MAGNET BRAINS TEST PAPER - 1

MAGNET BRAINS TEST PAPER - 1 MM-40M TERM I CLASS X SOCIAL SCIENCE - CODE 087 TIME-90 MINUTES General Instructions: 1. The Question Paper contains four sections. 2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions. 3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions. 4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions. 5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions. 6. All questions carry equal marks. 7. There is no negative marking. SECTION – A (Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions) 1. Identify the ideology under which European governments were driven by following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815. A. Liberalism B. Conservatism C. Imperialism D. Globalisation

2. Identify the vision of a society that is too ideal to actually exist. A. Absolutist B. Monarchy C.Utopian D. Autocratic 3. Which among the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among common people? A. Louis Philippe B. Johann Gottfried Herder C. Karol Karpinski D. Carl Welcker 4 Identify the major revolution which emerged due to economic reasons? A. The Liberal Revolution B. Germany's War with Austria C. Greek War of Independence D. Revolution of Silesians Weavers 5. What did the Civil Code of 1804 bring about? Select the best suitable option from the following A. Established Equality before law B. Abolished privileges based on birth C. Abolished Right to Property D. Both (A) and (B)

6. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the names of Primitive Subsistence Farming given options A. Brazil- Roca B. Mexico-Masole C. Indonesia-Ladang D. Vietnam-Ray 7. The First International Earth summit adopted Agenda 21 to Choose the correct option A. Conserve resources B. Support human activities C. Achieve sustainable development D. Meet future requirements 8. Red soil is mostly found in which of the following regions A. Upper Ganga Plains B. Parts of Jammu and Kashmir C. Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau D. Piedmont Zone of Western Ghats 9. India has land under a variety of relief features,Which of the following features ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects? A. Plains B. Placaus C. CIslands D. Mountains

10. Tea in Assam is a plantation crop, while Rice in Odisha is an example of which type of crop? A. Primitive Subsistence Crop B. Commercial Crop C. Subsistence Crop D. Plantation Crop 11. Which of the following countries emerged as an Independent state in 1948? A. Belgium B. Sri Lanka C. India D. France 12. What was the major objective of LTTE in Sri Lanka? A. Establish autonomy for Buddhist people B. Attain Independence for christans C. End Sinhala rule D. Demand separate homeland for Tamil 13. Australia is an example of which one orally A. Holding-together B. Coming-together C. Both (a) and (b) D. Can't say 14. According to the State Panchayati raj act which of the following local body must meet at least two to four times in a year? A. Gram Sabha B. Panchayat Samiti C. Gram Panchayat D. Mandal Samiti

15. Who among the following is appointed as an officer of Municipal corporation? A. Sarpanch B. Ward Commissioner C. Mukhiya D. Mayor 16. Which among the following institutions plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures? A. Union government B. State government C. Judiciary D. Local government 17. Which of the following institutions has been created in each state to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections? A. State Election Commission B. Local Election C. Regional Election Commission D. Town Area Committee 18. Identify the term which is used for the average income of a person. A. Total Income B. Per Capita Income C. Gross Income D. National Income

19. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it. Which of the following is the outcome as per the given statement? A. Gully erosion. B. Fallow land. C. Land degradation D. Soil erosion 20. Which of the following statement relates to sustainable development? A. Cutting trees for construction of dams B. Groundwater depletion C. Rise in literacy level D. More reliance on renewable sources 21. Which of the following is a demerit of using average income as a measure of development A. Average income fails to indicate the economic stability of a country. B. Calculation of Average income is a tedious process C. Average income does not indicate disparity in income level. D. Average income is always lower than the actual income of people 22. Basic services like health, education and infrastructure usually comes under public sector. The reason is A. It need better management B. It require timely updation C. It require equal and quality distribution D. These are profit carning arcus

23. The sum of the total production of all goods and services in the three sectors are combinedly called as A. NDP B. GNI C. GDP D. Ni 24. Which of the following objectives is not mentioned in the MNREGA 2005? A. To give at least 100 days of guaranteed work in rural areas. B. It is required to provide employment within 10 km of an applicant's home and to pay maximum wages. C. If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowances to the people. D. To implement 'Right to work. SECTION – B (Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions) 25. Following image depicts the fear of repression which drove many fiberal-nationalists underground. Which of the following event is marked as per the given image? Identify.

