ENGLISH Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CT103516018 CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2016 - 2017) JEE (Main + Advanced) : LEADER COURSE PHASE-III to VII (SCORE-I) Test Type : PART TEST Test Pattern : JEE-Main TEST DATE : 11 - 03 - 2017 PAPER – 2 Important Instructions Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. 1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. 6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room. 9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2017 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING PART A - PHYSICS 1. The diagram below shows electric field 2. A strange cat with a mass mc is sitting at lines in a region of space. Which of the rest on the left plank of a pair of identical following diagrams best shows the variation planks. Each plank has mass ms and they rest on frictionless ice. Suddenly, the cat with distance d of the potential V along the leaps to the right plank, traveling with a line XY as we move from X to Y ? horizontal speed vcg measured with respect to the ground. The instant the cat reaches the right plank, it turns around and leaps back to the left plank. The horizontal XP component of the cat’s speed is again vcg Y measured with respect to the ground. The final speed of right plank in terms of the masses of the cat and planks and the cat’s leaping speed is (The cat remains on the left plank after its return). VV Vcg (1) (2) XP Yd XP Yd Vcg V V (3) (4) 2mc vcg 2mc vcg (1) ms mc (2) ms XP Yd X P Yd mc v cg mc v cg (3) ms mc (4) ms SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-1/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 3. A slider block A moves downward at a 4. A cube with sides of length 2a and mass M speed of vA = 2 m/s, at an angle of 75° is moving with an initial speed v0 along a with horizontal as shown in the figure. frictionless table. When the cube reaches the end of the table it is caught abruptly by The velocity with respect to A of the a short lip and begins to rotate. The portion of belt B between ideal pulleys minimum speed v0 such that the cube falls off the table is :- C and D is vCD/A = 2 m/s at an angle with the horizontal. The magnitude of 2a short lip velocity of portion CD of the belt when M v0 = 15° is : (1) 16ag( 2 1) (2) 16ag( 2 1) 3 (3) ag 2 1 (4)ag 3 2 1 D 5. Consider the configuration of a system of B four charges each of value +q. The work A 75° done by external agent in changing the C (2) 10m / s configuration of the system from figure (1) (4) 2 m/s (1) 2 3m / s to figure (2) is : (3) 2 2m / s +q +q +q a +q a +q +q a +q +q Figure (1) Figure (2) (1) kq2 (3 2) (2) kq2 (3 2) a a (3) kq2 (3 2 ) (4) kq2 (3 2) a a SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-2/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 6. Two cars, both of mass m, collide and stick 7. Two particles of mass m are constrained together. Prior to the collision, one car had to move along two horizontal frictionless been traveling north at speed 2v, while the rails that make an angle 2 with respect to second was traveling at speed v at an angle each other. They are connected by a spring south of east (as indicated in the figure). with spring constant k. The angular The magnitude of the velocity of the two frequency of small oscillations for the car system immediately after the collision motion where the two masses always stay is :- parallel to each other (that is the distance between the meeting point of the rails and each particle is equal) is :- v N k mm 2v 2 E 2k (2) 2k sin (1) m m (1) v 5 4 sin v 4 5sin (2) 2 2k cos k sin (3) m (4) 2m v 5 4 sin (4) v 4 5 sin (3) 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-3/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 8. A mass m, travelling at speed V0 in a 9. The escape speed of an electron launched straight line from far away is deflected from the surface of a glass sphere of when it passes near a black hole of mass M diameter 1 cm that has been charged to which is at a perpendicular distance R from 10 nC is x × 107 m/sec. The value of x is : the original line of flight. a, the distance of (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4)12 closest approach between the mass and the 10. A problem of practical interest is to make black hole is given by the relation : a beam of electrons turn at 90º corner. This m can be done with the electric field present V0 a between the parallel plates as shown in the R M figure. An electron with kinetic energy 8.0 × 10–17 J enters through a small hole in the bottom plate. The strength of electric R 1 2GM 1/2 field that is needed if the electron is to emerge from an exit hole 1.0cm away from (1) a = aV02 the entrance hole, traveling at right angles to its original direction is y × 105 N/C. The R 1 aV02 1 / 2 value of y is : 2GM (2) a = R 1 GM 1/ 2 2aV02 (3) a = (4) a = R 1 2GM 1/2 d 1cm (2) 8 Electrons aV02 (1) 4 (4) 1 (3) 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-4/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 11. Three identical uncharged metal spheres are 12. The electric flux passing through the cube at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. One for the given arrangement of charges placed at a time, a small sphere is connected by a at the corners of the cube (as shown in the conducting wire with a large metal sphere figure) is : that is charged. The center of the large +1C –2C sphere is in the straight line perpendicular to the plane of equilateral triangle and –4C +3C passing through its centre (see figure). As a result, the first small sphere acquires –6C +7C charge q1 and second charge q2 (q2 < q1). The +5C –8C charge that the third sphere q3 will acquire is : a (Assume >> R, >> r, d >> R, d >> r) 1 1 (1) 2 0 (2) 2 0 RQ 1 1 (3) 0 (4) 0 13. In the following transistor circuit Ri is the input resistance, R0 is the output d r resistance. The approximate voltage gain q3 r d for the circuit is :- q1 d q2 r pnp C Ii E IL q12 q 2 + + q2 2 Vi=200mV (1) (2) Ri B R0 R – 20 100k q1 5k VL (4) q1 q2 – 2 (3) q1q2 (1) 50 (2) 250 (3) 150 (4) 100 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-5/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 14. An unpolarized light is incident from air on 16. The total maximum transmitted power in the boundary of a denser medium having amplitude modulation if the carrier output refractive index µ at polarizing angle ip. power is 1 kW is : Which of the following is correct? (1) 1.5kW (2) 250W (1) The reflected beam is completely (3) 500W (4) 1kW polarized (2) The reflected beam is perpendicular to 17. A cube of mass m slides down an inclined the incident beam right-angle trough. If the coefficient of (3) The angle of incidence ip is given as kinetic friction between the cube and the sin ip = µ trough is µk, then the acceleration of the (4) The refracted beam is completely block is : polarized 15. The following graph shows the response of magnetization M of paramagnetic material to the applied magnetic field strength H for three different temperatures T1,T2,T3 M Front view T1 (1) g sin k cos T2 T3 (2) 2g sin k cos H (3) 1 g sin k cos 2 Which of the following is correct? (1) T1 < T2 < T3 (2) T3 > T1 > T2 (4) g sin k 2 cos (3) T2 > T3 > T1 (4) T1 > T2 > T3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-6/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 18. A stick has its bottom end attached to a wall 20. A heap of rope with mass density by a pivot and is held up by a massless string (per unit length) lies on a table. You grab attached to its other end. Which of the one end and pull horizontally with constant following scenarios has the smallest tension speed v, as shown in figure. (Assume that in the string ? (Length of stick is same in all the rope has no friction with itself in the scenarios). heap.) The force that you must apply to maintain the constant speed v is :- heap v string string (1) v2 (2) stick (1) (2) v2 (3) g, where is the length that you have stick stick pulled straight string string v2 (4) 2 (3) stick (4) 21. A mass hangs from a spring and oscillates vertically. The top end of the spring is attached to the top of a box, and the box is 19. The left end of a massless stick with length placed on a scale, as shown in the figure. is placed on the corner of a table, as shown The reading on the scale is largest when the mass is in Fig. A point mass m is attached to the center of the stick, which is initially held horizontal. It is then released. Immediately afterward, what normal force does the table exert on the stick? (1) 0 (2) mg/6 scale m (1) At its maximum height (3) mg/2 (4) mg (2) At its minimum height (3) At the midpoint of its motion (4) All points give the same reading. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-7/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 22. A parallel-plate capacitor consists of a fixed 24. Four lamps are connected in the way shown plate and a movable plate that is allowed in the figure. When switch S2 is open and to slide in the direction parallel to the switch S1 is on position-2, lamp-b is the plates. Let x be the distance of overlap, as brightest, and lamp-c and lamp-d are the shown in the figure. The separation dimmest and are of the same brightness. between the plates is fixed. Assume that Now S2 is closed and S1 is on position-1, the the plates are electrically isolated, so that sequence in brightness of the lamps is their charges ±Q are constant. Force on the (with the first in the sequence being the movable plate is proportional to :- brightest) (Movable) b