought this hamburger at the bakery_____________________________ . (NEAR) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) The word “manga” is used to refer to comics or graphic novels which come from Japan. Most manga follow a style that was developed in Japan in the late 19th century. In Japan, manga are for people of all ages. Manga cover a wide range of genres from action to fantasy. Many famous manga series are adapted into popular anime TV series. Before the advent of the Internet, there were two main ways for a mangaka - a manga artist - to publish their works. They could either send their drawn manga to a publisher or submit their work to competitions held by magazines. However, in the last few decades, there have been new ways for mangaka to publish and sell their manga online. 1. All manga follow the same style that dated back to the 19th century. _______ 2. Manga are exclusively for children. _______ 3. There were anime series that were based on famous manga. _______ 4. Manga magazines often organised competitions for mangaka. _______ 5. Since the late 19th century, mangaka have been able to publish their works on the Internet. _______ 81

ADVANCEDS 3 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Thanks to the growth of the Internet, shopping online can never become (6) .............. . In addition to (7) .............. shoppers more options, online shopping is also a great way to save time and money. Online shoppers can shop (8) .............. their own convenience, even in their pyjamas. However, online shoppers do not have the chance to (9) .............. try on or inspect the items that they (10) .............. purchasing. They can also fall prey to scammers who can steal their personal information. 6. A. easy B. easier C. easiest 7. A. giving B. give C. given 8. A. with B. at C. in 9. A. really B. physically C. personally 10. A. think B. prefer C. consider Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) A mausoleum of white marble, Taj Mahal was built (11) .............. 1631 and 1648 by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in (12) .............. of his favorite wife. The mausoelum is the gem of Muslim art in India and is (13) .............. as one of the most beautiful buildings ever constructed. Millions of people from India and from abroad visit this monument every year (14) .............. appreciate the architecture and the carvings. In recent years, the Indian government has (15) .............. steps to protect the beauty of Taj Mahal. One of the steps is to limit the number of tourists to only 40,000 per day. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (20 points) 1. likes/to be/Matt/to nature,/so/near the forest./he prefers/close/living _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. E very student/for the course/signing up/for free./will/a tablet/be given _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. robots/in the classroom./Although/can/teachers/perform/they/cannot/replace/many tasks, _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. It/to build/our homes/in/an/way./our responsibility/is/eco-friendly _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. during a pandemic./It’s/to/avoid/and crowded/places/best/large crowds _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 82

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. 6. J immy spends two hours doing exercise every day. It takes _________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. Although he was very friendly, John was not popular among his classmates. In spite ________________________________________________________________________________________. 8. I don’t know who stole the trophy. I have no _______________________________________________________________________________________. 9. You shouldn’t go to the beach during the storm. You had ________________________________________________________________________________________? 10. Life in Bangkok is cheaper than that in Hong Kong. Life in Hong Kong is more ________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING You will hear a man on the radio talking about summer activity clubs. Task 1. Listen and match the activities with the camps. (10 points) A. The Nature Camp B. The Language Camp C. The Culture Camp 1. performing with puppets __________________ 2. rock paint making __________________ 3. video making __________________ 4. pottery __________________ 5. putting on a play __________________ Task 2. L isten again and complete the notes. For each blank, use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. (10 points) • The camps are mainly for twelve- to eighteen-year-old (6) .................................... . • The Nature Camp: for those who like to lead a (7) .................................... and love (8) .................................... . • The Language Camp: for those who want to improve their English skills • The Culture Camp: a chance to (9) .................................... the art and create their own (10) .................................... . 83