A. Signing of Treaty of Vienna B. Founding of Young Europe in Berne, 1833 C. Giuseppe Mazzini unifying Italy D. William I unifying Germany NOTE: Following question is for Visually impaired candidates in lieu of Q25. Identify the name of the Prussian King who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles. A. William I B. William II C. Henry VII D. Louis IV 26. Which of the following statements about the French Revolution are correct? I. After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it would be who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny II. France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by a member of the royal family. III. A centralized administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws for all citizens IV. Imposition of internal customs duties and dues will continue to exist in France. Options: A. (ii) and (iii) B. (ii) and (iv) C. (i) and (iii) D. (iii) and (iv)

27. Which of the following terms best describes the situation when an abstract idea like greed or envy is expressed through a person or a thing? A. Suffrage B. Allegory C. Alliance D. Treaty 28. Why was Otto von Bismarck considered as the chief architect of German unification ? Choose the correct option from the following : A. He formed an alliance with Italy and France for the unification process. B. He carried out the nation- building process with the Army and the Bureaucracy. C. He carried along with Liberalist and Romantic scholars for cultural movement D. He granted autonomy to Prussia with the Conservatives. 29. Which of the following soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars. Chos and Terai? A. Black Soil B. Alluvial Soil C. Laterite soil D. Red soil 30. Which among the following is the example of Potential Resource? A. Plantation B. Ponds C. Wind energy D. Petroleum

31. Read the following statements and choose the correct code. i. In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly demarcated. ii. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective subjects. iii. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces. iv. India is no longer a federation because some power of the states have been devolved to the local government bodies. Options: A. Only A B. Both A and B C. Only C D. Both C and D 32. Consider the following statements about ‘Holding Together’ Federation i. A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government ii. The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the states. iii. The Central government and the state always seem to have equal powers. iv. Constituent states have unequal powers Codes: A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (m) C. (i), (ii) and (iv) D. Only (iv)

33. Two Statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option Assertion (A): In India, power is shared among different levels of the government. Reason (R): This gives minority communities, a fair share in power Options: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true, but R not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true 34. Match the following. List I List II I. Gram Sabha 1. Gram Panchayats group together II. Gram Panchayat to form this unit III. Zila Parishad 2. Mandals in a district together IV. Mandals constitute it. 3. It reviews the performance of the Gram Panchayat. 4. Decision-making body for the entire village. Choose the correct answer from the option given below: A. I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3 B. I-2, II-4, III-3, IV-1 C. I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1 D. I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2

35. How does the Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation? A. Judiciary rules over Centre and State. B. Centre and Judiciary work collectively. C. Courts can change structure of Constitution. D. Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution. 36. Identify the region/area of India with the help of the following information. i. The Central Government has special powers in running these areas. ii. These areas are too small to become an independent state. Select the appropriate option from the following. Options: A. Towns B. District C. Union Territories D. City 37. Which of the following options helps the local-government to deepen democracy in India? i. Constitutional status for local-self government. ii. It inculcates the habit of democratic participation. iii. Parliamentary bills for the local-self government. Options: A. Only (1) B. Only (ii) C. Only (iii) D. Both (i) and (ii)

38. Identify the correct statements about Unitary form of government. i. There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. ii. The central government. The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government. iii. Laws made by the centre are equally enforced in the rest of the states without territorial distinction.. IV The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution. Options: A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (i), (ii) and (iii) D. Only (iv) 39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development has happened in a country. Reason (R): Comparison of national Income of two countries explains Human Development Index. Options: A. Both A und R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of C. A is true but R false. D. A is false but R is true.

