Cuet (Common University Entrance Test) For Undergraduate Courses Biology (Code: 304) Dr. J.P. Sharma Dr. Hemant Roy M.Sc., Ph.D., FISST Delhi Ex-Head, Deptt. of Botany Hindu College, Sonepat (M.D. University, Rohtak) Haryana LAXMI PUBLICATIONS (P) LTD (An ISO 9001:2015 Company) BEngalURU • Chennai • Guwahati • Hyderabad • Jalandhar Kochi • Kolkata • lucknow • mumbai • Ranchi New Delhi
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Introduction National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the Undergraduate entrance tests for all the Central Universities (CUs) for the academic session 2022–2023. CUET will provide a single window opportunity to students to seek admission in any of the Central Universities (CUs) across the country. The CUET (UG)–2022 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) Mode. Examination Structure for CUET (UG)–2022: CUET (UG)–2022 will consist of the following four sections: Section IA – 13 Languages Section IB – 19 Languages Section II – 27 Domain Specific Subjects Section III – General Test Choosing options from each section is not mandatory. Choices should match the requirements of the desired University. Broad features of CUET (UG)–2022: Some features of CUET (UG)–2022 are as follows: Section Subjects/Tests Questions to Question Type Duration be Attempted Section IA– There are 13* different 40 questions to Language to be tested through 45 minutes Languages languages. Any of these be attempted for each languages may be chosen. out of 50 in each Reading Comprehension language language (based on different types of passages–Factual, Literary and Narrative, [Literary Aptitude and Vocabulary] Section IB– There are 19** languages. Languages Any other language apart from those offered in Section I A may be chosen. Section II– There are 27*** Domain 40 questions to • Input text can be used for 45 minutes Domain specific subjects being be attempted for each offered under this section. out of 50 MCQ Based Questions Domain Section III– A candidate may choose specific General a maximum of Six (06) 60 questions to • MCQs based on NCERT subjects Test Domains as desired by be attempted the applicable University/ out of 75 Class XII syllabus only 60 minutes Universities. For any such under- • Input text can be used for graduate programme/ programmes being offered MCQ Based Questions by Universities where a General Test is being used • General Knowledge, Current for admission. Affairs, General Mental Ability, Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple application of basic mathematical concepts arithmetic/algebra geometry/ mensuration/stat taught till Grade 8), Logical and Analytical Reasoning
* Languages (13): Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Gujarati, Odia, Bengali, Assamese, Punjabi, English, Hindi and Urdu ** Languages (19): French, Spanish, German, Nepali, Persian, Italian, Arabic, Sindhi, Kashmiri, Konkani, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Manipuri, Santhali, Tibetan, Japanese, Russian and Chinese. *** DomainSpecificSubjects(27):1.Accountancy/BookKeeping;2.Biology/BiologicalStudies/Biotechnology/ Biochemistry; 3. Business Studies; 4. Chemistry; 5. Computer Science/Informatics Practices; 6. Economics/ Business Economics; 7. Engineering Graphics; 8. Entrepreneurship; 9. Geography/Geology; 10. History; 11. Home Science; 12. Knowledge Tradition and Practices of India; 13. Legal Studies; 14. Environmental Science; 15. Mathematics; 16. Physical Education/NCC/Yoga; 17. Physics; 18. Political Science; 19. Psychology; 20. Sociology; 21. Teaching Aptitude; 22. Agriculture; 23. Mass Media/Mass Communication; 24. Anthropology; 25. Fine Arts/Visual Arts (Sculpture/Painting)/Commercial Arts; 26. Performing Arts– (i) Dance (Kathak/Bharatnatyam/Oddisi/Kathakali/Kuchipudi/Manipuri (ii) Drama-Theatre (iii) Music General (Hindustani/Carnatic/Rabindra Sangeet/Percussion/Non-Percussion); 27. Sanskrit [For all Shastri (Shastri 3 years/4 years Honours) Equivalent to B.A./B.A. Honours courses i.e. Shastri in Veda, Paurohitya (Karmakand), Dharamshastra, Prachin Vyakarana, Navya Vyakarana, Phalit Jyotish, Siddhant Jyotish, Vastushastra, Sahitya, Puranetihas, Prakrit Bhasha,Prachin Nyaya Vaisheshik, Sankhya Yoga, Jain Darshan, Mimansa, AdvaitaVedanta, Vishihstadvaita Vedanta, Sarva Darshan, a candidate may choose Sanskrit as the Domain]. • A candidate can choose a maximum of any 3 languages from Section IA and Section IB taken together. (One of the languages chosen needs to be in lieu of Domain specific subjects). • Section II offers 27 subjects, out of which a candidate may choose a maximum of 6 subjects. • Section III comprises General Test. • For choosing Languages (up to 3) from Section IA and IB and a maximum of 6 subjects from Section II and General Test under Section III, the candidate must refer to the requirements of his/her intended University. Level of questions for CUET (UG)–2022: All questions in various testing areas will be benchmarked at the level of Class XII only. Marking Scheme of Examination For Multiple Choice Questions: To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one option corresponding to the correct answer or the most appropriate answer. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner: (i) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+ 5) (ii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (– 1). (iii) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0). (iv) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options. (v) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vi) If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then all candidates who have appeared will be given five marks (+ 5). Note: C andidates are advised to visit the NTA CUET (UG)–2022 official website https://cuet.samarth.ac.in/, for latest updates regarding the Examination.
Contents ... 1 1. Reproduction in Organisms ... 4 2. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3. Human Reproduction ... 9 4. Reproductive Health 5. Principles of Inheritance and Variation ... 21 6. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 7. Evolution ... 26 8. Human Health and Diseases 9. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production ... 42 10. Microbes in Human Welfare 11. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes ... 55 12. Biotechnology and its Applications 13. Organisms and Populations ... 68 14. Ecosystem 15. Biodiversity and Conservation ... 79 16. Environmental Issues Answers ... 86 CUET-UG Mock Test Papers ... 98 ... 104 ... 108 ... 124 ... 135 ... 141 ... 147 ... M-1–M-49
SYLLABUS (BIOLOGY/BIOLOGICAL STUDIES/BIOTECNOLOGY/BIOCHEMISTRY – 304) Note: There will be one Question Paper which will have 50 questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted. Unit I: Reproduction Reproduction in organisms: Reproduction, a characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species; Modes of reproduction – Asexual and sexual; Asexual reproduction; Modes- Binary fission, sporulation, budding, gemmule, fragmentation; vegetative propagation in plants. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants: Flower structure; Development of male and female gametophytes; Pollination–types, agencies and examples; Outbreedings devices; Pollen-Pistil interaction; Double fertilization; Post fertilization events– Development of endosperm and embryo, Development of seed and formation of fruit; Special modes– apomixis, parthenocarpy, polyembryony; Significance of seed and fruit formation. Human Reproduction: Male and female reproductive systems; Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; Gametogenesis – spermatogenesis & oogenesis; Menstrual cycle; Fertilisation, embryo development upto blastocyst formation, implantation; Pregnancy and placenta formation (Elementary idea); Parturition (Elementary idea); Lactation (Elementary idea). Reproductive health: Need for reproductive health and prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STD); Birth control- Need and Methods, Contraception and Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP); Amniocentesis; Infertility and assisted reproductive technologies – IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (Elementary idea for general awareness). Unit II: Genetics and Evolution Heredity and variation: Mendelian Inheritance; Deviations from Mendelism – Incomplete dominance, Co-dominance, Multiple alleles and Inheritance of blood groups, Pleiotropy; Elementary idea of polygenic inheritance; Chromosome theory of inheritance; Chromosomes and genes; Sex determination – In humans, birds, honey bee; Linkage and crossing over; Sex linked inheritance – Haemophilia, Colour blindness; Mendelian disorders in humans – Thalassemia; Chromosomal disorders in humans; Down’s syndrome, Turner’s and Klinefelter’s syndromes. Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA and RNA; DNA packaging; DNA replication; Central dogma; Transcription, genetic code, translation; Gene expression and regulation – Lac Operon; Genome and human genome project; DNA finger printing. Evolution: Origin of life; Biological evolution and evidences for biological evolution (Paleontological, comparative anatomy, embryology and molecular evidence); Darwin’s contribution, Modern Synthetic theory of Evolution; Mechanism of evolution – Variation (Mutation and Recombination) and Natural Selection with examples, types of natural selection; Gene flow and genetic dirft; Hardy – Weinberg’s principle;Adaptive Radiation; Human evolution. Unit III: Biology and Human Welfare Health and Disease: Pathogens; parasites causing human diseases (Malaria, Filariasis, Ascariasis, Typhoid, Pneumonia, common cold, amoebiasis, ring worm); Basic concepts of immunology – vaccines; Cancer, HIV and AIDs; Adolescence, drug and alcohol abuse. Improvement in food production: Plant breeding, tissue culture, single cell protein, Biofortification; Apiculture and Animal husbandry.