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 1 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. A Choose the option that best completes each sentences. 7. C (15 points) 8. C 1. B 9. B 9. B 2. C 10. C 10. B 3. B 11. A 4. B 12. A Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. B 13. A 11. the 6. B 14. B 12. watering 7. A 15. C 13. and 8. C 14. does 15. am Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the following dialogue with the sentences. Part 5 WRITING There is one EXTRA question. (10 points) 1. What’s her job? Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 2. What does she do on her job? sentence. (10 points) 3. What else does she do? 1. My classroom is on the third floor. 4. How many hours a day does she work? 2. John is a sales assistant and he works ten hours a day. 5. Does she enjoy her job? 3. A nurse takes care of the patients in a hospital. 4. Do you live in the city or in the countryside? Part 3 WORD FORMS 5. How many houses are there in your new neighbourhood? Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. construction Rewrite the following sentences with the given words 2. traditional and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 3. assistant unchanged. 4. lucky 6. My house has three bedrooms. 5. visiting 7. This is a very small house. 8. My mother is a teacher at this school. Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION 9. Mary works as a doctor at St. Luke’s Hospital. Read the following passage and decide whether the 10. Does your new house have a basement? statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 1. FALSE Part 6 LISTENING 2. TRUE Listen to a young girl describing her room. 3. FALSE Task 1. Listen and decide whether the statements are 4. TRUE 5. TRUE TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. FALSE 84 2. FALSE 3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. FALSE Task 2. L isten again and fill in the blank with ONLY ONE WORD from the recording. (10 points) 6. friends 7. bookshelf 8. magazines 9. cousins 10. floor

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 2 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. B Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. A (15 points) 8. C 1. A 9. B 9. B 2. B 10. B 10. B 3. C 11. C 4. A 12. B Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. C 13. A 11. old 6. C 14. A 12. subjects 7. B 15. B 13. don’t 8. C 14. up 15. have Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the following dialogue with the sentences. Part 5 WRITING There is one EXTRA question. (10 points) 1. How many subjects do you have at school, Lan? Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 2. Just the same. sentence. (10 points) 3. I enjoy I.T. and physical education. 1. How much money was the house worth? 4. Do you join any sports club? 2. Molly was making breakfast at 6.30 a.m. yesterday. 5. Great to hear! 3. William likes studying geography but I don’t. 4. The thief stole the jewelry worth $10,000. Part 3 WORD FORMS 5. Ronald doesn’t know which club to join. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. favorite Rewrite the following sentences with the given words 2. useful and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 3. activities / activity unchanged. 4. leader 6. My favorite subject is history. 5. fought 7. Simon last saw the car last Tuesday. 8. At 5.30 p.m. yesterday, I was having a biology class/ I Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the was in my biology class. statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 9. Someone I really admire is General Vo Nguyen Giap. 1. FALSE 10. B efore becoming the king, Ngo Quyen won the Battle 2. FALSE 3. TRUE of Bach Dang River. 4. FALSE 5. FALSE Part 6 LISTENING Task 1. Listen and complete the table with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS from the recording. (10 points) 1. garden 2. (some) roses 3. kitchen 4. making lunch 5. playing the piano Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. FALSE 85 7. FALSE 8. FALSE 9. TRUE 10. FALSE

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) PROGRESS TEST 1 6. C 7. C Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 8. A Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 9. A (15 points) 10. B 1. C 9. C Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 2. B 10. C 11. is 3. A 11. A 12. There 4. B 12. B 13. small 5. A 13. A 14. but 6. B 14. C 15. favourite 7. B 15. B 8. A Part 5 WRITING Part 2 SPEAKING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete Choose appropriate questions from a list to complete sentence. (10 points) the blanks. There are THREE extra questions. (10 points) 1. What housework does your sister do at weekends? 1. How is your new school? 2. Americans prepare a lot of things for Christmas. 2. Where is your classroom? 3. George Washington was a famous American hero of the 3. Is it big or small? 4. What about your subjects at school? 18th century. 5. What is your favourite subject? 4. A t Tet, Vietnamese people often watch lion dances and Part 3 WORD FORMS fireworks. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 5. A construction worker builds offices and houses. 1. decoration 2. outdoor Rewrite the following sentences with the given words 3. traditional and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 4. gift unchanged. (10 points) 5. mysteriously 6. I don’t like maths. 7. My cousin works as a sales assistant. Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION 8. There are three bedrooms in my house. Read the following passage and decide whether the 9. John decorated the Christmas tree with lights. statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 10. What subject do you like best? 1. TRUE 2. TRUE Part 6 LISTENING 3. TRUE 4. FALSE Task 1. Listen and write down the job of the speaker’s 5. FALSE family members. (10 points) 1. doctor 86 2. housewife 3. doctor 4. teacher 5. students Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. FALSE 7. TRUE 8. TRUE 9. FALSE 10. TRUE