S2 c (Fixed) x 2 1 S1 (1) x–2 (2) x–1 (3) x0 (4) x ad 23. Two parallel disks each having radius R are separated by a distance . The surface (1) c, d, b, a (2) a, d, b, c charge densities are and –. The electric (3) a, b, c, d (4) a, d, c, b field at point P, a large distance r along the 25. The maximum power delivered to axis of the disks is : resistance R is : P /2 r 12V R – (2) 0.4 W (4) 0.16 W R2 2R2 R2 R2 (1) 0.2 W (1) 0r3 (2) 0r3 (3) 40r3 (4) 20r3 (3) 0.8 W SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-8/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 26. The charge distribution along the 28. Choose the correct statement for the given semi-circular arc is non-uniform Charge capacitor arrangement. (All the 6 capacitor per unit length is given as = 0 sin , with measured as shown in figure.0 is a positive constant. The radius of arc is R. are of same capacitance). The electric field at the center P of semi-circular arc is E1. The value of 0 is :- A 0 E1 R R B D C P (1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2 27. The force-deformation equation for a nonlinear spring fixed at one end is F 4x1/ 2 , where F is the force (expressed (1) If a battery is connected across AB, all 6 capacitors get charged. in newtons) applied at the other end and x is the deformation expressed in meters. (2) If a battery is connected across AC, all (1) This spring mass system execute SHM. 6 capacitors get charged. (2) The deformation x0 if a 100 g block is (3) If a battery is connected across AD, all 6 capacitors get charged. suspended from the spring and is at rest is 0.625 m. (4) It is not possible to charge all the 6 (3) Assuming that the slope of the force- capacitors using single source. deformation curve at the point corresponding to the deformation x0 can be used as an equivalent spring constant, then the frequency of vibration of the block is 4 5 . 2 (4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-9/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 29. A uniform solid cylinder of mass M and 30. The diagrams below show the intensity radius R can freely rotate around its axis distribution in diffraction of light of two sources. In which of the following cases the O. There is a elastic string of relaxed length sources are just resolved? L and stiffness K attached to the cylinder and a static wall. Initially, the string is relaxed. As the cylinder starts rotating, the (1) string will wind the cylinder. The surface of cylinder is very rough, so that the string does not slip on the cylinder’s surface. The minimum initial angular speed of the cylinder, 0, so that it can rotate to angle (2) 2 is (Assume Hooke’s law to be valid.) R M O 0 K (3) L 82 K K (4) (1) (2) M M 2 K (4) None of these (3) M SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-10/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 PART B - CHEMISTRY 31. The hypothetical reaction : 2A + B C + D 35. The enthalpy of vapour is 10 kcal/mole higher is catalyzed by E as indicated in the possible than liquid at 350 K and 2 atm. Under given mechanism below - conditions, the difference in internal energy of vapour and liquid will be - Step-I : A + E AE (fast) Step-2 : AE + A A2 + E (slow) (1) 10700 cal. (2) –9300 cal. Step-3 : A2+ B D (fast) (3) 9300 cal. (4) –10700 cal. (2) A = 13, Z = 6 what rate law best agrees with this mechanism 36. In the decay, (1) r = k[A] [B] (2) r = k[A] [E] AZX 12C + + (3) r = k[A]2 [E] (4) r = k[A]2 [B] (1) A = 13, Z = 7 32. Calculate the percentage of hydrolysis in 0.01M (3) A = 12, Z = 7 (4) A = 12, Z = 6 aqueous solution of NaOCN 37. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding catalyst ? (Kb for OCN– = 10–10) (1) Does not alter, gibbs energy (G) of a (1) 0.1 (2) 0.01 (3) 0.0001 (4) None 33. 10 mole of ferric oxalate is oxidised by x mole reaction (2) The equilibrium position does not change of MnO4– in acidic medium. The value of 'x' is- in presence of a catalyst (1) 12 (2) 4 (3) It increases speed of both forward and (3) 40 (4) 18 backward reaction (4) Activation energy of reaction remain 34. A solution containing 200 ml 0.5 M KCl is mixed with 50 ml 19% w/v MgCl and resulting 2 solution is diluted 8 times. Molarity of chloride ion in final solution : unaltered. (1) 0.30 M (2) 0.15 M (3) 1.5 M (4) 3 M SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-11/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 38. For the reaction : 41. On treating a solid salt 'A' with dil. H2SO4, and warming, reddish brown fumes of gas NH3(g) 13 2 N2(g) + 2 H2(g) ; KP 'B' are evolved. Additon of 'C' to the salt The degree of dissociation () of NH3 is related solution of 'A' followed by freshly prepared to total equilibrium pressure (Pº) as : starch solution and acidification with acetic 1 acid produces blue colour. 