CUET Political Scieence

Cuet (Common University Entrance Test) For Undergraduate Courses Political Science (Code: 323) Vimla Rani Gupta   LAXMI PUBLICATIONS (P) LTD (An ISO 9001:2015 Company) BEngalURU  • Chennai • Guwahati • Hyderabad • Jalandhar Kochi  • Kolkata • lucknow • mumbai • Ranchi New Delhi

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Introduction National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the Undergraduate entrance tests for all the Central Universities (CUs) for the academic session 2022–2023. CUET will provide a single window opportunity to students to seek admission in any of the Central Universities (CUs) across the country. The CUET (UG)–2022 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) Mode. Examination Structure for CUET (UG)–2022: CUET (UG)–2022 will consist of the following four sections:  Section IA – 13 Languages  Section IB – 19 Languages  Section II – 27 Domain Specific Subjects  Section III – General Test Choosing options from each section is not mandatory. Choices should match the requirements of the desired University. Broad features of CUET (UG)–2022: Some features of CUET (UG)–2022 are as follows: Section Subjects/Tests Questions to Question Type Duration be Attempted Section IA– There are 13* different 40 questions to Language to be tested through 45 minutes Languages languages. Any of these be attempted for each languages may be chosen. out of 50 in each Reading Comprehension language language (based on different types of passages–Factual, Literary and Narrative, [Literary Aptitude and Vocabulary] Section IB– There are 19** languages. Languages Any other language apart from those offered in Section I A may be chosen. Section II– There are 27*** Domain 40 questions to • Input text can be used for 45 minutes Domain specific subjects being be attempted for each offered under this section. out of 50 MCQ Based Questions Domain Section III– A candidate may choose specific General a maximum of Six (06) 60 questions to • MCQs based on NCERT subjects Test Domains as desired by be attempted the applicable University/ out of 75 Class XII syllabus only 60 minutes Universities. For any such under- • Input text can be used for graduate programme/ programmes being offered MCQ Based Questions by Universities where a General Test is being used • General Knowledge, Current for admission. Affairs, General Mental Ability, Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple application of basic mathematical concepts arithmetic/algebra geometry/ mensuration/stat taught till Grade 8), Logical and Analytical Reasoning

* Languages (13): Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Gujarati, Odia, Bengali, Assamese, Punjabi, English, Hindi and Urdu ** Languages (19): French, Spanish, German, Nepali, Persian, Italian, Arabic, Sindhi, Kashmiri, Konkani, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Manipuri, Santhali, Tibetan, Japanese, Russian and Chinese. *** DomainSpecificSubjects(27):1.Accountancy/BookKeeping;2.Biology/BiologicalStudies/Biotechnology/ Biochemistry; 3. Business Studies; 4. Chemistry; 5. Computer Science/Informatics Practices; 6. Economics/ Business Economics; 7. Engineering Graphics; 8. Entrepreneurship; 9. Geography/Geology; 10. History; 11. Home Science; 12. Knowledge Tradition and Practices of India; 13. Legal Studies; 14. Environmental Science; 15. Mathematics; 16. Physical Education/NCC/Yoga; 17. Physics; 18. Political Science; 19. Psychology; 20. Sociology; 21. Teaching Aptitude; 22. Agriculture; 23. Mass Media/Mass Communication; 24. Anthropology; 25. Fine Arts/Visual Arts (Sculpture/Painting)/Commercial Arts; 26. Performing Arts– (i) Dance (Kathak/Bharatnatyam/Oddisi/Kathakali/Kuchipudi/Manipuri (ii) Drama-Theatre (iii) Music General (Hindustani/Carnatic/Rabindra Sangeet/Percussion/Non-Percussion); 27. Sanskrit [For all Shastri (Shastri 3 years/4 years Honours) Equivalent to B.A./B.A. Honours courses i.e. Shastri in Veda, Paurohitya (Karmakand), Dharamshastra, Prachin Vyakarana, Navya Vyakarana, Phalit Jyotish, Siddhant Jyotish, Vastushastra, Sahitya, Puranetihas, Prakrit Bhasha,Prachin Nyaya Vaisheshik, Sankhya Yoga, Jain Darshan, Mimansa, AdvaitaVedanta, Vishihstadvaita Vedanta, Sarva Darshan, a candidate may choose Sanskrit as the Domain]. • A candidate can choose a maximum of any 3 languages from Section IA and Section IB taken together. (One of the languages chosen needs to be in lieu of Domain specific subjects). • Section II offers 27 subjects, out of which a candidate may choose a maximum of 6 subjects. • Section III comprises General Test. • For choosing Languages (up to 3) from Section IA and IB and a maximum of 6 subjects from Section II and General Test under Section III, the candidate must refer to the requirements of his/her intended University. Level of questions for CUET (UG)–2022: All questions in various testing areas will be benchmarked at the level of Class XII only. Marking Scheme of Examination For Multiple Choice Questions: To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one option corresponding to the correct answer or the most appropriate answer. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner: (i) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+ 5) (ii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (– 1). (iii) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0). (iv) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options. (v) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vi) If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then all candidates who have appeared will be given five marks (+ 5). Note: C andidates are advised to visit the NTA CUET (UG)–2022 official website https://cuet.samarth.ac.in/, for latest updates regarding the Examination.

Contents PART A 3 9 CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS 14 20 1. Cold War Era in World Politics 24 2. Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity 28 3. US Dominance in World Politics 33 4. Alternative Centres of Economic and Political Power 36 5. South Asia in the Post-Cold War Era 40 6. International Organisations in a Unipolar World 7. Security in Contemporary World 8. Environment and Natural Resources in Global Politics 9. Globalisation and Its Critics PART B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE 10. The Era of One-Party Dominance 49 11. Nation-Building and Its Problems 54 12. Politics of Planned Development 61 13. India’s External Relations 70 14. Challenge to and Restoration of Congress System 78 15. Crisis of the Constitutional Order 83 16. Regional Aspirations and Conflicts 88 17. Rise of New Social Movements 93 18. Democratic Upsurge and Coalition Politics 97 19. Recent Issues and Challenges 100 Answers 104–110 MOCK TEST PAPERS 1. Mock Test Paper–1 ... M-1 2. Mock Test Paper–2 ... M-5 3. Mock Test Paper–3 ... M-10 4. Mock Test Paper–4 ... M-14 5. Mock Test Paper–5 ... M-18 ANSWERS Mock Test Paper 1 to 5 ... 22

Syllabus Note: There will be one Question Paper which will have 50 questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted. POLICTICAL SCIENCE – 323 POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE 1. The era of One-Party Dominance: First three general elections, nature of Congress dominance at the national level, uneven dominance at the state level, coalitional nature of Congress. Major opposition parties. 2. Nation-Building and Its Problems: Nehru’s approach to nation-building: Legacy of partition: the challenge of ‘refugee’ resettlement, the Kashmir problem. Organization and reorganization of states; Political conflicts over language. 3. Politics of Planned Development: Five-year plans, expansion of state sector, and the rise of new economic interests. Famine and suspension of five-year plans. Green revolution and its political fallouts. 4. India’s External Relations: Nehru’s foreign policy. Sino-Indian war of 1962, Indo-Pak war of 1965 and 1971. India’s nuclear programme and shifting alliances in world politics. 5. Challenge to and Restoration of Congress System: Political succession after Nehru. Non- Congressism and electoral upset of 1967, Congress split and reconstitution, Congress’ victory in 1971 elections, politics of ‘garibi hatao’. 6. Crisis of the Constitutional Order: Search for ‘committed’ bureaucracy and judiciary. Navnirman movement in Gujarat and the Bihar movement. Emergency: context, constitutional and extra- constitutional dimensions, resistance to emergency. 1977 elections and the formation of the Janata Party. Rise of civil liberties organizations. 7. Regional Aspirations and Conflicts: Rise of regional parties. Punjab crisis and the anti-Sikh riots of 1984. The Kashmir situation. Challenges and responses in the North East. 8. Rise of New Social Movements: Farmers’ movements, Women’s movement, Environment, and Development-affected people’s movements. Implementation of Mandal Commission report and its aftermath. 9. Democratic Upsurge and Coalition Politics: Participatory upsurge in the 1990s. Rise of the JD and the BJP. The increasing role of regional parties and coalition politics. UF and NDA governments. Elections 2004 and UPA government. 10. Recent Issues and Challenges: Challenge of and responses to globalization: new economic policy and its opposition. Rise of OBCs in North Indian politics. Dalit politics in the electoral and non- electoral arena. Challenge of communalism: Ayodhya dispute, Gujarat riots.

viii CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS 1. Cold War Era in World Politics: Emergence of two power blocs after the second world war. Arenas of the cold war. Challenges to Bipolarity: Non-Aligned Movement, the quest for new international economic order. India and the cold war. 2. Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity: New entities in world politics: Russia, Balkan states, and, Central Asian states, Introduction of democratic politics and capitalism in post-communist regimes. India’s relations with Russia and other post-communist countries. 3. US Dominance in World Politics: Growth of unilateralism: Afghanistan, first Gulf War, response to 9/11 and attack on Iraq. Dominance and challenge to the US in economy and ideology. India’s renegotiation of its relationship with the USA. 4. Alternative Centres of Economic and Political Power: Rise of China as an economic power in post- Mao era, creation, and expansion of European Union, ASEAN. India’s changing relations with China. 5. South Asia in the Post-Cold War Era: Democratisation and its reversals in Pakistan and Nepal. Ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka. Impact of economic globalization on the region. Conflicts and efforts for peace in South Asia. India’s relations with its neighbours. 6. International Organisations in a Unipolar World: Restructuring and the future of the UN. India’s position in the restructured UN. Rise of new international actors: new international economic organizations, NGOs. How democratic and accountable are the new institutions of global governance? 7. Security in Contemporary World: Traditional concerns of security and politics of disarmament. Non-traditional or human security: global poverty, health, and education. Issues of human rights and migration. 8. Environment and Natural Resources in Global Politics: Environment movement and evolution of global environmental norms. Conflicts over traditional and common property resources. Rights of indigenous people. India’s stand-in global environmental debates. 9. Globalisation and Its Critics: Economic, cultural and political manifestations. Debates on the nature of consequences of globalization. Anti-globalization movements. India as an arena of globalization and struggles against it.

