Answers 111 Case Study–1 8. (a) 16. (b) 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 24. (a) Case Study–2 8. (a) 16. (a) 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 8. (c) 5. Land Resources and Agriculture 16. (d) 24. (c) 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 7. (d) 15. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 7. (b) Case Study–1 15. (d) 23. (a) 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) Case Study–2 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 3. (d) 6. Water Resources 11. (d) 1. (c) 2. (d) 19. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a) 20. (d) 21. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) Case Study–1 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) Case Study–2 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 7. Mineral and Energy Resources 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c)
112 Geography Case Study–1 8. (c) 16. (a) 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 24. (b) Case Study–2 8. (a) 16. (d) 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 24. (c) 8. Manufacturing Industries 8. (d) 16. (c) 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) Case Study–1 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) Case Study–2 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 9. Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) Case Study–1 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) Case Study–2 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 10. Transport and Communication 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a)
Answers 113 24. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 8. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 16. (d) Case Study–1 8. (d) 16. (a) 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 24. (a) Case Study–2 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 11. International Trade 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) Case Study–1 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) Case Study–2 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 12. Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) Case Study–1 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 1. (c) 2. (c) Case Study–2 1. (a) 2. (c)
Mock Test Paper 1 1. Which of these is not a characteristic of the study of Geography? (a) Integrative (b) Practical (c) Idealistic (d) Empirical 2. Who was the father of modern human geography? (a) Humboldt (b) Ritter (c) Ratzel (d) Huntington 3. What was world population at the beginning of the 21st century? (a) Over 4 billion (b) Over 6 billion (c) Over 8 billion (d) Over 10 billion 4. What does help us to understand the demographic characteristics of any area? (a) Density of population (b) Patterns of population distribution (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b) 5. Which one of the following countries has the highest sex ratio in the world? (a) Latvia (b) United Arab Emirates (c) Japan (d) France 6. The highest sex ratio in the world has been recorded in Latvia which is (a) 65 males per 100 females (b) 85 males per 100 females (c) 90 males per 100 males (d) 955 males per 100 females 7. Which one of the following best describes development? (a) An increase in size (b) A decrease in size (c) A positive change in quality (d) A simple change in the quality 8. When was the Human Development Index created? (a) 1980 (b) 1990 (c) 2000 (d) 2010 9. Which sector of the economy utilises the earth’s resources directly in order to extract raw materials or food? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Quaternary 10. Which tree milky juice is used for making chewing gum? (a) Cinchona tree (b) Zapota tree (c) Eucalyptus tree (d) Both (a) and (b) 11. Which one of the following activities in not a secondary activity? (a) Marketing garment (b) Iron smelting (c) Catching fish (d) Basket weaving 12. What are the characteristics of modern large-scale manufacturing? I. Mechanisation II. Technological innovation M-1
M-2 Geography III. Uneven geographic distribution (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III 13. Which service does not require professional skill? (a) Doctor (b) Teacher (c) Lawyer (d) Shopkeeper 14. Buying and selling of items (or things) is termed as (a) Trade (b) Import (c) Export (d) Commerce 15. Which mode of transportation is suited for carrying a large volume of bulky materials over long distances within a country? (a) Roads (b) Railways (c) Airways (d) Pipelines 16. Which mode of transportation is not used for carrying both passengers and freight? (a) Land (b) Water (c) Air (d) Pipelines 17. ‘Jon Beel Mela’ is associated with (a) Free trade (b) Barter system (c) Bilateral trade (d) Multilateral trade 18. Which new form of trade emerged due to European colonization in 15th century? (a) Silk trade (b) Goods trade (c) Slave trade (d) Animal trade 19. Which one of the following types of economic activities dominates in all rural settlement? (a) Primary (b) Tertiary (c) Secondary (d) Quaternary 20. Which of the following possessed a good example of human in habitation that is provided by government on acquired lands? (a) The scheme of villagisation in Ethiopia (b) Canal colonies in Indira Gandhi canal command area (c) Development of settlements in Noida and Gurgaon (d) Both (a) and (b) 21. The average density of population of India (2011) is __________ per km. (a) 216 (b) 382 (c) 221 (d) 324 22. The growth of population rate per decade is: (a) 15.3% (b) 17.3% (c) 17.6% (d) 21.3% 23. Who wrote these lines: “SAR ZAMIN-E-HIND PAR AQWAM-EALAM KE CARVAN BASTE GAYE, HINDOSTAN BANTA GAYA.” (a) Faiz (b) Gorakhpuri (c) Josh (d) Akbar 24. What was the reason for migration from India to Middle-East? (a) Agriculture (b) Mining (c) Increase in oil (d) Favourable climate 25. When was the first Human Development Report published by the UNDP? (a) 1970 (b) 1980 (c) 1990 (d) 1995 26. India has per capita income on prevailing prices: (a) 15,813 (b) 17,813 (c) 18,813 (d) 20,813