'C' may contain :- 2 3 3 Pº (1) NO2– (2) NO3– (1) 1 4KP (3) I2 (4) I – 1 42. A pink colored salt on dry heating becomes 3 3 Pº 2 blue in colour. Salt may contain :- 1 4KP (2) (1) Cu2+ (2) Fe2+ 1 (3) Zn2+ (4) Co2+ (3) 3P0 2 43. Choose an INCORRECT match of colour 1 4Kp of compounds :- 3P0 1 (1) MnO(OH)2 White precipitate 1 4Kp 2 (2) K3[Co(NO2)6] Yellow precipitate (3) (NH4)3[As(Mo3O10)4] Yellow precipitate (4) 39. Internal energy of an ideal gas increase in- (4) (NH4)3[P(Mo3O10)4] Yellow precipitate 44. Choose the CORRECT statement :- (1) Adiabatic compression (2) Isothermal expansion (1) Arsenic, antimony and bismuth are not (3) Isobaric compression found mainly as sulphide minerals (4) Adiabatic expansion (2) Spontaneous combustion of white 40. A salt MX has Ksp = 4 × 10–10. What value of phosphorus is technically used in Holme's Ksp must another salt MX3 have if the molar signals solubility of the two salts is to be identical - (3) Polonium is the only element of group-16, (1) 3.2 × 10–10 (2) 1.024 × 10–19 which does not exhibit allotropy (3) 1.78 × 10–5 (4) 4.32 × 10–18 (4) Oxygen shows allotropy SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-12/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 45. Choose the CORRECT reason for fluorine 49. Portland cement contains :- being a stronger oxidising agent than (I) Ca2SiO4 (II) Ca3SiO5 chlorine :- (I) Low enthalpy of dissociation of F–F bond (III) Ca3Al2O6 (II) High hydration enthalpy of F– (1) I and II only (2) I and III only (III) Low atomisation enthalpy of F2 (3) II and III only (4) I, II and III (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) I and III only (4) Both I and II 50. Which d-block element is expected to have 46. Two students were given the task to highest enthalpy of atomisation, among the prepare an adduct NH3 BH3 at low following ? temperature :- Student I :- She mixed B2H6 and NH3 (1) Sc (2) Mn Student II :- He mixed B2H6 with THF (3) V (4) Zn followed by addition of NH3 – Which student is expected to get the 51. CH3–CHO dil. OH / CORRECT final product ? (1) I only (2) II only Major product formed in above reation is : (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II (1) H2C = C–CHO CH3 47. In removal of temporary hardness of a sample containing Ca, what is the number of moles of Ca(OH)2 used per mole of OH (2) CH3–CH–CH2–CHO Ca(HCO3)2 removed :- (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1/2 48. Maximum calorific value per gram of the (3) CH3–CH=CH–CHO fuel is of :- (2) H2(l) O (1) H2(g) (4) CH4 (4) CH3–C–O–CH2–CH3 (3) LPG SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-13/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 HO 55. The reaction giving incorrect major product 52. H2 (1 eq.) / Ni Cl COOH Major product of above reaction is : (1) (i) Mg / dry ether (ii) CO2 (iii) H+ O HO HO (2) Me–C N (i) MeMgBr Me–C–Me (1) (2) (ii) H3O+ Mg/dry ether HO (3) Cl Cl 1 eq. (3) (4) 53. Me–CC–CH2–COCl H2 / Pd-C (4) Cl Mg/dry ether Cl 1 eq. Me (2) 56. Compounds giving 2,4-DNP test is : (1) O Cl O (1) OH (2) (3) (4) CHO COCl (3) (4) 54. C2H2 CH3MgBr (A) (B) O OH excess OH OH OH OH salt hydrocarbon + 57. (A) Me–I (C) (i) NaNH2 (D) excess (ii) H+ OH C C CH3 O OH O H (1) Compound 'C' give Tollen's test (P) (Q) (R) (S) (2) Compound 'D' give Tollen's test Decide decreasing order of acidic nature (3) Compound 'B' is Ethane of above compound P, Q, R & S : (4) Compound 'D' is 1º-amine (1) P > Q > R > S (2) Q > R > S > P (3) R > Q > S > P (4) P > R > Q > S SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-14/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 58. Select the correct match among following : (1) OHC NO2 < CHO Cl Cl (3) > Cl > NO2 (Order of reactivity towards E –reaction) 2 (Order of dipole moment) (2) H3C Cl < CH3 Cl Cl (3) Cl (4) > Cl > (Order of boiling point) (Order of reactivity towards S 1-reaction) N < 60. Br (1) NaSH (l eq) (Order of heat of combustion) (2) NaOH Cl (4) F F The major product obtained in above F> F reaction is : (2) SH (Order of melting point) (1) 59. Select the incorrect order among following OH SH OH Cl (1) > Cl > (3) (4) Me Et O Cl O O SH OH S (Order of reactivity towards S 1-reaction) N Cl Cl (2) > Cl > (Order of reactivity towards E –reaction) 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-15/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 PART C - MATHEMATICS 61. If cot 2x tan x cosec kx , then the value 66. If n((e – 1)exy + x2) = x2 + y2, then dy 33 3 dx (1,0) of tan–1(tank) equals - is (1) 0 (1) 2 (2) 2 – (3) – 2 (4) 2 – 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4 62. Let are the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0. If a, b, c are in A.P. 67. 