PART A CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS 1. Cold War Era in World Politics 2. Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity 3. US Dominance in World Politics 4. Alternative Centres of Economic and Political Power 5. South Asia in the Post-Cold War Era 6. International Organisations in a Unipolar World 7. Security in Contemporary World 8. Environment and Natural Resources in Global Politics 9. Globalisation and Its Critics

CHAPTER 2 Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity In each of the following questions only one option (iii) There was lack of democracy and is correct. Select the correct option. absence of the freedom of speech in the Soviet Union. 1. Soviet Union came into being in (a) 1917 (b) 1919 (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii) only (c) 1945 (d) 1920 (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) None of these 2. Soviet Union disintegrated in the year 7. Which was the first Soviet Republic to declare its independence from the Soviet (a) 1945 (b) 1985 Union? (c) 1971 (d) 1991 (a) Lithuania (b) Moldava 3. What was the reason for the end of Bipolarity (c) Armenia (d) Georgia in world politics? 8. The most severe conflict took place in the (a) Disintegration of Soviet Union Balkan Republic of (b) End of The Cold War (a) Bulgaria (b) Greece (c) Role of Non-alignment Movement (c) Yugoslavia (d) Macedonia (d) All of these 9. The country that gave the aid and technical assistance for steel plants in India is 4. Russian Revolution of 1917 was inspired by the ideals of (a) USA (b) USSR (a) Socialism (c) Britain (d) Japan (b) Capitalism 10. The USSR came into being after the Socialist Revolution in Russia in the year (c) Both socialism and capitalism (d) None of these (a) 1915 (b) 1916 5. Mikhail Gorbachev became General (c) 1917 (d) 1918 Secretary of the Communist Party in the Soviet Union in: 11. The Russian Revolution in 1917 was led by (a) 1980 (b) 1985 (a) Joseph Stalin (c) 1990 (d) 1988 (b) Nikita Khrushchev 6. Which one of the following statements (c) Mikhail Gorbachev about the Soviet Union is true? (d) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin (i) The communist party had complete 12. The chechens are control over all institutions. (a) Bhuddhist group (ii) Soviet system became autocratic and (b) Christian ethnic group authoritarian. (c) Jewish ethnic group (d) Muslim ethnic group 9

10 Political Science 13. The Soviet Union invasion of Afghanistan (b) Having consensus among the in the year parliament members on security issues (a) 1975 (b) 1977 is vital for its implementation. (c) 1979 (d) 1981 (c) All security and peace-related issues are 14. Which country in Central Asia witnessed a dealt with in the Security Council. civil war that went on for ten years? (d) Humanitarian policies are implemented (a) Azerbaijan (b) Tajikistan by the main organs and specialised (c) Uzbekistan (d) Turkmenistan agencies spread across the globe. 15. Which among the following give more 20. The following country was accepted as weightage to India’s proposal for a the successor of USSR in the the Security permanent member in the Security Council? Council of UNO. (a) Located in Asia (a) Georgia (b) Ukraine (b) Nuclear Capability (c) Russia (d) Lithuania (c) A member of UN since its inception 21. Berlin Wall was broken in the year (d) All of these (a) 1980 (b) 1989 16. Which among the following statements is (c) 1991 (d) 2000 false about the Berlin Wall? 22. The post-Soviet countries underwent a (a) It marked the division of the two parts process of transition from an authoritian of Germany. socialist system to a/an ................. capitalist (b) It was broken by the people on 9 system. November, 1989. (a) Systematic (b) Democratic (c) It was built during the Second World (c) Aristocratic (d) Authoritative War. 23. Who is the present (October 2021) President (d) It symbolised the division between the of Russia? capitalist and the communist world. (a) Boris Yeltsin 17. Which one of the following was NOT a (b) Mikhail Gorbachev consequence of disintegration of the USSR? (c) Dimitri Medvedev (a) Many new states emerged. (d) Vladimir Putin (b) Russia emerged as a new economic 24. The first elected President of Russia was nation. (a) Boris Yeltsin (c) Power relations in world politics (b) Vladimir Putin changed. (c) Mikhail Gorbachev (d) The capitalist system emerged as the (d) Dimitri Medvedev winner. 25. Which of the country, India has strongest 18. Which one of the following was NOT given relationship? primacy by the makers of the Soviet System? (a) China (b) Russia (a) Society based on the principle of (c) America (d) None of these equality 26. Which among the following statements that (b) No state control over the economy describe the nature of Soviet economy is (c) State and Institution of the party wrong? (d) Abolition of private property (a) Socialism was the dominant ideology. 19. Which one of the following statements (b) State ownership/control existed over is wrong that describe the way the UN the factors of production. function? (c) People enjoyed economic freedom. (a) The members of the General Assembly (d) Every aspect of the economy was are automatically the members of all planned and controlled by the state. other principal organs and specialised agencies of the UN.

Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity 11 27. Which among the following is NOT an 33. Which of the following statement(s) was/ were correct about the Soviet system? outcome of the disintegration of the USSR? (i) It became very bureaucratic and (a) End of the ideological war between the authoritarian, making life very comfortable for its citizens. US and USSR (ii) Lack of democracy and absence of (b) Birth of CIS freedom of speech stifled people. (c) Change in the balance of power in the (iii) Some of the institutions needed reform because the Communist Party has tight world order control over all institutions. (d) Crises in the Middle East (iv) The communist Party of Soviet Union refused to recognise the urge of people 28. Which of the following Indian heros are in the fifteen republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own household names in Russia and many affairs including cultural affairs. post-Soviet countries? Select the correct answer using the force given below: (a) Raj Kapoor (a) (ii) and (iv) only (b) (i) and (iii) only (b) Amitabh Bachchan (c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (iii) and (iv) only 34. Arrange the following leaders of the USSR (c) Both (a) & (b) in the chronological order: (d) None of these (i) Mikhail Gorbachev (ii) Leonid Brezhnev 29. India is seeking to increase its energy (iii) Boris Yeltsin (iv) Nikita Khrushchev imports from which of the following (a) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) (c) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) countries? 35. Arrange the following events in the (a) Russia (b) Kazakhistan chronological order of their occurrance: (i) End of the Soviet Union (c) Turkmenistan (d) All of these (ii) Inkombank, Russia’s second largest 30. Both India and Russia share a vision of a bank went bankrupt (iii) Seperation of East Berlin from West .................... world order. Berlin (a) Unipolar (b) Bipolar (iv) Secessionist movement in Chechnya (a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (b) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (c) Multipolar (d) None of these (c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (d) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) 36. Arrange the following in chronological 31. Bolshevik Communist Party was founded order: by (i) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (ii) Fall of the Berlin Wall (a) Vladimir Lenin (iii) Disintegration of the Soviet Union (iv) Russian Revolution (b) Joseph Stalin (a) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii) (b) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) (c) Nikita Khrushchev 37. What were the consequences of the (d) Leonid Brezhnev disintegration of the USSR? 32. After the Second World War, the Soviet economy was more developed than the rest of the world except for the US because— (i) It had a complex communications network. (ii) It had vast energy resources including oil. (iii) It had a foreign consumer industry that produced everything from pins to cars. (iv) It had a underground transport system that connected its remotest areas with efficiency. Select the correct answer using the options given below: (a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only (d) (iii) and (iv) only

12 Political Science (i) End of Cold War confrontations (iii) In Georgia, the demand for between the US and the USSR independence has come from two provinces, resulting in a civil war. (ii) Beginning of the ideological war between the US and Russia (iv) There are movements against the existing regimes in Ukraine, Kyrgyzstan (iii) Creating a unipolar system in which the and Georgia. US became the sole superpower (a) (i) is in correct (iv) Emergence of many new countries due (b) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect to the end of the Soviet bloc (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are incorrect (d) All are incorrect Select the correct answer using the options 40. Which of the following statement(s) was/ given below: were correct regarding tensions and (a) (i) and (ii) only conflicts in Eastern Europe? (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (i) The conflict took place in the Balkan (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only region of Yogoslavia. 38. What were the consequences of the ‘Shock (ii) Yogoslavia broke apart with several Therapy’ on post-Soviet states especially provinces after 1991. Russia? (iii) Czechoslovakia split into two, with the (i) The large state-controlled industrial Czechs and the Slovaks. complex was almost collapsed. (iv) The NATO intervention and the (ii) The old system of social welfare was bombing of Yogoslavia allowed the systematically restored. inter-ethnic civil war. (iii) A mafia emerged and started controlling (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these many economic activities. 41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (iv) The great economic inequality created correct about Arab Spring? (i) Arab Spring began with Tunisian between people as Russia were divided Revolution in 2012. between rich and poor regions. (ii) Arab Spring was the outcome of Select the correct answer using the force autocratic dictatorship. given below: (iii) The demand of democracy that started (a) (i), (iii) and (iv) only in Tunisia spread throughout the (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only Muslim dominated Arab countries in (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only West Asia. (d) (i) and (iii) only (iv) Honsi Mubarak, who had been in power 39. Choose the number of incorrect statement(s) in Egypt since 1979, also collapsed. regarding tensions and conflicts in Central Select the correct answer from the force Asia— given below: (i) Tajikistan witnessed a war that went on (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) for fifteen years till 2001. (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (ii) In Azerbaijan’s province of Nagorno- Karabakh, some local Armenians want to secede and join Armenia. CASE STUDIES Case Study 1 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The Soviet system, however, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons. Most of the institutions of the Soviet state needed reform: the one-party system represented by the Communist Party of the Soviet Union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of people in the fifteen

Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity 13 different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including their cultural affairs. Although, on paper, Russia was only one of the fifteen republics that together constituted the USSR, in reality Russia dominated everything, and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed. 1. What was Soviet system? (iv) Unaccountable to the people (a) (i) and (ii) only (a) Bureaucratic (b) Authoritarian (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (c) Democratic (d) Both (a) and (b) (d) All of these 5. Which of the following was NOT given 2. How many republics formed Soviet Union? primacy by the makers of the socialist (a) 12 (b) 13 system? (a) No opposition party to be allowed (c) 14 (d) 15 (b) No state control over economy (c) Society based on the principle of 3. Ideology on which Soviet system was based equality on? (d) Abolition of private property (a) Socialism (b) Conservatism (c) Communism (d) Liberalism 4. Why did people become dissatisfied? (i) Tight control over all institutions (ii) Lack of Democracy (iii) Absence of freedom of speech Case Study 2 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The Central Asian Republics are areas with vast hydrocarbon resources, which have brought them economic benefit. Central Asia has also become a zone of competition between outside powers and oil companies. The region is next to Russia, China, Afghanistan, and Pakistan, and close to West Asia. After 11 September 2001, the US wanted military bases in the region and paid the governments of all Central Asian states to hire bases and to allow airplanes to fly over their territory during the wars in Afghanistan and Iraq. However, Russia perceives these states at its ‘Near Abroad’ and believes that they should be under Russian influence. China has interests here because of the oil resources, and the Chinese have begun to settle around the borders and conduct trade. In eastern Europe, Czechoslovakia split peacefully into two, with the Czechs and the Slovaks forming independent countries. But the most severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of Yugoslavia. After 1991, it broke apart with several provinces like Croatia, Slovenia and Bosnia and Herzegovina declaring independence. Ethnic Serbs opposed this, and a massacre of non-Serb Bosnians followed. The NATO intervention and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed the inter-ethinic civil war. 1. Which of the region has become a zone of (a) Afghanistan (b) Iraq competition between outside powers and oil companies? (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) East Asia (b) West Asia 4. Which of the following republic split into two in Eastern Europe? (c) South Asia (d) Central Asia (a) Czechoslovakia (b) Yogoslavia 2. How Central Asian economies benefited? (c) Slovenia (d) None of these (a) Due to external tourism 5. Name the republic/place where severe conflict took place. (b) Due to oil resources (c) Due to their industrial activities (a) Slovania (b) Bosania (d) Due to their hydrocarbon resources (c) Herzegovina (d) Yugoslavia 3. In which country US wanted military bases in Central Asia to allow airplanes to fly over their territory during the war in ................... .

28 Political Science CHAPTER 6 International Organisations in a Unipolar World In each of the following questions only one option 9. Which of the following countries does not is correct. Select the correct option. have Veto power in the Security Council? 1. U.N.O. was established in the year: (a) U.S.A. (b) Russia (a) 1919 (b) 1945 (c) India (d) China (c) 1947 (d) 1950 10. Which of the following organisations seek to promote the peaceful use of atomic energy? 2. ............ is celebrated as UN-Day every year. (a) 24th October (b) 20th October (a) I.L.O (b) IMF (c) 15th September (d) 14th November (c) IAEA (d) W.H.O 3. The number of countries who are members 11. International Labour Organisation was of U.N.O. at present (September 2016) is: established in the year: (a) 51 (b) 150 (a) 1945 (b) 1919 (c) 189 (d) 193 (c) 1950 (d) 1970 4. Which of the following countries is not a per- 12. Mark wrong against each of the following manent members of the Security Council: statements below about the Veto power: (a) India (b) U.S.A (a) Only the permanent members of the Se- curity Council possess the Veto power (c) Russia (d) China (b) It is a kind of negative power 5. Ban-Ki-Moon from ............ is the Secretary General of U.N.O.? (c) The Secretary-General uses this power when not satisfied with any decision (a) India (b) China (d) One Veto can stall a Security Council res- (c) South Korea (d) North Korea olution 6. Headquarters of U.N.O. are located at: 13. Which among the following would give more weightage to India's proposal for a permanent (a) Paris (b) London member in the Security Council? (c) New Delhi (d) New York 7. The headquarters of International Court of (a) Nuclear Capability Justice is located at: (b) It has been a member of the UN since its (a) New Delhi (India) inception (b) Hague (Holland) (c) India growing economic power and sta- ble political system (c) Geneva (Switzerland) (d) New York (U.S.A.) (d) All of the above 8. India became a member of U.N.O. in: 14. The U.N. agency concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology is: (a) 1945 (b) 1947 (a) The UN Committee on Disarmament (c) 1960 (d) 1955 (b) International Atomic Energy Agency 28

International Organisations in a Unipolar World 29 (c) UN International Safeguard Committee 23. The international organisation that works for the protection of human rights all over the (d) None of the above world is: 15. Who was the first woman President of the (a) Amnesty International U.N. General Assembly? (a) Sarojini Naidu (b) International Monetary Fund (b) Aruna Asaf Ali (c) World Trade Organisation (c) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit (d) International Court (d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur 24. The original member nations that signed the charter of the United Nations back in 1945 16. First Indian to make a speech in Hindi before were: the UN Assembly is: (a) Morarji Desai (a) 58 (b) 49 (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (c) 51 (d) 45 (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri 25. Kofi Annan created the Global Fund to fight AIDS, tuberculosis and: (d) Lal Krishan Advani (a) Diarrhea (b) Datigue 17. “The United Nations was not created to take humanity to the heaven, but to save it (c) Malaria (d) Smallpox from the hell”. Who made this statement? 26. The main objectives of International Atomic (a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru Energy Agency are to promote the peaceful use: (b) Kofi Annan (a) Nuclear energy (b) Global trade (c) Ban Kimoon (c) Military power (d) Veto power (d) Dag Hammarskjold 27. The more weightage to India's proposal 18. Name the members who are having Veto for permanent membership in the Security power? Council: (a) The U.S.A. (b) England (a) Nuclear capability (c) Russia (d) All of these (b) Located in Asia 19. Which country is a serious contender for per- (c) India's membership in the UN manent members of the Security Council? (d) India's growing economic power and (a) Russia (b) India stable political system (c) Pakistan (d) USA 28. Mark wrong against each of the following statements below that describe the way the 20. The International Court of Justice popularly UN functions. known as the: (a) World Court (b) Supreme Court (a) All security and peace-related issues are dealt with in the Security Council. (c) Criminal Court (d) Subordinate Courts (b) Humanitarian policies are implement- ed by the main organs and specialised 21. Trygre Lie was the first Secretary General agencies spread across the globe from: (a) Germany (b) Norway (c) Having consensus among the five per- manent members on security issues is (c) France (d) Italy vital for its implementation. 22. The two aspects of Human Rights are: (a) Social and legal aspects (d) The members of the General Assembly are automatically the members of all (b) Natural and legal aspects other principal organs and specialised agencies of the U.N. (c) Economic and political aspects (d) Economic and natural aspects

30 Political Science 29. WTO is serving as the successor to which of 39. Check which is not an agency of U.N? the following organisations: (a) International Committee of Red Cross (a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (b) FAO (b) General Arrangement on Trade and Tariff (c) IMF (c) World Health Organisation (d) ILO (d) UN Development Programme 40. Under the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the basic principles of fundamental 30. Who blocked the Second term for Boutros to human dignity are: Ghali as Secretary-General? (a) USA (b) India (a) 33 (b) 25 (c) France (d) China (c) 30 (d) 15 31. The UN Security Council has permanent 41. Pakistan withdrew from CENTO and SEATO ............ members. after the: (a) 3 (b) 4 (a) East Pakistan Crisis (c) 5 (d) 7 (b) U-2 Crisis 32. How many non-permanent members has (c) 1965 Indo-Pak War UN Security Councils? (d) 1971 War (a) 5 (b) 6 42. The leaders of 25 Asian and African coun- tries met in 1955 in: (c) 8 (d) 10 33. When was San Francisco Conference held? (a) Bandung Conference (a) April 25, 1945 (b) May 25, 1945 (b) Asian African Conference (c) March 25, 1945 (d) None of these (c) African Asian Conference 34. How many judges are there in the interna- (d) None of these tional Court of Justice? 43. Which of the following is used as the logo of (a) Fifteen judges (b) Sixteen judges the world wide fund for Nature (WWF)? (c) Seventeen judges (d) Eighteen judges (a) Deer (b) Panda 35. How many non-permanent members does (c) Camel (d) Lion the UN Security Council have? 44. The decisions of the UN Security Council are (a) Eight (b) Nine made by an affirmative vote of any: (c) Ten (d) Eleven (a) 5 members (b) 6 members 36. Expand IAEA? (c) 9 members (d) 15 members (a) International Atomic Energy Act 45. Which of the following organisations is meant for Children? (b) International Atomic Energy Acord (c) International Atomic Energy Agency (a) UNESCO (b) UNICEF (d) International Atomic Eastern Agency (c) UNHCR (d) UNHRC 37. Which of regional organizations has the most 46. Currently in 2016 UN peacekeeping opera- developed institutions? tions are: (a) EU (b) NAFTA (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) SAARC (d) Nordic (c) 15 (d) 14 38. Which of the following is not a member of 47. Who is the Single Largest Contributor of the G-8? UN? (a) Japan (b) China (a) Japan (b) China (c) Italy (d) Canada (c) Germany (d) America

International Organisations in a Unipolar World 31 48. The process through which a country can (c) National Aeronautics and Social Ad- assess its capacity to meet citizen's basic ministration human needs and standard of living is known as: (d) National Aeronautics and Space Agency (a) Self-determinations 55. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations Organisation? (b) Democratization (a) International Labour Organisation (c) Development (b) Security Council (d) None of these (c) International Court of Justice 49. Where the Headquarter of UNHCR is locat- (d) General Assembly ed? 56. The Indian delegation to the first world con- (a) Washington (b) Fila del Fila ference on Human Rights was led by ........... . (c) Geneva (d) Hong kong (a) Manmohan Singh 50. IGOs have a special legal status under the: (b) Farooq Abdullah (a) International Law (c) Dinesh Singh (b) UN Charter (d) Alam Khan (c) Human Rights Declaration 57. The Chairmanship/presidency of the UN Security Council rotates among the Council (d) None of these Members ........... . 51. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) (a) every 6 months (b) every 3 months was signed on? (a) 04 April 1952 (b) 04 April 1951 (c) every year (d) every month (c) 04 April 1953 (d) 04 April 1949 58. Antonio Guterres was the former Prime Minister of which country? 52. Which UN body deals with population prob- lem? (a) Norway (b) Italy (a) UNFPA (b) UNDP (c) Australia (d) Portugal (c) UNICEF (d) UNHRC 59. The International Organisation Act works for the protection of human rights all over the 53. The headquarter of UNESCO is at: world is: (a) New York (b) Paris (a) Amnesty International (c) Geneva (d) Rome (b) International Monetary Fund 54. What is the expansion of NASA? (c) World Trade Organisation (a) NationalAgencyofSpaceAdministration (d) International Court (b) Navigational Aeronautics and Space Ad- ministration CASE STUDIES Case Study 1 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organisation that oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level. The IMF has 189 member countries (as on 12 April 2016) but they do not enjoy an equal say. The G-7 members US (16.52%), Japan (6.15%), Germany (5.32%), France (4.03%), UK (4.03%), Italy (3.02%) and Canada (2.22%) have 41.29% of the votes. China (6.09%), India (2.64%), Russia (2.59%), Brazil (2.22%) and Saudi Arabia (2.02%) are the other major members.

