English 10 QB

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press does it mean? behind the imperialist foreign policy of Britain? (i) The common masses (i) The glorification resulting from imperialism (ii) The middle class never completely blinded the British people (iii) The officer class to the unjustness of their imperialist policy (iv) The aristocracy Ans : (iv) The aristocracy (ii) The glorification resulting from the establishment of sway overseas did not make (g) Which class of the British society had vested the British people complacent interest in imperial expansion? (i) The middle class (iii) The British people became so dull and (ii) The labour class emotionally so cold, that the glorification of (iii) The officer class their country attained through imperialism (iv) The aristocracy never induced them to feel proud of this phenomenon Ans : (iii) The officer class (iv) All of these (h) Who was the supreme tactician of the Indian Ans : (i) The glorification resulting from imperialism liberation movement? never completely blinded the British people to the (i) Mrs Annie Beasant unjustness of their imperialist policy (ii) The enlightened British liberals themselves (iii) Lokmanya Balgangadhar Tilak (b) What does the term authoritarian rule mean? (iv) Mahatma Gandhi (i) Rule of the authority of law Ans : (iv) Mahatma Gandhi (ii) Dictatorial rule of an aristocrat (i) What did Mahatma Gandhi believe was the unaccompanied by the rule of law factor that facilitated the continuance of British rule of India? (iii) Arbitrary exercise of power by officials (i) The cooperation extended to the British by many section of the Indian population (iv) Rule having stability (ii) The support lent to them by the kings and Ans : (ii) Dictatorial rule of an aristocrat princes of the Indian native states unaccompanied by the rule of law (iii) The sympathies of the fifth columnists towards the British (c) What according to the author did the (iv) The mutual squabbles of the Indian maintenance of imperialism result in? politicians (i) International conflicts Ans : (i) The cooperation extended to the British by many section of the Indian population (ii) Economic exploitation of the subject peoples (j) What according to you would be the most (iii) Mental enslavement of the subject peoples suitable title for the passage? (i) British imperialism and India (iv) Erection of trade barriers in the foreign (ii) British liberals attitude towards imperialism trade and other restrictive measures (iii) Role of Mahatma Gandhi in Indian Freedom Movement Ans : (iv) Erection of trade barriers in the foreign (iv) The emotional appeal of British ‘imperialism’ trade and other restrictive measures Ans : (ii) British liberals attitude towards imperialism (d) What do you think where the revealed truths of classical economics? www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard (i) Laissez faire and free trade from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based (ii) Allowing only subsistence wages to the on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So workers for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by (iii) Clamping of artificial restrictions of foreign www.cbse.online trade (iv) Wholesale nationalization of the means of production Ans : (i) Laissez faire and free trade (e) What according to the author was the attitude of the British liberals towards the British imperialist and colonial policy? (i) One of active cooperation (ii) One of only verbal co-operation (iii) One of total indifference (iv) One of repeated protests Ans : (iv) One of repeated protests (f ) Which class of British society was the force Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 49

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online PASSAGE 30 man? (i) Physical strength 1. Man’s growth from barbarism into civilization is (ii) Having no worries in their lives supposed to be the theme of history but sometimes, (iii) Having greater instinct for cooperation and looking at great stretches of history, it is difficult to believe that this ideal has made such progress or sacrifice that we are very much civilized or advanced. There is (iv) Not oppressing or exploiting one another. enough of want of cooperation today, of one country Ans : (iii) Having greater instinct for cooperation and or people selfishly attacking or oppressing another, sacrifice of one man exploiting another. (d) What does the soul signify? 2. It is well to remember that man in many ways has (i) A divine essence in all of us. not made very great progress from other animals. (ii) Different things for different people It may be that in certain ways some animals are (iii) Self-righteousness superior to him. Still we look down upon the insects (iv) The element of life as almost the lowest of living things, and yet the tiny bees and ants have learnt the art of cooperation Ans : (ii) Different things for different people and of sacrifice for the common good far better than man. (e) What lesson does the Sanskrit Verse in question teach us? 3. If mutual cooperation and sacrifice for the good of (i) To inculcate spirit of cooperation and self- society are the test of civilization we may say that sacrifice for the large good of the society. the bees and ants are in this respect superior to (ii) To behave well with one another. man. In one of our old Sanskrit books there is a (iii) To help each other in difficulties. verse which may be translated as follows: For family, (iv) To work constantly. sacrifice the individual, for community, the family, for the country, the community, and for the soul, the Ans : (i) To inculcate spirit of cooperation and self- whole world. sacrifice for the large good of the society. 4. What a soul is, few of us can know or tell, and each (f ) We say that man is not yet civilized because - one of us can interpret it in a different way, but (i) there are colossal disparities between the the lesson this Sanskrit Verse teaches us is the same rich and the poor. lesson of cooperation and sacrifice for the larger (ii) most of us are illiterate. good. We in India had forgotten this sovereign path (iii) we ill-behave with one another. of real greatness for many a day. (iv) most of us oppress and exploit others and lack the spirit of cooperation. 5. But again we seem to have glimpses of it and all the country is astir. How wonderful it is to see men and Ans : (iv) most of us oppress and exploit others and women, and boys and girls, smilingly going ahead in lack the spirit of cooperation. India’s cause and caring about any pain or suffering ! Well, may they smile and be glad for the joy of (g) We should not look down upon the insects as serving a great cause is also great. They will also be almost the lowest of living things because - fortunate enough to get the joy of sacrifice. (i) they are of immense use to mankind. (ii) they can cause harm to us out of proportion (a) What is really the theme of history? to their size. (iii) they have a sense of sacrifice and cooperation. (i) The rise and fall of empires. (iv) small size does not necessarily make anything low. (ii) Man’s moral and spiritual development. Ans : (iii) they have a sense of sacrifice and cooperation. (iii) Man’s search for truth. (h) What does the expression ‘larger good’ mean? (iv) The process of man becoming civilized. (i) Great good of oneself Ans : (ii) Man’s moral and spiritual development. (ii) A lot of good (iii)Very excellent (b) What is the basic reason of exploitation of one (iv) Good of the society man by another? Ans : (iv) Good of the society (i) The weakness of some people and the strength of the others (i) What does the sentence ‘All the country is astir’ (ii) Lack of civilisation (iii) Man’s beastly nature (iv) Lack of education Ans : (ii) Lack of civilisation (c) In what respects are some animals superior to Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 50

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press mean in the passage ? that, as time passes some under-privileged groups do (i) The whole country is up in revolt. manage to become aware of the reality, the number (ii) A wave of zeal and vivacity, vigour and of the educated persons soon becomes too large to be fully co-opted, and many able individuals among dynamism is perceptible in the whole them strive to organize and liberate the weak and country. the underprivileged. The resultant awareness of (iii) There is an upsurge of political and economic the people, combined with suitable organization fervour in the whole country. necessary leads to an adjustment in the social (iv) The whole country is flooded with lofty structure and to an increase in vertical mobility so ideas and thoughts. that new groups begin to share power. Ans : (iii) There is an upsurge of political and economic 3. Eventually, other social changes also follow and the fervour in the whole country. traditional, in-egalitarian and hierarchical social structure tends to be replaced by another which is (j) How can we be truly civilised? more modern, less hierarchical and more egalitarian. (i) By getting more and more wealth and power The educational system, therefore, is never politically (ii) By reading more and more books neutral, and it always performs three functions (iii) by subjugating backward nations and simultaneously via, it helps the privileged to educating their citizens dominate, domesticates the underprivileged to their (iv) By developing qualities of mutual help, co- own status in society, and also tends to liberate the operation and self-sacrifice oppressed. Which of these functions shall dominate and to what extent, depends mostly on one crucial Ans : (iv) By developing qualities of mutual help, co- factor, via, the quality and quantity of the political operation and self-sacrifice education which the system provides or upon its ‘political content’. PASSAGE 31 4. The developments in Indian society, polity and education during the past 175 years should be viewed 1. The political system always dominates the entire against the background of this broad philosophy. social scene, and hence those who wield political From very ancient times, the Indian society has always power are generally able to control all the different been elitist and power, wealth and education were social sub-systems and manipulate them to their own mostly confined to the upper castes of the society. advantage. The social groups in power, therefore, What is important to note is that the system has an have always manipulated the education systems, infinite capacity to adjust or to absorb and, for that especially when these happen to depend upon the very reason, it is extremely resistant to any radical State for their very existence, to strengthen and transformation. The social system continued to exist perpetuate their own privileged position. But herein almost unchanged until the British administrators lies a contradiction. For the very realization of their began to lay the foundation of the modern system of selfish ends, the social groups in power are compelled education. to extend the benefits of these educational systems to the underprivileged groups also. The inevitable (a) The Indian society has always been task is generally performed with three precautions abundantly taken care of: (i) insensitive to the needs of elite groups • The privileged groups continue to be the principal beneficiaries of the educational system, (ii) less hierarchical dominate the higher stages of education or the hardcore of prestigious and quality institutions (iii) politically neutral or the most useful of courses, so as to safeguard their dominant position of leadership in all walks (iv) none of these of life; Ans : (iv) none of these • The system is so operated that underprivileged groups can utilize it only marginally in real (b) How does education work for ameliorating the terms and the bulk of them become either drop- lot of the underprivileged classes? outs or push-outs and get reconciled to their own inferior status in society; and (i) It helps the underprivileged people to • The few from the weaker sections that survive dominate others and succeed in spite of all the handicaps are generally co-opted within the system to prevent (ii) It helps them to achieve higher goals in life dissatisfaction. (iii)Some educated persons from this class 2. But education is essentially a liberating force so organise and liberate the weak people (iv) It encourages them to domesticate the privileged people Ans : (iii) Some educated persons from this class organise and liberate the weak people (c) Which of the following statements is not true in Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 51

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online the context of the passage? (h) The Indian social system is resistant to the major changes because (i) The privileged groups try to deprive, the (i) it is basically elitist. ‘have nots’ of the real benefits of education. (ii) it can absorb social changes without changing its basic framework. (ii) The educational system is never politically (iii) it is extremely traditional and conservative. biased. (iv) power, wealth and education are mostly confined to the upper classes (iii) The educational system tends to enlighten the minds of the underprivileged. Ans : (ii) it can absorb social changes without changing its basic framework. (iv) The privileged class depends upon the Government for their survival. (i) According to the passage, social groups in power extend the benefits of education to the Ans : (ii) The educational system is never politically underprivileged groups because biased. (i) they want to achieve their selfish objectives. (ii) they want to create an egalitarian society. (d) In the context of the passage, which of the (iii) they have realized that the growth of a nation following statements is true regarding those who depends upon the spread of education. control political power? (iv) they want to abdicate their dominant position of leadership in all walks of life. (i) They Facilitate the upward mobility of the underprivileged classes. Ans : (i) they want to achieve their selfish objectives. (ii) They try to establish a just social order. PASSAGE 32 (iii) They Facilitate the upward mobility of the 1. The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, privileged classes. 2011, notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, have the potential to turn a growing problem (iv) They try to control all the different social into a developmental opportunity. With almost half- subsystems. a-year to go before the rules take effect, there is enough time to create the necessary infrastructure Ans : (iv) They try to control all the different social for collection, dismantling, and recycling of subsystems. electronic waste. The focus must be on sincere and efficient implementation. Only decisive action can (e) According to the passage, sharing of power by reduce the pollution and health costs associated with new groups is an outcome of India’s hazardous waste recycling industry. If India can achieve a transformation, it will be creating a (i) increase in the vertical mobility of the whole new employment sector that provides good underprivileged groups wages and working conditions for tens of thousands. The legacy response of the States to even the basic (ii) a liberal democratic approach of the law on urban waste, the Municipal Solid Wastes privileged class (Management and Handling) Rules, has been one of indifference, many cities continue to simply burn the (iii) the total replacement of the traditional garbage or dump it in lakes. With the emphasis now social structure by a modern one on segregation of waste at source and recovery of materials, it should be feasible to implement both (iv) a politically neutral educational system sets rules efficiently. A welcome feature of the new Ans : (i) increase in the vertical mobility of the e-waste rules is the emphasis on extended producer underprivileged groups responsibility. In other words, producers must take responsibility for the disposal of end-of-life products. (f ) According to the passage, why do the majority For the provision to work, they must ensure that of underprivileged groups become drop-outs? consumers who sell scrap get some form of financial incentive. (i) They constantly suffer from the feeling of inferiority 2. The e-waste rules, which derive from those pertaining to hazardous waste, are scheduled to (ii) They do not possess the required intellectual come into force on May 1, 2012. Sound as they are, potential to survive in the educational the task of scientifically disposing a few hundred system. (iii) The system is so manipulated that they cannot utilise it meaningfully (iv) The privileged groups continue to be the major beneficiaries of the system Ans : (iii) The system is so manipulated that they cannot utilise it meaningfully (g) According to the passage, the social groups in power have manipulated the educational system because (i) they wanted to make it politically neutral (ii) they wanted to changes through the system (iii) they wanted to preserve their special status (iv) None of these Ans : (iii) they wanted to preserve their special status Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 52

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press thousand tonnes of trash electronics annually the following? depends heavily on a system of oversight by State (i) Solid wastes and Hazardous waste Pollution Control Boards (PCBs). Unfortunately, (ii) e-waste and Hazardous waste most PCBs remain unaccountable and often lack (iii)Solid waste and e-waste the resources for active enforcement. It must be (iv) e-waste and e-production pointed out that, although agencies handling e-waste Ans : (iv) e-waste and e-production must obtain environmental clearances and be authorized and registered by the PCBs even under (e) e-waste rules have been derived from those the Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling pertaining to and Trans boundary Movement) Rules, 2008, there (i) Hazardous waste has been little practical impact. Over 95 per cent (ii) PC waste of electronic waste is collected and recycled by the (iii)Computer-waste informal sector. The way forward is for the PCBs to (iv) Municipal solid waste be made accountable for enforcement of the e-waste rules, and the levy of penalties under environmental Ans : (i) Hazardous waste laws. Clearly, the first order priority is to create a system that will absorb the 80000-strong workforce (f ) Which of the following will help implement ‘both in the informal sector into the proposed scheme for sets of rules’ ? scientific recycling. Facilities must be created to (i) Employment opportunities upgrade the skills of these workers through training (ii) International collaboration and their occupational health must be ensured. (iii)Financial Incentive 3. Recycling of e-waste is one of the biggest challenges (iv) Segregation of waste at source today. In such a time, when globalization and information technology are growing at a pace which Ans : (iv) Segregation of waste at source could only be imagined few years back, e-waste and its hazards have become more prominent over (g) e-waste Rules came into force from a period of time and should be given immediate (i) 2009 attention. (ii) 2010 (iii)2011 (a) What, according to the passage, is important (iv) 2012 now for e-waste management? Ans : (iv) 2012 (i) Making rules (h) Which of the following best explains the meaning (ii) Reviewing rules of the phrase- ‘which could only be imagined few years back’, as used in the passage? (iii)Implementing rules (i) It was doomed (ii) It took us few years (iv) Amending rules (iii)It took us back by few years Ans : (iii) Implementing rules (iv) None of these (b) Which of the following can be one of the by- Ans : (iv) None of these products of effective e-waste management? (i) Which of the following is true in the context of (i) India can guide other countries in doing so the passage? (i) No city dumps its waste in lakes (ii) It will promote international understanding (ii) Some cities burn garbage (iii)PCBs have adequate resources for active (iii)It will promote national integration enforcement (iv) e-waste was a much bigger challenge in the (iv) It will create a new employment sector past Ans : (iv) It will create a new employment sector Ans : (ii) Some cities burn garbage (c) Which of the following rules has not been indicated in the passage? (j) Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage? (i) e-waste Rules, 2011 (i) Some form of financial incentive is recommended for the producers (ii) Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and (ii) Some financial incentive is recommended for Handling) Rules the consumers (iii)e-waste will be a few hundred thousand (iii) Hazardous Wastes Rules, 2008 tonnes (iv) The agencies handling e-waste have to (iv) Pollution Check Rules obtain environmental clearances Ans : (iv) Pollution Check Rules Ans : (i) Some form of financial incentive is (d) ‘Both sets of rules’ is being referred to which of Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 53

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online recommended for the producers PASSAGE 33 (k) Choose the word which is most nearly the same 1. Jagir Singh has sold red onions at a market in south in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used Delhi every day for the past half-century. Perched on in the passage an upturned create, wrapped tight against the chill CLEARANCE air, he offers pyaz, a staple for much Indian cooking, (i) cleaning for 60 rupees a kilo, the most he can remember. (ii) permission Business is brisk but most customers pick up only (iii)sale a small handful of onions. That is just as well. (iv) remedy Wholesale supplies are tight, he says, and the quality is poor. Ans : (ii) permission 2. As India’s economy grows by some 9% a year, food (l) Choose the word which is most nearly the same prices are soaring. In late December, the commerce in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used ministry judged that food inflation had reached in the passage 18.3%, with pricey vegetables mostly to blame. TURN Officials have made some attempts to temper the (i) throw rise in the past month scrapping import taxes for (ii) chance onions, banning their export and ordering low-priced (iii)send sales at government-run shops. But there is no quick (iv) transform fix. Ans : (iv) transform 3. Heavy rain in the west of India brought a rotten harvest. Vegetables from farther afield including a (m) Choose the word which is most nearly the same politically sensitive delivery from a neighbouring in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used country are costly to move on India’s crowded, in the passage pot-holed roads. Few refrigerated lorries and poor POTENTIAL logistics mean that much of each harvest is wasted. (i) intelligence Newspapers allege hoarders are cashing in. (ii) aptitude (iii)possibility 4. The biggest problems are structural. Food (iv) portion producers, hampered by land restrictions, archaic retail networks and bad infrastructure, fail to meet Ans : (iii) possibility extra demand from consumers. It was estimated in October that a 39% rise in income per person in the (n) Choose the word which is most opposite in previous five years might have created an extra 220 meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in million regular consumers of milk, eggs, meat and the passage fish. Supplies have not kept up with this potential FEASIBLE demand. (i) unattended (ii) physical 5. The broader inflation rate may be a less eye-watering (iii)practical problem than the onions suggest. The central bank (iv) unviable has lifted interest rates steadily in the past year and is expected to do so again later this month. Headline Ans : (iv) unviable inflation fell to 7.5% in November, down by just over a percentage point from October, though it is still (o) Choose the word which is most opposite in above the central bank’s forecast of 5.5% for March. meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage (a) What is responsible for the increased demand of INDIFFERENCE certain food items amongst consumers? (i) interest (ii) difference (i) There has been an increase in the wholesale (iii)ignorance supplies of this food stuff. (iv) insignificance (ii) The vegetables in the market are very highly Ans : (i) interest priced. www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ (iii) There has been an increase in the incomes of prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard people. from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based (iv) There is a lack of availability of vegetables on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So in the market. for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by Ans : (iii) There has been an increase in the incomes www.cbse.online of people. (b) Which of the following is not true in the context Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 54