1 The value of eex (1 x.ex )dx is and = 15, then equals 0 (1) –21 (2) –29 (3) –31 (4) –39 (2) ee (3) ee – e (4) ee – 1 (1) e ƒ(x) 1 x; 0 x 1 2 68. If is the interior angle of a regular octagon, 1x2 then lim tan 1 is equal to (Note : 63. , ƒ(x)dx If 6)1 / 3 then (7x 0 ; is equal to [sin cos ] 55 31 1 31 [k] denotes greatest integer less than or (1) 42 (2) 12 (3) 42 (4) 21 equal to k) (1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) 2 64. Let ƒ(x) = x x x x....... (x > 0), then ƒ'(3) 69. Let ƒ(x) and g(x) be differentiable functions on R. If h(x) = ƒ(g(ƒ(x))), where ƒ(2) = 1, is equal to g(1) = 2 and ƒ'(2) = g'(1) = 4, then h'(2) is (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10 equal to - 65. Suppose ƒ '(x) ƒ(x) 0 , where ƒ(x) is (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 64 (4) 36 ƒ ''(x) ƒ '(x) continuously differentiable function with ƒ'(x) 0 and satisfy ƒ(0) = 1 and ƒ'(0) = 2, 70. The value of 3k2 3k 1 is equal to k1 (k2 k)3 then the number of solution(s) of equation ƒ(x) = x2 is equal to - 1 1 1 (4) 1 (1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-16/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 74. Let ƒ(x) = Ax3 – Bx – tanx.sgn(x) be an 71.If1 ƒ(x))ƒ(x)dx 4 , then the area of even function x R – (2n 1) , n I , 2 (4x3 07 region bounded by y = ƒ(x), x-axis and 1 ordinate x = 1 and x = 2, is - where A = sin2 – sin + 4 17 15 and B tan2 2 tan 1 , then the (1) (2) 33 2 2 13 11 number of value(s) of in 3 ,2 is - (3) 2 (4) 2 2 (where sgnx denotes signum function of x) 72. The general solution y(x) of the differential (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4 y 75. Let sec1[ sin2 x]dx ƒ(x) C , (valid x 0) d dt where [k] denotes greatest integer less than equation x x , is or equal to k and ƒ(0) = 0, then the value of dy 8 x ƒ at x = 2 is (where () dash denotes (1) y = n|1 – x| + C (2) y = –n|1 – x| + C the derivative) (3) y = –n|1 + x| + C (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16 (4) y = n|1 + x| + C n 73. 2 k 1 (Note : C is constant of integration) If the equation tan4x – 2sec2x + [a]2 = 0 has 76. The sum n1 cot1 k 1 is equal to atleast one solution, then the complete range 3 of 'a' (where a R) is - (Note : [k] denotes greatest integer less than (1) 3 cot1 2 (2) cot1 3 or equal to k) 4 2 (1) [–1, 1] (2) [–2, 1] (3) (4) tan1 2 (3) [–1, 2) (4) [–2, 2) 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-17/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 77. Let ƒ(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx + d, 0 < b2 < c, 81. Which of the following is injective but not then ƒ surjective ? (1) is bounded (1) ƒ : N N, ƒ(x) = 2x + 3 (2) has a local maxima 4x 3 (3) has a local minima (2) ƒ : R R, ƒ(x) = 5 (4) is strictly increasing (3) ƒ : R R, ƒ(x) = x3 – x e (4) ƒ : R R, ƒ(x) = n(|x| + 1) A function ƒ satisfies the relation Pn (nx)n dx , then 1 78. For n N, let 82. (P10 – 90P8) is equal to ƒ(x) = ƒ(x) + ƒ(x) + ....... where ƒ(x) is a differentiable function indefinitely. If (1) 10e (2) –9e ƒ(1) = 5, then the value of ƒ(1) + ƒ(1) is (3) –9 (4) 10 equal to 79. The variance of 20 observation is 5. If each (1) 0 (2) –5 observation is multiplied by 2, then the new (3) 5 (4) cannot be determined variance of the resulting observations, is 83. Let g(x) = ||x + 2| – 3|. If 'a' denotes the (1) 5 (2) 10 number of relative minima, 'b' denotes the (3) 20 (4) 40 number of relative maxima and 'c' denotes 80. A flag-staff 5m high stands on a building of the product of the zeroes of g(x), then the height 25m . At an observer who is at height value of (a + 2b – c) is - of 30m, the flag-staff and the building (1) –1 (2) –2 (3) 8 (4) 9 subtend equal angles. The distance of the observer from the top of the flag staff is - 84. Let b1, b2,......, bn be a geometric sequence (1) 5 3 (2) 5 3 2 2 such that b1 + b2 = 1 and bk 2 . Given k 1 that b2 < 0, then the value of b1 is (3) 5 2 (4) none of these (1) 2 2 (2) 1 2 3 (3) 2 2 (4) 4 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-18/20 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 85. For the primitive integral equation 89. The set of values of 'a' such that ydx + y2dy = xdy; x R, y > 0, y = y(x), y(1) = 1, x2 – 2ax + a2 – 6a < 0 in [1, 2] is - then y(–3) is - (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 5 (1) [4 15, 4 15] 86. The number of solutions that the equation sin5cos3 = sin9cos7 has in 0, is (2) [5 21, 4 15] 4 (3) [5 21, 5 21] (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 87. If n arithmetic means a1,a2,......an are (4) [4 15, 5 21] inserted between 50 and 100 and n harmonic 90. Statement-1 : ~(p ~q) is equivalent to means h1, h2, ...... hn are inserted between p q. the same two numbers, then a2hn–1 is equal to Statement-2 : ~(p ~q) is a tautology. (1) 5000 10000 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) n Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1. (3) 10000 250 (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) n Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. 88. If the difference between the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 is equal to the difference between the roots of the equation (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False. (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True. x2 + bx + a = 0 (a b), then - (1) a + b = 4 (2) a + b = –4 (3) a – b = 4 (4) a – b = –4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1001CT103516018 E-19/20