32 Political Science 1. When was the International Monetary Fund 3. Which of the countries have more than (IMF) founded? 52 per cent of the votes? They are the G-8 members? (a) July 1941 (b) July 1942 (c) July 1944 (d) July 1946 (a) US (b) Japan 2. How many members had IMF as on (c) The UK (d) All of the above 12 April 2016? 4. Which of the country has 16.52 per cent (a) 187 (b) 189 voting rights? (c) 188 (d) 190 (a) Russia (b) The US (c) The UK (d) China Case Study 2 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The World Bank was created during the Second World War in 1944. Its activities are focused on the developing countries. It works for human development (education, health), agriculture and rural development (irrigation, rural services), environmental protection (pollution reduction, establishing and enforcing regulations), infrastructure (roads, urban regeneration, electricity) and governance (anti- corruption, development of legal institutions). It provides loans and grants to the member-countries. In this way, it exercises enormous influence on the economic policies of developing countries. It is often criticised for setting the economic agenda of the poorer nations, attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms. 1. When was the World Bank created? 3. Which of the facilities does World Bank provide to member countries? (a) 1941 (b) 1943 (c) 1944 (d) 1947 (a) loans (b) grants 2. World Bank works for: (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these (a) Human development (education, 4. Which of the following International health) Monetary Organisations publish the World Development Report? (b) Rural development (irrigation, rural services) (a) International Monetary Fund (c) Infrastructure (roads, electricity, urban (b) World Bank generation) (c) World Economic Forum (d) All of the above (d) New Development Bank

CHAPTER 9 Globalisation and Its Critics In each of the following questions only one option 6. Globalisation has allowed the ......... of is correct. Select the correct option. customs language and products. 1. What is amalgamation and rapid unification (a) restriction (b) spread between countries identified as (c) devaluating (d) escalation (a) Globalization (b) Liberalization 7. The seventh WSF meeting was held in (c) Socialization (d) Privatization (a) Delhi, January 2007 2. Which of the following statements are true (b) Nairobi, January 2007 about MNCs? (c) Islamabad, January 2007 (a) A MNC is a company that own or (d) New York, January 2007 controls production in more than one nation 8. When did the government remove the barriers for investment in India? (b) MNCs set up offices and factories for (a) 1990 (b) 1991 production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources. (c) 1992 (d) 1993 (c) This is done so that the cost of production 9. Economically globalization involves is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits. (a) Goods and services (b) Data and technology (d) All of the above. (c) The economic of resources of capital 3. ......... provides the advantage of being a (d) All of the above cheap manufacturing location. 10. The main agenda of the World Social Forum (a) China (b) Japan is: (c) South Korea (d) None of the above (a) Opposition to terrorism 4. How much population of the developing (b) Opposition to neo-liberal globalization world still lives in extreme poverty? (c) Opposition to colonialism (a) 4.8 million people (d) Opposition to communism (b) 5.8 million people 11. Which of the statements are true about globalization? (c) 6.8 million people (d) 7.8 million people (a) Globalisation is purely an economic phenomenon 5. Globalisation began in the year (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (b) Globalisation began in 1991 (c) 1989 (d) 1992 (c) Globalisation is the same thing as westernisation (d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional phenomenon 40

Globalisation and Its Critics 41 12. Which of the statement are true about the (c) Telecommunication impact of globalization? (d) Both (b) and (c) 18. Which of the statements is true about (a) Globalization has been an even in its impacts on states and societies globalization (b) Globalization has had a uniform impact (a) Globalization is only about the on all states and societies movement of commodities (c) The impact of globalization has been (b) Globalization does not involve a conflict confined to the political sphere of values (d) Globalization inevitably results in (c) Services are an insignificant part of cultural homogeneity. globalization 13. Choose the correct option that has (d) Globalization is about worldwide inter significantly contributed to the process of connectedness ‘Globalization’. 19. At the most simple level, globalization (a) Fear of war results in an erosion of ......... . (b) Security threats (a) political capacity (b) state capacity (c) capital capacity (d) global capacity (c) Advancement of technology 20. What is given way recently by the old (d) Achievements of the United Nations “Welfare state”? 14. Which one of the following is a right cause (a) More minimalist state of globalization (b) More capitalist state (c) More socialist state (a) The U.S. people initiated globalization (d) More democratic state 21. What do the new states withdraw as a result (b) Technology led to globalization of globalization (c) The Cold War led to globalization (a) Many of its ethics for the welfare of (d) The policy of Non-alignment led to human race globalization (b) The ideal world order 15. Which of the following statements is true (c) Many of its earlier welfare functions about the causes of Globalization? directed at economic and social well- (a) Growth of multinational companies being with a global presence in many different (d) All of the above economies. 22. The increase in the MNCs all over the world has resulted in ......... . (b) Globalization is caused by a particular community of people (a) the government's inability to cater to their needs. (c) Globalization originated in the U.S. (b) the capacity of the nations to incorporate (d) Economic interdependence alone cause these MNCs. Globalization. (c) Poverty to the population where these 16. India has felt the impact of globalization companies are set up through increased prosperity, partly triggered by increasing (d) reduction in the capacity of government to take decisions on their own (a) Weapons (b) Growth 23. With the globalization of markets, the tastes (c) Hatred (d) Terrorism and preferences of consumers world wide are 17. What is used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas? (a) Mail and telephone (b) Information technology

42 Political Science (a) Becoming similar to the tastes and 30. Which of the statements about globalization preferences of American consumers is true (b) Being encouraged by multinational (a) The impact of globalization in uneven organisations to become increasingly similar (b) Globalization affects some societies more than others some parts of a society (c) So different that they can be ignored by more than others international organisation (c) In place of the welfare state, it is (d) Converging upon a global norm the market that becomes the main determinant of social and economic 24. Where does economic globalization draw priorities our attention to? (d) All of the above (a) Declining economy 31. Which one of the following is the (b) Poverty in the third world countries disadvantage of globalization? (c) To the role of international institutions (a) It creates global opportunities like the IMF and the WTO (b) It paves the way for global market (d) All of the above (c) It fails to generate sufficient employment 25. How globalization should not be viewed? (d) None of the above (a) in broader terms (b) in narrow terms 32. How India became an exporter of primary (c) positively (d) None of the above goods and raw materials and a consumer of finished goods? 26. According to broader way of looking at globalization, what should we focus on? (a) Because of its riches in agriculture (a) The distribution of economic gain (b) During the Mughal period this exports increased (b) Increasing poverty in third world countries (c) As a consequence of Britain's imperial ambitions this exports started (c) Unemployment in economic sectors (d) None of the above (d) Increasing population of the world 33. Why India decided to deregulate various 27. In terms of trade, what is the impact of sectors including trade and foreign globalization? investment? (a) Countries are divided in groups and (a) Because Indian economy was not in trading with their groups only balance (b) Developing countries are not given (b) It was a response to a financial crisis importance in trade. and to the desire for higher rates of economic growth (c) Any country can receive the opportunity of trading with the other countries (c) Because government needed money (d) None of the above (d) All of the above 28. ......... is one such organisation whose aim is 34. What is one of the universal criticism given to liberalise international trade? by the critics to globalization (a) WTO (b) UNC (a) The rich get richer and the poor get poorer (c) IMF (d) ITO (b) The economic depression would start in 29. Which of the following is available in India 21st century. due to globalization (c) It would lead the concentration of the (a) Foreign TV channels global wealth to one country (b) Coca Cola and pepsi (d) None of the above (c) Sansui brand of electronics (d) All of the above

Globalisation and Its Critics 43 35. Who identified the four basic aspects of (b) Exporter of finished goods and also raw globalization? materials (a) IMF (b) UN (c) Exporter of primary goods and importer of raw materials (c) EU (d) World Bank (d) Exporter of primary goods and raw 36. ......... have been a major force in the materials globalization process connecting distant regions of the world? 43. Liberalisation means (a) Traders (a) Integration among economies (b) Reduced government controls and (b) International companies restrictions (c) Multi-national corporations (c) The policy of planned disinvestment (d) Competitive market (d) Businesses houses 44. The expression of global market liberalises 37. Which factors has globalization been the economic activities of the facilitated by? (a) Exchange of goods (a) Rapid improvements in technology (b) Exchange of finds (c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Liberalisation of trade and investment (d) None of the above policies 45. The first WSF meeting was organized in - (c) Pressures from international The earth summit was held in organisations (a) Mumbai in 2004 (b) Delhi in 2004 (d) All of these (c) Porto Alerge in 2001 (d) Paris in 2001 38. MNCs set up offices and factories for 46. Which of the following is the age of production in regions where they can get .........? globalization? (a) Cheap labour and other resources (a) 18th century (b) 19th century (c) 20th century (d) 21st century (b) Good market for profits 47. Which of the following led to globalization (c) They can make great sales in the 21st century? (d) More industry (a) Internet (b) Freedom of trade 39. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the (c) Democracy and popular culture government is known as ......... . (d) All of the above 48. Started at the initiative of the ........., WTO (a) globalization (b) disinvestment establishes rules regarding international (c) privatisation (d) liberalization trade, and sees that these rules are obeyed. 40. According to the rightist view in India, (a) middle-income countries globalization tends to (b) poor countries (c) developing countries (a) Benefits the weaker section of the (d) developed countries society 49. Large MNCs in the ......... industry in Europe (b) Divides the State into rich and poor and America order their products from Indian exporters? (c) Weakens the State (d) Reduces political party competition 41. India implemented the New Economic policy in the year (a) 1980 (b) 1981 (c) 1990 (d) 1991 42. During the colonial period, India became an (a) Importer of primary goods and raw materials

