IELTS Pract tests

FOR THE ACADEMIC EXAMINATION Scott Newman Rob Nicholas Also for self-study with free downloadable answer key and audio les



CONTENTS Page Introduction 4 Sample Answer sheets 9 Test 1 with guidance 16 Test 2 with guidance 60 102 Test 3 Test 4 122 Test 5 142 Test 6 164

IELTS LISTENING TEST 3 Section 1 ➤ Questions 1–10 Questions Complete the notes below. 1–10 Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Brigdon Public Library Survey Example First name: Evelyn Surname: 1 Personal Details Road, Oak Hill, Brigdon. Age: 2 Marital status: Married Children: 2 Address: 3 Post code: 4 Phone: 5 Other Reading habits: 6 novels. Doesn’t have much time to read. Newspapers and women’s magazines. The Library and its Facilities Are you a member? No How often do you use the library? 7 Which facilities used? 8 & lending library for ordered books. Which facilities would you be interested in using? 9 & swimming pool. Will you join the campaign to save the library? 10 102

LISTENING IELTS TEST 3 ➤ Questions 11–16 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11 T he is to be the topic of the instructor’s post-exercise Section 2 lecture. Questions 11 – 20 12 Research reveals that many people in the UK are sedentary for an average of per day. 13 On getting home from work, most people believe they deserve a after a day at the office and the commute back. 14 W e often sit incorrectly, in ways that don’t use the that support the backbone. 15 W hen you sit for a long time, it can reduce the effectiveness of the catalysts in the body that process so you put on weight. 16 The brain doesn’t work to its full potential when the body . ➤ Questions 17–20 Choose FOUR letters A–I. Which FOUR in the list are given as benefits of a correct sitting posture? 17 18 19 20 A improved breathing B weight loss C a straight backbone D better hydration E proper weight distribution F relaxed glute muscles G correct use of body structure H hips and pelvis bear weight properly I improved digestion 103

IELTS LISTENING TEST 3 Section 3 ➤ Questions 21–24 Questions Choose the correct letter A, B, or C. 21–30 21 What does the professor mean by ‘pastoral care’? A dealing with his students’ relationships B giving advice on non-academic matters C providing care for unwell students 22 Amy’s decision A was well-thought out. B was sudden. C was supposed to be a secret. 23 Why did Amy start blogging? A Because she found it amusing. B Because she needed the money. C Because it was mentally stimulating. 24 What factor made Amy finally come to her decision? A fascination with the film-making process B the offer of lucrative advertising revenue C a much wider audience for her videos ➤ Questions 25–30 Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. How to make a vlog 25 26 demo video 27 28 29 30 post online 104

LISTENING IELTS TEST 3 ➤ Questions 31–40 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. The Badger Section 4 Questions 31 – 40 General facts • They are nocturnal animals. • Their vision is 31 • Difficult to classify and 32 often change. • Their unusual facial markings are known as 33 colouration. Habitat • Live underground in a system of tunnels and chambers called ‘setts’. • These are dug mainly in 34 areas. • Usually build where the ground is 35 • To keep their habitat 36 , tend to build where there is a 37 . Diet • Earthworms form main part of diet. • Worms provide 38 as well as being nutritious. • Despite being carnivorous, show a distinct liking for 39 Conservation status • The Eurasian badger is not under threat. • Adults have no 40 predators. • Cubs may be prey to foxes, eagles and buzzards. 105

IELTS READING TEST 3 Passage 1 ➤ You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1–13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. Hay fever Hay fever is a term that is commonly used to describe a series of symptoms many sufferers experience in the spring and summer. These symptoms generally include sneezing, itchy or watering eyes, a blocked or runny nose and, on occasion, difficulty breathing. Strictly speaking, however, hay fever is not an accurate name for this ailment, since it is neither caused by hay (at least, not exclusively), nor does it cause a fever (a high temperature). A more accurate name is allergic rhinitis. The rhinitis part of the name refers to the nose, since it is in the mucous membrane of the nose that the first signs of hay fever make themselves apparent. One of the functions of the nose is to filter the air that we breathe. The mucous membrane traps undesirable particles, preventing them from entering the body and doing damage. Ordinarily, we would not notice this process but when we catch a cold, the body produces more mucus through the mucous membrane in an attempt to block the entry of harmful viruses. A similar thing happens with hay fever, but the reaction is severe only if we are allergic to the substance which is trying to gain entry to the body – in this case called an allergen. One of the most common allergens is pollen. In the cycle of nature, trees and plants release pollen in order to reproduce. Pollen is often transferred by insects – for example, bees – which travel between flowers, carrying pollen with them as they do so. But pollen can also be carried through the air, so that when the plant produces pollen, the wind picks up the tiny particles and carries them, sometimes great distances. Some of this pollen will end up fertilising another plant, but the majority of it will not. It is when we breathe in air heavily laden with pollen that the problems start. The allergic part of allergic rhinitis means that people only suffer if they have a hypersensitivity to a certain allergen. For many people, pollen is not a problem and it goes unnoticed as the mucous membrane in the nose does its job. For those who are allergic, however, the entry of pollen into the nose sets off a series of reactions as the immune system fights what it sees as an invasion. Histamine and other chemicals are released, blood vessels swell, and mucus production increases – all leading to discomfort in the sufferer. With most people, that is as far as it goes, and hay fever is little more than an inconvenience. Sufferers deal with it in much the same 106