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK E-20/20 1001CT103516018

Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CT103516018 HINDI CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2016 - 2017) JEE (Main + Advanced) : LEADER COURSE PHASE-III to VII (SCORE-I) Test Type : PART TEST Test Pattern : JEE-Main TEST DATE : 11 - 03 - 2017 PAPER – 2 Important Instructions Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. 1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the 1. Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. 2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 3. 3 4. 90 360 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum 5. A,B,C 30 marks are 360. 4 5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics 6. having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. 7. 6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 8. 7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side 2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 9. 8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, 10. printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room. 11. 9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/ Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2017 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING PART A - PHYSICS 1. The diagram below shows electric field 1. lines in a region of space. Which of the X Y following diagrams best shows the variation XYV d with distance d of the potential V along the line XY as we move from X to Y ? XP Y XP Y V V V V (1) (2) (1) (2) XP Yd XP Yd XP Yd XP Yd V V V V (3) (4) (3) (4) XP Yd X P Yd XP Yd X P Yd 1001CT103516018 H-1/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 2. A strange cat with a mass mc is sitting at 2. mc rest on the left plank of a pair of identical planks. Each plank has mass ms and they rest on frictionless ice. Suddenly, the cat ms leaps to the right plank, traveling with a horizontal speed vcg measured with respect vcg to the ground. The instant the cat reaches the right plank, it turns around and leaps back to the left plank. The horizontal component of the cat’s speed is again vcg vcg measured with respect to the ground. The final speed of right plank in terms of the masses of the cat and planks and the cat’s ) leaping speed is (The cat remains on the left plank after its return). V Vcg cg V Vcg cg 2mc vcg 2mc vcg 2mc v cg 2mc v cg (1) ms mc (2) ms (1) ms mc (2) ms mc v cg mc v cg mc v cg mc vcg (3) ms mc (4) ms (3) ms mc (4) ms H-2/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 3. A slider block A moves downward at a 3. A vA= 2 m/s speed of vA = 2 m/s, at an angle of 75° with horizontal as shown in the figure. 75° The velocity with respect to A of the CD BA portion of belt B between ideal pulleys vCD/A = 2 m/s = 15° CD C and D is vCD/A = 2 m/s at an angle with the horizontal. The magnitude of velocity of portion CD of the belt when = 15° is : D D B B C C A 75° A 75° (1) 2 3m / s (2) 10m / s (1) 2 3m / s (2) 10m / s (3) 2 2m / s (4) 2 m/s (3) 2 2m / s (4) 2 m/s 1001CT103516018 H-3/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 4. A cube with sides of length 2a and mass M 4. 2aM is moving with an initial speed v0 along a v0 frictionless table. When the cube reaches the end of the table it is caught abruptly by a short lip and begins to rotate. The minimum speed v0 such that the cube falls v0 off the table is :- 2a short lip 2a short lip M v0 M v0 (1) 16ag( 2 1) (2) 16ag( 2 1) (1) 16ag( 2 1) (2) 16ag( 2 1) 3 3 (3) ag 2 1 (4)ag (3) ag 2 1 (4)ag 3 2 1 3 2 1 5. Consider the configuration of a system of 5. +q four charges each of value +q. The work (1) done by external agent in changing the (2) configuration of the system from figure (1) to figure (2) is : +q +q +q +q +q +q a +q a a +q a +q +q +q a +q +q +q a +q +q Figure (1) Figure (2) Figure (1) Figure (2) (1) kq2 (3 2 ) (2) kq2 (3 2) (1) kq2 (3 2) (2) kq2 (3 2) a a a a (3) kq2 (3 2 ) (4) kq2 (3 2) (3) kq2 (3 2 ) (4) kq2 (3 2) a a a a H-4/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 6. Two cars, both of mass m, collide and stick 6. m together. Prior to the collision, one car had 2 v been traveling north at speed 