44 Political Science (a) Automobiles (b) Soft Drinks collaboration of the medical facilities and knowledge of many countries. (c) Garments (d) Minerals (c) Inviting foreign doctors and creating 50. How did globalization help in the medical employment opportunities in the field? various countries (a) Exports of medicines increased (d) All of the above (b) Helped in finding effective and speedy cure for the diseases with the CASE STUDIES Case Study 1 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: Since much of the usage tends to be imprecise, it becomes important to clarify what we mean by globalization. Globalization as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds—ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between two or more places, commodities being traded across borders, and people moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’ that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows. Globalization is a multi-dimenstonal concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations, and these must be adequately distinguished. It is wrong to assume that globalization has purely economic- dimensions, just as it would also be mistaken to assume that it is a purely cultural phenomenon. The impact of globalization is vastly uneven – it affects some societies more than others and some parts of some societies more than others – and it is important to avoid drawing general conclusions about the impact of globalization without paying sufficient attention to specific contexts. 1. Globalization as a concept deals with: 3. Globalization, by connecting countries, shall result in .........? (a) Flow of ideas from one part of the world to the other. (a) lesser competition among producers (b) Flow of capital from one part of the (b) greater competition among producers world to another (c) no change in competition among (c) Flow of people from one part of the producers world to another (d) None of the above 4. Globalization has ......... dimensions. (d) All of the above 2. Globalization leads to each culture (a) political and economic (b) social and economic becoming ......... . (c) political and social (d) political, social and economic (a) more transparent (b) more different (c) more distictive (d) more different and distictive Case Study 2 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: What accounts for globalization? If globalization is about the flows of ideas, capital, commodities, and people, it is perhaps logical to ask if there is anything novel about this phenomenon. Globalization in terms of these four flows has taken place through much of human history. However, those who argue that there is something distinct about contemporary globalization point out that it is the scale and speed

Globalisation and Its Critics 45 of these flows that account for the uniqueness of globalization in the contemporary era. Globalization has a strong historical basis, and it is important to view contemporary flows against this backdrop. While globalization is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element. There is no doubt that the invention of the telegraph, the telephone and the microchip in more recent times has revolutionised communication between different parts of the world. When printing initially came into being it laid the basis for the creation of nationalism. So also today we should expect that technology will affect the way we think of our personal but also our collective lives. The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible largely, by technological advances. The pace of these flows may vary. For instance, the movement of capital and commodities will most likely be quicker and wider than the movement of peoples across different parts of the world. 1. This type of globalization refers to global 3. Globalization has led to the flow of ideas markets and the flow of capital, technology across. and goods is (a) National boundaries (a) Political globalization (b) State (b) Cultural globalization (c) Political parties (c) Opposing globalization (d) Different planets (d) Economic globalization 4. Which of the following are correct about the 2. Which of the statements are true about causes of globalization? globalization? (a) Technology is an important cause of (a) Globalization is purely an economic globalization phenomenon (b) Globalization is caused by a particular (b) Globalization is a multi-dimensional community of people phenomenon (c) Economic interdependence alone (c) Globalization began in 1990. causes globalization (d) Globalization is the same thing as (d) None of the above westernization

Globalisation and Its Critics 47 PART B POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE 10. The Era of One-Party Dominance 11. Nation-Building and Its Problems 12. Politics of Planned Development 13. India’s External Relations 14. Challenge to and Restoration of Congress System 15. Crisis of the Constitutional Order 16. Regional Aspirations and Conflicts 17. Rise of New Social Movements 18. Democratic Upsurge and Coalition Politics 19. Recent Issues and Challenges

CHAPTER 11 Nation-Building and Its Problems In each of the following questions only one option 6. Who among the following was the President is correct. Select the correct option. of the Constituent assembly which framed the constitution of India? 1. India got Independence from British rule on (a) B. R. Ambedkar (a) 15 August, 1947 (b) Mahatma Gandhi (b) 14 August, 1949 (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) 15 August, 1958 (d) Syama Prasad Mukherjee (d) 26 January, 1950 7. The institutional arrangement created by 2. The first Prime Minister of independent Nehru to achieve certain values was India was (a) Constitution (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) An elected Parliament (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) A Planning Commission (c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (d) All of these (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 8. At the time of partition India’s Governor- 3. Who addressed a special session of the General was Constituent Assembly from Red Fort of Delhi at midnight of 14–15 August 1947? (a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Curzon (a) Sardar Patel (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Lord Minto (c) B. R. Ambedkar (d) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Lord Mountbatten 4. ‘Tryst and destiny’ speech is related with 9. At the time of independence, it was widely which leader? believed that India could not remain together for long because (a) Sardar Patel (b) Mahatma Gandhi (a) India was poor. (c) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) India was a land of continent size. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) India had huge diversity. 5. After independence, people wanted India (d) India may be colonized by China. 10. Based on the parliamentary form of to be government , India adopted (a) United and diverse (b) Divided and diverse (a) Direct democracy (c) United and homogeneous (b) Monitory democracy (d) Divided and homogeneous (c) Constitutional democracy (d) Representative democracy 54

Nation-Building and Its Problems 55 11. Fundamental rights are granted by (c) Indian National Congress (d) Bharatiya Jana Sanga (a) Lok Sabha 20. Which among the following statements (b) Rajya Sabha about the partition is incorrect? (a) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were (c) Constitution of India not contiguous. (d) Supreme Court of India (b) Partition of India was the outcome of 12. Right to vote to every citizen is ensured by the ‘Two Nation Theory.’ (c) Punjab and Bengal were the two (a) Lok Sabha provinces divided on the basis of (b) Constitution of India religion. (d) The scheme of partition included a plan (c) Rajya Sabha for the transfer of population across the border. (d) Supreme Court of India 21. The main reason for India’s partition is (a) Adamant attitude of Jinnah 13. In India, the political competition takes (b) Communal riots and disorder place in a/an (c) Failure of the Interim Government (d) All of these (a) Monarchy framework 22. Who was called Frontier Gandhi? (a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Autocracy framework (b) Abdul Gaffar Khan (c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (c) Democratic framework (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 23. What were the consequences of the Partition (d) Military framework of India in 1947? (a) Transfer of Population 14. What is required for establishing a (b) Refugees Problem democracy? (c) Problem of Minorities (d) All of these (i) Democratic constitution 24. The three cities that were divided into ‘communal zones’ during the partition (ii) Democratic practices violence were (a) Kashmir, Lucknow and Allahabad (iii) Military (b) Madras, Mysore and Hyderabad (c) Lahore, Amritsar and Kolkata (a) Only (i) (b) Only (i) and (ii) (d) Delhi, Mumbai and Gwalior 25. On the 15th August, 1947 Mahatma Gandhi (c) Only (i) and (iii) (d) All of these was in Kolkata (a) To celebrate the Independence Day 15. When did India celebrate first Republic (b) To decide area of India and Pakistan Day? (c) To stop partition of India and Pakistan (d) To persuade the Hindus and Muslims (a) 26 January, 1948 (b) 15 August, 1947 to give up violence (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 15 August, 1950 16. How many stamps were issued to mark the first Republic Day? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 17. Mohammad Ali Jinnah, the President, addressed the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan in Karachi on (a) 14 August, 1947 (b) 13 August, 1947 (c) 12 August, 1947 (d) 11 August, 1947 18. Amrita Pritam was a prominent poet and fiction writer from (a) Madras (b) Punjab (c) Mumbai (d) Gujarat 19. The ‘two-nation theory’ for the partition of India advanced by the: (a) Muslim League (b) British government

56 Political Science 26. The extremist Nathuram Vinayak Godse 33. Which one of the following leaders played a assassinated Gandhiji on vital role in the integration of princely states with India? (a) 26 January, 1948 (b) 30 January, 1948 (a) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 30 January, 1950 (b) Mahatma Gandhi 27. Which was the biggest challenge before the newly independent India? (c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (a) Population (b) Unemployment (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Industrialisation (d) National Integration 34. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution has accorded special status to 28. How many princely states existed at the the state of Jammu and Kashmir? time of independence of India? (a) Article 350 (b) Article 368 (a) 565 (b) 560 (c) 555 (d) 550 (c) Article 370 (d) Article 375 29. Which of these statements about the 35. Who among the following Maharaja of princely states is incorrect? Kashmir singed the Instrument of Accession with the Government of India? (a) The Indian government was ready to give autonomy to some regions. (a) Hari Singh (b) Karan Singh (b) Princely states covered one third of the (c) Gulab Singh (d) Ranjit Singh land area of the British Indian Empire. 36. Which of the following state declared their (c) Some of the princely states clearly independence at the time of partition of wanted to become part of the Indian country in 1947? Union. (a) Junagadh (d) First of all, the ruler of Junagarh announced that the state had decided (b) Hyderabad on Independence. (c) Jammu and Kashmir 30. The interim government formed under the cabinet mission plan was headed by (d) None of these 37. Junagadh state become a part of India by (a) Rajagopalachari (a) Plebiscite (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Police action (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Military action 31. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of (d) United Nation appeal independent India? 38. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was entrusted (a) B. R. Ambedkar with the task of unification of the princely states. Which of the following argument is (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel not correct? (c) C. D. Deshmukh (a) He had a long political experience. (d) Syama Prasad Mukherjee (b) He was a visionary and a good speaker. 32. The rulers of the states signed which (c) Muslim League wanted that the task document to become a part of Indian Union? of integration should be entrusted to Sardar Vallabbhai Patel. (a) Instruction of Accession (b) Agreement of Accession (d) He was the Home Minister as well as the Minister of Concession Department. (c) Instrument of Accession (d) Instrument of Agreement

Nation-Building and Its Problems 57 39. The ruler of Hyderabad carried the title 47. The Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad. He entered into what was (a) Raja (b) Nizam called the Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947 for ………… while (c) Iqatadar (d) Maharaja negotiations with the Indian Government were going on. 40. Which one of the following is a princely state of India which initially resisted joining the Indian Union? (a) A year (b) Two years (a) Mysore (b) Baroda (c) Three years (d) Six months (c) Gwalior (d) Hyderabad 48. Which one of the following statements is false? 41. Which state entered into the ‘Standstill Agreement’ with India in November 1947? (a) The issue of Junagarh was resolved after a plebiscite in the state. (a) Punjab (b) Hyderabad (c) Kashmir (d) Manipur (b) Jammu and Kashmir was ready to sign the Instrument of Accession. 42. Which of the following region peasantry in particular, was the victim of Nizam’s (c) Travancore was not the first Indian State oppressive rule and rose against him? to merge into the Union of India. (a) Telangana (d) The Nizam of Hyderabad was keen to have an independent status for the state (b) Karnataka of Hyderabad. (c) Andhra Pradesh 49. Since the Nagpur session of the Congress in 1920, this principle was accepted that (d) Coastal area of Hyderabad state the reorganisation of states would be on a linguistic basis. Despite this, the 43. Who were Razakars? leaders were against it after independence because— (a) A militant organisation (b) A para-military force (c) A group of religious leaders (i) Things change after independence and partition (d) A group of small princely states (ii) Might lead to disruption and 44. When the state of Manipur became a disintegration constitutional monarchy? (a) April 1948 (b) May 1948 (iii) To adopt a mixed economy (iv) To adopt a planned economy (c) June 1948 (d) August 1948 Select the correct answer using the force 45. In which part of India, was the first election given below: held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise? (a) (ii) and (iv) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only (c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (i) and (iii) only (a) Punjab (b) Manipur 50. The re-organization of the states on the (c) Kashmir (d) Hyderabad basis of language had a negative effect: 46. Which leader of Manipur singed Instrument (a) The concept of power sharing was of Accession with the Indian government? realised. (a) Maduchandra Singh (b) The principle of variation was accepted. (b) Churachandra Singh (c) A uniform basis was found for the demarcation of the states. (c) Bodhachandra Singh (d) Movements started in many areas of the (d) Kumar Priyobrata Singh country demanding the formation of small separate states.