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press of the passage? passage can possibly mean (i) Profiting (i) The overall inflation is not as bad as the (ii) Running away food inflation in India. (iii) Paying money (iv) Bailing out (ii) Help from other countries to counter food Ans : (i) Profiting inflation has proved to be quite encouraging. (h) Which of the following is most similar in meaning (iii) Government is banning the export of certain to the word ‘tight’ as used in the passage? types of vegetables in order to check food (i) Firm inflation. (ii) Loose (iii) Limited (iv) Highly priced vegetables are mostly (iv) Taut responsible for the increased food inflation. Ans : (iii) Limited Ans : (i) The overall inflation is not as bad as the food inflation in India. (i) Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word ‘temper’ as used in the passage? (c) Which of the following is/are the reason(s) for (i) Displeasure increase in food/vegetable prices? (ii) Anger A. Bad weather (iii) Rage B. Land restrictions (iv) Control C. Poor infrastructure for storage and transportation Ans : (iv) Control (i) Only B (j) Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘archaic’ as used in the (ii) Only A and C passage? (i) Simple (iii) Only A and B (ii) Straightforward (iii) Modern (iv) All A, B and C (iv) Lively Ans : (iv) All A, B and C Ans : (iii) Modern (d) Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage? PASSAGE 34 A. Interest rates are being raised in India. B. India is witnessing a steady economic 1. India is rushing headlong towards economic success growth. and modernisation, counting on high tech industries C. It has been proven that the food inflation is such as information technology and biotechnology mainly because of hoarding. to propel the nation to prosperity. India’s recent announcement that it would no longer produce (i) All A, B and C unlicensed inexpensive generic pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organisation (ii) Only A and B while at the same time challenging the domestic drug industry to compete with the multinational (iii) Only C firms. Unfortunately, its weak higher education sector constitutes the Achilles’ heel of this strategy. (iv) None of these Its systematic disinvestment in higher education in Ans : (ii) Only A and B recent years has yielded neither world-class research nor very many highly trained scholars, scientists or (e) Which of the following is possibly the most managers to sustain high-tech development. appropriate title for the passage? 2. India’s main competitors - especially China but also (i) Food Inflation In India Singapore, Taiwan, and South Korea-are investing in large and differentiated higher education systems. (ii) Onions And Vendors They are providing access to large numbers of students at the bottom of the academic system (iii) Food Deficit Worldwide while at the same time building some research- based universities that are able to compete with the (iv) Food Imports In India world’s best institutions. The recent London Times Ans : (i) Food Inflation In India (f ) What can be said about the sale of onions at present as given in the passage? (i) Vegetable vendors are unwilling to sell onions. (ii) People are not buying as much as they used to. (iii) The sale of onions has picked up and is unprecedented. (iv) None of these Ans : (ii) People are not buying as much as they used to. (g) The usage of the phrase ‘cashing in’ in the Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 55

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online Higher Education Supplement ranking of the world’s (b) What does the phrase “Achilles’ heel” mean as top 200 universities included three in China, three used in the passage? in Hong Kong, three in South Korea, one in Taiwan, and one in India. These countries are positioning (i) Weakness themselves for leadership in the knowledge-based economies of the coming era. (ii) Quickness 3. There was a time when countries could achieve economic success with cheap labour and low- (iii) Low Quality tech manufacturing. Low wages still help, but contemporary large-scale development requires a (iv) Nimbleness sophisticated and at least partly knowledge based Ans : (i) Weakness economy. India has chosen that path, but will find a major stumbling block in its university system. (c) Which of the following is/are India’s strength(s) 4. India has significant advantages in the 21st century in terms of higher education? knowledge race. It has a large higher education sector A. Its system of higher education allows the third largest in the world in student numbers, variations. after China and the United States. It uses English B. Medium of instruction for most higher as a primary language of higher education and learning is English. research. It has a long academic tradition. Academic C. It has the paraphernalia, albeit small in freedom is respected. There are a small number of number, to build a high quality higher high quality institutions, departments, and centres educational sector. that can form the basis of quality sector in higher education. The fact that the States, rather than the (i) Only B Central Government, exercise major responsibility for higher education creates a rather cumbersome (ii) Only A and B structure, but the system allows for a variety of policies and approaches. (iii) Only C 5. Yet the weaknesses far outweigh the strengths. India educates approximately 10 per cent of its young (iv) All A, B and C people in higher education compared with more than Ans : (iv) All A, B and C half in the major industrialised countries and 15 percent in China. Almost all of the world’s academic (d) Which of the following are Asian countries, other systems resemble a pyramid, with a small high quality than India, doing to head towards a knowledge tier at the top and a massive sector at the bottom. based economy? India has a tiny top tier. None of its universities A. Building competitive research based occupies a solid position at the top. A few of the universities. best universities have some excellent departments B. Investing in diverse higher education and centres, and there are a small number of systems. outstanding undergraduate colleges. The University C. Providing access to higher education to a Grants Commission’s recent major support of five select few students. universities to build on their recognised strength is a step toward recognising a differentiated academic (i) Only A system and fostering excellence. These universities, combined, enroll well under one percent of the (ii) Only A and B student population. (iii) Only B and C (a) Which of the following is true in the context of the passage? (iv) All A, B and C Ans : (ii) Only A and B (i) The top five universities in India educate more than 10 percent of the Indian student (e) Which of the following is possibly the most population appropriate title for the passage? (ii) India’s higher education sector is the largest (i) The Future of Indian Universities in the world (ii) Methods of Overcoming the Educational (iii) In the past, countries could progress Deficit in India economically through low manufacturing cost as well as low wages of labourers (iii) India and the Hunt for a Knowledge Based Economy (iv) All of these Ans : (iii) In the past, countries could progress (iv) Indian Economy Versus Chinese Economy economically through low manufacturing cost as well Ans : (iii) India and the Hunt for a Knowledge Based as low wages of labourers Economy (f ) What did India agree to do at the behest of the World Trade Organisation? (i) It would stop manufacturing all types of pharmaceuticals (ii) It would ask its domestic pharmaceutical companies to compete with the international ones (iii) It would buy only licensed drugs from USA (iv) It would not manufacture cheap common medicines without a license Ans : (iv) It would not manufacture cheap common Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 56

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press medicines without a license (l) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the group of words printed in bold (g) Which of the following is/are India’s weakness(es) as used in the passage. when it comes to higher education? STUMBLING BLOCK A. Indian universities do not have the requisite (i) Argument teaching faculty to cater to the needs of the (ii) Frustration higher education sector. (iii) Advantage B. Only five Indian universities occupy the (iv) Hurdle top position very strongly, in the academic pyramid, when it comes to higher education. Ans : (iv) Hurdle C. India has the least percentage of young population taking to higher education as (m) Choose the word which is most opposite in compared to the rest of the comparable meaning to the word printed in bold as used in countries. the passage. CUMBERSOME (i) Only A and B ‘ (i) Handy (ii) Manageable (ii) Only B (iii) Breathtaking (iv) Awkward (iii) Only C Ans : (ii) Manageable (iv) Only A and C Ans : (iv) Only A and C (n) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold (h) Which of the following, according to the passage, as used in the passage. is/are needed for economic success of a country? RESEMBLE A. Cheap labour (i) Against B. Educated employees (ii) Similar to C. Research institutions to cater to development. (iii) Mirror (iv) Differ from (i) Only A and B Ans : (iv) Differ from (ii) Only B (o) Choose the word which is most opposite in (iii) Only C meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. (iv) All A, B and C DIFFERENTIATED Ans : (iv) All A, B and C (i) Similar (ii) Varied (i) Choose the word which is most similar in (iii) Harmonized meaning to the word printed in bold as used in (iv) Synchronized the passage. FOSTERING Ans : (i) Similar (i) Safeguarding PASSAGE 35 (ii) Neglecting 1. Despite the economic crunch worldwide that saw pulverization of some of the largest banking and (iii)Ignoring finance giants, Indian banking houses have managed to show positive growth this quarter. (iv) Nurturing Ans : (iv) Nurturing 2. Some of India’s leading national banks have posted a net profit rise of more than 40% over the last quarter (j) Choose the word which is most similar in amid global turmoil. This would come as a big shot meaning to the word printed in bold as used in in the arm for the investors and consumers of these the passage. banks even though apprehension is mounting on PROPEL other banking and broking firms worldwide. (i) Drive 3. One of the main reasons behind the success of these banks this quarter, would be their direct backing by (ii) Jettison the Government of India. People take solace in their investments in public sector watching the bailout (iii) Burst packages being cashed out by governments all over (iv) Modify Ans : (i) Drive (k) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. MASSIVE (i) Lump sum (ii) Strong (iii) Little (iv) Huge Ans : (iv) Huge Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 57

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online the world to save big business houses. (d) According to the author, what will be a big boon 4. Other private banks in India have also reported a in the days to come? substantial net profit over the last quarter. Given (i) The economy coming back on the fast track the internal and domestic scenario, one cannot put this down as a mundane achievement. While others (ii) The slowing down of the economy are on a cost-cutting spree and firing employees, Indian companies are actually working on boosting (iii) Increased hiring in Indian financial sector in staffing in banking and broking sector. times of economic slowdown 5. This can be seen as a big boon in the days to come when the current recession eases and the economy (iv) None of these gradually comes back on to the fast track. The Ans : (iv) None of these finance minister has assured Indian public about the sound health of all Indian banks. This could also (e) Which of the following statements is/are be evident from the fact that there have been no definitely true in the context of the passage? mergers and takeovers in Indian banking sector in a A. India has not been affected by the economic contrast to world scenario where finance houses are slowdown. looking for mergers to cut costs on operations. B. India banks are showing growth in this 6. We definitely are not looking to thrive; rather we quarter despite the recession. are looking for growth. It is just that the pace of C. While banking industry in the West was growth is a little slow now as compared to a year or severely affected by recession in the past, it two before. These are hard times to test the hard. is now gradually recovering and showing a The weak in business and career will be weeded out positive growth. and it is sometimes very beneficial for business in the long run. (i) Only A (a) According to the author, what is the reason (ii) Only B for the success of Indian national banks in this quarter? (iii) Only C (i) Indian national banks do not have any (iv) Only A and B commitments in troubled foreign markets. Ans : (ii) Only B (ii) These banks can never face financial crisis (f ) Which of the following strengthens the finance because of their sheer size. minister’s statement about the sound health of Indian banks with respect to the passage? (iii) These banks are ready to give loans at a A. There have been no acquisitions and mergers very low rate of interest. of Indian banks. B. The Indian banks are recording a positive (iv) The public is ready to invest in these banks growth. because of the knowledge that these banks C. Layoffs have been observed worldwide. get strong support from the Government. (i) Only A and B Ans : (iv) The public is ready to invest in these banks because of the knowledge that these banks get strong (ii) Only A and C support from the Government. (iii) Only A (b) What does the phrase ‘shot in the arm’ as used in the passage mean? (iv) All A, B and C Ans : (iv) All A, B and C (i) Shock (g) Choose the word which is most similar in (ii) Fear meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. (iii) Encouragement TURMOIL (iv) Anxiety (i) danger Ans : (iii) Encouragement (ii) shock (c) According to the author, how is the current recession beneficial? (iii) sadness (i) Worldwide companies have realized that (iv) chaos India is a strong power to reckon with. Ans : (iv) chaos (ii) India is surging ahead of the other Companies (h) Choose the word which is most similar in throughout the world. meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. (iii) After the recession is over international PULVERIZATION companies will turn to India for investment. (i) polarisation (iv) None of these Ans : (i) Worldwide companies have realized that (ii) mashing India is a strong power to reckon with. (iii) debasement (iv) crushing Ans : (iv) crushing (i) Choose the word which is most opposite in Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 58

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the risk and attract bank funding. but loans rates the passage. much above the standard 15% would most likely be THRIVE attacked as usurious in America. (i) succeed 4. So, the question is whether there is a role for a (ii) deteriorate Third World lender in the world’s largest economy. (iii) worry Grameen America believes that in a few years it will (iv) tremble be successful and turn a profit, thanks to 9 million Ans : (ii) deteriorate US households untouched by mainstream banks and 21 million using the likes of pay-day loans and (j) Choose the word which is most opposite in pawn shops for financing. But enticing the unbanked meaning of the word printed in bold as used in won’t be easy. After all, profit has long eluded US the passage. micro financiers and if it is not lucrative, it is not MUNDANE micro-lending, but charity. When Grameen first (i) extraordinary went to the US, in the late 1980s, it tripped up. (ii) regular Under Grameen’s tutelage, banks started micro (iii) severe loans to entrepreneurs with a shocking 30% loss. But (iv) visionary Grameen America says that this time results will be making loans, not training an American bank to Ans : (i) extraordinary do it. More often than not, the borrowers, Grameen finds, in the US already have jobs(as factory workers www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ for example) or side business-selling toys, cleaning prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard houses etc. from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE 5. The loans from Grameen, by and large, provide a schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based steadier source of funding, but they don’t create on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So businesses out of nothing. But money isn’t everything. for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by More importantly for many entrepreneurs, group members are tremendous sources of support to one www.cbse.online another. So even if studies are yet to determine if Grameen is a clear-cut pathway out of poverty it still PASSAGE 36 achieves something useful. 1. Today, with a Nobel Prize to its credit, Grameen (a) What has adversely affected the success of is one of the largest micro-finance organizations micro-finance institutions in the US? in the world. It started out lending small sums to poor entrepreneurs in Bangladesh to help them grow (i) The focus of these institutions is on making a from a subsistence living to a livelihood. The great profit at any cost instead of being charitable discovery its founders made was that even with few to the needy assets, these entrepreneurs repaid on time. Grameen and micro-finance have since become financial staples (ii) American banks engaged in micro-lending of the developing world. were the most severely hit during the recession 2. Grameen’s approach, unlike other micro financiers, uses the group-lending model. Costs are kept down (iii) A widespread perception are better suited to by having borrowers vet one another, tying together developing countries their financial fates and eliminating expensive loan officers entirely. The ultimate promise of Grameen (iv) Their failure to attract those outside the is to use business lending as a way for people to lift formal banking system as customers themselves out of poverty. Ans : (iv) Their failure to attract those outside the 3. Recently, Grameen has taken on a different challenge- formal banking system as customers by setting up operations in the US .money may be tight in the waning recession, but it is still a nation (b) Why was Grameen made a second attempt to 1,00,000 bank branches. Globally, the working micro- launch itself in the US? finance equation consists of borrowing funds cheaply and keeping loan defaults and overhead expenses (i) The willingness of US banks to provide the sufficiently low. Micro lenders, including Grameen, necessary staff and funds to facilitate the do this by charging colossal interest rates-as high as spread of micro-finance 60% or 70%-which is necessary to compensate for (ii) The rates of interest on loans in the US are exorbitant, making it easier to recover capital. (iii) The realization that a large percentage of the American population not reached by mainstream banks can be tapped (iv) None of these Ans : (iii) The realization that a large percentage of the American population not reached by mainstream Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 59

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online banks can be tapped of flop? A. Lack of proper training to Grameen America (c) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? personnel B. Grameen’s refusal to adapt their system to (i) Micro-finance has been successful only in Asian countries meet the needs of the American poor. C. It ended up giving loans at half their (ii) Micro-finance makes individual borrowers dependent rather than independent customary rates of interest (i) None (iii) America has the largest number of banks in (ii) only A the world (iii) Only A and C (iv) Only C (iv) There is scope for micro-finance institutions Ans : (iv) Only C to be profitable in developed countries (h) Which of the following is a benefit of the Ans : (iv) There is scope for micro-finance institutions Grameen system of micro-finance? to be profitable in developed countries (i) If a single member is unable to repay a loan, other group members will repay (d) According to the author, what has enhanced the (ii) Dispensing with the expense of technology likelihood of success for Grameen America at networks to monitor advances present? (iii) It utilizes the vast bank network already existing in a country (i) Its success in Bangladesh and other (iv) Backing that borrowers receive from other developing countries group members (ii) Absence of other micro-finance institutions Ans : (iv) Backing that borrowers receive from other for competition group members (iii) The fact that America is currently in the (i) Which of the following is most similar in meaning midst of a recession to the word ‘ELUDED’ as used in the passage? (i) Avoided (iv) None of these (ii) Duped Ans : (iv) None of these (iii) Abandoned (iv) intangible (e) Which of the following can be said about Grameen? Ans : (i) Avoided A. Its success in developing countries will (j) Which of the following is most opposite in ensure its success in developed countries meaning to the word ‘COLOSSAL’ as used in the passage? B. It ensures that the poor in developing (i) short countries enjoy a subsistence standard of (ii) Lavish living (iii) Minority (iv) Insignificant C. It has demonstrated that the poor are far more likely to repay loans than the affluent Ans : (iv) Insignificant (i) Only C www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard (ii) Only A from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based (iii) Only A and C on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by (iv) Only B Ans : (i) Only C www.cbse.online (f ) What is the central theme of the passage? (i) The conventional that Grameen is doomed to fail in developed countries (ii) A comprehensive evaluation of the current status of the American economy (iii) A discussion about the prospects of Grameen and micro-finance in the US. (iv) The role of banks in facilitating micro- lending efforts in developed nations Ans : (iii) A discussion about the prospects of Grameen and micro-finance in the US. (g) Why was Grameen America’s initial US initiative Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 60