40. Match the following. Column B Column A I. Goods used up during the 1. Economic Activities production process. II. Goods which are ready for use. 2. Intermediate Goods III. Activities which contribute to 3. Gross Domestic the flow of goods and services in Product an economy. IV. Value of all final goods and 4. Final Goods services produced in a country during a particular year. Options: A. I-2, II-4, III-1, IV-3 B. I-2, II-4, III-3, IV-1 C. I-3, II-2, III-1, IV-4 D. I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2 41. Read the following data carefully and select the appropriate answer from the given options. State Infant Literacy Net Attendance Ratio Mortality Rate % (Per 100 persons) Rate per 2017-18 1,000 live secondary stage (age 14 births (2017) and 15 years) 2017-18 Haryana 30 82 61 Kerala 10 94 83 Bihar 35 62 43

Why Bihar has a High Infant Mortality Rate as compared to other states? Identify the reason from the given options. Options: A. Due to lack of health facilities B. Due to lack of education facilities C. Low guidance D. Both (A) and (B) 42. Which among the following is a developmental goal for the landless rural labourer? A. To educate their children B. More days of work and better wages C. To get basic facilities D. None of the above 43. Which among the following options is called as intermediate goods? A. Goods and services that finally reach to the consumers. B. Goods and services that intermediately reach to the consumers. C. Goods that are used in the production of final goods and services. D. Goods that are used initially to produce a material. 44. Which one among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector? A. Educated and trained professionals B. Repair persons and daily wage-earners C. People in defense services D. People working in health centers and hospitals

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Development involves thinking about the ways in which we can work towards achieving goals of holistic growth. Reason (R): Holistic growth is economic growth. Options: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true,but R is not correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true 46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day . Which type of employment is this an example? A. Underemployment B. Seasonal employment C. Over employment D. Cyclical employment SECTION – C (This section consists of two cases. There are a total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.) Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty , which had been deposed during the French Revolution , was restored to power and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus, the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the North and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the South. 47. What was France's largest fear at the Congress of Vienna? Select the best suitable option from the following in reference to the context. A. Losing French Colonies B. War with the United States C. The Rise of Prussian Power D. Britain's Challenge 48. Which one of the following was not implemented under the Treaty of Vienna of 1815? A. Restoration of Bourbon Dynasty. B. Setting up series of states on the boundaries of France. C. Restoration of monarchies. D. Diluting the German Confederation of 39 states.

49. Assertion (A) By the settlement of Vienna, Belgium was annexed to Holland to set up a powerful state in North-East border of France. Reason (R) The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. Options: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true 50. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815? Which one of the following is the prominent cause? A. To abolish tariff barriers. B. To divide the German Confederation of 39 states. C. To restore the monarchies D. None of above 51. Which of the following is not the result of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815? A. France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. B. Poland was given to Russia C. Prussia was handed over to England D. None of the above 52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion A: Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent. Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic

Options: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true. Directions (Q. Nos. 53 - 58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Wheat This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop, in North and North-Western part of the country. This Rabi crop requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine at the time of ripening . It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country - the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and black soil -region of the Deccan . The major wheat -producing states are Punjab , Haryana , Uttar Pradesh , Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Rajasthan. 53. Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India after which of the following crops? Select the best suitable option from the following A. Maize B. Paddy C. Sugarcane D. Pulses

54. What kind of geographical conditions are required for the growth of wheat? Choose the correct option from the following. A. 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall B. Bright sunshine at the time of ripening. C. A cool growing season D. All of these 55. Which among the following is also a Rabi crop like wheat? Choose the correct option. A. Paddy B. Mustard C. Maize D. Bajra 56. Which type of soil is required for wheat production? Identify from the following options. A. Sandy soil B. Clayey soil C. Loamy soil D. Both (b) and (c) 57. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect option from the given options. I. Wheat is the second most important cereal crop. II. It provides food to people residing in the North and North-Western part of the country. III. Bright sunshine at the time of ripening is important for this crop. IV. The major wheat-producing states are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh

Options: A. Only (i) B. Both (II) and (III) C. Only (III) D. Only (I) 58. In the question given below , there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code. Assertion (A) A high average income is not indicative of the overall or human development in a country. Reason (R) Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health facilities in a country Options: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true.

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information. 59. On the political map of India, 'A' is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options. a. Hirakund b. Bhakra-Nangal c. Sardar - Sarovar d. Rana Pratap Sagar 60. On the same map, 'B' is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the following options. a. Odisha b. Karnataka c. Madhya Pradesh d. Bengal

Note- The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of questions 59 and 60. 59. Which of the following dam is located in Uttarakhand? A. Salal B. Bhakra Nangal C. Tehri D. Rana Pratap Sagar 60. Which one of the following is a principal cereal crop? A. Rice B. Wheat C. Jowar D. Bajra