58 Political Science 51. After the independence Telugu speaking (c) Potti Sriramulu areas of which province wanted to have their own state? (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (a) Madras province 59. Andhra Pradesh was carved out as a separate state in 1952 from the state of (b) Bengal province (a) Bombay (b) Madras (c) Andhra Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala (d) Maharashtra province 60. When Gujarat was carved out of Bombay state? 52. The Vishalandhra movement is related with which event? (a) 1960 (b) 1964 (a) Hyderabad integration with India (c) 1968 (d) 1972 (b) Kashmir integration with India 61. The states created in 1960 were (c) Movement of a separate Andhra state (a) Gujarat and Rajasthan (d) Movement of a separate Karnataka state (b) Maharashtra and Gujarat 53. In which year the States Reorganisation (c) Punjab and Haryana Commission (SRA) was appointed? (d) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand (a) 1951 (b) 1952 62. Which state was not created in 1972? (c) 1953 (d) 1954 (a) Manipur 54. State Reorganisation Act (SRA) was passed (b) Tripura in (c) Arunachal Pradesh (a) 1953 (b) 1954 (d) Meghalaya (c) 1955 (d) 1956 63. When Meghalaya was carved out of Assam? 55. What was the basis of States Reorganisation Commission in 1956 for organising states? (a) 1971 (b) 1972 (a) Caste (c) 1973 (d) 1974 (b) Religion 64. Which state was not carved out of Assam from the following? (c) Language (a) Meghalaya (b) Manipur (d) Geographical Area (c) Sikkim (d) Tripura 56. National building as a process requires 65. Which state was not created in 2000? (a) One-dimensional approach (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Uttarakhand (b) Two-dimensional approach (c) Jharkhand (d) Meghalaya (c) Multi-dimensional approach 66. Name the original state from which (d) None of these Chhattisgarh was carved out. 57. Potti Sriramulu was a leader of (a) Bihar (b) Jharkhand (a) Communist party (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh (b) Congress party 67. Name the original state from which Jharkhand was carved out. (c) Jana Sanga (d) Hindu Mahasabha (a) Bihar (b) Jharkhand 58. Who went on a fast in 1946 demanding that (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh temples in Madras province be opened to dalits? 68. The linguistic states underlined the acceptance of the principle of (a) Sardar Patel (a) Division (b) Demand (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Diversity (d) Dissatisfaction

Nation-Building and Its Problems 59 CASE STUDIES Case Study 1 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel was India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period immediately following Independence. He played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into the Indian Union. It may look easy now. But it was a very complicated task which required skilful persuasion. 1. Which government has been referred to as (b) Syama Prasad Mukherjee the interim government? (c) C. D. Deshmukh (a) Jana Sanga (b) Indian National Congress (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Communist Party (d) Republic Party 4. At the time of independence, how many 2. The interim government was headed by small states were there in Today’s Odisha? (a) Rajagopalachari (a) 14 (b) 26 (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) 39 (d) 114 (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 3. Who was India’s Home Minister during the 5. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, emerged as a major leader of the freedom movement integration of princely states? after the Kheda Satyagraha in …………… and the Bardoli Satyagraha …………… . (a) B. R. Ambedkar (a) 1917, 1928 (b) 1918, 1929 (c) 1918, 1928 (d) 1917, 1929 Case Study 2 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: Protests began in the Telugu speaking areas of the old Madras province, which included present day Tamil Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Karnataka. The Vishalandhra movement (as the movement for a separate Andhra was called) demanded that the Telugu speaking areas should be separated from the Madras province of which they were a part and be made into a separate Andhra province. The movement gathered momentum as a result of the Central government’s vacillation. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a veteran Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. This caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in Andhra region. People in large numbers took to the streets. Many were injured or lost their lives in police firing. In Madras, several legislators resigned their seats in protest. Finally, the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra state. 1. Telugu speaking areas were a part of 2. The Vishalandhra movement demanded a (a) Bengal province separate (b) Madras province (c) Calcutta province (now Kolkata) (a) Andhra state (b) Tamil Nadu state (d) Bengal province (c) Kerala state (d) Karnataka state 3. Potti Sriramulu went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after ……………. .

60 Political Science (a) 46 days (b) 76 days (c) Police rubber bullets firing (d) Police tear gas firing (c) 66 days (d) 56 days 5. When the Prime Minister announced the 4. Due to death of Potti Sriramulu, people in formation of a separate Andhra state? large numbers took to the streets and many were injured or lost their lives in (a) December 1952 (b) December 1953 (c) December 1954 (d) December 1955 (a) Police Lathi-charge (b) Police firing

Crisis of the Constitutional Order 83 CHAPTER 15 Crisis of the Constitutional Order In each of the following questions only one option (c) National Coordination Call is correct. Select the correct option. (d) National Coordination Association 1. What was one of the possible reasons of 7. During the emergency, the relations of India's deteriorating economy? government and judiciary were: (a) People stopped paying tax (a) Tensed (b) After Indo-Pak war 1971, US stopped (b) Cordial the economic aid to India (c) Completely hostile (c) Corruption (d) There was no problem at all. (d) All of the above 8. Who introduced to concept of ‘Committed Bureaucracy and Judiciary’ in India? 2. When did the economic situation of the country worsened? (a) Morarji Desai (a) During 1966-67 (b) During 1988-90 (b) C. Natarajan (c) During 1980s (d) During 1972 -73 (c) Smt. Inidra Gandhi 3. The Bihar Movement in 1974 was led by (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri (a) Charu Majumdar 9. The “state of emergency” was declared on: (b) Jayaprakash Narayan (a) 13th May 1971 (b) 23rd May 1972 (c) 25th June 1975 (d) 11th March 1975 (c) Morarji Desai (d) C. Natarajan 10. “There is no parallel to the chapter of emergency in any democratic constitution 4. Who organised a nationwide satyagraha of the world” was said by? Forcing Indira Gandhi to resign? (a) Atal Bihari Bajpayee (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jay Prakash Narayan (b) H.V. Kamath (c) Lal Bahadur Sastri (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) None of these (d) V.V. Giri 5. When JP led a people's march to the Parli- 11. Through which Article of the Constitution, ament? government declared emergency in 1975? (a) 1975 (b) 1976 (a) Article 350 (b) Article 351 (c) 1977 (d) 1978 (c) Article 352 (d) Article 354 6. The railway strike of 1974 was called by 12. President can declare emergency if: ......... led by George Fernandes. (a) The security of the country is in danger. (a) National Coordination Committee (b) When Prime Minister request him. (b) National Coordination Corporation 83

84 Political Science (c) When Parliament by a resolution 19. When was Janata Party formed? request him (a) 1975 (b) 1976 (d) When the Council of Ministers send a (c) 1977 (d) 1978 request to him in writing 20. After the 1977 general elections, which gove- 13. President can declare emergency under the rnment came into power? following conditions: (a) Bharatiya Jana Sangh (a) In case of foreign invasion or armed rebellion. (b) Congress (b) Due to the failure of constitutional (c) Janata Party machinery in a state (d) Socialist Party (c) When the country is facing financial 21. After 1977 general elections, which crisis. government came into power? (d) All of the above (a) Bharatiya Jana Sangh 14. The following Judge of the Allahabad High (b) Congress Court passed a judgement declaration Indira Gandhi's election to Lok Sabha invalid: (c) Janata Party (d) Socialist Party (a) Justice Sikri 22. The Janata Party made which elections into a referendum on the Emergency? (b) Justice A.R. Khanna (c) Justice A.N. Ray (a) 1969 (b) 1977 (d) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha (c) 1979 (d) 1989 15. State whether the following statements 23. How many Lok Sabha seats were won by regarding the Emergency are correct. the Janata Party and its allies in the General Elections of March 1977 out of 542? (a) It was declared in 1975 by Indira Gandhi (a) 330 (b) 292 (b) It led to the suspension of all fundamental rights. (c) 340 (d) 321 (c) It was proclaimed due to the 24. During Janata Party's rule the competition deteriorating economic conditions. for the office of the Prime Minister was between the following leaders: (d) Many opposition leaders were arrested during the emergency. (a) Indira Gandhi, Morarji Desai and Lal Bahadur Shastri 16. The impact of the emergency was felt most strongly in the ......... part of the country. (b) Morarji Desai, Jayaprakash Narayan and Ch. Charan Singh (a) northern (b) southern (c) Morarji Desai, Ch. Charan Singh and (c) eastern (d) western Jagjivan Ram. 17. In which year internal emergency was (d) A.B. Vajpayee, L.K. Advani and Indira declared by Smt. Indira Gandhi? Gandhi. (a) 1965 (b) 1971 25. Who succeeded Morarji Desai? (c) 1975 (d) 1980 (a) Ram Manohar Lohia 18. Find the odd one out in the context of (b) Indira Gandhi proclamation of Emergency. (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh (a) The call for ‘Total Revolution’ (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (b) The Railway Strike of 1974 26. Who became the Prime Minister of India (c) The Naxalite Movement during 1977 election? (d) The Allahabad High Court Verdict (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Charan Singh