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 3 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. B 7. C Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 8. B (15 points) 9. C 1. A 9. C 10. C 2. C 10. C 3. A 11. B Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 4. B 12. B 11. with 5. C 13. A 12. are 6. B 14. C 13. get 7. A 15. B 14. him 8. C 15. Because Part 2 SPEAKING Part 5 WRITING Choose appropriate questions from a list to complete the blanks. There are THREE extra questions. (10 points) Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 1. Are you doing anything this Saturday? sentence. (10 points) 2. Our family are having a picnic. Do you want to come? 1. What do we need for our picnic? 3. Bring your sleeping bag. We will bring some snacks and 2. We need to bring battery to charge our mobile phones. 3. My best friend and I often play in the park after school. water. 4. Tina is kind because she shares food with poor children. 4. What’s it for? 5. C ould you order six pillows and some flashlights for our 5. Great idea! trip? Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) Rewrite the following sentences with the given words 1. bottled and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 2. fishing unchanged. (10 points) 3. unfriendly 6. Rachel has long brown hair. 4. helpful 7. Kate is having a birthday party tonight. 5.. signature 8. What color hair does Sean have? 9. Jack is a very confident speaker. Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION 10. You don’t need candles/ You don’t need to bring Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) candles. 1. FALSE 2. FALSE Part 6 LISTENING 3. FALSE 4. TRUE Task 1. Listen again and decide whether the statements 5. TRUE are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 3. TRUE 4. TRUE 5. TRUE Task 2. Listen again and fill in the blank with ONLY ONE WORD from the recording. (10 points) 6. 1876 7. 14/ fourteen 8. trouble 9. adventures 10. literature 87

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 4 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. A Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. A (15 points) 8. B 1. C 9. C 9. C 2. B 10. B 10. C 3. C 11. A 4. B 12. B Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. A 13. A 11. to 6. B 14. B 12. tell 7. C 15. A 13. was 8. C 14. in 15. age Part 2 SPEAKING Match the questions in column A with the correct Part 5 WRITING response in column B. There is one EXTRA response. (10 points) Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 1-B sentence. (10 points) 2-F 1. Sarah didn’t know who played the drums in that band. 3-C 2. She was confused about what happened in the movie. 4-D 3. What kind of show is Who want to be a millionnaire? 5-A 4. Tom Cruise plays the main character in Mission Impossible. 5. Country music is one of the most popular in the States. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) Rewrite the following sentences with the given words 1. boring and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 2. beginning unchanged. (10 points) 3. competition(s) 6. Why don’t we watch a musical together? 4. southern 7. There are three cinemas in this area. 5. entertains/ entertained 8. W hat are you going to do this Sunday?/What are you Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION doing this Sunday? Read the following passage and decide whether the 9. I watched a movie called Kitty Cat. statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 10. I don’t like watching drama. 1. TRUE 2. FALSE Part 6 LISTENING 3. TRUE Task 1. Listen and choose the correct answer to each of 4. FALSE 5. TRUE the questions.(10 points) 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A Task 2. L isten again and fill in the blank with ONE WORD from the recording. (10 points) 6. 2016 7. theater 8. interesting 9. musicians 10. funny 88