READING IELTS TEST 3 Passage 1 way as they would a common cold in that they carry on their daily lives, albeit with a little discomfort. Others experience more severe symptoms. If you are allergic to pollen, your symptoms are likely to begin in the spring or summer. However, if you have a variety of allergies to different pollens, the period of suffering could be prolonged. Tree pollen usually starts being released in late March and lasts until mid- May, when grass pollen begins to become active, taking us into July. This latter pollen affects the vast majority of hay fever sufferers. Then, your hay fever season is extended if you also happen to be allergic to the pollen from certain weeds, which is in the air until September. Any symptoms of allergic rhinitis occurring between October and February are unlikely to be from pollen. Household dust can cause a very similar reaction. Up to 30% of the population suffers from allergic rhinitis at some stage of their lives, and that number is increasing. Quite why more people are affected nowadays is not fully understood. We know that a percentage of people are born with a greater tendency to develop allergies, but they will only become sufferers after being exposed to allergens under certain conditions. Scientists are also reporting a worrying trend whereby more people are developing symptoms later in life. Rather than exhibiting signs of allergies during childhood, these people appear to be allergy-free until they reach middle age. The number of people affected certainly justifies extensive research. One belief held by many is that it may be that we live in a cleaner, allergen-free environment. This means that people born with the genetic predisposition to allergic reactions have not been exposed to as many allergens during their childhood. Thus, when they are exposed later in life, it is their first exposure, and therefore a severe reaction follows. It seems paradoxical that as people are abandoning the country for city life, the numbers are rising. Scientific explanations include the fact that our cities still have large numbers of pollen- producing plants. Plus, pollen can be carried into cities by the wind anyway. Global warming seems to be leading to greater pollen production as our summers get hotter. Alternatively, it could be that particles in city pollution are causing the same kind of response as that produced by natural airborne particles. 107

IELTS READING TEST 3 Passage 1 ➤ Questions 1–7 Questions Match each item with the phenomenon it is most closely linked to. 1–13 You may use any letter more than once. 1 Prompts a similar reaction in the nose to things people are allergic to 2 Acts as a line of defence for the body 3 Includes both natural and man-made substances 4 Varies in duration according to the individual 5 Performs a vital function in nature 6 Has another, more accurate name 7 Comes in many forms from different natural sources Phenomena A allergen B mucous membrane C hay fever D virus E pollen 108

READING IELTS TEST 3 ➤ Questions 8–13 Passage 1 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. 8 What does the writer say about hay fever in the first paragraph? A One of the worst symptoms is breathing problems. B Most people do not use that name any more. C It has no connection with hay. D The use of the word ‘fever’ is misleading. 9 Pollen from plants and trees A does not generally travel far. B affects sufferers more when carried by insects. C is essential in plant reproduction. D affects everyone to a greater or lesser degree. 10 The writer suggests that many people with allergic rhinitis A are not made seriously ill by it. B struggle to find a convenient cure. C endure severe pain from it. D do not realise they have it. 11 What is likely to be the cause if you have allergic rhinitis in September? A Trees or grass B Dust or weeds C Grass or weeds D Dust or trees 12 In the sixth paragraph, the writer A explains why the number of sufferers is increasing. B suggests a course of action for sufferers. C explains why people develop allergies. D mentions a pattern giving cause for concern. 13 What is the paradox the writer refers to in the last paragraph? A That the amount of sufferers increased rather than decreased. B More people are born without a resistance to pollen. C The first exposure to an allergen is earlier than it used to be. D More plants in cities are making the problem spread rapidly. 109