Crisis of the Constitutional Order 85 (c) Chandra Shekhar 36. Who left the Congress party and founded Bharatiya Kranti Dal in 1967? (d) Morarji Desai 27. In the elections held immediately after (a) Sanjay Gandhi Emergency, the Congress could win only ......... seats on the Lok Sabha. (b) Jagjivan Ram (c) Choudhary Charan Singh (a) 154 (b) 156 (d) Morarji Desai (c) 158 (d) 160 37. What was the philosophy presented by Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya called? 28. Congress was defeated in the Lok Sabha elections of: (a) Integral Humanism (a) January 1975 (b) February 1976 (b) Liberal Humanism (c) March 1977 (d) April 1977 (c) One World One Nation 29. Who was the first President of Janata Party? (d) None of the above (a) Morarji Desai 38. Name the alliance formed by the Congress Party. (b) Chandra Shakar (c) Jagjivan Ram (a) National Democratic Alliance (NDA) (d) Chaudhary Charan Singh (b) All India Congress (AIC) 30. Janata Party remained in power at the (c) All India Congress Committee (AICC) centre: (d) United Progressive Alliance (UPA) (a) 1975 – 77 (b) 1977 – 79 39. What is the guiding philosophy of Bhartiya Janata Party. (c) 1979 – 81 (d) 1971 – 75 31. Shah Commission was appointed to inquire (a) Cultural Nationalist (a) Abuse of authority during emergency (b) Religion above all (b) Domestic violence (c) No discrimination on the basis of caste (c) Child labour (d) Equal opportunity for all (d) Conditions of death 40. The Bahujan Samaj Party stand for what cause? 32. The Shah Commission was headed by: (a) Justice K.C. Shah (a) Securing the interest of the oppressed people (b) Justice J.C. Shah (b) Equal right for women. (c) Justice M.C. Shah (c) No discrimination on the basis of (d) Justice D.C. Shah religion. 33. Mandal Commission was set up for the (d) Economic emancipation of women issue of: 41. Who among the following is the Founder of (a) reservation of other backward classes the Bahujan Samaj Party? (b) temple conflict (a) Kansi Ram (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) welfare of women (c) Sahu Maharaj (d) Jyotiba Phule (d) child labour 42. National Emergence Democratic Upsurges on the basis of participation of the: 34. In which state Nav Nirman Movement was started? (a) Adults (b) Backwards (a) Gujarat (b) Punjab (c) Youth (d) All of these (c) Bihar (d) Haryana 43. Name the democratic upsurges in post- independence history of India? 35. When was ‘Grand Alliance’ formed? (a) 1969 (b) 1970 (a) The First Democratic Upsurge (1950 till 1970s) (c) 1971 (d) 1972

86 Political Science (b) Second Democratic Upsurge (During (a) Primary of whole, not part 1980s) (b) Supremacy of Dharna (c) The Third Democratic Upsurge (During (c) Autonomy of Society 1990s) (d) All of these (d) All of these 51. Ram Manohar's principle of Democratic Socialism has objectives known as: 44. During 1996s, the increasing political participation of the lower classes of the (a) The economic objective in the form of society was: food and housing (a) SCs (b) STs (b) The non-economic objective in form of democracy and freedom (c) OBCs (d) All of these 45. Who was known as the “Hero of Quit India (c) Both (a) & (b) Movement”? (d) None of the above (a) Raj Narayan 52. Total revolution was a combination of ......... revolutions. (b) Chaudhary Charan Singh (c) Jayaprakash Narayan (a) 3 (b) 6 (d) None of these (c) 7 (d) 9 46. Jayaprakash Narayan (11 October 1902-8 53. Ram Manohar Lohiya was ......... . October) was popularly known as: (a) socialist leader (b) thinker (a) JP (b) Lok Nayak (c) freedom fighter (d) All of these (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these 54. According to Lohiya the party of socialism should have three symbols as: 47. When was Jayaprakash Narayan posthu- mously awarded the Bharat Ratna for his (a) Space (prepared to make efforts) social work? (b) Vote (power of voting) (a) 1977 (b) 1989 (c) Prison (willingness to make sacrifices) (c) 1990 (d) 1999 (d) All of the above 48. Jayaprakash Narayan was given Magsaysay award for Public Services in ......... . 55. Lohia advocated Chouburja Rajneeti in which he opines the pillars of political as well as (a) 1962 (b) 1964 socialism: (c) 1965 (d) 1966 (a) Centre (b) Region 49. Jayaprakash was the first leader in : (c) District (d) All of these (a) Pre-independence 56. Dindayal Upadhaya was a ......... . (b) Post-independence (a) Philosopher (b) Dramatist (c) Both (a) & (b) (c) Economist (d) Both (a) & (c) (d) None of the above 57. Humanism enhances: 50. The philosophy of Integral Humanism is (a) Political (b) Economic based on the principles: (c) Social democracy (d) All of these CASE STUDIES Case Study 1 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: Student’s protest in Gujarat and Bihar, both of which were Congress ruled States, had far reaching impact on the politics of the two States and national politics. In January 1974 students in Gujarat started an agitation against rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities, and against

Crisis of the Constitutional Order 87 corruption in high places. The students’ protest was joined by major opposition parties and became widespread leading to the imposition of President's rule in the state. The opposition parties demanded fresh elections to the state legislature. Morarji Desai, a prominent leader of Congress (O), who was the main rival of Indira Gandhi when he was in the Congress, announced that he would go on an indefinite fast if fresh elections were not held in the State. Under intense pressure from students, supported by the opposition political parties, assembly elections were held in Gujarat in June 1975. The Congress was defeated in this election. 1. When did the students start the protest in (c) Students were arrested Gujarat? (d) None of the above (a) January 1974 (b) November 1974 (c) December 1974 (d) None of the above 3. Which party did Morarji Desai belong? 2. What was the implication of the Gujarat (a) Janata Party (b) Congress (O) protest? (c) BJP (d) Congress (a) Re-elections in Gujarat (b) Imposition of President's rule 4. When did Assembly elections in Gujarat took place after the pressure of the protests? (a) June 1975 (b) July 1975 (c) August 1975 (d) April 1975 Case Study 2 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: In 1967 a peasant uprising took place in the Naxalbari police station area of Darjeeling hills district in West Bengal under the leadership of the local cadres of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). Beginning from the Naxalbari police station, the peasant movement spread to several states of India and came to be referred broadly as the Naxalite movement. In 1969, they broke off from the CPI (M) and a new party, Communist party (Marxist-Leninist) (CPI-ML), was formed under the leadership of Charu Majumdar. It argued that democracy in India was a sham and decided to adopt a strategy of protracted guerrilla warfare in order to lead to a revolution currently about 75 districts in nine states are affected by Naxalite violence. Most of these are very backward areas in habited by Adivasi. 1. In which area peasant uprising took place 3. Which party was formed under the in 1967? leadership of Charu Majumdar? (a) Gujarat (a) Communist regime (b) Naxalbari Police Station (c) Haryana (b) Socialist Party (d) None of the above 2. What was peasant movement called later? (c) CPI-ML (a) Communist Movement (b) Naxalite Movement (d) None of the above (c) Green Revolution (d) Maoist Movement 4. How many states are currently affected by the Naxalite Movement (a) Eight states (b) Nine states (c) Ten states (d) Six states

100 Political Science CHAPTER 19 Recent Issues and Challenges In each of the following questions only one option 7. The reason for 2002 Gujarat riots is: is correct. Select the correct option. (a) Earthquake relief was not provided by 1. In which year, did V.P. Singh come into the Centre power? (b) A bogey of a train returning from (a) 1987 (b) 1988 Ayodhya carrying Karsevaks was set on fire. (c) 1989 (d) 1990 2. New Economic Policy was introduced in (c) Demolition of babri masjid India in the year: (d) State emergency (a) 1991 (b) 1992 8. In February and March 2002, large scale violence against Muslims took place in: (c) 1993 (d) 1996 (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat 3. Who was the Finance Minister of India when New Economic Policy was implemented: (c) Punjab (d) Uttar Pradesh (a) Manmohan Singh 9. In which year, Sikkim became a part of India (b) P. Chidambram (a) 1973 (b) 1974 (c) Yashwant Sinha (c) 1975 (d) 1976 (d) Sharad Yadav 10. Who is the President of BJP at present (2009): 4. The recommendation of Mandal commission were implemented in the year (a) A.B. Vajpayee (b) L.K. Advani (a) 1988 (b) 1989 (c) Rajnath Singh (d) Sushma Swaraj (c) 1990 (d) 1991 11. National Human Rights Commission is formed in the year: 5. When was the Lok Sabha elections held after Indira Gandhi's death? (a) 1990 (b) 1993 (a) 1982 (b) 1983 (c) 1995 (d) 1997 (c) 1984 (d) 1985 12. BJP led coalition of 2014 was also called as: 6. The members of the parliamentary committee: (a) Majority Coalition (a) are appointed by the president of con- (b) Surplus Majority Coalition sultation with the prime minister. (c) Clear Majority Coalition (b) are taken from various groups and (d) Democratic Coalition parties in Parliaments in proportion to their respective strength 13. How many seats won NDA IV? (a) 305 (b) 320 (c) are appointed by the president on the (c) 344 (d) 350 recommendation of the speaker 14. How many seats were BJP own? (d) Both (b) & (c) (a) 300 (b) 301 (c) 302 (d) 303 100