Microbes in human welfare: In household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment, energy generation and as biocontrol agents and biofertilizers. Unit IV: Biotechnology and Its Applications Principles and process of Biotechnology: Genetic engineering (Recombinant DNA technology). Application of Biotechnology in health and agriculture: Human insulin and vaccine production, gene therapy; Genetically modified organisms – Bt crops; Transgenic Animals; Biosafety issues – Biopiracy and patents. Unit V: Ecology and Environment Organisms and environment: Habitat and niche; Population and ecological adaptations; Population interactions – mutualism, competition, predation, parasitism; Population attributes – growth, birth rate and death rate, age distribution. Ecosystems: Patterns, components; productivity and decomposition; Energy flow; Pyramids of number, biomass, energy; Nutrient cycling (carbon and phosphorous); Ecological succession; Ecological Services – Carbon fixation, pollination, oxygen release. Biodiversity and its conservation: Concept of Biodiversity; Patterns of Biodiversity; Importance of Biodiversity; Loss of Biodiversity; Biodiversity conservation; Hotspots, endangered organisms, extinction, Red Data Book, biosphere reserves, National parks and sanctuaries. Environmental issues: Air pollution and its control; Water pollution and its control; Agrochemicals and their effects; Solid waste management; Radioactive waste management; Greenhouse effect and global warming; Ozone depletion; Deforestation; Any three case studies as success stories addressing environmental issues.
1. REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the correct alternative given in each of the (a) Parthenogenesis (b) Variations following questions: (c) Adaptations (d) Virgin birth. 1. If a plant fails to develop viable seeds, it could 9. Mango and Guava are propagated through best be grown by (a) Tissue culture (b) Grafting (a) Cutting (b) Grafting (c) Stem cuttings (d) Layering. (c) Layering (d) Micropropagation. 10. The offspring produced through which of the following process are not exactly similar to their 2. Nothing lives forever yet continues explains parents ? the role of (a) Adaptations in nature (a) Parthenogenesis (b) Decomposition in nature (b) Asexual reproduction (c) Reproduction in nature (c) Sexual reproduction (d) Nutrition in nature. (d) Dizygotic twins. 3. The members of a clone may differ genetically, 11. Reproduction is essential for when there is a (a) producing young ones (a) Mutation (b) Predation (b) continuity of a species (c) Parasitism (d) Encystment. (c) adaptations 4. The non-motile structures which abstrict at the (d) variations. tips of hyphae are called 12. Which one of the following plants is known as (a) Zoospores (b) Conidia terror of Bengal ? (c) Gemmules (d) Buds. (a) Bryophyllum (b) Nymphea 5. The motile reproductive structures of algae and (c) Parthenium (d) Eichhornia. fungi, which directly give rise to new individuals are called 13. Meiocytes are (a) gamete mother cells (a) Buds (b) Zoospores (b) bone marrow cells (c) Cysts (d) Conidia. (c) spermatids 6. The continuity of life is maintained by the (d) polocytes. process of 14. After fertilization ovary develops into (a) Respiration (b) Adaptations (a) Seed (b) Fruit (c) Photosynthesis (d) Reproduction. (c) Pericarp (d) Stamen. 7. The duration between two flowering periods in 15. Which one of the following is considered plants is called immortal ? (a) Reproductive phase (a) Amoeba (b) Volvox (b) Breeding phase (c) Euglena (d) Ascaris. (c) Senescence 16. Parthenogenesis occurs in (d) Vegetative phase. (a) Rotifers 8. Sexual reproduction combines the characters (b) Honey bees of two parents and also introduces (c) Caucasian rock lizard (d) All of these 1
11. BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS SETI (c) We can cut DNA at specific sites by endonuclease like DNAase I Select the correct alternative given in each of the following questions: (d) Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro. 1. PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) was 8. Restriction endonucleases discovered by (a) cleave DNA at highly specific recognition sequences (a) Wilmut (b) A. Jeffreys (b) are inserted into bacteria by bacteriophages (c) are made only by eukaryotic cells (c) Eithoven (d) Kary Mullis. (d) add methyl group to specific DNA sequences. 2. PCR method is useful for 9. Plasmids (a) Amplification of DNA for forming billions (a) are circular protein molecules of copies of itself (b) are required by bacteria (c) are tiny bacteria (b) Monoclonal antibody production (d) confer resistance to antibiotics. (c) Hybridoma production 10. DNA can be introduced into any cell by (a) injection (d) All of the above. (b) being complexed with calcium salts (c) bombarding microparticles of gold or 3. Restriction enzymes are tungsten coated with DNA through biolistics. (a) Not always required in genetic engineering (d) gel electrophoresis. (b) Essential tool in genetic engineering 11. Recombinant DNA technology can be used to produce large quantities of biologically active (c) Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites form of which one of the following products in E. coli ? (d) Both (b) and (c). (a) Luteining hormone (b) Ecdysone 4. Genetically identical individuals are (c) Rifamycin (d) Interferon. (a) Cybrids (b) Hybrids 12. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed (c) Clones (d) Plasmids. by temperature, they are in order of (a) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis 5. Taq DNA polymerase enzyme which is the basis (b) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation (c) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation of PCR was declared molecule of the year 1989. (d) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing. It was discovered by (a) Kary Mullis (b) E.M. Southern (c) Alick Isaacs (d) J. Linderman. 6. The technique in which a foreign DNA is precipitated on the surface of tungsten or gold particle and shot into the target cells is known as (a) Microinjection (b) Chemical mediated gene transfer (c) Particle gun (d) Electroporation. 7. Genetic engineering is possible because (a) Phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is understood (b) We can see DNA by electron microscope 98
148 BIOLOGY SET II 8. (b) 16. (d) 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 24. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 32. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 40. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 30. (b) 31. (a) 48. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 56. (c) 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 64. (d) 49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 72. (d) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 62. (a) 63. (b) 80. (a) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (b) 36. (b) 37. (a) 70. (b) 71. (d) 88. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c) 78. (a) 79. (a) 96. (a) 81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (b) 44. (d) 45. (d) 86. (c) 87. (d) 104. (b) 89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (b) 94. (c) 95. (a) 112. (b) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 102. (c) 103. (d) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (a) 110. (a) 111. (a) 8. (d) 113. (a) 114. (a) 60. (a). 61. (c) 16. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 24. (b) 68. (c) 69. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 32. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 40. (a) 76. (b) 77. (d) 30. (a) 31. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 84. (b) 85. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d) 92. (b) 93. (c) 100. (b) 101. (b) 108. (c) 109. (c) 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) SET III 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 5. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 13. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 21. (c) 41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 29. (d) 37. (a) 45. (a) CASE BASED QUESTIONS Case Study 1 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) Case Study 2 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) SET I 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b) 5. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 13. (a) 30. (d) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 21. (c) 29. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 37. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) SET II 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) SET III 4. (a) 5. (d)
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