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY PROGRESS TEST 2 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. C Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. C (15 points) 8. A 1. B 9. C 9. B 2. B 10. A 10. A 3. A 11. C 4. A 12. A Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. B 13. B 11. to 6. C 14. C 12. make 7. C 15. C 13. need 8. C 14. first 15. also Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the best options to complete the dialogue. Part 5 WRITING (10 points) 1. A Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 2. A sentence. (10 points) 3. C 1. Last night, I watched a cartoon called Tom and Jerry. 4. B 2. Teenagers enjoy listening to pop music from Korea and 5. A the USA. Part 3 WORD FORMS 3. At the party, all of us danced to our favourite pop music. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 4. My friend is going to have an important test at the 1. musicians 2. unpopular beginning of the week. 3. wonderfully 5. I often write about my daily activities in my diary. 4. height 5. romantic Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION stay unchanged. (10 points) Read the following passage and choose the best 6. Peter enjoys playing the guitar. answers to the questions. (5 points) 7. Mary has short hair. 1. A 8. You don’t need to bring so many clothes. 2. A 9. Why don’t we go for a picnic next Sunday? 3. C 10. John is going shopping this weekend. 4. B 5. B Part 6 LISTENING Listen and choose the correct answers. (10 points) 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. FALSE 7. FALSE 8. TRUE 9. FALSE 10. TRUE 89

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 5 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. B Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. B (15 points) 8. A 1. B 9. C 9. B 2. A 10. C 10. A 3. B 11. B 4. C 12. A Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. C 13. B 11. at 6. B 14. A 12. next 7. C 15. A 13. in 8. B 14. price 15. the Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the dialogues with the sentences. There is Part 5 WRITING ONE EXTRA sentence. (10 points) 1. Good evening. I booked a table for two at 8 p.m. Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 2. Can I have the menu, please? sentence. (10 points) 3. Can I have some water? 1. Excuse me, this is not what I ordered. 4. Is there anything you recommend? 2. A mericans like to eat hamburgers, which is made with 5. Oh, great! I’ll order that. ground beef. Part 3 WORD FORMS 3. The post office is between the mall and the theater. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 4. What do you often have for main courses? 1. fried 5. Can I have a cup of coffee with both milk and sugar, 2. assistants 3. happily please? 4. tasty 5. shoppers Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION unchanged. (10 points) Read the following passage and decide whether the 6. The store is out of pink shirts. statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 7. Paella is often made with rice, chicken and vegetables. 1. FALSE 8. Timothy is an expert on foods around the world. 2. TRUE 9. Pho tastes and smells wonderful. 3. TRUE 10. Are you ready to order? 4. TRUE 5. FALSE Part 6 LISTENING 90 Task 1. Listen and choose the correct letter (A-F) to match the places (1-5). (10 points) 1. bakery F 2. clothes store E 3. shoe store C 4. post office D 5. bus station A Task 2. L isten again and write down what Tim needs at each place. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS. (10 points) 6. bakery cakes and sandwiches 7. clothes store (a new) belt 8. shoe store sandals 9. post office (some) postcards 10. bus station bus tickets

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) UNIT TEST 6 6. B 7. B Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 8. A Choose the option that best completes each sentences. 9. C (15 points) 10. B 1. C 9. C 2. B 10. A Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 3. B 11. B 11. doing 4. C 12. B 12. started 5. A 13. A 13. in 6. A 14. C 14. make 7. C 15. A 15. for 8. B Part 5 WRITING Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the following dialogue with the sentences. Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete There is one EXTRA question. (10 points) sentence. (10 points) 1. My health is not quite good so I just do yoga. 1. T he gymnast won a total of ten medals at 3 Olympic 2. Who is your favorite player? 3. Which position does he play? Games. 4. What team does he play for? 2. The principal invited a sports star to give a talk at my 5. What makes you admire him so much? school yesterday. Part 3 WORD FORMS 3. Usain Bolt is a famous sprinter who was born in Jamaica. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 4. I usually play hide and seek with my classmates during 1. championships 2. national break time. 3. swimmer(s) 5. How often does Susan play badminton with her sister? 4. stole 5. adventurous Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION unchanged. Read the following passage and decide whether the 6. Have you ever been rock climbing? statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 7. When was Huynh Duc born? 1. FALSE 8. I would like to try surfing some day. 2. TRUE 9. When she was 16 (years old), Anh Vien took part in her 3. FALSE 4. FALSE first Olympic. 5. TRUE 10. I’m never late for school. Part 6 LISTENING Listen to a young girl describing her room. Task 1. Listen and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 3. FALSE 4. FALSE 5. TRUE Task 2. L isten again and fill in the blank with ONLY ONE WORD from the recording. (10 points) 6. June 30 / 30 June 91 7. champion 8. youngest 9. 23/ twenty three 10. successful

