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CUET English Language

Published by Laxmi Publications (LP), 2022-05-10 10:37:32

Description: CUET English Language

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M-16 English Language Test for CUET 4. “… like one of those poor, tired leaves”. Which literary device is used in this sentence? A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Repetition D. Assonance E. None of these 5. How has Johnsy’s illness affected her? A. She has grown sick of it. B. She has grown negative towards life. C. She wants to stay alone. D. She is reluctant to recover. E. None of these 6. Which word does scorn as used in the passage correspond to? A. disrespect B. contempt C. ridicule D. criticism E. None of these 7. What is Sue going to draw? A. Scenery B. Animal C. Portrait D. School E. None of these 8. Which sentence is this? “Don’t try to move until I come back”. A. Simple B. Complex C. Complex D. Compound complex E. None of these 9. Which option makes the correct use of POOR as used in the passage? A. They were too poor to buy shoes for the kids. B. They provided food and shelter for the poor. C. The food was of very poor quality. D. It’s hungry—the poor little thing. E. None of these 10. Which part of speech is THIS in “this morning”? A. Demonstrative pronoun B. Demonstrative Adjective C. Relative pronoun D. Reflexive pronoun E. None of these B. Complete the following passage by selecting the most 13. Which of these fits gap 3? suitable word/phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap. (A) seldom (B) possibly (C) not (D) occasionally Critics have often said that space flight has 14. Which of these fits gap 4? been an .......1....... use of resources that should have (A) renounced (B) renowned .......…2........ to feeding, clothing and housing people. There is, however, no proof that if we had ........3........ (C) relevant (D) remarkable been working on space, we would have done anything of great human value. In fact, research and exploration C. The following questions (15-19) consist of words have a ........4........ spin-offs, quite apart from the fact underlined, followed by four words or phrases. Choose the that they demonstrate that man is alive and insatiably word that could best be replaced with the given word or curious. phrase. 15. When do you propose to hold the next meeting? 11. Which of these fits gap 1? (A) charge (B) suggest (A) extravagant (B) economical (C) try (D) organize (C) benevolent (D) appropriate 16. Be careful lest you should bruise your knee against the wall. 12. Which of these fits gap 2? (A) allotted (B) gone (A) injure (B) hit (C) devoted (D) reserved (C) strike (D) apply

Mock Test Paper 4 M-17 17. Andrews takes great care in completion of his 27. The flag was lowered down when the Prime duties. He is a diligent person. Minister of the country passed away. (A) intelligent (A) crossed the way (B) died (B) understanding (C) gave a speech (D) saluted the flag (C) hard working and sincere 28. You can not even imagine my miserable condition, only the wearer knows where the (D) lazy and insincere shoe pinches. 18. She does not know much of mathematics. I (A) only I know the truth think she is incapable of solving this problem. (A) able (B) expert (B) we are not sure of anything (C) creative (D) unable (C) only the sufferer knows the real situation 19. A man who is fragile can easily be disturbed by (D) only God knows the truth others. 29. Whenever Akbar, the Great, needed Birbal’s (A) delicate and sensitive advice, he sent for him. (B) unknown (A) ordered him to come (C) intelligent (B) sent a letter (D) foolish and nonsense (C) sent a gift for Birbal D. Select the most appropriate alternative in each of the (D) invited Birbal to dinner following questions. F. Select the most appropriate alternative for the given 20. The opposite of ‘wild’ is expressions in each of the following questions. (A) tame (B) forest 30. Regard for others as a principle of action (C) coward (D) small (A) cynicism (B) nepotism 21. The opposite of ‘unfaithful’ is (C) philanthropy (D) altruism (A) grateful (B) faithful 31. A disease which spreads by contact (C) disfaithful (D) helpless (A) infectious (B) contagious 22. The opposite of ‘slow’ is (C) contiguous (D) contextual (A) fast (B) faster 32. An animal story with a moral (C) fastest (D) gradual (A) fable (B) tale 23. The antonym of ‘lead’ is (C) anecdote (D) parable (A) mislead (B) follow 33. Change in shape, nature or substance (C) go (D) push (A) modulate (B) substitute 24. The antonym of ‘sympathy’ is (C) remodel (D) transmute (A) apathy (B) hate 34. A person who believes that God is everything and everything is God (C) inapathy (D) zeal (A) agnostic (B) theist E. The following questions (25-29) consist of words underlined. Choose the word or phrase that could best be (C) pantheist (D) pagan replaced with the given words. G. In the following questions, choose the word with correct 25. Good values and great ideas are going to stay spelling. for good. They will never die. 35. (A) enormous (B) enterprise (A) never (C) florist (D) humilliate (B) for ever 36. (A) treachery (B) bolstor (C) for a brief period (C) revelation (D) reciprocal (D) not for a single moment 37. (A) derisive (B) typewriter 26. The strike was called off and the pilots returned (C) relative (D) medisine to work. 38. (A) betrayet (B) forsaken (A) needed (B) initiated (C) impetuous (D) recognize (C) cancelled (D) invited

M-18 English Language Test for CUET 39. (A) forcast (B) pastime 5. All languages, even those of so-called ‘primitive’ (C) several (D) ridiculous tribes have clever grammatical components. H. In the following passage numbered blank spaces are left. 44. Which sentence should come third in the For each blank space four words or phrases (1, 2, 3, 4) are paragraph? given. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to fill the corresponding gap. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Malnutrition most commonly ___1___ between (E) 5 the ages of six months and two years. This happens in spite of the child’s food requirements being less 45. Which sentence should come last in the than those of ___2___ child. Malnutrition is often paragraph? attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities (A) 1 (B) 2 of food, more than 50 per cent of children-under- five ___3___ consume enough food. The child’s (C) 3 (D) 4 dependence on someone else to feed ___4___ is primarily responsible for malnutrition. (E) 5 46. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 40. Which of these fits gap 4? (E) 5 (A) them (B) him/her 47. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph? (C) him (D) her 41. Which of these fits gap 3? (A) 1 (B) 2 (A) does not (B) need not (C) 3 (D) 4 (C) do not (D) dare not (E) 5 42. Which of these fits gap 1? 48. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph? (A) comes (B) in often (C) noticed (D) occurs (A) 1 (B) 2 43. Which of these fits gap 2? (C) 3 (D) 4 (A) a rich (B) a poor (E) 5 (C) an older (D) a smarter J. In each of the following questions, the phrase/word in bold has to be replaced with the one from the options, which I. In the following question-set, rearrange the sentences in a makes the sentence grammatically correct. So, tick (A), (B), proper order and answer the questions that follow. (C), or (D) for that phrase/word. If the phrase in bold is correct, mark ‘E’ as your answer. 1. By changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we 49. He is pass in English. are able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. (A) is passed (B) has passed 2. No student of a foreign language needs to be (C) passes (D) was pass told that grammar is complex. (E) No correction required 3. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English 50. My hen has given ten eggs. language. (A) has laid (B) has been given 4. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon (C) gives (D) lays to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. (E) No correction required

Answers Mock Test Paper 1 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (D) 41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (E) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (B) Mock Test Paper 2 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (A) Mock Test Paper 3 1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (D) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (D) 46. (E) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (A) Mock Test Paper 4 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (D) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (A) Mock Test Paper 5 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (A) 50. (B) M-43

M-44 English Language Test for CUET Mock Test Paper 6 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (A) 25. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (D) 32. (E) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (B) Mock Test Paper 7 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (E) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (E) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (A) Mock Test Paper 8 1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (D) 21 (B) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (D) Mock Test Paper 9 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (B) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (E) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (A) Mock Test Paper 10 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B) 31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (E) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (A)


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