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press PASSAGE 37 by 1. There is absolutely no point in complaining (i) providing financial incentives to employees that over the years, there has been pressure for regardless of performance Increased productivity and higher earning for works in industry. There are several ways for increasing (ii) enhancing labour productivity by increasing employees’ earnings. Employee earnings can be skills and motivation Increased by raising the selling price of the firm’s products and services, productivity profits or costs (iii) encouraging employees to expend greater of raw materials, or augmenting labour productivity. physical energy 2. However, increasing employee earning by means (iv) inducing employees to improve work other than increased labour productivity jeopardizes performance and control their demands the firm’s competitive strength in the market. Higher price usually mean fewer customers, reduced Ans : (ii) enhancing labour productivity by increasing profit means less capital investment, and low cost skills and motivation materials mean poor product quality. But, increasing labour productivity by enhancing skills and (c) According to the passage, all of the following motivation creates an almost unlimited resource. contribute to an increase in employee earnings The development of economic resource, human as except well as non-human, is the product of human effort, and the quality of human effort in large part depend (i) increasing the selling price of the company,s on human motivation. products 3. Enthusing employees with workaholic spirit through (ii) reducing profits in favour of employees traditional authority and financial incentives has become increasingly difficult as employees become (iii) providing incentives and fringe benefits to economically secure and their dependency on any employees one particular organisation decreases. (iv) increased capital investment 4. According to expectancy theorists, the motivation Ans : (iv) increased capital investment to work increases. when an employee feels his performance is an instrument for obtaining desired (d) Employee feel motivated to work when they rewards; Nevertheless, in many organisation’s today employees are entitled to organisational rewards (i) experience good working conditions in the just by being employed. Unions, governmental organisation regulations, and the nature of the job itself in some cases. Prevent management from relating financial (ii) decide to produce goods and services as a rewards to performance. People may be attracted result of team work to join and remain in organisation’s to receive organisational rewards, but being motivated to join (iii) think of performance as a tool for obtaining an organisation is not the same as being motivated rewards to exert effort in an organisation. (iv) relate rewards to material prosperity 5. The challenge to management is to final and Ans : (iii) think of performance as a tool for obtaining administer alternative from of incentives which will rewards induce employees to improve work performance. Such alternative form’s of reinforcement will require (e) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning increased understanding of motivational theories or the word Induce as used in the passage. and programmes. (i) appreciate (a) Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage? (ii) stimulate (i) Development of economic resources is (iii) exhibit primarily the product of market conditions (iv) inflate (ii) Earnings can be increased’ by lowering the Ans : (ii) stimulate selling price of products (f ) Which of the following factors, according to (iii) Employees can be best motivated by the passage, adversely affects the organisation’s providing financial incentives competitive strength (iv) None of these (i) Making rewards contingent on performance Ans : (iv) None of these (ii) Anti-productivity and anti-management (b) Organisation’s can derive maximum advantages activities of labour unions (iii) Motivating employees with traditional authority (iv) Increasing employee earnings regardless of their productivity Ans : (iv) Increasing employee earnings regardless of their productivity (g) Which of the following statements is/are not Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 61

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online true in the context of the passage ? the London Museum where the relics of the saintly A. Human effort is the cause of the development and scientific thoughts are preserved, where the ruins of the antique world are displayed and where of economic resources. Karl Marx, Mazzini, Lenin and Savarkar had dug for B. Management is free to relate financial knowledge and digested it. 2. In the Museum, he poured over books from morning rearwards to performance. till evening. Time was an important factor with him. C. Employees can be easily motivated with To save both money and time, he would go without lunch. After this, the second round of reading begins traditional authority today. at his residence. The endless reading would go on (i) Both A and B till early morning. He told his room-mate that his (ii) Only C poverty and want of time require him to finish his (iii) Only A and C studies as early as possible. (iv) Only B and C 3. During these studies in London for his academic Ans : (iv) Only B and C eminence, he had not forgotten the real aim in his life. He could not for a minute forget the dumb faces (h) Which of the following factors determine the of the untouchables in India. He took up this matter quality of human efforts ? with the Secretary of State for India and also held (i) Desire and willingness of an individual to discussions with Mr. Vithalbhai Patel in London. excel in whatever he undertakes Neither he could forget the alien political realities of (ii) Economic resources available with the the nation. organisation 4. In a paper read before the Students Union and also (iii) The individual’s innovativeness in his famous thesis “The Problem of the Rupees”, (iv) None of these he exposed the hollowness of the British policies in India, which caused a stir in the academic world Ans : (i) Desire and willingness of an individual to of London and Ambedkar was suspected to be an excel in whatever he undertakes Indian Revolutionary. (i) In the context of the passage, a company’s (a) Where did Dr. Ambedkar teach? competitive strength in the market is affected mainly because of (i) London School of Economics A. a slump in the international market B. poor inter-departmental coordination (ii) Sydenharn College C. decreased labour productivity (i) only A (iii) London Museum (ii) only B (iii) only C (iv) Gray’s Institute of Law (iv) None of these Ans : (ii) Sydenharn College Ans : (iii) only C (b) Dr. Ambedkar was a teacher of (j) Which of the following words is most opposite in (i) Political Economics meaning to the word ‘jeopardises’ as used in the passage ? (ii) Law (i) safeguards (ii) endangers (iii) Literature (iii) projects (iv) devalues (iv) Political Science Ans : (i) Political Economics Ans : (i) safeguards (c) Who amongst the following was Dr. Ambedkar’s PASSAGE 38 benefactor? 1. In November 1918, he joined Sydenham College as (i) Raja of Kathiawar a professor of political economics and worked there for two years. With his little savings, some help from (ii) Queen of England the Maharaja of Kolhapur, and with a loan of five thousand rupees from his friend, Naval Bhathena, he (iii) Raja of Kolhapur left for England in 1920 to complete his studies in Law and Economics. He resumed his studies at the (iv) Lord Gray London School of Economics and kept his terms at Ans : (iii) Raja of Kolhapur Gray’s Institute of Law. He turned his attention to (d) Name Dr. Ambedkar’s friend who helped him to go to England. (i) Nawal Kishore (ii) Karl Marx (iii) Lenin (iv) Naval Bhathena Ans : (iv) Naval Bhathena (e) Why did Dr. Ambedkar try to finish his studies Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 62

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press as early as possible? 2. Later, men learned to make weapons. With weapons, (i) due to illness they could kill larger animals for meat. These early (ii) for lack of resources and time people had big appetites. If they killed an animal, (iii) due to adverse climate they would drink the blood, eat the meat, and chew (iv) due to nostalgia the bones. When they finished the meal, there was Ans : (ii) for lack of resources and time nothing left. (f ) What was Dr. Ambedkar’s real aim in life? 3. At first men wandered from place to place to find (i) Upliftment of the downtrodden caste their food. But when they began to grow plants, (ii) Upliftment of his family they stayed in one place and ate what they could (iii) Academic eminence grow. They tamed animals, trained them to work, (iv) Successful career as a lawyer and killed them for meat. Life was a little better then, but there was still not much variety in their Ans : (i) Upliftment of the downtrodden caste meals. Day after day people ate the same foods. (g) What was the core slogan raised by Dr. 4. Gradually men began to travel greater distances. Ambedkar? The explorers who sailed unknown seas found new (i) Self-awareness amongst the oppressed lands. And in these lands they found new foods and (ii) Open revolt spices and took them back home. (iii) Pacification of the untouchables (iv) Revolt of the oppressors 5. The Portuguese who sailed’ around the stormy Cape of Good Hope to reach China took back “Chinese Ans : (i) Self-awareness amongst the oppressed apples”, the fruit we call oranges today. Later, Portuguese colonists carried orange seeds to Brazil. (h) Where did Dr. Ambedkar spend most of his time From Brazil oranges were brought to California, the in London? first place to grow oranges in the United States. (i) Courtrooms Peaches and melons also came from China. So did a (ii) India House new drink, tea. (iii) Royal Palace (iv) London Museum (a) What did men eat if there was shortage of food? Ans : (iv) London Museum (i) Rotten whales (i) How many year(s) did Dr. Ambedkar work as a (ii) The bark of trees teacher in India? (i) 1 year (iii) The root of trees (ii) 2 years (iii) 3 years (iv) A bird’s nest with eggs (iv) 4 years Ans : (ii) The bark of trees Ans : (ii) 2 years (b) If men tamed animals, they made the animals for them. (j) What did Dr. Ambedkar expose in his thesis? (i) Marginality of the rulers (i) Race (ii) Infallibility of the British Rule (iii) Universal laws of brotherhood (ii) Search (iv) Hollowness of the English policies in India. (iii) Work Ans : (iv) Hollowness of the English policies in India. (iv) Hunt PASSAGE 39 Ans : (iii) Work 1. Long ago men spent most of their time looking for (c) Where did oranges come from? food. They ate anything they could find. Some lived mostly on plants. They ate the fruit, stems, and (i) Brazil leaves of some plants and the roots of others. When food was scarce, they ate the bark of trees. If they (ii) China were lucky, they would find a bird’s nest with eggs. People who lived near the water ate fish or anything (iii) U.S.A. that washed ashore, even rotten whales. Some people also ate insects and small animals like lizards that (iv) Portugal were easy to kill. Ans : (ii) China (d) What difference did weapons make in the kinds of food? (i) With weapons, they could kill animals (ii) With weapons, they could kill both birds and animals for meat (iii) With weapon, they could kill all kinds of animals for meat (iv) With weapons, they could kill larger animals for meat Ans : (iv) With weapons, they could kill larger animals for meat Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 63

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.cbse.online (e) Which of the following statements is not true? www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ (i) The Portuguese colonists carried orange prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard seeds to Brazil. from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE (ii) Oranges grow in California, in the United schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based States. on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So (iii) Explorers took back home new foods and for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by spices. (iv) Peaches, melons, oranges, tea and spices www.cbse.online came from China. PASSAGE 40 Ans : (iv) Peaches, melons, oranges, tea and spices came from China. 1. The Road to success is not straight; there is a curve called failure, a loop called confusion, speed bumps (f ) The phrase ‘live on’ in the passage means called friends, caution lights called family, and you (i) To eat a certain kind of food in order to will have flats called jobs. But, if you have a spare survive called determination, an engine called perseverance, (ii) To eat greedily insurance called faith, and a driver called God, you (iii) To eat everything that you are given to eat will make it to a place called success! (iv) To depend on plants and foods for a livelihood 2. In spite of all our planning and preparation, unexpected challenges are certain to arise. The Ans : (i) To eat a certain kind of food in order to bumps in the road are unavoidable, but you’ll never survive get to your destination if you aren’t willing to drive over them. The difference between a disaster and (g) At first men wondered from place to place to triumph lies in whether or not you’re prepared and find their food. Then some of them began to willing to weather the storm. If you’re ready, those stay in one place, Why? bumps will become stepping-stones. (i) Because they began to grow plants, and ate what they could grow 3. The key thing to realize is that working harder is (ii) Because they tamed animals and birds, and same as working smarter. How do you work smarter? killed them for meat You just need to have the right skills. People want (iii) Because they trained wild animals and killed improved circumstances and better life without an them for meat improved self. They want victory without paying (iv) Because they began to grow plants and the price or making efforts. It really cannot happen fruits, and ate what they could grow without the other. Any improvements that have not been generated by improving yourself are superficial Ans : (i) Because they began to grow plants, and ate and short-lived. If you want to have a better future, what they could grow you have to change yourself. Stop worrying about the various challenges that will come your way. Just (h) Which word in the passage means ‘the main axis believe in yourself and use them as stepping-stones. of a plant that bears buds and shoots’ ? (i) Roots 4. ‘Success’ is getting whatever you want out of life (ii) Stems without violating the rights of others.” It is not an (iii) Bark accident. Success is the result of our attitude and (iv) Leaves our attitude is a choice. Hence success is a matter of choice and not chance. Ans : (ii) Stems 5. Today success represents a holistic and positive (i) What does the word ‘stormy’ in the expression attitude to life. Attitude is everything. Success is ‘the stormy Cape of Good Hope’ mean? not restricted within some kind of brick and mortar (i) Volcanic premises. It assumes the individuality of a complete (ii) Strong act executed with perfection; material achievements (iii) Hopeless do not define life. We don’t remember sports stars (iv) Rough for the products they endorse but the spirit of achievement they represent. In the abundance of Ans : (iv) Rough positive attitude underline the grandeur of a truly rewarding rich life. (j) Which of the following titles best expresses the main idea of the passage? 6. Success can be measured from two standpoints - the (i) Eat Healthy Food external and the internal. Externally it is the measure (ii) The Search for Food of a job well done and recognition. Internally it the (iii) The Foods We Eat (iv) Great Food Regions of the World Ans : (ii) The Search for Food Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 64

Chapter 1 : Discursive Passages www.nodia.press feeling of achievement and wholeness derived from Internally it is _____. the completion of a task or fulfilment of desire. (i) completing of a task (ii) fulfilment of desire (a) The author refers to determination as ____. (iii) job well done and recognition (i) Speed bumps. (iv) the feeling of achievement and wholeness (ii) Flats (iii) A spark derived from the completion of a task or (iv) Insurance fulfilment of desire. Ans : (iv) the feeling of achievement and wholeness Ans : (iii) A spark derived from the completion of a task or fulfilment of desire. (b) The author refers to insurance as _____. (i) Spare (i) Which of the following statements is true in the (ii) Engine context of the passage? (iii) Caution lights (i) Success is a matter of chance and not a (iv) Faith choice (ii) Material achievements define life Ans : (iv) Faith (iii) The road to success is straight (iv) Success is getting whatever you want out of (c) Bumps become steeping stones when _____. life without violating the rights to others (i) You are willing to drive over them (ii) Willing to avoid them Ans : (iv) Success is getting whatever you want out of (iii) Cursing the authorities for constructing life without violating the rights to others them (iv) Talking an alternate route www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard Ans : (i) You are willing to drive over them from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based (d) Difference between disaster and triumph lies in on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So (i) Sulking and moving forward for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by (ii) Not being prepared to face disaster (iii) Dreading to face disaster www.cbse.online (iv) Willing to weather the storm For Term 2 Exam use only question Bank of Ans : (iv) Willing to weather the storm www.cbse.online published by NODIAPRESS because every school make internal exam and preboard papers from these question bank. (e) For success _____. Every school and all teachers has PDF of these question bank. (i) Working harder is the key So they use these PDF for all internal exam and preboard exam. (ii) Working hard is not the key (iii) Working smarter and making efforts is the key. (iv) Working smarter without hard work is the key Ans : (iii) Working smarter and making efforts is the key. (f ) According to the passage, success is_____. (i) a matter of chance (ii) a matter of choice (iii) Getting whatever you want (iv) An accident Ans : (ii) a matter of choice (g) Success represents _____. (i) Brick and mortar premise (ii) Material achievement (iii) A rich life (iv) Holistic and positive attitude to life Ans : (iv) Holistic and positive attitude to life (h) Success can be measured by two standpoints- the external and the internal. Externally it is the measure of a job well done and recognition. Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 65

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online CHAPTER 2 For Term 2 Exam use only question Bank of www.cbse.online published by NODIAPRESS because every school Factual Passages make internal exam and preboard papers from these question bank. Every school and all teachers has PDF of these question bank. So they use these PDF for all internal exam and preboard exam. 2.1 FACTUAL PASSAGES the benchmark for all tourism businesses. As noted by the UN World Tourism Organisation, 57% of As the title ‘Factual suggests the contents of such international tourist arrivals will be in emerging a passage are a collection of facts put together in a economies, by 2030. The various ‘Tourism Terms’ sequential manner. Factual description involves creating are defined as follows: a complete mental picture of a particular person, place, object, beings or events. A factual description allows Category Definition the reader to get a comprehensive view of the subject under discussion. It involves a step by step description Ecotourism Responsible travel to natural areas of the subject in the best possible manner. In this way, that conserves the environment, the reader is able to compare or contrast facts, data or socially and economically sustains other information that is relevant. A factual passage is the well-being of local people, and a detailed description of the physical attributes of the creates knowledge and understanding given topic. through interpretation and education of all involved (including staff, Various subjects: ranging from animate to the travellers, and community residents). inanimate have been described to enable the reader to frame an opinion of his own. Such descriptions either Ethical Tourism Tourism in a destination where provide essential knowledge on the subject matter or ethical issues are the key driver, e.g, provide a means of assessing the worth of the subject. social injustice, human rights, animal Often it is the description that allows the reader to make welfare, or the environment. judgments for himself. The success of a good description lies in the ability to describe the subject to its nearest Geotourism Tourism that sustains or enhances accuracy with current information on the same. the geographical character of a place - its environment, heritage, www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ aesthetics, culture, and well-being of prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard its residents. from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based Pro-Poor Tourism Tourism that results in increased on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So net benefit for the poor people in a for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by destination. www.cbse.online Responsible Tourism Tourism that maximizes the benefits to local communities, minimizes Read the passages given below and answer the negative social or environmental questions based on them that follow by choosing impacts, and helps local people the most appropriate option out of the given four conserve fragile cultures and habitats alternatives: or species. Sustainable Tourism Tourism that leads to the management of all resources in such a way that economic, social, and aesthetic needs can be fulfilled while maintaining cultural integrity, essential ecological processes, biological diversity, and life-support systems. 2. Based on data collected by a survey by Travel PASSAGE 1 Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was constructed– 1. The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that • Age: 35–54 years old, although age varied with sustainable tourism is an important tool for activity and other factors such as cost. Gender: development, most importantly in poor communities 50% female and 50% male, although clear and countries. Today sustainability (environmental, differences based on activity were found. social, and economic) is increasingly recognised as • Education: 82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 66

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press levels of education to those with less education (d) Choose the option that lists the correct answers was also found, indicating an expansion into for the following: mainstream markets. 1. Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and • Household composition: No major differences wishes to travel to places that safeguard were found between general tourists and their rights and inculcate awareness of their experienced ecotourists. rights. What kind of tourist is she? • Party composition: A majority (60%) of 2. Gurdeep Singh from the UK is an experienced ecotourism respondents stated they environmental scientist and has always prefer to travel as a couple, with only 15% stating chosen to travel to places that are examples they preferred to travel with their families, and of a symbiotic relationship between man and 13% preferring to travel alone. (experienced nature. ecotourists = Tourists that had been on at least What kind of tourist is he? one ‘ecotourism’ oriented trip.) (i) 1 - ecotourist, 2 - geotourist • Trip duration: The largest group of experienced (ii) 1 - ethical tourist, 2 - geotourist ecotourists- (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 (iii) 1 - sustainable tourist, 2 - pro-poor tourist days. (iv) 1 - geotourist, 2 - responsible tourist • Expenditure: Experienced ecotourists were Ans : (ii) 1 - ethical tourist, 2 - geotourist willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group (26%). (e) Based on your understanding of the passage, • Important elements of the trip: Experienced choose the option that lists the inherent qualities ecotourists top three responses were: (a) of geotourism. wilderness setting, (b) wildlife viewing, (c) 1. Showcases adventure sports hiking/trekking. 2. Promotes landscape appreciations • Motivations for taking next trip: Experienced 3. Promises luxurious travel ecotourists top two responses were (a) enjoy 4. Includes being environmentally responsible scenery/nature, (b) new experiences/places. 5. Believes in commercializing forests 6. Initiates donations for the underprivileged (a) In the line “……recognised as the benchmark”, (i) 1 and 2 the word ‘benchmark’ does not refer to (ii) 5 and 6 (iii) 2 and 4 (i) the ability to launch something new. (iv) 3 and 5 Ans : (iii) 2 and 4 (ii) the criterion required. (f ) In the market profile of an ecotourist, the (iii) a basis for something. information on gender indicates that (i) female ecotourists were more than male (iv) a standard point of reference. ecotourists. Ans : (i) the ability to launch something new. (ii) the activity preferences were varied in females and males. (b) The World Tourism Organisation of the UN, in (iii) the choice of things to do on a trip were an observation, shared that quite similar for both genders. (iv) male ecotourists were frequent travellers. (i) emerging economies of the world will Ans : (ii) the activity preferences were varied in gain 57% of their annual profits from females and males. International tourists. (g) The education aspect in the market profile of the (ii) countries with upcoming economies shall see ecotourist revealed that maximum tourist footfall from all over the (i) mainstream market trends were popular world in the next decade. with undergraduates. (ii) ecotourists were only those who had basic (iii) a large number of international tourists in education. 2030 will be from developing countries. (iii) mainstream markets were popular tourist destinations for educated ecotourists. (iv) barely any tourist in the next decade shall (iv) ecotourism was no more limited to the small travel from an economically strong nation to group of highly educated travellers. a weak one. Ans : (iv) ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers Ans : (ii) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over (h) According to the survey conducted by the Travel the world in the next decade. Bureau, the total percentage of experienced (c) One of the elements that are important to ecotourists on trips is (i) fully furnished flats. (ii) cultural exchange. (iii) car and bus rides. (iv) wild and untouched surroundings. Ans : (iv) wild and untouched surroundings. Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 67