Recent Issues and Challenges 101 15. Which of the social-economic schemes 23. When was the General Agreement on Tariffs to make development and governance and Trade (GATT) formed? accessible to the masses? (a) 1945 (b) 1946 (a) Pradhan Mantri Ujwala Yojana (c) 1947 (d) 1948 (b) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan 24. When was the World Trade Organisation (WTO) formed? (c) Beti Padhao (d) All of the above (a) 1985 (b) 1990 16. What is the amalgamation and rapid unifi- (c) 1992 (d) 1998 cation between countries identified as? 25. When was the development of the growth (a) Globalization (b) Liberalisation of multi-national corporations (MNCs) that function across national boundaries (c) Socialisation (d) Privatisation seemed? 17. Globalization has improved the living (a) 1949s (b) 1950s structure of which of the following? (a) All the people (c) 1951s (d) 1960s (b) People living in developing countries 26. The growth of MNCs provided scope for: (c) People living in developed countries (a) increased economic activity (d) None of the above (b) emergence of transnational corporations 18. Which Indian industries have been hit by (c) both (a) & (b) globalization? (d) None of these (a) Cement 27. US-based MNCs began to create: (b) Jute (a) a complex interdependence (c) Toy making (b) problems for economics in the field of investment (d) Information Technology (IT) 19. Which of these organisations emphasises (c) problems for economics in the field of on the liberalisation of foreign investment technology and foreign trade? (d) All of these (a) International Monetary Fund 28. When was the first anti-globalisation sentiment expressed against MNCs like ITT (b) World Health Organisation in Chile, Nestle all around the world? (c) World Trade Organisation (d) International Labour Organisation (a) During the 1967s (b) During the 1970s 20. Which of these institutes supports invest- (c) During the 1972s (d) During the 1975 ments and foreign trade in India? 29. The Union Public Service Commission of (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF) India has been established under the Article (b) World Trade Organisation (WTO) (a) Article 178 (b) Article 272 (c) World Bank (c) Article 315 (d) Article 122 (d) International Labour Organisation (ILO) 30. Which of the following Committee enforces code of conduct of members of Parliament? 21. When did the government remove the barri- ers for investment in India? (a) Adhoc committee (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (b) Ethics committee (c) 1992 (d) 1993 (c) House committee 22. Tax on imports is considered as an example (d) Committee of privileges of: 31. The president can dismiss a member of the (a) Collateral (b) Trade barriers council of ministers: (c) Foreign trade (d) Terms of trade

102 Political Science (a) on his own (c) Ad hoc Committee (b) on under emergency condition (c) on the recommendation of the Prime (d) Committee of private members bill Ministers 34. What were interconnected risks impacting (d) with the consent of the speaker countries all over world? 32. The power to decide an election is vested in (a) Unemployment (b) Fiscal crises the: (c) Climate change (d) All of the above (a) Supreme Court (b) High Court 35. Who became the Prime Minister of India in (c) Parliament 2014? (d) Election Commission 33. Which of the following committees is NOT (a) Atal Bihari Bajpayee made for day-to-day business of the house? (b) Narendra Modi (a) Business Advisory Committee (c) Lal Krishan Adwani (b) Rules Committee (d) Murli Manohar Josi 36. In which year BJP once again brought back led NDA (NDA IV) to the centre of power? (a) 1999 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2019 CASE STUDIES Case Study 1 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been eleven governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997, the BJP-led coalition in 1998, the NDA in 1999, the UPA in 2004 and 2009. However, this trend changed in 2014. Let us connect this development with what we have learnt so far. The era of coalition governments may be seen as a long-term trend resulting from relatively silent changes that were taking place over the last few decades. In the 1980s, the Janata Dal brought together a similar combination of political groups with strong support among the OBCs. The decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’. The intense national debate for and against reservation in jobs made people from the OBC communities more aware of this identity. 1. Which government took the decision to (c) Because no single party has achieved in implement the recommendation of the absolute majority after an election Mandal Commission? (d) None of the above (a) UPA (b) NDA 3. In which years UPA government were formed? (c) United Front Government (a) 2004, 2009 (b) 2000, 2005 (d) None of these (c) 2004, 2007 (d) 2009, 2014 2. Why is a coalition government formed? 4. Which of the alliances-fronts that formed the (a) To give other political parties a chance government in 1989 and 1996,, respectively? (b) To display the democratic spirit (a) National Front (b) United Front (c) Janta Dal (d) Both (a) & (b)

Recent Issues and Challenges 103 Case Study 2 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The second development was the order by the Faizabad district court in February 1986. The court ordered that the Babri Masjid premises be unlocked so that Hindus could offer prayers at the site which they considered as a temple. A dispute had been going on for many decades over the mosque known as Babri Masjid at Ayodhya. The Babri Masjid was a 16th century mosque in Ayodhya and was built by Mir Baqi-Mugal emperor Babur's General. Some Hindus believe that it was built after demolishing a temple for Lord Rama in what is believed to be his birthplace. The dispute took the form of a court case and has continued for many decades. In the late 1940s the mosque was locked up as the matter was the court. As soon as the locks of the Babri Masjid were opened, mobilisation began on both sides. Many Hindu and Muslim organisations tried to mobilise their communities on the question. Suddenly this local dispute became a major national question and led to communal tensions. The BJP made this issue its major electoral and political plank. Along with many other organisations like the RSS and the Vishva Hindu Parishad (VHP). It convened a series of symbolic and mobilisational programmes. This large scale mobilisation led to surcharged atmosphere and many instances of communal violence. The BJP, in order to generate public support, took out a massive march called the Rathyatra from Somnath in Gujarat to Ayodhya in UP. In December 1992, the organisations supporting the construction of the temple had organised a Karseva, meaning voluntary service by the devotees, for building the Ram temple. The situation had become tense all over the country and especially at Ayodhya. The Supreme Court had ordered the State government to take care that the disputed site will not be endangered. However, thousands of people gathered from all over the country at Ayodhya on 6 December 1992 and demolished the mosque. This news led to clashes between the Hindus and Muslims in many parts of the country. The violence in Mumbai erupted again in January 1993 and continued for over two weeks. 1. When were the doors of disputed Babri (a) Congress Mosque's locked? (b) Bahujan Samaj Party (c) Bharatiya Janata Party (a) 1950s (b) 1940s (d) Communist Party of India 4. The demolition of the Babri Majid on ..........., (c) 1935s (d) 1955s 1992. 2. VHP stands for: (a) December 6 (b) December 4 (a) Vishva Hindu Parishad (c) December 3 (d) December 8 (b) Vishnu Hindu Parishad (c) Vivek Hindu Parishad (d) Vishal Hindu Parishad 3. When Party pursued the politics of ‘Hindutva’ and adopted the strategy of mobilising the Hindus?

Answers PART A: CONTEMPORARY WORLD POLITICS Chapter 1: Cold War Era in World Politics 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) Case Study 1 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) Case Study 2 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) Chapter 2: Disintegration of the ‘Second World’ and the Collapse of Bipolarity 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (b) Case Study 1 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) Case Study 2 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) Chapter 3: US Dominance in World Politics 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (d) Case Study 1 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) Case Study 2 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)

Answers 105 Chapter 4: Alternative Centres of Economic and Political Power 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) Case Study 1 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) Case Study 2 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) Chapter 5: South Asia in the Post-Cold War Era 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (d) 42. (a) Case Study 1 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) Case Study 2 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) Chapter 6: International Organisations in a Unipolar World 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) Case Study 1 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) Case Study 2 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b)

106 Political Science Chapter 7: Security in Contemporary World 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) Case Study 1 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) Case Study 2 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) Chapter 8: Environment and Natural Resources in Global Politics 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (d) Case Study 1 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) Case Study 2 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) Chapter 9: Globalisation and Its Critics 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b) Case Study 1 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) Case Study 2 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a)

Answers 107 PART B: POLITICS IN INDIA SINCE INDEPENDENCE Chapter 10: The Era of One-Party Dominance 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (c) Case Study 1 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) Case Study 2 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) Chapter 11: Nation-Building and Its Problems 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (c) Case Study 1 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) Case Study 2 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) Chapter 12: Politics of Planned Development 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)

108 Political Science 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (d) Case Study 1 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) Case Study 2 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) Chapter 13: India’s External Relations 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b) Case Study 1 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) Case Study 2 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) Chapter 14: Challenge to and Restoration of Congress System 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) Case Study 1 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) Case Study 2 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c)

Answers 109 Chapter 15: Crisis of the Constitutional Order 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (d) Case Study 1 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) Case Study 2 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) Chapter 16: Regional Aspirations and Conflicts 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (d) Case Study 1 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) Case Study 2 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) Chapter 17: Rise of New Social Movements 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (d) Case Study 1 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) Case Study 2 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a)

110 Political Science Chapter 18: Democratic Upsurge and Coalition Politics 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a) Case Study 1 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) Case Study 2 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) Chapter 19: Recent Issues and Challenges 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (d) Case Study 1 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) Case Study 2 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a)

Mock Test Paper –1 M-1 Mock Test Paper –1 1. The Second World War was fought between: Select the correct answer using the force (a) 1914 – 1919 (b) 1920 – 1925 given below: (c) 1940 – 1942 (d) 1939 – 1945 (a) (i), (iii) and (iv) only 2. Which set of the following countries (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only belonged to NATO Group? (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (a) Poland, Britain, Romania (d) (i) and (iii) only 6. The two aspects of Human Rights are: (b) Britain, France, West Germany (a) Social and legal aspects (c) USA, Czech Republic, Poland (b) Natural and legal aspects (d) Spain, France, East Germany (c) Economic and political aspects 3. The three significant agreements within a (d) Economic and natural aspects decade starting in the 1960s, were— 7. Which specialized agency of UNO lists (i) Limited Test Ban Treaty (LTBT) (ii) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) World Heritage Sites? (a) ILO (b) WHO (iii) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) (c) UNESCO (d) UNICEF (iv) Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty (ABMT) Select the correct answer using the options 8. The Currency of EU is: given below: (a) Rupee (b) Dollar (a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) Yen (d) EURO (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) 9. Which declaration was signed with ASEAN came into existence? 4. Berlin Wall was broken in the year (a) Warsaw Pact (a) 1980 (b) 1989 (b) Bangkok Declaration (c) 1991 (d) 2000 (c) ASEAN Declaration 5. What were the consequences of the ‘Shock (d) Singapore Treaty Therapy’ on post-Soviet states especially 10. India and Bangladesh signed the Farakka Treaty in 1996 for sharing of: Russia? (i) The large state-controlled industrial complex was almost collapsed. (a) Ganga Water (ii) The old system of social welfare was (b) Brahmputra Water systematically restored. (c) Bagmati Water (iii) A mafia emerged and started controlling (d) Yamuna Water many economic activities. 11. When SAARC was established? (iv) The great economic inequality created (a) 1985 (b) 1986 between people as Russia were divided between rich and poor regions. (c) 1987 (d) 1988 M-1