IELTS READING TEST 3 Passage 2 ➤ You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14–26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below. The ancient roots of opera Geraldine Johansson suggests that modern opera has more in common with a 2,500-year-old theatre tradition than anything else in between. A When opera began during the Renaissance, it was formed with the notion held by many that all parts in Greek dramatic productions were sung. While this view has been somewhat revised by modern scholars, there certainly was a sung element to Greek drama, even if this was only the chorus and not the whole or the majority of the performance, as we find in operas. It is curious to think that a genre of musical performance as enduring as opera might have been based in part on a false assumption. B Ancient Greek theatre was perhaps closer to today’s opera than any art form in the intervening years. It is well documented that music and drama were often combined in ancient Greek productions. Both music and theatre were considered to be fundamentals in education. The singing and dancing of Dionysian festivals and rites evolved into theatre, and we know that Aristophanes, Sophocles and Euripides wrote monodies into plays – lines that were meant to be sung. We do not know how the music sounded, since the form of musical notation is believed to have been combinations of letters, not notes, which represented different rhythmic and melodic qualities. It is thought that most musical accompaniments were merely meant to augment the singing; the music followed the same melody as the vocal line. Nevertheless, it is this use of music in drama that would eventually lead to the art of opera around two thousand years later. C Opera was part of a wider movement aimed at a revival of classical values, although it is so closely associated with tragedy that it is tempting to think that its sole purpose was to revive that genre alone. Yet we know that the ancient Greeks also had comedy and satyr plays (a form of tragic-comedy based on mythological themes). The Camerata of Florence (in modern-day Italy) was a group of poets, musicians and intellectuals who actually ‘designed’ the opera format in the latter part of the 16th century. But they did so with the whole range of classical works in mind. So perhaps it is the public who have forged opera’s link with tragedy, and the operas that people immediately 110

READING IELTS TEST 3 Passage 2 think of are tragic ones. Certainly, popularity with audiences drove the success of operatic tragedy at the expense of comic operas, historical operas and operas with happy endings, all of which were written. D The oldest surviving opera, Euridice, dates back to the year 1600, and was based on the work of the Roman poet Ovid which, in turn, was based upon ancient Greek myth. The opera was written to celebrate the marriage of Henry IV of France to Maria de Medici, who was a member of the powerful Medici family from Florence, and a little showing off while honouring the king of France was behind the idea. The spectacle of Euridice clearly impressed all who were there. Soon, other noble families wanted to commission works to show off their own power and wealth, and the idea of commissioning an opera spread beyond Florence. All this is significant because it shows how the production flattered those for whom it was written; another common bond with ancient Greek theatre. E Early opera could be both moralistic and political, and we know, for example, that Mozart’s Don Giovanni had its ending rewritten to better portray the triumph of good over evil. This was done to avoid offending the sensibilities of a particular audience (in this case, the people of Vienna). Later operas were chosen so that there was an intended comparison between the heroes of ancient Greece (as portrayed in the opera) and the person who commissioned the production. Real-life nobility were expected to see themselves reflected in the actions of the heroes. As time went on, the opposite happened, whereby the writer of operas would use their work as a vehicle for criticism or satire of those in power. Both subtexts had been, of course, commonplace in ancient Greek theatre. F None of this is to say that the intervening years were not formative ones for opera, but medieval productions were much less closely linked. What we had in the two millennia between ancient Greece and renaissance Italy were genres including morality plays, farces and masques, all of which doubtless contained music and drama. Most medieval theatre, however, was religious in nature, and took religious themes as its subject matter using the somewhat limited musical forms preferred by the church. As this was not intended for public performance in the same way as ancient Greek drama or renaissance opera were, its relevance is limited to the development of music per se, rather than its integration with drama to form a performing art. 111

IELTS READING TEST 3 Passage 2 ➤ Questions 14–19 Questions Passage 2 has six sections, A–F. 14-26 Choose the correct heading for sections A–F from the list of headings below. Write the correct number i–ix. List of headings i More than just tragedy ii Drama without the singing iii The relevance of ancient Greece iv Other influences v Adapting the message vi The missing link vii Mistaken beliefs at the founding of opera viii Modern-day productions ix The reason opera took off 14 Paragraph A 15 Paragraph B 16 Paragraph C 17 Paragraph D 18 Paragraph E 19 Paragraph F 112