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online ecotourists who did not prefer to travel alone PASSAGE 2 was (i) 60%. 1. Conference series LLC Ltd organises a conference (ii) 75%. series of 1000+ global events inclusive of 300+ (iii) 15%. conferences, 900+ upcoming and previous (iv) 13%. symposiums and workshops in USA, Europe and Asia Ans : (ii) 75%. with support from 1000 more Scientific societies and (i) According to the survey, one of the most powerful publishes 700+ open access journals which contain driving forces leading experienced ecotourism to over 30000 eminent personalities, reputed scientists invest in new trips was as Editorial board members. (i) setting up work stations in new places. 2. Recycling and Waste Management Convention (ii) the chance to go camping in the wild. 2018 proudly invites contributors across the globe to 9th World Convention on Recycling and Waste (iii) competing with other ecotourists as frequent Management during October 22-23,2018 in Osaka, travellers. Japan, which includes prompt keynote presentations, (iv) the opportunity to travel to new places. oral talks, poster presentations and exhibitions. Ans : (iv) the opportunity to travel to new We are delighted to say that it is the 9th World places. Convention on Recycling and Waste Management (j) Choose the option that lists statement that is which will be held in a beautiful city of Osaka,Japan not true. and hence we invite you all to attend and register. (i) Economically backward countries will 3. 9th World Convention on Recycling and Waste Management is mainly based on the theme benefit from sustainable tourism. “Advocating Waste Disposal and Recycling Practices (ii) The tourism business currently recognizes for Clean and Green Environment.” We warmly sustainability as an important factor. welcome all the participants - leading scientists, researchers and scholars of the world to attend (iii) Emerging economies will receive negligible the convention. We provide a platform for young international tourists in the near future. (iv) The sustainability factor in tourism is a researchers and students to present their research significant means for development. through oral presentations through which they can Ans : (iii) Emerging economies will receive develop a foundation for collaboration among young negligible international tourists in the near researchers. future. 4. The organising committee aims at setting a platform (k) The survey clearly showed that the age range of for all the budding scientists and researchers to ecotourists: present their real-time work and share their views (i) remained the same for the choice of tourist- and aspects related to the theme of the conference. attractions to visit. The organising committee is gearing up for an exciting and informative conference programme (ii) changed with the monetary requirements for including plenary lecture, symposia, workshops on the trip. a variety of topics, poster presentations and various programmes for participants from all over the world. (iii) fluctuated due to the male-female ratio. (iv) was constant across various features of the trip. Ans : (ii) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip. (l) Who isn’t an experienced ecotourist? (i) The person who has travelled as an ecotourist once earlier. (ii) The person who is yet to travel even once as an ecotourist. (iii) The person who is a regular ecotourism enthusiast and traveller. (iv) The person who is not regularly travelling on ecotourism trips. Ans : (ii) The person who is yet to travel even once as an ecotourist. (a) What theme is being highlighted in the given Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 68

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press passage? (h) What is/are the main reason(s) of waste (i) Efficient means of reducing garbage management and recycling it? (ii) Various techniques to be employed to recycle (i) To not over-exploit the resources (ii) Reducing the dump of landfill area the goods (iii) Leaving behind the quality of environment (iii) Efficient ways of waste disposal free from pollution (iv) Both (ii) and (iii) (iv) All of these Ans : (iv) Both (ii) and (iii) Ans : (iv) All of these (b) Which of the following notion in the conference (i) Which other type of waste is recycled at the has been emphasised to be deployed? same rate as that of used electronics? (i) Waste disposal management (i) Miscellaneous goods (ii) Waste management (ii) Hazardous waste and sharp shelters (iii) Recycling of goods (iii) Branches and wood (iv) Reshaping Earth’s future (iv) None of these Ans : (i) Waste disposal management Ans : (i) Miscellaneous goods (c) According to the pie-chart, which two types of (j) Which convention session was conducted on waste have been recycled at the rate of 4%? recycling at waste management in 2018? (i) Branches and wood and sharp shelters (i) 9th Convention (ii) Furniture and used electronics (ii) 8th Convention (iii) Furniture and hazardous waste (iii) 18th Convention (iv) All of these (iv) 29th Convention Ans : (i) Branches and wood and sharp shelters Ans : (i) 9th Convention (d) On observing the chart, which type of waste is (k) Which activity has been considered as the second generated the most? nature to us? (i) Plastic or metal or glass (i) Sorting of waste (ii) Confidential documents (ii) Recycling of waste (iii) Paper waste (iii) Waste management (iv) Miscellaneous (iv) Implementing steps framed and deployed in Ans : (iii) Paper waste convention Ans : (ii) Recycling of waste (e) Which of the following activities contribute collectively towards paper waste recycled (l) How can the success of waste management be percentage? achieved? (i) Plastic and metal or glass and metal (i) Recycling goods (ii) Confidential documents and plastic or metal (ii) Choosing the correct type of goods in order or glass to reduce waste (iii) Miscellaneous recycled waste and confidential (iii) Making a small contribution towards documents protecting environment (iv) None of these (iv) All of these Ans : (ii) Confidential documents and plastic or Ans : (iv) All of these metal or glass www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ (f ) What does the given data represent? prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard (i) The types of waste that haven’t been from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE generated schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based (ii) The increasing trend of recycling and waste on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So management for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by (iii) The amount and degree of recycled waste (iv) Both (ii) and (iii) www.cbse.online Ans : (iv) Both (ii) and (iii) (g) What has been considered as an efficient means to reduce landfill area? (i) Sorting of waste (ii) Recycling or composting waste (iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) None of these Ans : (iii) Both (i) and (ii) Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 69

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online PASSAGE 3 (a) What is the percentage of population which has access to sanitation services? 1. The report, progress on household drinking water, (i) 45% sanitation and hygiene (2000-2017): Special focus (ii) 22% on inequalities, is the most recent publication by (iii) 15% the WHO/UNICEF Joint Monitoring Programme, (iv) 8% which tracks global progress in achieving the water Ans : (i) 45% and sanitation portion of the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). (b) The given passage focuses on (i) sanitation 2. The 17 SDGs aim is to “end poverty in all its forms (ii) drinking water everywhere” by 2030. Goal 6 calls for universal (iii) hygiene access to safe and adequate access to drinking water (iv) All of these and sanitation services. Ans : (iv) All of these 3. According to the new report, progress has been made (c) Which type of water is considered as safely since 2000, yet billions of people are still underserved. The report delineates between access to basic services, which has greatly improved, and access to “safely managed” services, which is inadequate in many parts of the world. Only about 45 per cent of the global population has access to safely- managed sanitation services. In 2017, an estimated 673 million people continued to openly defecate, most of them in 61 “high burden” countries where the practice remained common among more than 5 per cent of the population. 4. To qualify as being “safely managed”, drinking water must meet three criteria: be accessible on the premises, be available for at least 12 hours per day, and be free from E. coli, arsenic, or fluoride contamination. Sanitation is considered safely managed when facilities are not shared with other households, and waste is safely treated on-site or at an off-site facility. 5. In 2017, an estimated 5.3 billion people had access to safely-managed drinking water. Of that number, 1.4 billion used basic services, 206 million used limited services, 435 used unimproved sources, and the remaining 144 million relied on untreated surface water. 6. Poor and rural populations are at the greatest risk of being left behind. In 2017, urban access to basic drinking water services was at 97 per cent, while rural coverage was at 81 per cent. 7. In terms of sanitation, an estimated 2.1 billion people gained access to basic services between 2000 and 2017, but 2 billion remain without access. 8. The report also focuses on improvements in eliminating open defecation. Between 2000 and 2017, the global rate of open defecation fell from 21 percent to 9 per cent. Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 70

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press managed and drinking water? (j) What is the number of population that is still (i) Free from harmful substances tended to open defecation? (ii) Accessible every time when needed (i) 209 million (iii) Available for at least 12 hours per day (ii) 503 million (iv) All of these (iii) 611 million Ans : (iv) All of these (iv) 673 million Ans : (iv) 673 million (d) What target has been set by UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) programme? (k) When is sanitation considered as safely managed? (i) No open defecation (i) Waste is safely treated (ii) End poverty in all its forms everywhere (ii) Sanitation facility is not shared with other (iii) Access to safe and adequate access to households drinking water (iii) When there is no open defecation (iv) All of these (iv) Both (i) and (ii) Ans : (d) All of these Ans : (iv) Both (i) and (ii) (e) What percentage of people in urban areas have (l) What is the number of population that has access to drinking water? gained access to basic services by 2017? (i) 45% (i) 2.1 billion (ii) 21% (ii) 1.4 billion (iii) 97% (iii) 2 billion (iv) 9% (iv) 5.3 billion Ans : (iii) 97% Ans : (i) 2.1 billion (f ) Which countries have the maximum access to safely managed water? (i) Small Island Developing states PASSAGE 4 (ii) Australia and New Zealand (iii) Europe and North America (iv) Northern Africa and Western Asia 1. The chart given below provides information about Ans : (ii) Australia and New Zealand the amount of carbon emissions in different countries (g) Which country has the least accessibility to basic 2. during three different years (1975, 1990, and 2005). drinking water? Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features,and make comparisons (i) Europe and North America where relevant. (ii) Sub-Saharan Africa (iii) Latin America and the Caribbean (iv) Oceania Ans : (i) Europe and North America (h) Rank the following countries from the highest to the lowest accessibility to surface water: A. Latin America and the Caribbean B. Oceania C. Sub-Saharan Africa D. Europe and North America (i) BADC (ii) BCDA (iii) BACD (iv) BCAD Ans : (iv) BCAD (i) Which country has maximum access to basic drinking water? (i) Sub-Saharan Africa (ii) Europe and North America (iii) Australia and New Zealand (iv) Central and South Asia Ans : (iii) Australia and New Zealand Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 71

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online 3. The bar chart compares the emission of carbon the graph? dioxide into the atmosphere of six countries, including (i) Germany two of them coming from emerging nations, for three (ii) United Kingdom decades starting from 1975 until 2005. (iii) Canada (iv) India 4. As an overall assessment, it can clearly be seen that Ans : (iii) Canada only Germany and United Kingdom managed to reduce the carbon emissions compared to the other (f ) Which country has observed a dramatic rise over countries. the years in CO2 emission? (i) India 5. USA, being the number one polluter of all, emitted (ii) China 1,200,000 thousand metric tonnes in 1975 and this (iii) USA count increased to 1,300,000 and 1,600,000 thousand (iv) Germany metric tonnes in 1990 and 2005 respectively. In Ans : (ii) China contrast, the carbon emissions of China was nearly 300,000 thousand metric tonnes in 1975 and it rose (g) Which country had the same level of CO2 by nearly 100% in 1990 and surged dramatically to emission in the first and the second decade? just below 1,600,000 thousand metric tonnes in 2005. (i) Canada In terms of the percentage increase, China was the (ii) Germany largest contributor in carbon emissions of all. (iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) None of these 6. The figures for Germany and the United Kingdom Ans : (iii) Both (i) and (ii) remained relatively stable throughout the period of time, and so were for Canada until 1990. The carbon (h) What is the highest quantity unit of global dioxide emissions in India increased exponentially emission of CO2 by different countries? from around 100,000 in 1975 to just below 400,000 (i) 1,300,000 thousand metric tonnes in 2005. (ii) 1,570,000 (iii) 1,600,000 (a) The data given in the graph compares the (iv) 1,7000000 amount of emission of _____. Ans : (iii) 1,600,000 (i) nitrogen (ii) carbon dioxide (i) Which country had the minimum CO2 emission (iii) oxygen during 1975? (iv) none of these (i) Germany Ans : (ii) carbon dioxide (ii) The United Kingdom (iii) China (b) Which country was the largest contributor in (iv) India carbon emissions of all in year 2005 in terms of Ans : (iv) India percentage increase? (i) India (j) Which countries reported gradual growth in (ii) China reduction of global CO2 emission? (iii) USA (i) Germany and India (iv) Canada (ii) USA and China Ans : (ii) China (iii) The United Kingdom and USA (iv) Germany and The United Kingdom (c) According to the passage, which country is the Ans : (iv) Germany and The United Kingdom most polluter country? (i) India (k) Which of the following statements is true in the (ii) China context of the passage? (iii) USA (i) The countries have achieved meteoric rise in (iv) Germany CO2 emission Ans : (iii) USA (ii) The countries have not been able to reduce their CO2 emission significantly (d) According to the passage, what can be the reason (iii) USA seems to leave behind China in coming for surging of CO2 emission in million tonnes? years (i) The urge to become world’s top powerful (iv) Both (i) and (ii) economies Ans : (iv) Both (i) and (ii) (ii) Lack of sustainable development (iii) Fast paced industrialisation (l) Which country has been the major polluter in (iv) All of these Ans : (iv) All of these (e) Which country has the lowest emission of CO2 in Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 72

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press the three decades mentioned in the passage? PASSAGE 5 (i) USA (ii) India 1. The ocean is one of the most unexplored parts (iii) China of our planet, with a magnitude of undiscovered (iv) Both (i) and (ii) species and mysteries. It turns out from the studies Ans : (i) USA conducted over the last few decades, this magnificent environment is under serious threat from human www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ intervention, with plastics set to outnumber fish by prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard 2050. from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based 2. Marine life, as we know it, is suffering irreparable on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So damage from the chemical pollution of the waters and for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by the millions of tons of mismanaged waste dumped in the oceans each year. The result is a planetary crisis www.cbse.online with over 100 million marine animal’s lives get lost every year, and the decay of the ocean’s ecosystem. For Term 2 Exam use only question Bank of www.cbse.online published by NODIAPRESS because every school Shocking Ocean Pollution Statistics: make internal exam and preboard papers from these question bank. • 100 melon marine animals die each year from plastic Every school and all teachers has PDF of these question bank. So they use these PDF for all internal exam and preboard exam. waste alone. • 100000 marine animal die from getting entangled in plastic yearly - this is just the creatures we find. • 1 in 3 marine mammal species get found entangled in litter, 12-14000 tons of plastic are ingested by North Pacific fish yearly. • In the past 10 years, we’ve made more plastic than the last century. By 2050, the pollution of fish will be outnumbered by our dumped plastic. • The largest trash site on the planet is the Great Pacific Garbage Patch, twice the surface area of Texas, it outnumbers sea life there 6 to 1. • Chine is ranked #1 for mismanaged waste and plastics. However, the US is in the top 20 with a more significant waste per person contributions. • 300 Million tons of plastic gets created yearly, and this weighs the same as the entire human population, and 50% is single-use only. • There are 5.25 trillion pieces of plastic waster estimated to be in our oceans. 269000 tons float, 4 billion microfibers per km2 dwell below the surface. • 70% of our debris sinks into the ocean’s ecosystem, 15% floats and 15% lands on our beaches. • In terms of plastic, 8.3 million tons are discarded in the sea yearly. Of which, 236000 are ingestible microplastics that marine creatures mistake for food. • Plastics take 500-1000 years to degrade; currently 79% is send to lands or the oceans, while only 9% is recycled, and 12% gets incinerated. • 1950-1998 over 100 nuclear blast tests occurred in our oceans. • 500 marine locations are now recorded as dead zones globally, currently the size of the United Kingdom’s surface (245000 km2) • 80% of global marine pollution comes from agriculture runoff, untreated sewage, discharge of nutrients and pesticides. • 90% of the worldwide ocean debris comes from 10 rivers alone. 3. Almost 1,000 species of marine animals get impacted by ocean pollution, and we now have over 500 locations recorded as dead zones where marine life cannot exist. How did this happen, what is causing the most damage, find out everything above in the Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 73

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online marine pollution statistics round-up. city? 4. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is a floating island (i) Arizona (ii) Florida of debris, accumulated in the North Pacific Ocean (iii) Colorado by an extensive system of currents called gyres. It is (iv) Texas built up from two other waste patches, the western Ans : (iv) Texas garbage patch near Japan and the eastern garbage patch near America’s west coast near California and (e) Which country is ranked number one for Hawaii. mismanaged waste and plastics? 5. The North Pacific Subtropical Convergence Zone (i) Germany links the east and western garbage patches, acting as (ii) China a highway for waste to move from one to the other. (iii) USA Because of this, a small item of debris dropped (iv) India near California can travel across to Japan, then Ans : (ii) China eventually get sucked up by these swirling garbage patch vortexes. (f ) Which of the following is not a place from where 6. The great pacific garbage patch size is quite 80% of global marine pollution comes? shocking. These patches of trash are said to be twice (i) agriculture run-off the size of Texas and float on the surface but do (ii) untreated sewage drop several meters into the ocean in places, which (iii) discharge of nutrients and pesticide makes the correct size challenging to measure. The (iv) factory waste disposal world’s largest garbage site is mainly made up of Ans : (iv) factory waste disposal microplastics creating a vast cloud, with newer items of debris that haven’t broken down as much floating (g) The western garbage patch, which is one of the around like chunks in a soup. The great pacific waste patches that makes up the Great Pacific garbage patch effects on marine life are extremely Garbage Patch, is near _____. significant. (i) Malibu (ii) California (a) According to the passage, what is set to (iii) Japan outnumber the fish in the ocean by the year (iv) Hawaii 2050? Ans : (iii) Japan (i) pollution (h) A small item of debris dropped near California can travel across to Japan because of (ii) garbage (i) the North Pacific Subtropical Convergence Zone (iii) plastics (ii) the Great Pacific Garbage Patch (iii)the gyres (iv) human waste (iv) the vortexes Ans : (iii) plastics Ans : (i) the North Pacific Subtropical Convergence Zone (b) Marine life is suffering from irreparable damage because of : (i) Which of the following statements is not true in I. the chemical pollution of the waters. the context of the passage? II. the rising global warming which is increasing (i) 90% of the worldwide ocean debris comes the death rate of the ocean ecosystems. from 10 rivers alone. III. the millions of tons of mismanaged waste (ii) 700 marine locations are now recorded as dumped in the oceans each year. dead zones globally. (iii) 70% of our debris sinks into the ocean’s (i) I and II ecosystem, 15% floats, and 15 % lands on our beaches. (ii) II and III (iv) 100 million marine animals die each year from plastic waste alone. (iii) I and III Ans : (ii) 700 marine locations are now recorded as dead zones globally. (iv) I, II and III Ans : (iii) I and III (j) An extensive system of currents in the North (c) _____ locations are recorded as dead zones where marine life cannot exist. (i) 200 (ii) 350 (iii) 500 (iv) 700 Ans : (iii) 500 (d) The largest trash site on the planet, the Great Pacific Garbage Patch, is twice the size of which Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 74