Mock Test Paper 1 M-3 27. In which valley were Harappa and Mohanjodaro towns located? (a) Ganga (b) Narmada (c) Indus (d) Brahmaputra 28. How much percent is the urban population in India? (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 31 29. India is the second-largest producer of which crop in the world? (a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Rice (d) Cotton 30. India is the leading producer of which crop in the world? (a) Jute (b) Rice (c) Tea (d) Coffee 31. How much part of the earth is covered with water? (a) 51% (b) 61% (c) 71% (d) 81% 32. Which one of the following is a ferrous mineral? (a) Bauxite (b) Iron ore (c) Mica (d) Coal 33. Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material? (a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c) Sugar (d) Jute 34. Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computers, etc? (a) Steel (b) Aluminium (c) Electronic (d) Information Technology 35. When did the Tenth Five Year Plan come to an end? (a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2008 36. What should be the height of an area in the hill area development programme? (a) 500 metres (b) 600 metres (c) 700 metres (d) 800 metres 37. Which stations are joined by the North-South corridor? (a) Srinagar – Kanniyakumari (b) Delhi – Chennai (c) Jaipur – Salem (d) Patna – Kochi 38. What is the share of National Highways in roads of India? (a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 3% (d) 4% 39. Which element of India’s International trade has changed? (a) Amount (b) Composition (c) Direction (d) All of these 40. What is the main source of pollution? (a) Solid waste (b) Crops (c) Animals (d) Forests Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important ‘with the help of what tools and techniques do they produce and create’. Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws. For example, the understanding of concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire. Similarly, understanding of the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled
M-4 Geography us to conquer many diseases. We use the laws of aerodynamics to develop faster planes. You can see that knowledge about Nature is extremely important to develop technology and technology loosens the shackles of environment on human beings. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment humans were greatly influenced by it. They adapted to the dictates of Nature. This is so because the level of technology was very low and the stage of human social development was also primitive. This type of interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature was termed as environmental determinism. At that stage of very low technological development we can imagine the presence of a naturalised human, who listened to Nature, was afraid of its fury and worshipped it. 41. Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of (a) Worships (b) Workers (c) Technology (d) Communication 42. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of (a) Technological tools (b) Natural laws (c) Human societies (d) Natural resources 43. Which of the following laws are used to develop faster planes? (a) Laws of gravity (b) Laws of friction (c) Laws of thermodynamics (d) Laws of aerodynamics 44. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment, humans adapted to the dictates of Nature because (a) Level of technology was very low. (b) Stage of human social development was also primitive. (c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Neither (a) nor (b) 45. Which one of the following concepts is related to Naturalisation of Humans? (a) Humanism (b) Possibilism (c) Neodeterminism (d) Environmental Determinism Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: The division of the society into male, female and transgender is believed to be natural and biological. But, in reality, there are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions. Consequently, these biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions. The exclusion of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society. It is a global challenge, which has been acknowledged by the UNDP when it mentioned that, “If development is not engendered it is endangered” (HDR UNDP 1995). Discrimination, in general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity. All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar types of work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life, etc. A society, which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discriminations, cannot be treated as a civilised one. The Government of India has duly acknowleged the adverse impacts of these discriminations and launched a nationwide campaign called ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’. 46. In which year Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme was launched? (a) 2011 (b) 2015 (c) 2018 (d) 2020
Mock Test Paper 1 M-5 47. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme has no provision for which component? (a) Individual cash transfer (b) Collective cash transfer (c) Both of the above (d) Neither of the above 48. ‘Beti bachao beti padhao’ has been launched in which state? (a) Haryana (b) Delhi (c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan 49. Headquarter of “UNDP” is located in (a) Netherlands (b) Moscow (c) Berlin (d) New York City 50. The United Nations’ Development Programme was established in (a) 1960 (b) 1945 (c) 1965 (d) 1955
Answers Mock Test Paper 1 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b) Mock Test Paper 2 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a) Mock Test Paper 3 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a) Mock Test Paper 4 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (d) Mock Test Paper 5 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (b)
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