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY PROGRESS TEST 3 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. B Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. B (15 points) 8. C 1. A 9. A 9. C 2. C 10. A 10. A 3. C 11. B 4. A 12. A Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. B 13. A 11. a 6. A 14. B 12. means 7. B 15. C 13. cooked / made 8. B 14. buy 15. to Part 2 SPEAKING Choose appropriate questions from a list to complete Part 5 WRITING the blanks. There are THREE extra questions. (10 points) 1. Can I help you? Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 2. What size would you like? sentence. (10 points) 3. Do you have a changing room? 1. My favourite café is opposite a bakery on Green Street. 4. How much is it? 2. My sister rarely watches television after school. 5. Do you need anything else? 3. There are many popular kinds of spaghetti in Italy. 4. H er daughter usually wants to drink some orange juice Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) after breakfast. 1. wonderful 5. My friends and I often go swimming on the weekends. 2. player 3. usually Rewrite the following sentences with the given words 4. juicy and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 5. waitress unchanged. (10 points) 6. John has never played basketball before. Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION 7. Jack is never late for class. Read the following passage and decide whether the 8. John does not often go to school by bike. statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 9. The bakery is between a bookstore and a corner shop. 1. TRUE 10. I have not met Tom since February. 2. FALSE 3. TRUE Part 6 LISTENING 4. TRUE 5. FALSE Task 1. Listen and choose the 5 things that the woman ordered. (10 points) 92 1. Noodles 2. Soup 3. Lemonade 4. Soft drinks 5. Fruits Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. FALSE 7. TRUE 8. FALSE 9. FALSE 10. TRUE

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 7 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (160. Apoints) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 7. C 8. A Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 9. B (15 points) 10. B 1. A 9. A 2. B 10. C Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 3. B 11. C 11. However 4. C 12. B 12. predict / forecast 5. C 13. A 13. between 6. B 14. C 14. learn / understand / know 7. B 15. C 15. think 8. B Part 5 WRITING Part 2 SPEAKING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete Choose the correct response to complete the dialogue. sentence. (10 points) (10 points) 1. Robots can help doctors operate on patients. 1. C 2. Astronauts have to lock their sleeping bags to the wall. 2. A 3. Life as a scientist can be really interesting. 3. B 4. Astronauts have to complete a checklist every day. 4. B 5. Who was the first Vietnamese person to go to space? 5. C Rewrite the following sentences with the given words Part 3 WORD FORMS and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) unchanged. 1. daily 6. John is the tallest in his class. 2. health 7. We have run out of tea now. 3. helpful 8. Because robots don’t need to sleep, they can work all 4. difference 5. disagree day and night. 9. Jack is the oldest in the group. Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION 10. You should eat more fruit. Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Part 6 LISTENING 1. FALSE 2. TRUE Task 1. L isten to the recording and fill in each blank with 3. TRUE 4. FALSE a NUMBER. (10 points) 5. FALSE 1. 4 2. 2 3. 50 4. 45 5. 5697-8899 Task 2. L isten again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. TRUE 93 7. FALSE 8. FALSE 9. FALSE 10. FALSE