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press Pacific Ocean is called _____. The recent increases in visitation rates were statistically (i) debris significant for the 35-44- and 45-54-year-old age groups 1. (ii) vortex The larger change was found among 35-to-44-year-olds, (iii) convergence whose visitation rate increased 8.7 percentage points. (iv) gyres Despite the increase from 2012 to 2017 for these groups, Ans : (iv) gyres there was a net decline in historic site visitation since 1982 for Americans of virtually all ages. Only among the oldest (k) Choose an option that is a synonym of the word Americans (age 75 or older) was the rate of visitation higher ‘irreparable’. in 2017 than 35 years earlier. (i) mendable (ii) unrecoverable From 1982 to 2017, the differences among age groups with (iii) cure respect to rates of historic site visitation decreased. For (iv) replace example, in 1982, the rate of visitation among 25-to-34-year- Ans : (ii) unrecoverable olds (the group most likely to visit a historic site in that survey) was approximately 11 percentage points higher than (l) Choose an option that is an antonym of the word that of the youngest age group (18-to-24-year-olds). and ‘unexplored’ ? more than 17 points higher than that of people ages 65-74. (i) known By 2017, however, the visitation rate of 25-to-34-year-olds (ii) undiscovered had dropped to within five percentage points of the younger (iii) irrelevant cohort and was virtually identical of that for the older group. (iv) unimportant Ans : (i) known 2. While visitation rates are converging among the age cohorts, the differences by level of educational www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ attainment are still pronounced. In 2017, as in earlier prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard years, the visitation rate among college graduates from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE was more than twice as high as the rate among those schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based who finished their studies with a high school diploma on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So (43% as compared to 17%). Among those who did not for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by finish high school, visitation rates were below 10% throughout the 2008-2017 time period. Conversely, www.cbse.online among Americans with a graduate or professional degree, visitation rates were in the vicinity of 50% PASSAGE 6 during these years. Data from the National Park Service (NPS) indicate the types of historic sites 1. In addition to using libraries and visiting art visited most and also the demands made of these museums, historic site visitation is another common sites’ physical infrastructure and staff. Visits to NPS form of public engagement with the humanities. historic sites rose from approximately 59.5 million According to the National Endowment for the Arts’ in 1980 to almost 112 million in 2018. Throughout Survey of Public Participation in the Arts (SPPA). this time period, visits to historic sites constituted the percentage of people making at least one such approximately a third of total NPS recreational visit fell steadily from 1982 to 2012, before rising visitation. somewhat in 2017. Visits to historic sites managed by the National Park Service (NPS) were substantially 3. Since hitting a recent low in visits in 1995, total higher in 2018 than 1980, despite a decline in recent visits to historic sites of all types increased 58% to years. a high of 120.3 million in 2016, before falling 7%, to 111.9 million visits in 2018. In 2017, 28% of American adults reported visiting a historic site in the previous year. This represented an increase of 4.4 4. Much of the recent growth in visits to historic percentage points from 2012 but a decrease of 8.9 percentage sites occurred among parks classified as national points from 1982. The bulk of the decline in visitation memorials and was driven by a particularly high occurred from 2002 to 2008. level of visitation at sites that did not exist in 1995, such as the Franklin Delano Roosevelt Memorial (3.3 million visitors in 2018), the Martin Luther King, Jr. Memorial (3.6 million visitors), and the World War II Memorial (4.7 million visitors). As a result, visits to national memorials increased more than 300% from 1995 to 2016, even as the number of sites increased just 26% (from 23 to 29). In comparison, visits to national monuments increased only 3%, even as the number of sites in the category increased by 9% (from 64 to 70). From 2016 to 2018, the number of visits fell in every category, with the largest decline occurring at the memorial sites (down 10%), and the smallest drop at national monuments (3%). Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 75

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online (a) Which of the following is not a common form of meaning to the word ‘attainment’. public engagement with the humanities. (i) obtaining (i) visiting public memorials (ii) achievement (ii) visiting art museums (iii) realization (iii) using libraries (iv) tranquilizing (iv) historic site visitation Ans : (iv) tranquilizing Ans : (i) visiting public memorials (i) In earlier years the visitation rate among college (b) Which age group had a higher rate of visitation graduates was more than twice as high as the to historic sites in 2017 than 35 years earlier in rate among those : America? (i) who were employed individuals. (i) 18-44 year-olds (ii) who had a graduate or professional degree. (ii) 45-54 year-olds (iii) who finished their studies with a high school (iii) 75 or more year-olds diploma. (iv) None of these (iv) who did not finish high school. Ans : (iii) 75 or more year-olds Ans : (iii) who finished their studies with a high school diploma. (c) After the year 1995, total visits to historic sites of all types increased 58% in the year _____. (j) In America most of the _____ in visitation of (i) 2014 historic sites occurred from the year 2002 to the (ii) 2015 year 2008. (iii) 2016 (i) decline (iv) 2017 (ii) increase Ans : (iii) 2016 (iii) diverging (iv) converging (d) Which of the following is not a historical Ans : (i) decline memorial in America? (i) Franklin Delano Roosevelt Memorial (k) Choose an option that lists a statement that is (ii) World War II Memorial not true. (iii) Martin Luther King, Jr. Memorial (i) Visits to historic sites managed by (iv) Lincoln Liberty Memorial the National Park Service (NPS) were Ans : (iv) Lincoln Liberty Memorial substantially higher in 2018 than 1980, despite a decline in recent years. (e) The number of historical sites visits fell in every (ii) The recent increases in visitation rates of category from the year 2016 to the year 2018, historical sites were statistically significant with the largest decline occurring at : for the 35-44 and 45-54 year-old age groups. (i) the national monuments. (iii) In 2017, 28% of American adults reported (ii) the archaeological sites. visiting a historic site in the previous year. (iii) the art museums. (iv) Data from the National Park Service (NPS) (iv) the memorial sites. only indicate the types of historic sites Ans : (iv) the memorial sites. visited most. Ans : (iv) Data from the National Park Service (f ) Though the visitation rates are converging (NPS) only indicate the types of historic sites among the age groups, the differences by the visited most. level of _____ are still pronounced. (i) employment attainment (l) Which of the following is an antonym of the (ii) gender category word ‘classified’. (iii) international visitation (i) combine (iv) educational attainment (ii) categorised Ans : (iv) educational attainment (iii) divided (iv) distribute (g) The rate of visitation among 25-34 year olds was Ans : (i) combine approximately _____ points higher than that of the youngest age group i.e. 18-24 year olds. For Term 2 Exam use only question Bank of (i) 11 percentage www.cbse.online published by NODIAPRESS because every school (ii) 13 percentage make internal exam and preboard papers from these question bank. (iii) 15 percentage Every school and all teachers has PDF of these question bank. (iv) 17 percentage So they use these PDF for all internal exam and preboard exam. Ans : (i) 11 percentage (h) Choose an option that is clearly not similar in Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 76

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ The famous places of tourist interest in India can be classified prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard on the basis of their geographical location and historical and from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE cultural importance: schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based • India has a natural landscape with a variety of attractions on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by for tourists. There are snow-covered peaks, valleys, gorges and numerous waterfalls, lakes, and forests that attract www.cbse.online tourists. Nature tourism is identified with the Himalayas, the Western Ghats, the Chotanagpur plateau and other PASSAGE 7 places. • The places of importance include hill-stations like Shimla, 1. Tourism is one of the most important socio-economic Kullu, Mussorie, Nainital and Udagamandalam (Ooty); activity. It provides enormous scope for economic national parks and wildlife reserves like the Sanjay Gandhi development of a particular area. National Park (Mumbai, Maharashtra) Ranthambore National Park (Rajasthan), Sariska National Park 2. According to Ziffer (1989), “Tourism involves (Rajasthan), Periyar National Park (Tamil Nadu), travelling to relatively undisturbed or uncontaminated Kaziranga (Assam), Kolleru Lake (Andhra Pradesh) and natural areas with the specific object of studying, Hazaribagh Wildlife Sanctuary (Jharkhand). admiring and enjoying the scenery and its wild plants • Adventure tourism has grown in popularity and India has and animals, as well as any existing cultural aspects enormous potential for adventure tourism. River-rafting, (both past and present) found in these areas.” kayaking and mountain climbing in the Himalayas, rock climbing, skiing in the snow-covered hilly areas, boat 3. In India, temple towns, historical monuments racing in Kerala and paragliding are some favourite and sea beaches were traditionally sought out as adventure sports of tourists. tourist attractions. But now the fabric of tourism is • Some famous sea beaches thronged by tourists in changing rapidly as nature, heritage, and recreational India include beaches of Mumbai. Goa, Lakshwadeep, destinations are gaining more importance. In this Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Kovalam Beach in background, ecotourism has of late become a top Kerala, Marine Beach in Chennai and the beach temples attraction for the tourists. of Mahabalipuram. • India is famous for its cultural and religious tourist 4. The root of tourism in India can be traced to places that include towns and cities. Allahabad. Ajmer, pilgrimage. In the early stages, pilgrimage-based Ayodhya, Badrinath. Bodh Gaya, Dwarka, Haridwar, tourism was only of domestic nature but during Kanchipuram, Kedarnath, Kochi, Madurai, Tirupati, recent years, a large number of foreign tourists have Ujjain, Varanasi and Yamunotri are places of cultural also started visiting places of pilgrimage. and religious tourism that are visited by numerous domestic tourists as well as tourists from abroad. 5. India has an unending choice for the tourists - a • India’s historical monuments and archaeological sites are 3,500 km long and 8,848 beautiful long beaches on of interest to domestic and international tourists. The Taj the sea coast, gregarious tropical forests, the great Mahal, Red Fort, Jama Masjid (Delhi), Humayun’s Tomb variety of lifestyle. India’s share in international (Delhi), India Gate (Delhi), Charminar (Hyderabad). the tourist arrivals was 0.34 per cent in 2002 and it Gateway of India (Mumbai), Hawa Mahal (Jaipur) and increased to 0.49 per cent during 2005. places like Udaipur, Sanchi, Khajuraho. Aurangabad attracts tourists. 6. The increasing trend has been maintained over the last three years and international tourist arrivals (a) Which of the following is not a place that was touched 3.92 million in 2005. The World Travel and traditionally sought out as tourist attractions in Tourism Council have identified India as one of the India? foremost growth centres in the world in the coming decade. Domestic tourism is estimated to be much (i) sea beaches higher than international tourism and has also been rising rapidly. (ii) historical monuments 7. The Tenth Plan recognised the vast employment (iii) recreational destinations generating potential of tourism and the role it can play in furthering the socio-economic objectives of (iv) temple towns the Plan. Tourism is the third largest net earner Ans : (iii) recreational destinations of foreign exchange for the country. Tourism in India has vast employment potential. By 2015, it is (b) Which of the following is not a place that is expected to provide 25 million jobs. famous for its cultural and religious tourist places in India? (i) Ujjain (ii) Tirupati (iii) Jhansi (iv) Allahabad Ans : (iii) Jhansi (c) As the fabric of tourism is changing rapidly, _____ has of late become a top attraction for Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 77

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online the tourists. _____. (i) historical places (i) ecotourism (ii) Rajasthan (iii) temple towns (ii) exploration tourism (iv) pilgrimage Ans : (iv) pilgrimage (iii) green tourism (i) Which of the following is not true in the context (iv) in-budget tourism of the passage? Ans : (i) ecotourism (i) There are snow-covered peaks, valleys, gorges and numerous waterfalls, lakes, and (d) Choose an option that is not mentioned by Ziffer forests that attract tourists to India. when he defines tourism? (ii) India’s historical monuments and archaeological sites are of interest to (i) Tourism involves visiting any existing domestic and international tourists. cultural aspects of both past and present. (iii) India’s share in international tourist arrivals was 0.34 per cent in 2002 and it increased to (ii) Tourism has a specific object of studying, 0.49 per cent during 2005. admiring and enjoying the scenery. (iv) Tourism is the fourth largest net earner of foreign exchange for India. (iii) Tourism involves travelling to relatively Ans : (iv) Tourism is the fourth largest net undisturbed or uncontaminated natural earner of foreign exchange for India. areas. (j) The Tenth Plan has recognised that for India (iv) Tourism has a goal of appreciating the tourism has : untainted beauty of the places visited. (i) only profitable potentials. (ii) a vast employment generating potential. Ans : (iv) Tourism has a goal of appreciating the (iii) a high exposure rate to the other cultures. untainted beauty of the places visited. (iv) the highest amount of advantages in terms of economy. (e) Adventure tourism in India has grown quite a Ans : (ii) a vast employment generating lot in popularity. Some adventure sports one can potential. experience and enjoy in the Himalayas are I. mountain climbing (k) Choose an option that is a synonym of the word II. river-rafting ‘fabric’. III. kayaking (i) foundation IV. boat racing (ii) constraint (iii) potential (i) I and II (iv) method Ans : (i) foundation (ii) III and IV (l) Choose an option that is a opposite of the word (iii) I, II and III ‘unending’. (i) everlasting (iv) I, III and IV (ii) ceaseless Ans : (iii) I, II and III (iii) continuous (iv) brief (f ) Which of the following is not correct? Ans : (iv) brief (i) Hazaribagh Wildlife Sanctuary is in www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ Jharkhand. prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE (ii) Kaziranga National Park is in Arunachal schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based Pradesh. on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by (iii) Sariska National Park is in Rajasthan. www.cbse.online (iv) Periyar National Park is in Tamil Nadu. Ans : (ii) Kaziranga National Park is in Arunachal Pradesh. (g) Which of the following is not something that provides an unending choice for the tourists who visit India? (i) the great variety of lifestyle (ii) gregarious tropical forests (iii) long stretch of snow covered mountain ranges (iv) beautiful long beaches on the sea coast Ans : (iii) long stretch of snow covered mountain ranges (h) In India, the root of tourism can be traced to Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 78

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press PASSAGE 8 1. India is home to 46.6 million stunted children, a third of world’s total as per Global Nutrition Report 2018. Nearly half of all under-5 child mortality in India is attributable to undernutrition. Any country cannot aim to attain economic and social development goals without addressing the issue of malnutrition. Poor nutrition in the first 1000 days of a child’s life can also lead to stunted growth, which is associated with impaired cognitive ability and reduced school and work performance. Malnutrition in children occurs as a complex interplay among various factors like poverty, maternal health illiteracy, diseases like diarrhoea, home environment, dietary practices, hand washing and other hygiene practices, etc. Low birth weight, episode of diarrhoea within the last 6 months and the presence of developmental delay are often associated with malnutrition in most developing nations including India. 6. In the 2018 Global Hunger Index, India ranks 103rd 2. In present era malnutrition is reflected as double out of 119 qualifying countries. With a score of 31.1, burden, one aspect is undernutrition and other India suffers from a level of hunger that is serious. being overnutrition. But, in India and other low Figure given depicts dimensions and indicators and middle-income countries (LMICs), basically of Hunger index and its relationship with child malnutrition is synonymous with protein energy malnutrition. malnutrition or undernutrition, which signifies an (a) _____ is a major underlying cause of child imbalance between the supply of protein and energy mortality in India. and the body’s demand for them to ensure optimal (i) Stunting growth and function. (ii) Malnutrition 3. Globally, approximately 149 million children under-5 (iii) Undernutrition suffer from stunting. In 2018, over 49 million (iv) Overnutrition children under-5 were wasted and nearly 17 million Ans : (iii) Undernutrition were severely wasted. There are now over 40 million overweight children globally, an increase of 10 million (b) As per National Family Health Survey IV, the since 2000. It is estimated that by 2050, 25 million prevalence of severe acute malnutrition (SAM) more children than today will be malnourished . in India is : 4. India is one among the many countries where child undernutrition is severe and also undernutrition is a (i) 2.4% major underlying cause of child mortality in India. In a recently released Global Nutrition Report 2018, (ii) 7.5% revealed the prevalence of stunting, wasting and overweight at national level as 37.9, 20.8 and 2.4% (iii) 20.8% (iv) 35.7% Ans : (ii) 7.5% respectively. (c) By what year is it estimated that globally 25 5. In India as per National Family Health Survey IV million more children will be malnourished? (2014-2015, recent in the series) 38.4, 21 and 35.7% of (i) 2030 children below 5 years suffer from stunting, wasting (ii) 2040 and underweight respectively (corresponding figure (iii) 2050 for NFHS III, 2005-2006 were 47.9, 19.8 and 42.5% (iv) 2060 respectively). Prevalence of severe acute malnutrition Ans : (iii) 2050 (SAM) in India is 7.5%. (d) Which of the following is an indicator of inadequate food supply? (i) undernourishment (ii) stunting (iii) under 5 mortality rate (iv) wasting Ans : (i) undernourishment (e) Undernutrition signifies an imbalance between the supply of protein and energy and the body’s Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 79