READING IELTS TEST 3 ➤ Questions 20–26 Passage 2 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet, write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information. FALSE if the statement contradicts the information. NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this. 20 The people who first devised opera were completely wrong about singing in ancient Greek drama. 21 T he way music was written down in ancient Greece means we cannot reproduce it. 22 Many people associate opera with tragedy more than with any other dramatic form. 23 The writer of Euridice felt that Roman literature was superior to its Greek predecessor. 24 Representatives of many noble families were present at the first performance of Euridice. 25 Elements of ancient Greek theatre were critical of contemporary rulers. 26 Medieval theatre was inaccessible to the public. 113

IELTS READING TEST 3 Passage 3 ➤ You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27–40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below. The strange journey that made Great Britain As evidenced by its geological make-up, the island of Great Britain has a rich and varied pre-history. First of all, to clear up a common misconception, Great Britain refers to the largest island of the British Isles, (Great in this case meaning Big). It is made up of England, Scotland and Wales, and is the eighth largest island in the world. There are between around 4,000 and 6,289 other islands in the group (depending on the size of rock we are talking about and whether you can count it as an island if it is only one at high tide). Of these, around 200 are inhabited. In order to grasp some of the more difficult ideas behind the prehistory of Great Britain, it helps to look at the Earth’s geological past, starting with its formation 4.5 billion years ago. It is currently thought that the Earth and the planets were formed from dust left over from when the Sun was created. What is significant is that the Earth in its infancy was in a largely molten1 state, with constant volcanic activity and regular collisions with other bodies (one of which is thought to have created the Moon). Although scientific opinion varies on many of these points, the generally accepted sequence of events is as follows: the temperature began to fall, forming the Earth’s crust. At the same time, water appeared in the atmosphere. The volcanic activity released gases, creating an atmosphere, and the water condensed, forming the oceans. Molten material solidified, forming continents which broke apart and re-formed many times over the next couple of billion years. These continents migrated around the surface of the Earth and it is in the study of this continental drift that we can trace Great Britain’s past. At three stages in the Earth’s geological past, supercontinents were formed, so that there was only one major land mass, while most of the rest of the Earth was covered with water. These supercontinents have been named Rodinia, Pannotia and Pangaea. The earliest of these, Rodinia, broke apart 750 million years ago, and 200 million years later, the land masses joined together again to form the second supercontinent, Pannotia. 114

READING IELTS TEST 3 Around 500 million years ago, in the period known as the Cambrian, Passage 3 Great Britain was largely underwater in the southern hemisphere, about the same distance from the South Pole as New Zealand is 115 today. Scotland was attached to the plate with North America, while England and Wales were attached to Scandinavia. Around the time of the Silurian period, the two plates collided, bringing Scotland into contact with England. The collision caused what we call the Caledonian orogeny2 – what are now the Scottish Highlands. In the Devonian period of about 400 million years ago, the continuing rise of the Caledonian orogeny caused the majority of Great Britain to be above sea level. Africa and South America then collided with North America and Europe. Around 100 million years later, during what we call the Carboniferous period, Great Britain was in the equatorial forest belt of Pangaea, the last supercontinent. It was the vegetation from this forest that created the coal mined in Great Britain for centuries. Then, around 200 million years ago, Britain migrated to the northern desert belt, which explains why sandstone is so prevalent in the bedrock of Great Britain. During the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods, between 190 and 65 million years ago, Pangaea broke apart and, due to rifting3, Great Britain was flooded by the newly created Atlantic Ocean. Evidence of this can be found in the chalk under the soil, mainly in southern England. The chalk is made up of trillions of tiny sea creatures that died and formed a sediment at the bottom of the sea. After sea levels fell and rose several times, the continents we know today were established and the island of Great Britain was more or less where it is now. Except that it was not an island. Throughout all of this movement, it was part of a larger continent. It was as recently as about 9,000 years ago that it became an island, when the end of the last ice age made sea levels rise yet again to create the English Channel and cut Great Britain off from continental Europe. The highlands and lowlands, the chalk cliffs, the layers of sandstone, the seams of salt, the precious metals, and the fossil fuels; all of these provide clues to the many, many changes that Great Britain went through in geological history. Glossary 1. Molten: when a solid such as rock or metal is in liquid form due to heat 2. Orogeny: the impact when continental plates collide and mountain chains are formed 3. Rifting: the pulling apart of continental plates