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 8 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. C Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. C (15 points) 8. A 1. B 9. C 9. A 2. C 10. B 10. B 3. C 11. A 4. A 12. B Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. B 13. B 11. has 6. B 14. C 12. no 7. A 15. A 13. took 8. C 14. longest 15. between Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct questions to make a complete con- Part 5 WRITING versation. There are 5 EXTRA questions that you don’t need to use. (10 points) Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 1. Where are you going to spend your summer holiday? sentence. (10 points) 2. How are you going to get there? 1. Where is the teacher going to spend his summer vacation? 3. How long are you going to stay in Hanoi? 2. Ho Chi Minh City has a larger population than Hue does. 4. Where are you going to stay in Sapa? 3. M ichelle is going to visit the Hyde Park during her trip to 5. Who are you going to travel with? London. Part 3 WORD FORMS 4. I think we should go by taxi because the museum is too Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. amusement far from here. 2. peaceful 5. V iet Nam’s natural wonders attract thousands of foreign 3. exciting 4. relaxation tourists each year. 5. angrily Rewrite the following sentences with the given words Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Read the following passage and decide whether the unchanged. (10 points) statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 6. Helen is taller than John (is). 1. TRUE 7. Peter is going to spend his vacation by the sea. 2. FALSE 8. You should travel by train. 3. TRUE 9. That book is more interesting than this one. 4. FALSE 10. Let’s go / travel by bus. 5. TRUE Part 6 LISTENING 94 Task 1. Listen once and choose 5 things that Mr. John mentioned about Viet Nam. (10 points) 1. The food 2. The weather 3. Means of transport 4. The people 5. The nature Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. FALSE 7. FALSE 8. TRUE 9. TRUE 10. TRUE

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY PROGRESS TEST 4 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. B Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. B (15 points) 8. C 1. A 9. C 9. A 2. B 10. A 10. C 3. B 11. A 4. A 12. C Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. C 13. C 11. most 6. B 14. A 12. and 7. C 15. A 13. world 8. A 14. spend 15. take Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the best options to complete the dialogue. Part 5 WRITING (10 points) 1. A Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 2. B sentence. (10 points) 3. A 1. This robot can understand lots of languages. 4. C 2. Astronauts have to wear spacesuits in space. 5. C 3. Y ou should exercise for thirty minutes a day to stay Part 3 WORD FORMS healthy. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 4. Modern technology is very helpful in hospitals and 1. famous 2. operation factories. 3. energetically 5. Do you think London is more interesting than Paris? 4. strength 5. different Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION stay unchanged. (10 points) Read the following passage and choose the best 6. John has the most books in his class. answers to the questions. (5 points) 7. No one else in the group runs as fast as Peter (does). 1. TRUE 8. I am going to complete this work in one week. 2. TRUE 9. You should not smoke. 3. FALSE 10. The robot is able to sing any song. 4. TRUE 5. FALSE Part 6 LISTENING Task 1. Listen to the news and complete each blank with ONE word or number. (10 points) 1. evening 2. morning 3. 5 4. animals 5. images Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. FALSE 7. FALSE 8. TRUE 9. TRUE 10. TRUE 95