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online demand for them to : with impaired cognitive ability and reduced (i) ensure sustainable growth. school and work performance. (ii) ensure proper development. (i) reduced cognitive ability (iii) ensure optimal growth and function. (ii) under 5 mortality (iv) ensure a balanced lifestyle (iii) increased chances of malnutrition Ans : (iii) ensure optimal growth and function. (iv) stunted growth Ans : (iv) stunted growth (f ) Which of the following is not a factor in the occurrence of malnutrition in children? (l) What does the author mean by ‘underlying (i) low birth weight cause’ ? (ii) poverty (i) not understood reason behind an action (iii) diarrhoea (ii) hidden reason for doing something (iv) maternal health illiteracy (iii) root cause or reason of something Ans : (i) low birth weight (iv) unimportant cause of something Ans : (iii) root cause or reason of something (g) Which of the following is not a feature of undernutrition? (i) stunting and wasting are nutrition indicators (ii) children are particularly vulnerable to PASSAGE 9 nutrition deficiencies (iii) uneven distribution of food within a country (iv) goes beyond calorie availability 1. Dried fruits are basically fresh fruits that have been Ans : (iii) uneven distribution of food within a dried. Fruits are dehydrated by conventional sun- country drying or other drying techniques. They shrivel up (h) Global Nutrition Report 2018 recently revealed and the pulpy remains are the dry fruits that you the prevalence of overweight at a national level enjoy at breakfast or during those mid-meal breaks. in India is at : As the water content is removed, the fruits become (i) 2.4% energy-bombs with concentrated nutrients. (ii) 7.5% 2. Some of the most common dry fruits and nuts are (iii) 20.8% raisins, cashew nuts, almonds, walnuts, dates, figs, (iv) 35.7% prunes and apricots. Some varieties of dried fruits Ans : (i) 2.4% like mangoes, pineapples, cranberries, etc., are also available in sugar-coated candied versions. Of these, (i) What does the given passage highlight? dry fruits devoid of any additives are the best for (i) the increase the number of under 5 child your body. mortality rate 3. Walnuts and almonds for the brain, cashews to fight (ii) childhood malnutrition in India migraine, apricots for healthy eyes and raisins for (iii) the prevalence of undernourishment digestion - these are only a few benefits of dried (iv) global hunger problems fruits and nuts. Dry fruits also help the body in the Ans : (ii) childhood malnutrition in India following ways : (j) Which of the following statements is not true in 4. Loaded with essential nutrients, the benefits of dry the context of the passage? 5. fruits and nuts for health cannot be overlooked. Dry (i) In 2018, there are now over 50 million fruits increase your nutrient intake as they are rich overweight children globally, an increase of in potassium, iron, folate, calcium and magnesium. 1.0 million since 2000. The antioxidants boost your immunity, keeping you healthy and free from diseases and other illnesses. (ii) Any country cannot aim to attain economic People who include nuts and dried fruits in their and social development goals without diet are well-aware of dry fruits’ benefits for weight addressing the issue of malnutrition. loss. When consumed in moderation, they help you (iii) Death is the most serious consequence of reduce weight and stay fit. Those who swear by dry hunger, and children are the most vulnerable. fruits are known to take in lesser fats, sugar and (iv) In India arid other low and middle-income more essential nutrients for proper metabolism. countries malnutrition is synonymous with 6. Raisins and prunes are rich in iron and are beneficial undernutrition. for those who are anaemic. Dry fruits are packed with Ans : (i) In 2018, there are now over 50 million nutrients like Vitamin B, minerals like phosphorous overweight children globally, an increase of 10 and copper, and unsaturated fats that boost the million since 2000. regeneration of blood cells and haemoglobin in the (k) Poor nutrition in the first 1000 days of a child’s body. Almonds, figs, pistachios and cashew nuts life can lead to _____, which is associated also give energy and build stamina. Raisins play a Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 80

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press significant role in lowering systolic blood pressure. (c) Raisins and prunes are beneficial for those who : They control cholesterol and reduce inflammatory (i) have migraine. markers in the body. Almonds contain Vitamin E (ii) suffer from anxiety. and mono unsaturated fatty acids that prevent spikes (iii) are anaemic. in cholesterol levels and maintain it at a healthy (iv) have high blood pressure. optimum. Brazil nuts keep a check on blood pressure Ans : (iii) are anaemic. as they are a source of potassium, magnesium and calcium. As you can see, dry fruits and nuts reduce (d) Dried fruits pose a threat to our health if : the risk of heart diseases, stroke and heart attacks. (i) they are not taken in correct form. 7. Dry fruits are a rich source of beta carotene, an (ii) they are not soaked in water. antioxidant that battles anxiety and depression in (iii) they are not dried properly. people. These antioxidants also improve memory. (iv) they are not taken in moderation. Dry fruits help to improve sleep and enhance learning Ans : (iv) they are not taken in moderation. and performance. (e) Brazil nuts keep a check on blood pressure as Are There Any Side Effects of Eating Dried Fruits? they are : Since dried foods do not contain water, they are packed with (i) a source of potassium, magnesium and concentrated sugar and are high on calories. They also have calcium. reduced Vitamin C and lesser antioxidants than fresh fruits. This may pose a threat to our health if not consumed in (ii) contain nutrients like Vitamin B and C. moderation. Some of the side effects of eating dried fruits are: (iii) packed with minerals like phosphorous and • The high sugar content increases the risk of diabetes. copper. • Dried fruits with the extra calories can be a major reason (iv) mono unsaturated fatty acids that prevent for weight gain. spikes. • They are also known to augment heart-related issues if Ans : (i) a source of potassium, magnesium and consumed in unhealthy quantities. calcium. • Sulphites found in dried fruits can cause asthma attacks (f ) Which of the following is not a benefit provided and also trigger allergies, rashes and stomach cramps in by the antioxidants in the dried fruits? some cases. (i) lowering your systolic blood pressure (ii) keeping you healthy (a) After removing the water content, the dry fruits (iii) boosting your immunity become _____ with concentrated nutrients. (iv) keeping you free from diseases or illnesses Ans : (i) lowering your systolic blood pressure (i) unsaturated fats (g) Which of the following dried fruits give energy (ii) healthier and build stamina? (i) cashews nuts, raisins and Brazil nuts (iii) energy-bombs (ii) walnuts, apricots and almonds (iii) raisins and prunes (iv) fatty sugar (iv) almonds, figs, pistachios and cashew nuts Ans : (iii) energy-bombs Ans : (iv) almonds, figs, pistachios and cashew nuts (b) Some of the most common dry fruits and nuts are : (h) Dried foods are packed with concentrated sugar 1. mangoes and high on calories because : 2. walnuts (i) they are energy boosting foods. 3. lychee (ii) they are processed foods. 4. cashew nuts (iii) they do not contain water. 5. raisins (iv) they are sautéed in watered sugar. 6. dates Ans : (iii) they do not contain water. 7. cranberries 8. apricots (i) What does the author mean by the words ‘swear by’ ? (i) 2, 4, 5, 6 and 8 (i) to share something that is good with others (ii) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7 (ii) to strongly believe that something is effective or useful (iii) 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 (iii) to recommend the good quality of something (iv) 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7 (iv) to stand by a thought or opinion Ans : (i) 2, 4, 5, 6 and 8 Ans : (ii) to strongly believe that something is effective or useful Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 81

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online (j) Dry fruits are packed with nutrients like Vitamin Power Plant (Fukushima Daiichi), which generated B, minerals like phosphorous and copper, and radioactive contamination near the plant’s area with unsaturated fats that : irreversible damages to the environment, was one I. boost the regeneration of blood cells the most significant issues of this catastrophe and II. boost haemoglobin in the body ranked 7 (the most severe level for nuclear power III. boost the immunity of the body plant) based on the International Nuclear Event IV. boost energy in the body Scale, similar to the Chernobyl disaster on 26 April 1986. Therefore, it is not strange to consider to (i) I and II this earthquake as the most important destructive seismic event of the beginning of the twenty first (ii) II and III century in the advanced industrial world. Division of total 19100 death and missed people by the reason (iii) I and IV as of 10th March 2012 (CATDAT) is as follows: (iv) III and IV Ans : (i) I and II (k) If the dried fruits with extra calories are consumed, they can become a reason for _____ (i) allergies (ii) stomach cramps (iii) weight gain (iv) heart-related issues Ans : (iii) weight gain (l) Beta carotene is an antioxidant that battles : (i) weight gain and unsaturated fats. (ii) systolic blood pressure. (iii) anxiety and depression in people. (iv) cholesterol and reduces inflammatory markers in the body. 4. Losses intensified by hit of the tsunami as the Ans : (iii) anxiety and depression in people. statistics shows it was more fatal (figure given below) and also more buildings destroyed by its PASSAGE 10 strike. However, the quake was the main cause of the partial damage of buildings. 1. The magnitude 9.0 Japan’s Tohoku Earthquake (a) Which of the following country was not affected occurred at 14 :46 local time on Friday. 11 March by the 11 March, 2011 earthquake? 2011, 125 km east coast of Honshu and 380 km far from Tokyo and rattled the large parts of Japan (i) Russia and some part of east China and Russia with 30 km depth of the hypocenter. This earthquake that (ii) Japan lasted approximately 3 minutes (170 seconds) (iii) Indonesia (iv) China Ans : (iii) Indonesia caused a 130 km long by 159 km wide rupture zone (b) The earthquake of 2011 was followed by: on the pacific plate subduction zone and followed (i) an unstoppable landslide by a huge tsunami with more than 40 meter waves. (ii) a massive flood The destructive aftermaths of this incident made an (iii) a huge tsunami irreparable disaster not only for the Japan, but also (iv) a volcanic eruption for the whole world because except for the enormous Ans : (iii) a huge tsunami death toll and debris, the damages of nuclear power plants were a hazardous unexpected tragedy. (c) Which of the following was not a destructive 2. According to the report of the Japanese National aftermath of the 11 March 2011 disaster seen Police Agency, 15854 dead. 3167 missing and 26992 worldwide? injured across twenty prefectures are the result of this (i) increase of seismic activity devastating earthquake and tsunami which ruined (ii) enormous death toll more than 125000 buildings. Moreover. it caused (iii) huge amount of debris long blackouts for more than 4.4 million buildings (iv) damage to nuclear power plants and left 1.5 million buildings out of water for days, Ans : (i) increase of seismic activity also large fires were triggered one after another even for weeks after the main quake. (d) What can be considered as the most important 3. Explosion and demolition of the Fukushima I Nuclear destructive seismic event of the beginning of the twenty first century in the advanced industrial Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 82

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press world? (j) Which of the following statement is not true? (i) huge tsunami with more than 40 meter (i) The earthquake caused the explosion and demolition of a nuclear power plant. waves (ii) The earthquake was the main cause of the (ii) Chernobyl disaster on 26 April 1986 partial damage of buildings. (iii) Explosion arid demolition of the Fukushima (iii) The earthquake lasted approximately 3 minutes (170 seconds). I Nuclear Power Plant (iv) The destructive aftermaths of the earthquake (iv) Tohoku earthquake on 11 March, 20111 made an irreparable disaster only for Japan. Ans : (iii) Explosion arid demolition of the Ans : (iv) The destructive aftermaths of the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant earthquake made an irreparable disaster only for Japan. (e) According to the passage, maximum people on 11 March, 2011 died because of (k) The explosion and demolition of the Fukushima (i) shaking and collapse of buildings, houses, I Nuclear Power Plant, which _____ near the etc. plant’s area with irreversible damages to the (ii) drowning because of the tsunami. environment. (iii) indirect causes. (i) spread uncontrollable damage (iv) fire, landslides and other reasons. (ii) caused radioactive residue Ans : (ii) drowning because of the tsunami. (iii) withheld major destruction (iv) generated radioactive contamination (f ) According to the data as of 10 March 2012, how Ans : (iv) generated radioactive contamination many people died because of the 2011 disaster? (i) 3167 www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ (ii) 15,854 prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard (iii) 19,100 from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE (iv) 26,992 schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based Ans : (iii) 19100 on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by (g) According to the report of the Japanese National Police Agency, which of the following was not www.cbse.online caused by the devastating earthquake and tsunami of 2011 in Japan? PASSAGE 11 (i) long blackouts in buildings (ii) buildings with no water for days 1. Technological evolution is a certainty. Cyber-physical (iii) many areas received no help for days from systems, Big Data and the Internet of Things (IoT) the rescue team have been changing the infrastructure of our world. (iv) large fires triggered one after the other for In the 2020s, these phenomena, which are still in weeks their nascency, will rapidly accelerate due to the Ans : (iii) many areas received no help for days increasing digitisation of key areas such as health, from the rescue team science, transport, communications and energy. The ubiquity of technology, and its increased ability to (h) Which of the following is an antonym of the connect and communicate, has paved the way for word ‘rebuild’ ? this tipping point. Beneath the surface, we are (i) wrecked moving towards an explosion of change. (ii) destroyed (iii) neglected 2. Over 50% of our global population is now online, and (iv) ruined the other half is following fast. To be precise, around Ans : (ii) destroyed 726 million people joined the web in the last three years. These new users will change the shape of the (i) Which of the following is a synonym of the word internet. Many of them will be lower income. They ‘permanent’ ? are choosing smart phones over laptops and tablets (i) significant and are more likely to use voice commands. (ii) irreversible (iii) lasting (iv) final Ans : (ii) irreversible Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 83

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online 3. Geodata and the IoT will create new markets and seen. supply chains. The automation of manufacturing, services and mobility has already begun. Artificial (a) In the line “The ubiquity of technology, and its Intelligence (AI) will reach what Gartner terms the ……”, the word “ubiquity” does not refer to ‘Plateau of Productivity’, in which the technology (i) Usage becomes both mainstream and viable. McKinsey (ii) Ever-present estimates that 70% of companies may adopt at (iii) Omnipresent least one AI technology by 2030. It is unlikely they (iv) Pervasive will all use it well, but those that do could manage Ans : (i) Usage to take us to a place where man and machine are indistinguishable. (b) According to Mckinsey, (i) 70% of all companies will depend on people 4. Bioscience has the potential to be transformative who can use computers by the end of 2030 in the 2020s. Gene editing (CRISPR) technology (ii) 70% of companies will employ more labour will likely soon be able to edit genomes to allow force by the year 2030 animal organs to be accepted into human bodies– (iii) Nearly 70% of the companies will adopt use transforming, and perhaps saving, the lives of people of at least one AI technology by 2030 currently waiting for organ transplants. Similar (iv) Nearly 70% of all the companies will stop technology can also be used to combat inherited using AI by the end of 2030 diseases, and even cancer. Elsewhere, gene therapy Ans : (iii) Nearly 70% of the companies will experiments are using the body’s immune system to adopt use of one AI by 2030 fight cancer through re-engineering our cells. (c) One of the important predictions in the passage 5. Technology has inarguably improved science, is that we are going to reach, ‘Plateau of health, communications and transport. However, Productivity’ with respect to digitization. Which technology has not necessarily corresponded to option most reflects the meaning? increased economic productivity. Indeed, many of (i) The use of AI will stop as it will become the most technologically advanced countries have more expensive seen productivity stagnate and stall, as discussed in (ii) There will be a widespread market use of AI growing inequality and opportunity. even if it is not viable (iii) There will be no more resources left to 6. In the 2020s many questions around technology will develop AI be resolved. The scaffolding is in place. This will be (iv) The production and use of AI will be the decade in which AI, Geodata, the IoT, Bioscience, extensive and practicable and Quantum Computing are given the opportunity Ans : (iv) The production and use of AI will be to change our world. Whether this change will be extensive and practicable surface- level or truly transformative remains to be (d) According to the report, the number of 52% of US house-holds become smart from 18% in, (i) 5 years (ii) 6 years (iii) 7 years (iv) 8 years Ans : (iii) 7 years (e) According to the report, how many homes are smart in the year 2020? (i) 25% (ii) 33% (iii) 40% (iv) 45% Ans : (ii) 33% (f ) According to the report, what will generate new market chain and supply? (i) Access to meta-data (ii) Artificial Intelligence (iii) Artificial Intelligence and Internet (iv) Geodata and Internet of Things Ans : (iv) Geodata and Internet of Things Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 84

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press (g) Based on your understanding of the passage, PASSAGE 12 choose the option that best lists the inherent benefits of biosciences. 1. In today’s idea-driven economy, the cost of time is 1. Will help patients who need organ 2. what really matters. With the constant pressure to innovate, it makes little sense to waste countless transplants collective hours commuting. So, the most efficient 2. Will revolutionise use of computers and and productive regions are those in which people are thinking and working-not sitting in traffic. phones The auto-dependent transportation system has 3. Will revolutionise the industry and its reached its limit in most major cities and mega- regions. Commuting by car is among the least development efficient of all our activities - not to mention among 4. Will revolutionise the development of new the least enjoyable, according to detailed research by the Nobel Prize - winning economist Daniel phones Kahneman and his colleagues. Though one might 5. Will allow for genome transformation of think that the economic crisis beginning in 2007 animals 6. Will revolutionise the field of cancer treatment (i) 1, 2, 3 (ii) 1, 5, 6 would have reduced traffic (high unemployment (iii) 2, 3, 4 means fewer workers traveling to and from work), (iv) 3, 4, 5 the opposite has been true. Average commutes have Ans : (ii) 1, 5, 6 lengthened, and congestion has gotten worse, if (h) According to the passage, what will gene therapy anything. The average commute rose in 2008 to 25.5 accomplish? minutes, “erasing years of decreases to stand at the level of 2000, as people had to leave home earlier in (i) Fight cancer by creating a new immune the morning to pick up friends for their ride to work system or to catch a bus or subway train,” according to the U.S. Census Bureau, which collects the figures. And (ii) Fight cancer by making changes in our cells those are average figures. Commutes are far longer (iii) Improve body’s immune system (iv) Fight cancer by making new cells in the in the big West Coast cities of Los Angeles and San body Francisco and the East Coast cities of New York, Ans : (ii) Fight cancer by making changes in our Philadelphia, Baltimore, and Washington D.C. In cells many of these cities, gridlock has become the norm, (i) Which of the following statements is not true in not just at rush hour but all day, every day. the context of the passage? 3. The costs are astounding. In Los Angeles, congestion (i) Technology advancement will change the eats up more than 485 million working hours a year; way we use communication that’s seventy hours, or nearly two weeks, of full- (ii) Technology advancement will improve time work per commuter. In D.C., the time cost of economic productivity congestion is sixty-two hours per worker per year. In New York it’s forty-four hours. Average it out, and (iii) Technology advancement may not improve the time cost across America’s thirteen biggest city economic productivity regions is fifty-one hours per worker per year. Across (iv) Technology advancement will improve the country, commuting wastes 4.2 billion hours of medical facilities work time annually - nearly a full work-week for every Ans : (ii) Technology advancement will improve commuter. The overall cost to the U.S. economy is economic productivity nearly $90 billion when lost productivity and wasted (j) According to the report, what is the most fuel are taken into account. At the Martin Prosperity appropriate conclusion? Institute, we calculate that every minute shaved off (i) Technological development may actually America’s commuting time is worth $19.5 billion in lead to social inequality value added to the economy. The numbers add up (ii) There will be a lot of changes in technology fast: five minutes is worth $97.7 billion; ten minutes, development $195 billion; fifteen minutes, $292 billion. (iii) There will be technological development but 4. It’s ironic that so many people still believe the its impact on society needs to be seen main remedy for traffic congestion is to build more roads and highways, which of course only makes the (iv) There will be technological development but problem worse. New roads generate higher levels no significant change in society of “induced traffic,” that is, new roads just invite drivers to drive more and lure people who take mass Ans : (iii) There will be technological transit back to their cars. Eventually, we end up development but its impact on society needs to with more clogged roads rather than a long-term be seen improvement in traffic flow. Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 85