IELTS READING TEST 3 Passage 3 ➤ Questions 27–32 Questions Complete each sentence with the correct ending A–J below. 27-40 27 Currently, the island of Great Britain 28 Early in the Earth’s history, the Moon 29 The supercontinent of Rodinia 30 The Scottish Highlands mountain range 31 The coal under the ground in Great Britain 32 Apart from fossil fuels, the land under Great Britain A broke apart and later re-formed as Pannotia. B caused a rise in sea levels. C dates back to a time when it was in an equatorial forest. D led to the cooling of the Earth. E contains salt, sandstone and chalk. F is surrounded by several thousand smaller islands. G used to be named Pangaea. H was caused by flooding and rifting. I is the result of two land masses colliding. J was formed following a huge impact. 116

READING IELTS TEST 3 ➤ Questions 33–40 Complete the timeline below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Passage 3 Around 4.5 billion years ago: . The Earth was formed, remaining in a molten form with a constantly changing surface due to frequent impacts and 33 34 was formed due to the cooling of the planet. Oceans were formed when water from the atmosphere 35 . The first continents were formed when 36 . Around 500 million years ago: 37 were united at the time when the Scottish Highlands were formed. Around 300 million years ago: . Great Britain was in a(n) 38 Around 200 million years ago: The presence of sandstone today reveals that Britain was in the 39 . Around 100 million years ago: The chalk in Britain today comes from a build-up of dead sea creatures from the time when the area was 40 after the Atlantic Ocean was formed. 117

IELTS WRITING TEST 3 ➤ You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. Task 1 The table below shows the results of a survey at a UK university where students were asked about problems with their course. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words. Reasons for dissatisfaction with degree course (The examples given are actual reasons given by multiple students who responded to the survey.) Reason given Number of students (%) Personal (eg family commitments, illness, student did not work hard enough, etc) 33 Course content (eg subjects covered, depth of analysis, etc) 22 Lecturers (eg disinterested approach, lack of support, poorly 14 prepared, etc) 10 Social (eg did not make friends) 8 Facilities (eg buildings, libraries, workshops, etc) 6 Assessment (eg essay/exam marking) 5 Career guidance (eg not enough information provided) 2 Other 118

WRITING IELTS TEST 3 ➤ You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Task 2 Write about the following topic: Information about current affairs in newspapers and in the media is often biased or inaccurate, with the result that we have difficulty identifying the truth. How much do you agree with this statement? Do you think people should be trained to use critical thinking when reading or listening to the news? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words. 119

IELTS SPEAKING TEST 3 Part 1 & 2 The examiner introduces himself/herself and then asks the candidate's name, where (s)he comes from and for an identification document. ➤ Part 1 The examiner asks the candidate several questions on familiar topics such as home, family, work, studies, interests, etc. Three topics are usually discussed. EXAMPLE Home • What kind of building do you live in? [House / Flat / etc.] • Do you like living there? [Why? / Why not?] • How long have you lived there? • How many of you are living there? ➤ Part 2 You will have to talk about the topic for one to two minutes. Describe a memorable event from your childhood. You have one minute to think You should say: about what you are going to say. • what it was and when it happened • who was involved You can make some notes to • what you felt at the time help you if you wish. and explain why it is so memorable. 120

SPEAKING IELTS TEST 3 ➤ Part 3 Part 3 Discussion topics: Notable events Example questions: What important historical events are celebrated in your country? [How?] Do you think young people are aware of what they are celebrating, or is it just another holiday to them? [Why?] How important is it for a country to have such national celebrations? [Why?] Memories Example questions: What kinds of occasions/events do people remember most from their lives? [Why?] Name some ways people have used to remember the events of their lives, and why you think they used them. What is the best way to keep memories alive? [Why?] 121

FOR THE ACADEMIC EXAMINATION Hamilton House IELTS Practice Tests is a set of six complete Academic IELTS practice tests for the International English Language Testing System. The book covers a wide range of typical exam topic areas and provides extensive practice in all parts of the IELTS Academic exam: Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking. The rst two tests are given with extra help for students, providing them with important facts and advice for each particular task. Key features: • a full introduction to the examination • a Task Guide which offers information on what to look out for and how to approach each task type to score maximum points • a Step-by-step Guide for each task, which takes students through a series of carefully-designed steps, helping them understand how to tackle the task in hand Available as a free download: • sample writing tasks for each test • a complete audioscript for the listening tasks in each test • audio les for the listening sections in each test • separate answer key for each test IELTS Practice Tests consists of: IELTS Practice Tests Student’s Book IELTS Practice Tests Teacher’s Book IELTS Practice Tests Audio CDs IELTS Practice Tests Answer key and Sample Writing Tasks Downloadables available at: https://www.hamiltonhousepublishers.com/downloadables