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 9 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. A Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. C (15 points) 8. B 1. A 9. B 9. B 2. B 10. C 10. C 3. C 11. A 4. A 12. B Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. B 13. A 11. do 6. B 14. C 12. how 7. C 15. C 13. without 8. C 14. attend 15. assistant Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct response. (10 points) Part 5 WRITING 1. B 2. A Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 3. C sentence. (10 points) 4. B 1. Mary would rather play table tennis next Sunday. 5. C 2. I think that people will watch television programs on Part 3 WORD FORMS smart walls. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 3. T he organizer of this project hopes that the students will 1. interactive 2. technologically use fewer plastic bags in their life. 3. useful 4. Y oung students can use tablets to read books and go 4. printer 5. different online. 5. John would like a little cheese in his sandwich. Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and choose the correct Rewrite the following sentences with the given words answers to the questions. (5 points) and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 1. A unchanged. (10 points) 2. C 6. Mary would rather type essays than write them. 3. A 7. John would rather not work online. 4. A 8. Only a few students attend Ms. Brown’s class. 5. B 9. Y ou don’t need / have to go to school to learn a 96 language now. 10. John thinks it will rain tomorrow. Part 6 LISTENING Task 1: L isten once and choose 5 things that the speaker mentions the island has.(10 points) 1. A cinema 2. A zoo 3. A theatre 4. A stadium 5. A hotel Task 2. Listen again and choose the best answers. (10 points) 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY UNIT TEST 10 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. C Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. C (15 points) 8. A 1. B 9. C 9. A 2. B 10. B 10. B 3. A 11. A 4. C 12. B Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. C 13. A 11. for 6. A 14. A 12. name 7. B 15. C 13. comes 8. C 14. takes 15. by Part 2 SPEAKING Make questions to complete the following conversation. Part 5 WRITING (10 points) 1. Where do you think we should go? Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 2. Where would you like to go? sentence. (10 points) 3. Which (one) do you prefer? 1. Students can help recycle many different things. 4. How long does it take to get there? 2. J ohn says people in his village use a lot of water to grow 5. Where can we stay? trees. Part 3 WORD FORMS 3. The government plans to improve the quality of the Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. safe water supply. 2. environmental 4. What do you think we should do this summer? 3. reuse 5. Walking to school takes me twenty minutes. 4. percentage 5. improvements Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION unchanged. (10 points) Read the following passage and match the numbers 6. It takes Jack two hours to cycle to the countryside. with the facts. (5 points) 7. Mary and John always reuse water bottles. 1-b 8. My mother never leaves the lights on. 2-c 9. We are careless, so accidents take place. 3-e 10. Mary advises Helen to join the camping trip. 4-d 5-a Part 6 LISTENING Task 1. C omplete each blank with ONE word or number. (10 points) 1. school 2. environment 3. four 4. yard 5. green Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. TRUE 97 7. FALSE 8. TRUE 9. TRUE 10. FALSE

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) PROGRESS TEST 54 6. B 7. C Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 8. A Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 9. A (15 points) 10. C 1. A 9. C 2. B 10. C Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 3. C 11. B 11. turns 4. C 12. C 12. leaves 5. A 13. A 13. many 6. B 14. A 14. recycling 7. B 15. B 15. do 8. A Part 5 WRITING Part 2 SPEAKING Match the questions with the appropriate responses. Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete (10 points) sentence. (10 points) 1-C 1. We will have better technology, so our homes will 2-A 3-E change a lot. 4-D 2. Y ou should not leave the lights on all night because they 5-B waste electricity. Part 3 WORD FORMS 3. Most people will live under the sea in the next century. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 4. T he students are trying their best to pass the coming 1. populous 2. industry examination. 3. information 5. T he teacher will make the lesson more interesting for 4. smartly 5. automatic the students to learn. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Read the following passage and choose the best unchanged. (10 points) answers. (5 points) 6. B ecause its story and characters are interesting, the book 1. B 2. A is very popular among teenagers. 3. B 7. Mary says (that) I should visit Ha Long Bay. 4. C 8. Jack plans to buy a new smartphone. 5. C 9. It takes my sister two hours every week to sort out her 98 stamps. 10. John would rather camp than stay in hotels. Part 6 LISTENING Task 1. Listen to the first part and tick the FIVE activities that the class will do. (10 points) 1. making posters 2. cleaning up the street 3. sorting out garbage 4. recycling things 5. repaint classroom walls Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1- I 2- B 3- A 4- G 5- D