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online 5. The coming decades will likely see more intense by the graph? clustering of jobs, innovation, and productivity in (i) Commuters in Detroit spend more time a smaller number of bigger cities and city-regions. Some regions could end up bloated beyond the delayed annually by traffic congestion than capacity of their infrastructure, while others struggle, do commuters in Houston, Atlanta, and their promise stymied by inadequate human or other Chicago. resources. (ii) New York City commuters spend less time annually delayed by traffic congestion than (a) The passage most strongly suggests that the average for very large cities. researchers at the Martin Prosperity Institute (iii) Los Angeles commuters are delayed more share which assumption? hours annually by traffic congestion than (i) Employees who have longer commutes tend are commuters in Washington D.C. to make more money than employees who (iv) Commuters in Washington D.C., face greater have shorter commutes. delays annually due to traffic congestion (ii) Employees who work from home are more than do commuters in New York City. valuable to their employers than employees Ans : (iv) Commuters in Washington D.C., face who commute. greater delays annually due to traffic congestion (iii) Employees whose commutes are shortened than do commuters in New York City. will use the time saved to do additional productive work for their employers. (d) The average commute rose in 2008 to _____. (iv) Employees can conduct business activities, (i) 15.5 minutes such as composing memos or joining (ii) 20.5 minutes conference calls, while commuting. (iii) 25.5 minutes Ans : (iii) Employees whose commutes are (iv) 30.5 minutes shortened will use the time saved to do additional Ans : (iii) 25.5 minutes productive work for their employers. (e) Which of the following is not a East Coast city? (b) As used in the passage, ‘intense’ most nearly (i) New York means (ii) Philadelphia (i) determined (iii)Washington D.C. (ii) emotional (iv) Los Angeles (iii) concentrated Ans : (iv) Los Angeles (iv) brilliant Ans : (iii) concentrated www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard (c) Which claim about traffic congestion is supported from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by www.cbse.online (f ) In Washington D.C., the time cost of congestion is _____ per worker per year. (i) Sixty two hours (ii) Seventy two hours (iii)Fifty one hours (iv) Sixty five hours Ans : (i) Sixty two hours (g) What is the overall cost to the U.S. economy when lost productivity and wasted fuel are taken into account? (i) $20 billion (ii) $50 billion (iii) $70 billion (iv) $90 billion Ans : (iv) $90 billion Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 86

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press (h) Which of the following statements is not true? The AAP gained close to 25% vote share compared (i) In today’s idea-driven economy, the cost of to December 2013 and 21% compared to the Lok time is what really matters. Sabha election in May 2014. (ii) In Los Angeles, congestion eats up more than 485 million working hours a year. Party Dec, 13 Assembly May, 14 Lok-Sabha Feb, 15 Assembly (iii) Commutes are far longer in the big East Seats V o t e L e a d V o t e Seats V o t e Coast cities of Los Angeles and San won Share in Share won Share Francisco. AAP 28 29.5 10 33 67 54.3 3 32.2 (iv) The coming decades will likely see more BJP 31 34.1 60 46.5 intense clustering of jobs, innovation, and productivity in a smaller number of bigger Congress 8 24.6 0 15.3 0 9.7 cities and city-regions. Others 3 11.8 0 5.2 0 3.8 70 100 Ans : (iii) Commutes are far longer in the Total 70 100 70 100 big East Coast cities of Los Angeles and San Francisco. 5. As can be clearly seen, the Congress is in a continuous decline while the BJP peaked in 2014 and went down in 2015. The AAP seems to be the only party that PASSAGE 13 has consistently increased its vote share from 2013 to 2015. (a) Which of the following was the safest seat for 1. The Delhi 2015 results are extra ordinary for many BJP in 2015 Delhi election? reasons. Not even in their wildest dreams, would (i) Mangol Puri the BJP and the Congress have dreamt of such (ii) Chandni Chowk drubbing. While the Congress was widely expected (iii) Karol Bagh to lose and be content with a handful of seats, it is (iv) Krishna Nagar the BJP’s drubbing that left everyone shocked. The Ans : (iv) Krishna Nagar AAP wave was so powerful that even Kiran Bedi, the BJP’s Chief Ministerial Candidate lost from Krishna (b) In the line “have dreamt of such drubbing”, the Nagar, the safest seat for the BJP. word ‘drubbing’ does not refer to : 2. This is the first time after 1977 that a party got (i) whining more than 50% of the total vote in Delhi. The AAP (ii) beating polled about 54.3% of the total vote which is highest (iii) defeat in the history of Delhi elections. The BJP polled (iv) loss 32.2% while the Congress was a distant third with Ans : (iii) defeat just 9.7% vote. A 22% lead over BJP meant that the AAP virtually decimated both the BJP and (c) In which year did a party for the first time get the Congress by winning 67 of the 70 seats (more 50% of the votes in Delhi? than 95% of the total seats) while the BJP had to (i) 1951 be content with just 3 seats. The Congress drew a (ii) 1977 blank. (iii) 2014 3. The 54.3% vote share is the highest in the history of (iv) 2015 Delhi elections. There have been only two instances Ans : (iv) 2015 in the history of Delhi elections where a party won more than 50% of the votes. First was way back in (d) The changes noticed in the fortunes of various 1951 during Nehru’s time and the second time was parties in Delhi during the elections between the during the Janata Party wave in 1977. years 2013 and 2015 were quite interesting, such as : 4. Delhi has witnessed three elections from 2013 to 2015; I. the Congress went into decline mode between two Assembly elections and one Lok Sabha election these years in 2014. The change in fortunes of the various parties II. the BJP peaked during the 2014 Lok Sabha is fascinating. While the Congress went into decline elections mode from 2013 to 2015, the BJP peaked during the III. the BJP got no more than 14% of the vote 2014 Lok Sabha elections on the back of a national in 2015 resurgence. The BJP lost more than 14% of the vote in 2015 compared to the Lok Sabha elections (i) I and II in 2014. Though it managed to get more or less the same vote share as in December 2013, the AAP went (ii) II and III (iii) I and III so far ahead of BJP that there was 22% difference (iv) I, II and III in the vote share of AAP and BJP this time around. Ans : (i) I and II Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 87

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online (e) Which of the following did not happen in 2015 down in 2015. elections in Delhi? (i) continuous decline (ii) somewhat stable state (i) The Bhartiya Janata Party collected a total (iii) continuous acceleration of 7 seats of the 70 seats. (iv) up and down state Ans : (i) continuous decline (ii) APP had a 22% lead over BJP in the elections. www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard (iii) AAP polled about 54.3% of the total vote, from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE the highest in the history of Delhi elections. schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So (iv) The Congress was in the distant third for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by position with just 9.7% votes. www.cbse.online Ans : (i) The Bhartiya Janata Party collected a total of 7 seats of the 70 seats. PASSAGE 14 (f ) In Decmeber 2013 Delhi elections, which party 1. People in only 12 out of 35 States (Figures are for had more than 30% vote share? undivided Andhra Pradesh) and Union Territories had overwhelmingly chosen Hindi as the first choice (i) AAP for communication. Among the rest, while a few chose Hindi as their second or third language of (ii) Congress communication, a majority of them chose English, according to the results of the 2011 language (iii) BJP Census released in 2018. About 43.63% of the total population said their mother tongue was Hindi. (iv) BSP Ans : (iii) BJP 2. Which Indian States are primarily Hindi-speaking according to the language Census? (g) Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage? 3. The 2011 Census data shows that most Indian States, apart from a handful of States in northern (i) There have been only two instances in the and central India, do not primarily speak Hindi but history of Delhi elections where a party won have adopted the language as a secondary language. more than 50% of the votes. Most southern and north-eastern States are not Hindi-speaking and have adopted English as their (ii) The AAP seems to be the only party that secondary language. The given map shows the State- has consistently increased its vote share wise percentage of people who stated that Hindi was from 2013 to 2015. their first, second, or third choice of language. Most of the 12 States and Union Territories that chose (iii) The BJP lost more than 14% of the vote in Hindi as their first choice were located in northern 2015 compared to the Lok Sabha elections in and central India - over 96% of the population in 2014. Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, and Himachal Pradesh speak Hindi. (iv) AAP virtually decimated both the BJP and the Congress by winning 67 of the 70 seats 4. The share of Hindi-speaking people in Gujarat is i.e. more than 95% of the total seats. significantly lower than most States. The southern and north-eastern states, apart from Arunachal Ans : (i) There have been only two instances in Pradesh and Sikkim, have the lowest proportion of the history of Delhi elections where a party won Hindi-speaking population among all states. more than 50% of the votes. (h) AAP gained what percentage of votes in Assembly Elections, 2015? (i) 25% (ii) 54.3 (iii) 21% (iv) 22% Ans : (ii) 54.3 (i) According to the given chart, Congress has witnessed the lowest vote share in which elections? (i) December 2013 Assembly Elections (ii) February 2015 Assembly Elections (iii) May 2014 Lok Sabha Elections (iv) None of these Ans : (ii) February 2015 Assembly Elections (j) According to the given table, vote performance of Congress is in a _____ while the vote performance of BJP peaked in 2014 and went Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 88

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press (a) About how much percentage of population said (d) Hindi speaking population in Arunachal Pradesh that their mother tongue was Hindi? is : (i) 50.27% (i) lowest among the north-eastern and southern (ii) 32.93% states. (iii) 43.63% (ii) higher than other north-eastern states. (iv) 45.69% (iii) lowest among the north-eastern states. Ans : (iii) 43.63% (iv) higher than other north-eastern and southern states. (b) Which states have adopted English as their Ans : (iv) higher than other north-eastern and secondary language of communication? southern states. I. Southern states of India II. Northern states of India (e) Which state has a more lower share of Hindi III. North-Eastern states of India speaking people than any other state? IV. Central states of India (i) Gujarat (i) I and II (ii) Tamil Nadu (ii) I and III (iii) Kerela (iii) III and IV (iv) West Bengal (iv) I, II and III Ans : (i) Gujarat Ans : (ii) I and III (f ) People of most states and union territories (c) Choose a state/union territory from the options located in northern and central India : given below that does not have Hindi as its first (i) speak their own mother tongue rather than language of communication as chosen by the English or Hindi to communicate. people. (ii) speak English as their first language of (i) Sikkim communication. (ii) Uttarakhand (iii) chose Hindi as their first choice of language (iii) Delhi for communication. (iv) Himachal Pradesh (iv) are divided in the usage of English and Hindi Ans : (i) Sikkim in their daily life for communication. Ans : (iii) chose Hindi as their first choice of For Term 2 Exam use only question Bank of language for communication. www.cbse.online published by NODIAPRESS because every school make internal exam and preboard papers from these question bank. (g) How many Union Territories and States in Every school and all teachers has PDF of these question bank. total have chosen Hindi as their first choice of So they use these PDF for all internal exam and preboard exam. language for communication? (i) 12 (ii) 6 (iii) 10 (iv) 15 Ans : (i) 12 (h) Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. Sikkim has lowest Hindi speaking population among all states. 2. People of 12 out of 35 states and union territories chose Hindi as their first choice for communication. 3. Most Sourthern and North-Eastern states of India have adopted English as the secondary language of communication. 4. Over 96% of population in Southern India speaks Hindi as their first language of communication. (i) 2 and 3 (ii) 1 and 4 (iii) 3 and 4 (iv) 1 and 2 Ans : (i) 2 and 3 (i) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 89

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online the word ‘significantly’. living in remote or marginalized areas; and, in (i) slightly humanitarian settings, helps children on the move (ii) obviously find a safe route and connect with their families. (iii) astonishingly Greater online connectivity has opened new avenues for civic engagement, social inclusion and other (iv) carefully opportunities, with the potential to break cycles of Ans : (i) slightly poverty and disadvantage. (j) According to 2011 census data, most Indian 3. Skills and vocational training programmes are areas States, apart from a handful of States in northern where digital connectivity is opening opportunities and central India, to learn. This is particularly true for disadvantaged (i) primarily speak Hindi and the rest have children, who sometimes leave formal schooling to adopted it as a secondary language bring in income for their families, and for underserved (ii) primarily speak Hindi or marginalized children. (iii) have adopted English as a secondary 4. For example, in Kampala, Uganda, the Women in Technology Uganda organization offers digital language vocational training for young women in underserved (iv) do not primarily speak Hindi but have communities. The set-up enables students to go adopted it as a secondary language at their own pace, which may benefit those not Ans : (iv) do not primarily speak Hindi but have accustomed to formal schooling. In addition to adopted it as a secondary language teaching young women digital skills, the training also (k) Which of the following is an antonym of the focuses on building confidence, leadership and life word ‘handful’. skills. Girls attending the programme have reported (i) disturbance learning ICT and entrepreneurship skills and going (ii) few on to use the internet to identify their own business (iii) majority opportunities. (iv) nuisance 5. Similarly, the Youth for Technology Foundation in Ans : (iii) majority Nigeria is implementing an initiative to empower (l) According to the map, which state has the young people and create opportunities for income highest percentage of Hindi speaking population generation and access to new market services. in India? The Tech Communities programme, for example, engages students in technology projects, field (i) Tamil Nadu work and meaningful internships, setting them (ii) Uttar Pradesh up to become leaders and innovators in their (iii) Sikkim communities. According to the organization, 90 per (iv) Kerala cent of the programme graduates are engaged in Ans : (ii) Uttar Pradesh entrepreneurship activities. IT Girls – Bosnia and Herzegovina www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ Globally, there were 250 Currently, three additional prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard million fewer women online training programmes are from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE than men in 2016, according under way aiming to reach schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based to the International an additional 60 girls. The on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So Te l e c o m m u n i c a t i o n training, which covers basic for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by Union. Women are also web development skills, also notably under-represented enhances girls’ knowledge www.cbse.online in STEM – science, of online safety and boosts technology, engineering their presentation skills. An PASSAGE 15 and mathematics – jobs. important feature of IT Girls Bridging this gender digital is its equity component: 1. Digital technology is already the great game changer divide is a considerable The training sessions are of our time - and it could be transformative for the challenge, but a number organized in parts of the world’s most disadvantaged and vulnerable children, of initiatives point to how country where children helping them learn, grow and fulfil their potential. girls’ digital access can be typically have less access to improved. One promising technology and information 2. Digitalization allows children with disabilities path is to promote ICT about ICTs, reaching girls to connect with friends and make decisions for skills among girls, which from minorities, rural themselves; provides access to education for children also has the benefit of communities and other building up confidence and vulnerable groups. fundamental employment and entrepreneurship skills. Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 90

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press In Bosnia and Herzegovina, According to the first-year GIRLS initiative has achieved? evaluation, the initiative UNICEF, the United has successfully raised (i) providing basic developmental skills and young girls’ awareness enhancing their web safety knowledge Nations Development of opportunities in the ICT sector, not only (ii) promoting ICT industry as exciting, diverse Programme and UN Women by promoting the ICT and lucrative industry as exciting, diverse have since 2016 been and lucrative, but also by (iii) raising young girls’ awareness of opportunities bolstering their confidence in the ICT sector implementing an initiative and inspiring them to take on new challenges. (iv) bolstering young girls’ confidence and called IT Girls, which aims inspiring them to take on new challenges to increase job opportunities Ans : (i) providing basic developmental skills and enhancing their web safety knowledge for young women and girls (e) The Women in Technology Uganda organization by providing them with offers digital vocational training for young women in underserved communities. This organisation : computer programming I. provides learning of ICT and entrepreneurship skills skills. The pilot organized II. enables students to go at their own pace III. focuses on building confidence, leadership six training programmes for and life skills 67 adolescent girls in both (i) I and II urban and rural locations. (ii) I and III (a) Digital technology could be transformative for (iii) II and III the world’s most disadvantaged and vulnerable children because : (iv) I, II and III Ans : (iv) I, II and III (i) it will make them reach their potential at a faster pace. (f ) An initiative is being implemented by The Youth for Technology Foundation in Nigeria to : (ii) it will make them become more connected to 1. empower young people the outside world. 2. create opportunities for income generation 3. provide access to new market services (iii) it will help them explore the infinite 4. set up field work and meaningful internships opportunities for themselves. (i) 1, 2 and 3 (iv) it will help them learn, grow and fulfil their potential. (ii) 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (iv) it will help them learn, grow and fulfil (iii) 3, 4 and 1 their potential. (iv) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) How is digital connectivity opening opportunities Ans : (iv) 1, 2, 3 and 4 to learn for the disadvantaged, underserved or marginalized children? (g) The aim of the ‘IT Girls’ initiative set up by UNICEF, United Nations Development (i) by providing unlimited access to various Programme and UN Women is : programmes without any essential educational background (i) to increase job opportunities for young women and girls by providing them with (ii) by providing them with opportunities to computer programming skills. learn free skills (ii) to increase Job opportunities for young (iii) by providing skills and vocational training women and girls. programmes (iii) to provide young women and girls with (iv) by providing classes beyond the strict computer programming skills. timings required by institutions (iv) None of these Ans : (iii) by providing skills and vocational Ans : (ii) to increase Job opportunities for young training programmes women and girls. (c) Which of the following is a job where women are (h) According to International Telecommunication notably under-represented ? Union, how much fewer women were online than 1. Science men? 2. Technology 3. Engineering (i) 100 million 4. Mathematics (ii) 150 million (i) only 1 (iii) 200 million (ii) 1 and 2 (iv) 250 million (iii) 1, 2 and 3 Ans : (iv) 250 million (iv) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (iv) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) According to the first-year evaluation, which of the following is not something that the IT Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 91

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online (i) Which of the following is not correct in the online shopping for the last 1-4 years. Most of the context of the passage? respondents (43.4 per cent) have become acquainted (i) According to the Youth for Technology with online shopping within this past year. Out of Foundation, 90 per cent of their programme 500 youths investigated, 36.6 per cent said that they graduates are engaged in entrepreneurship have been doing online shopping in the last 2 years. activities. Only 14.2 per cent of respondents revealed that they (ii) In humanitarian settings, digitalisation have been doing online shopping in the last 3 years helps children on the move find a safe route and 5.8 per cent in the last 4 years. and connect with their families. 2. Most youths were induced to engage in online (iii) Digitalization allows children with shopping for the first time by their peers. As fellow disabilities to connect with friends and make youths and part of the net generation, school peers or decisions for themselves. playmates were the ones introducing the advantages and convenience of online shopping to respondents. (iv) Digital connectivity is not particularly To buy any product anywhere, respondents said that helpful for disadvantaged children who it is no longer a problem today. To purchase books sometimes leave formal schooling to bring in from Yogyakarta, for example, youths domiciled in income for their families. Surabaya do not need to bother to go all the way to Yogyakarta. It just takes them some clicks on the web Ans : (iv) Digital connectivity is not particularly of a well-known bookstore in Yogyakarta to order, helpful for disadvantaged children who sometimes purchase and take a hold of books they desire in leave formal schooling to bring in income for just a couple of days. Out of 500 interviewed youths, their families. (j) Which of the following is not an opportunity 34 per cent said that the ones introducing online that greater online connectivity has opened up? shopping to them were their own siblings or family (i) providing other paths for social inclusion members. The remaining 18 per cent got to know (ii) highlighting other opportunities available online shopping from ubiquitous advertisements in for learning the virtual world. (iii) potential to break cycles of poverty and 3. In the case of gadget, 81.2 per cent of respondents said that they had never done online shopping to disadvantage buy one. Only 2.6 per cent admitted that they (iv) opening new avenues for civic engagement bought gadget online at some points in time. Some Ans : (ii) highlighting other opportunities of the respondents expressed their concern about the available for learning security of buying gadget online. Peers’ accounts and (k) The country where UNICEF and other related mass media reporting on fraudulent gadget online organisations are providing digital skills to trading have discouraged youths from making a women is : purchase of gadget online. (i) Kampala 4. Purchasing goods by shopping online, according to (ii) Nigeria youths, is not less appealing than buying directly (iii) Bosnia at offline stores. Although some youths investigated (iv) Uganda in this research still favoured buying goods offline, Ans : (iii) Bosnia particularly when they needed the goods immediately, they still found some advantages of online shopping (l) Which of the following best states the meaning in some cases. One of the appeals of buying products of the word ‘implementing’ ? online is the wide variety of products offered, (i) halting even in an almost infinite amount (95.6 per cent). (ii) caving Moreover, 87.6 per cent of respondents said that (iii) executing online shopping was appealing to them because they (iv) measuring could engage in it while relaxing at home or in the Ans : (iii) executing bedroom. As many as 64 per cent respondents shared that they found online shopping appealing because it allowed them to purchase goods from any place. Unlike department stores from which customers’ PASSAGE 16 purchase is only limited to displayed items, online shopping enables them to explore the virtual world 1. In different developed countries, the convenience infinitely. With only a laptop or a hand phone and of online shopping has long been felt. People in Internet access, youths can pick a product and make developed countries have been doing online shopping a purchase just by playing with their fingers, viewing the products they desired and making a purchase. in the past decade. However, among Indonesian young The Appeal of Buying Products Online: people, online shopping is still fairly new. This study found that Indonesian youths have just been doing Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 92

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press (a) How long have the Indonesian youth been doing shopping offline is : online shopping? (i) 1-3 years (i) they can buy the goods after checking the (ii) 1-4 years quality of the product. (iii) 2-3 years (iv) 2-4 years (ii) they can get the goods immediately. Ans : (ii) 1-4 years (iii) they do not have to spend extra shipping (b) The youths were mostly induced into online charges. shopping by: (i) discounts (iv) they do not have to go through a huge (ii) their family catalogue to find what they are looking for. (iii) advertisements (iv) their peers Ans : (ii) they can get the goods immediately. Ans : (iv) their peers (g) Choose an option that lists the appeals of buying (c) How much percentage of youths were introduced things online for youths. to online shopping by their siblings or family 1. Can be done from home members? 2. Lower cost (i) 45 percent 3. Exchangeable (ii) 18 percent 4. Wide variety of products (iii) 34 percent 5. Can buy products anywhere (iv) 22 percent 6. Guaranteed quality Ans : (iii) 34 percent (i) 1, 2, and 3 (d) How much percentage of respondents or youths had never bought a gadget online? (ii) 3, 4, and 6 (i) 81.2 percent (ii) 57.9 percent (iii) 2, 4, 5, and 5 (iii) 73 percent (iv) 67 percent (iv) 1, 2, 3. 4, 5, and 6 Ans : (i) 81.2 percent Ans : (iv) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 (e) Which of the following is not a reason why (h) Which of the following statements is not true in respondents or youths do not buy gadgets the context of the passage? online? I. low understanding of the features available (i) As many as 81.2 percent youths shared online as no one is there to explain them that they found online shopping appealing II. concern about the security of buying gadget because it allowed them to purchase goods online from any place. III. peers’ accounts and mass media reporting on fraudulent gadget online trading (ii) According to youths, purchasing goods by (i) only I shopping online is not less appealing than (ii) only II buying directly at offline stores. (iii) only III (iv) I and II (iii) People in developed countries have been Ans : (i) only I doing online shopping in the past decade. (f ) One reason why some youths still preferred (iv) School peers or playmates were the ones introducing the advantages and convenience of online shopping to other youths. Ans : (i) As many as 81.2 percent youths shared that they found online shopping appealing because it allowed them to purchase goods from any place. (i) How much percentage of Indonesian youths (respondents) agreed that lower cost was one of the appeals of online shopping? (i) 55 percent (ii) 64 percent (iii) 44.6 percent (iv) 87.6 percent Ans : (iii) 44.6 percent (j) Which of the following is a disadvantage of offline shopping as mentioned in the passage? (i) quality of items is not guaranteed (ii) purchase is only limited to displayed items (iii) products not exchangeable (iv) higher prices of goods Ans : (ii) purchase is only limited to displayed items Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 93

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online PASSAGE 17 communal (92%), government employee grievances (71%), political (42%) and labour (38%), as shown 1. States with higher literacy levels report more below: protests, and nearly half of these protests were led by political parties, according to the analysis of (a) According to police data which states report police data over six years. The sharpest rise in unrest more protests? came from student-led agitations (148%) between (i) states with low employment rate 2009 and 2014, according to the data gleaned from (ii) states with higher population the Bureau of Police Research and Development, a (iii) states with higher literacy national police agency. (iv) states with low poverty line Ans : (iii) states with higher literacy 2. Karnataka reported the most student protests (12%), despite a state-wide ban on student unions (b) Between the years 2009-2014, the sharpest rise in colleges. A high literacy rate and a concentration in the unrest came because of : of educational institutions in the state could be the (i) student led agitation. reason, said Venkatesh Nayak, coordinator, Access (ii) unemployed people’s protest. to Justice Programme with Commonwealth Human (iii) political party instigated riots. Rights Initiative, an advocacy. (iv) labour union marches against employers. Ans : (i) student led agitation. Protests in Karnataka: (c) Which state reports the most student led Protests in Tamil Nadu: protests? (i) Madhya Pradesh 3. Up to 75.6% of Karnataka is literate (national (ii) Tamil Nadu average : 74%) and the state’s capital, Bengaluru, (iii) Assam has more colleges (911) than any Indian city. (iv) Karnataka Ans : (iv) Karnataka 4. Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra together account for more than 50% of (d) Which of the following is not a state that all protests recorded by the police between 2009 and together accounts for more than 50% of all 2014. Except Madhya Pradesh, all other states have protests recorded by the police between 2009 literacy rates higher than national average. and 2014? (i) Rajasthan 5. Between 2009 and 2014, 4,20,000 protests were held (ii) Punjab across India - an average of 200 protests every day (iii) Tamil Nadu nationwide, and a 55% rise over five years. The (iv) Maharashtra increase was mainly driven by Tamil Nadu and Ans : (i) Rajasthan Punjab which, between them, registered nearly half the increase in protests nationwide. (e) In which year did Tamil Nadu record the lowest number of protests according to data from the 6. Unrest grew across the country for varied reasons - Bureau of Police Research and Development? (i) 2009 (ii) 2011 (iii) 2013 (iv) 2014 Ans : (ii) 2011 Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 94

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press (f ) The growing unrest in India is because of the PASSAGE 18 following reasons. I. government employee grievances 1. Uttarakhand is located at the foothills of the II. political Himalayan mountain ranges. The state shares borders III. unemployment with China (Tibet) in the north & Nepal in the east IV. labour & inter-state boundaries with Himachal Pradesh in V. communal the west & northwest & Uttar Pradesh in the south. VI. reservation of seats Hindi, Garhwal & Kumaoni are commonly spoken (i) I, II, IV and V in the state. English is the medium of education (ii) II, III, V and VI in many of its schools. Uttarakhand has diverse (iii) II, III, IV and V geographical features ranging from snowcapped (iv) I, II, III and V mountain peaks in the north to tropical forests in the Ans : (i) I, II, IV and V south; its climate & vegetation vary accordingly. The state was formed in November 2000 by carving out (g) Which of the following is the highest number the 13 hill districts of Uttar Pradesh. It was formerly of protests observed across India because of named Uttaranchal. government employee grievances. (i) 10,000 2. The main railway stations in the state are Dehradun, (ii) 15,000 Haridwar, Roorkee, Kotdwar, Kashipur, Udham (iii) 16,000 Singh Nagar, Haldwani, Ramnagar and Kathgodam. (iv) 20,000 Uttarakhand had 339.80 km of rail routes. The Ans : (iii) 16,000 state is focusing on increasing the share of railways in cargo and passenger transport. Initiatives have (h) In the year 2013, the lowest protest in the been undertaken to start monorails at Dehradun, country were because of : Haridwar and Rishikesh, on the inter-city linkage (i) students routes. (ii) political (iii) communal 3. The state has two domestic airports : one at Jolly (iv) labour Grant in the Dehradun district and another at Ans : (iii) communal Pant Nagar in the Udham Singh Nagar district. The state intends to position air transport as a (i) The reasons behind Karnataka having high rate reliable all-weather transport option for the hills. of protests are : With Uttarakhand emerging as a hot tourist and I. a concentration of education institutions in industrial destination, the state government is the state focussing on upgrading the Jolly Grant airport as an II. high rate of literacy international airport, in coordination with Airports III. industrial hub of India Authority of India. In 2018-19, Dehradun airport (i) I and II handled 7,374 aircraft movements and 709,227 (ii) II and III passengers, approximately. (iii) I and III (iv) I, II and III VISION 2022 • Strengthen road network in urban Ans : (i) I and II Transport areas and upgrade national highways. (j) What was the average of protests held across Health • Develop two major all-weather India between the years 2009 and 2014? airports with connectivity to metro (i) 150 protests everyday Tourism cities. (ii) 170 protests everyday (iii) 200 protests everyday • Affordable healthcare with focus on (iv) 250 protests everyday disease prevention. Ans : (iii) 200 protests everyday • Provide state funded maternal and www.cbse.online provides FREE PDF of 30 sample/ child healthcare, especially in rural prebaord papers every year. Each school take preboard areas. from these Papers. It has becomes a standard in CBSE schools. These sample paper/preboard papers are based • Promote the state as a global tourist on Question Bank provided by www.cbse.online. So destination by showcasing its spiritual, for Term 2 do study from question bank provided by cultural and adventure tourism www.cbse.online • Target 0.5 million international tourists by 2022. Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 95

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online Agriculture • Improve yield and quality by not related to Uttarakhand. providing irrigation facilities and (i) It has a hindi-based education system. latest technology. (ii) Its climate and vegetation vary quite a lot. (iii) It has diverse geographical features. • Create cold chain infrastructure and (iv) It was formerly named Uttaranchal. success to market intelligence for Ans : (i) It has a hindi-based education system. farmers. (e) When talking about environment, by 2022, Infrastructure • Hamess hydro-power for 100% Uttarakhand wants to : electrification in the state and supply I. have perfect waste water management in the power to other states. state II. harness hydropower for 100 % electricity in • Connect major cities through multi- the state lane highways and proper roads for III. have a 100 % solid waste management in the villages. state IV. promote the state as a green economy Environment • Promote the state as a green economy (i) I and II by focusing on section such as IT. (ii) I and III Agriculture, tourism, hydro-power (iii) II, III and IV and education. (iv) I, III and IV Ans : (iv) I, III and IV • 100% solid waste management, waste water treatment and recycling. (f ) Choose an option that lists the main factors considered in Uttarakhand’s vision of 2022. Industries • Become a world leader in green energy 1. Education by leveraging hydro-power potential. 2. Agriculture 3. Development • Promote micro and small enterprises. 4. Transport 5. Tourism Education of skill • Quality primary education to be 6. Mining development provided to all children. 7. Environment (i) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7 • Job oriented vocational training (ii) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7 facilities and establishment of higher (iii) 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 education institutions. (iv) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 Ans : (i) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7 (a) Which of the following language is not a commonly spoken language in Uttarakhand? (g) Uttarakhand is emerging as a hot tourist and (i) Kumaoni industrial destination, thus the state government (ii) Hindi is focusing on : (iii) Punjabi (i) balancing the travel and pollution so that the (iv) Garhwali natural beauty of the state is not harmed. Ans : (iii) Punjabi (ii) managing the road and air traffic better. (iii) improving the environmental rules and (b) The state of Uttarakahnd was formed by : regulations already set in place. (i) passing a special legislation to give a minor (iv) upgrading the Jolly Grant airport as an community an independent state. international airport. (ii) joining two or more union territories in Ans : (iv) upgrading the Jolly Grant airport as north India. an international airport. (iii) equally dividing the former large state of Uttar Pradesh. (h) Choose an option that is not something that (iv) carving out the 13 hill districts of Uttar the government wants to do to build up the Pradesh. Ans : (iv) carving out the 13 hill districts of Uttar Pradesh. (c) Which of the following states/countries do not surround Uttarakhand from any side? (i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Nepal (iii) China (iv) Bangladesh Ans : (iv) Bangladesh (d) Choose an option that mentions a feature that is Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 96

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.nodia.press education and skills level in the state. of visitors to New Zealand and New Zealand residents (i) making quality primary education available travelling overseas. This is based on short-term trips to all - those travelling for less than 12 months. (ii) establishing higher education institutions • In 2016, the number of overseas visitors in New (iii) improving the quality of facilities already Zealand ranged from 112,000 on 31 August to available 354,000 on 29 December. • In contrast, in 2016 the number of New Zealand (iv) providing job related vocational training residents temporarily overseas ranged from facilities 72,000 on 1 March to 235,000 on 29 December. • In both cases, the late December peak reflects Ans : (iii) improving the quality of facilities an upsurge in travellers visiting friends and already available (i) What is the international tourist visitation family, as well as an upsurge in those visiting target of the state of Uttarakhand by the year for holidays. 2022? 3. There are strong seasonal patterns in visitor numbers (i) 0.5 million (see figure below). In recent years the number (ii) 1 million of visitors in New Zealand peaked in the week of (iii) 1.5 million 27 December to 2 January. The peak day was 29 December in 2011-13 and 2016, and 28 December in (iv) 2 million 2014 and 2015. Ans : (i) 0.5 million (j) Which of the following is not one of the cities that has Uttrakhand’s main railway stations ? (i) Rishikesh (ii) Haldwani (iii) Deharadun (iv) Kathgodam Ans : (i) Rishikesh (k) Which of the following is a synonym of the word ‘reliable’ ? (i) vitality (ii) dependable (iii) strength (iv) support Ans : (ii) dependable (l) Which of the following clearly explains the meaning of the word ‘initiatives’ ? (i) standards (ii) visions (iii) talks (iv) measures Ans : (iv) measures PASSAGE 19 1. In the year ended December 2016, 3.5 million overseas visitors arrived in New Zealand. But how many visitors are in New Zealand on any given day of the year ? The question has practical importance. Visitors to New Zealand create demand for goods and services, including transportation, accommodation, and tourist activities. They also have an impact on 4. At that peak in 2016, the number of overseas visitors local infrastructure. Knowing how many visitors are in New Zealand was 354,000. This compares with a 2. in New Zealand on any given day might be important peak of 191,000 in 2000. Since 2000, the number of for civil defence or flu pandemic planning. visitors in New Zealand has increased across every The following data explores the seasonal fluctuations Get all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs by whatsapp from +91 89056 29969 Page 97

Chapter 2 : Factual Passages www.cbse.online day of the year, but more during the summer months is usually : (December to March). (i) from mid-June to late September. 5. The number of visitors in New Zealand tends to be at (ii) from December to March. its lowest in late August, early September, and mid- (iii) during the late August. June. On 31 August 2016, there were an estimated (iv) during the early September 112,000 overseas visitors in New Zealand. This is Ans : (ii) from December to March. 242,000 less than the peak reached on 29 December. 6. The seasonality of visitor numbers presents challenges (f ) The peak day of the number of overseas visitors to the tourism sector. These challenges include : in New Zealand in the year 2015 was : • Managing the peak summer influx of visitors (i) 28 December • Marketing New Zealand as a destination at (ii) 31 December (iii) 30 December other times of the year, in order to spread visitor (iv) 29 December numbers throughout the year. Ans : (i) 28 December (a) Which of the following is not a demand that is (g) In the year 2000, the lowest number of overseas created in New Zealand because of the visitors visitors were in the month of : coming to the country? (i) September (i) health (ii) May (ii) accommodation (iii) June (iii) transport (iv) August (iv) goods Ans : (ii) May Ans : (i) health (h) The peak of overseas visitors and the temporary (b) It is good to have an understanding of how many leaving of residents in the country in the late visitors are in New Zealand on any given day as December reflects : it might be important : I. an upsurge of people getting temporarily (i) for handling the goods supply accordingly. stuck because of bad weather. (ii) for civil defence or flu pandemic planning. II. an upsurge in travellers visiting friends and (iii) for managing the population in any given family. area. III. an upsurge in travellers just passing through (iv) for providing better and more services as per the country to go to some other destination. requirement. IV an upsurge of people visiting for holidays. Ans : (ii) for civil defence or flu pandemic (i) I and II planning. (ii) I and III (iii) II and III (c) On 29 December 2016, how many residents of (iv) II and IV New Zealand were temporarily overseas? Ans : (iv) II and IV (i) 191,000 (ii) 354,000 (i) Which of the following statements is not true in (iii) 235,000 the context of the passage? (iv) 112,000 (i) The number of visitors in New Zealand Ans : (iii) 235,000 tends to be at its lowest only in late August. (ii) It is of practical importance to know how (d) The challenges faced by the tourism sector many visitors are in New Zealand on any because of the seasonality of the number of given day of the year. visitors are : (iii) Since 2000 the number of visitors in New I. managing the peak summer influx of visitors. Zealand has increased across every day of II. handling the imbalance of supply and the year. demand of goods over a year. (iv) The overseas visitors visiting New Zealand III. marketing New Zealand as a destination at have an impact on the local infrastructure other times of the year. of the country too. (i) I and II Ans : (i) The number of visitors in New Zealand (ii) II and III tends to be at its lowest only in late August. (iii) III and I (iv) I and III (j) The number of visitors in New Zealand on 31 Ans : (iv) I and III August is _____ less than the visitors on the (e) The number of overseas visitors increases in New Zealand at a certain time of the year. This time Download all Question Bank and 30 Sample Paper pdfs from www.cbse.online Page 98