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) SEMESTER TEST 1 6. C 7. C Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 8. A Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 9. B (15 points) 10. A 1. B 9. C 2. A 10. B Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 3. B 11. C 11. with 4. A 12. A 12. are 5. C 13. B 13. example 6. B 14. B 14. new 7. C 15. C 15. for 8. C Part 5 WRITING Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points) Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 1. B sentence. (10 points) 2. A 1. O n Thanksgiving, people eat special meals with their 3. C 4. B family and friends. 5. A 2. Someone that I really admire is Ngo Quyen. 3. M y father does the least housework because he’s at work Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) for most of the day. 1. kindly 4. You can buy hamburgers at the bakery opposite the 2. married 3. indoor police station. 4. entertainment 5. Who’s your favorite character from a comic book? 5. musicals Rewrite the following sentences with the given words Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Read the following passage and decide whether the unchanged. (10 points) statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) 6. There is a living room, two bedrooms and a kitchen in 1. TRUE 2. FALSE my apartment. 3. TRUE 7. Tim is going to make a pizza this Saturday with his 4. TRUE 5. FALSE classmates. 8. My favorite subject is physics.. 9. It’s not necessary (for you) to bring sleeping bags. 10. Why don’t we go to the movies tonight? Part 6 LISTENING Task 1. Listen and decide if the statement is TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. TRUE 2. TRUE 3. FALSE 4. TRUE 5. FALSE Task 2. Listen again and answer the following 99 questions. (10 points) 6. 3 days 7. next Sunday 8. 7 p.m. 9. 933581 10. 6.45

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY SEMESTER TEST 2 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 6. B Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 7. B (15 points) 8. A 1. B 9. C 9. C 2. B 10. A 10. C 3. C 11. A 4. A 12. A Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 5. B 13. C 11. few 6. C 14. B 12. by 7. B 15. B 13. talk 8. A 14. can 15. has Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points) Part 5 WRITING 1. A 2. A Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 3. B sentence. (10 points) 4. A 1. This book is more interesting than that one. 5. B 2. R obots are able to work all day and night without Part 3 WORD FORMS making any mistakes. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 3. Students have to complete their homework before class. 1. natural 4. My teacher is going to go on holiday. 2. peacefully 5. I think teenagers should play sports after school with 3. friendship 4. environmentalists their friends. 5. exciting Rewrite the following sentences with the given words Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay Read the following passage and choose the correct unchanged. (10 points) answers to the questions. (5 points) 6. This is the first time Peter and Tom have (ever) met. 1. A 7. No one else in John’s class is as intelligent as him / he is. 2. A 8. Because John is too busy, he can’t attend the party. 3. B 9. Jack plans to travel around the world next year. 4. C 10. Helen is faster than Mary (is). 5. B Part 6 LISTENING 100 Task 1. Choose 4 highlights of Vietnam as a destination. (10 points) 1. Food 2. Scenery 3. Climate 4. People Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 5. FALSE 6. TRUE 7. TRUE 8. TRUE 9. FALSE 10. FALSE

PRACTICE TEST ANSWER KEY Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) ADVANCESD 1 6. A 7. B Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH 8. C Choose the options that best complete the sentences. 9. C (15 points) 10. A 1. B 9. C 2. C 10. A Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) 3. C 11. C 11. common 4. B 12. A 12. part 5. A 13. A 13. lower 6. B 14. A 14. spending 7. C 15. B 15. with 8. C Part 5 WRITING Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct answer to each question. (10 points) Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete 1. B sentence. (10 points) 2. B 1. What do you think the government is going to do to 3. A 4. A improve the water system? 5. C 2. It must be Amanda who opened the door because she Part 3 WORD FORMS was at home then. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 3. If David feeds the fish, I will do the gardening. 1. threatened 4. After the Mongols lost the Battle of Bach Dang River, they 2. mysteriously 3. picnickers left Vietnam. 4. disagreement 5. M y prediction is that people will live in houses powered 5. uninteresting by solar energy in the next decade. Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the Rewrite the following sentences with the given words statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay 1. TRUE unchanged. (10 points) 2. FALSE 6. No one else in my class is as tall as Tom (is). 3. FALSE 7. Because of the heavy rain, we had to cancel the picnic. 4. TRUE 8. Who does this book belong to? 5. FALSE 9. Baby Fred is able to walk quite fast now. 10. There are fewer facilities in the country than in big cities. Part 6 LISTENING Task 1. L isten and decide if the statement is TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 3. TRUE 4. FALSE 5. TRUE Task 2. Listen again and complete the notes. Fill in the blank with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the recording. (10 points) 6. efficient 101 7. switched off 8. (being) used 9. 350 10. air quality