2v, while the second was traveling at speed v at an angle v south of east (as indicated in the figure). The magnitude of the velocity of the two car system immediately after the collision is :- v N v N 2v 2v E E (1) v 5 4 sin v 4 5sin (1) v 5 4 sin v 4 5sin (2) 2 (2) 2 v 5 4 sin (4) v 4 5 sin v 5 4 sin (4) v 4 5 sin (3) (3) 2 2 1001CT103516018 H-5/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 7. Two particles of mass m are constrained 7. m to move along two horizontal frictionless 2 rails that make an angle 2 with respect to each other. They are connected by a spring k with spring constant k. The angular frequency of small oscillations for the motion where the two masses always stay parallel to each other (that is the distance between the meeting point of the rails and each particle is equal) is :- k k mm mm 2 2 2k (2) 2k sin 2k (2) 2k sin (1) m m (1) m m (3) 2k cos (4) k sin (3) 2k cos (4) k sin m 2m m 2m H-6/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 8. A mass m, travelling at speed V0 in a 8. V0 straight line from far away is deflected m when it passes near a black hole of mass M RM which is at a perpendicular distance R from the original line of flight. a, the distance of closest approach between the mass and the black hole is given by the relation : a m m V0 V0 R a R M a M 2GM 1/2 1/2 R 1 (1) a = (1) a = 2GM R 1 aV02 aV02 R 1 aV02 1 / 2 R 1 aV02 1 / 2 2GM 2GM (2) a = (2) a = R 1 GM 1/ 2 R 1 GM 1/ 2 2aV02 2aV02 (3) a = (3) a = 2GM 1/2 (4) a = R 1 2GM 1/2 R1 (4) a = aV02 aV02 1001CT103516018 H-7/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 9. The escape speed of an electron launched 9. 1cm 10nC from the surface of a glass sphere of diameter 1 cm that has been charged to x×107m/sec x 10 nC is x × 107 m/sec. The value of x is : (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12 (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12 10. A problem of practical interest is to make 10. 90º a beam of electrons turn at 90º corner. This can be done with the electric field present between the parallel plates as shown in the figure. An electron with kinetic energy 8.0 × 10–17 J 8.0 × 10–17 J enters through a small hole in the bottom plate. The strength of electric field that is needed if the electron is to 1.0cm emerge from an exit hole 1.0cm away from the entrance hole, traveling at right angles y × 105 N/Cy: to its original direction is y × 105 N/C. The value of y is : d 1cm 1cm (2) 8 Electrons d (3) 10 Electrons (1) 4 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 1 H-8/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 11. Three identical uncharged metal spheres 11. are at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. One at a time, a small sphere is connected by a conducting wire with a large metal sphere that is charged. The center of the large sphere is in the straight line perpendicular to the plane of equilateral triangle and passing through its q1q2(q2<q1) centre (see figure). As a result, the first small sphere acquires charge q1 and second q3 charge q2 (q2 < q1). The charge that the third ( >> R, >> r, d >> R, d >> r sphere q3 will acquire is : (Assume >> R, >> r, d >> R, d >> r) RQ RQ d r q3 d r r d q3 q1 r d q1 d q2 r d q2 r (1) q12 (2) q 2 (1) q12 (2) q 22 q2 2 q2 q1 q1 (3) q1q2 (4) q1 q2 (3) q1q2 (4) q1 q2 2 2 1001CT103516018 H-9/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 12. The electric flux passing through the cube 12. for the given arrangement of charges placed :- at the corners of the cube (as shown in the figure) is : +1C –2C +1C –2C –4C +3C –4C +3C –6C +7C –6C +7C +5C –8C +5C –8C a a 1 1 1 (2) 1 (1) 2 0 2 0 (1) 2 0 2 0 (2) 1 1 (3) 1 1 (3) 0 (4) 0 (4) 0 0 13. In the following transistor circuit Ri is the 13. Ri R0 input resistance, R0 is the output resistance. The approximate voltage gain :- for the circuit is :- Ii E pnp C IL Ii E pnp IL C + + + + Vi=200mV Vi=200mV B Ri B R0 R – – 20 100k Ri R0 R 5k VL 5k VL 20 100k – – (1) 50 (2) 250 (3) 150 (4) 100 (1) 50 (2) 250 (3) 150 (4) 100 H-10/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 14. An unpolarized light is incident from air 14. µ on the boundary of a denser medium having ip refractive index µ at polarizing angle ip. Which of the following is correct? (1) The reflected beam is completely (1) polarized (2) The reflected beam is perpendicular to (2) the incident beam (3) sin ip = µ (3) The angle of incidence ip is given as sin ip = µ (4) (4) The refracted beam is completely polarized 15. The following graph shows the response of 15. T1,T2,T3 magnetization M of paramagnetic material H to the applied magnetic field strength H M for three different temperatures T1,T2,T3 M M T1 T1 T2 T2 T3 T3 H H Which of the following is correct? (1) T1 < T2 < T3 (2) T3 > T1 > T2 (3) T2 > T3 > T1 (4) T1 > T2 > T3 (1) T1 < T2 < T3 (2) T3 > T1 > T2 (3) T2 > T3 > T1 (4) T1 > T2 > T3 1001CT103516018 H-11/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 16. The total maximum transmitted power in 16. amplitude modulation if the carrier output 1kW power is 1 kW is : (1) 1.5kW (2) 250W (1) 1.5kW (2) 250W (3) 500W (4) 1kW (3) 500W (4) 1kW 17. A cube of mass m slides down an inclined 17. m right-angle trough. If the coefficient of µk kinetic friction between the cube and the :- trough is µk, then the acceleration of the block is : Front view Front view (1) g sin k cos (1) g sin k cos (2) 2g sin k cos (2) 2g sin k cos (3) 1 g sin cos (3) 1 g sin k cos 2 2 k (4) g sin k 2 cos (4) g sin k 2 cos H-12/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 18. A stick has its bottom end attached to a 18. wall by a pivot and is held up by a massless string attached to its other end. Which of the following scenarios has the smallest tension in the string ? (Length of stick is same in all scenarios). string string string string (2) stick (2) stick (1) (1) stick stick string stick(3) stick stick string string string (3) stick (4) (4) 19. The left end of a massless stick with length 19. is placed on the corner of a table, as shown m in Fig. A point mass m is attached to the center of the stick, which is initially held horizontal. It is then released. Immediately afterward, what normal force does the table exert on the stick? m m (1) 0 (2) mg/6 (3) mg/2 (4) mg (1) 0 (2) mg/6 (3) mg/2 (4) mg 1001CT103516018 H-13/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 20. A heap of rope with mass density 20. (per unit length) lies on a table. You grab one end and pull horizontally with constant speed v, as shown in figure. (Assume that v the rope has no friction with itself in the heap.) The force that you must apply to v maintain the constant speed v is :- heap v heap v (1) v2 (1) v2 (2) v2 (2) v2 (3) g, where is the length that you have (3) g, pulled straight v2 v2 (4) (4) 2 2 21. A mass hangs from a spring and oscillates 21. vertically. The top end of the spring is attached to the top of a box, and the box is placed on a scale, as shown in the figure. The reading on the scale is largest when the mass is scale scale (1) At its maximum height (1) (2) At its minimum height (2) (3) At the midpoint of its motion (3) (4) All points give the same reading. (4) H-14/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 22. A parallel-plate capacitor consists of a fixed 22. plate and a movable plate that is allowed to slide in the direction parallel to the plates. Let x be the distance of overlap, as x shown in the figure. The separation between the plates is fixed. Assume that ±Q the plates are electrically isolated, so that their charges ±Q are constant. Force on the :- movable plate is proportional to :- (Movable) (Movable) (Fixed) (Fixed) x x (1) x–2 (2) x–1 (3) x0 (4) x (1) x–2 (2) x–1 (3) x0 (4) x 23. Two parallel disks each having radius R are 23. R separated by a distance . The surface – charge densities are and –. The electric r field at point P, a large distance r along the P:- axis of the disks is : PP /2 r /2 r – – R2 2R2 R2 R2 R2 2R2 R2 R2 (1) 0r3 (2) 0r3 (3) 40r3 (4) 20r3 (1) 0r3 (2) 0r3 (3) 40r3 (4) 20r3 1001CT103516018 H-15/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 24. Four lamps are connected in the way 24. S2 shown in the figure. When switch S2 is open and switch S1 is on position-2, lamp-b is the S1 –2-b brightest, and lamp-c and lamp-d are the -c -d dimmest and are of the same brightness. S2 Now S2 is closed and S1 is on position-1, the S 1 -1 sequence in brightness of the lamps is (with the first in the sequence being the brightest) b S2 c b S2 c a a 2 2 1 S1 1 S1 d d (1) c, d, b, a (2) a, d, b, c (1) c, d, b, a (2) a, d, b, c (3) a, b, c, d (4) a, d, c, b (3) a, b, c, d (4) a, d, c, b 25. The maximum power delivered to 25. R resistance R is : : 12V R 12V R (1) 0.2 W (2) 0.4 W (1) 0.2 W (2) 0.4 W (3) 0.8 W (4) 0.16 W (3) 0.8 W (4) 0.16 W H-16/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 26. The charge distribution along the 26. semi-circular arc is non-uniform Charge per unit length is given as = 0 sin , = 0 sin with measured as shown in figure.0 is a positive constant. The radius of arc is R. 0 R The electric field at the center P of PE1 semi-circular arc is E1. The value of 0 0 is :- 0 E1 R 0 E1 R R R P P (1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2 (1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2 27. The force-deformation equation for a 27. nonlinear spring fixed at one end is F 4x1/ 2 F x F 4x1/ 2 , where F is the force (expressed in newtons) applied at the other end and x is the deformation expressed in meters. (1) This spring mass system execute SHM. (1) (2) The deformation x0 if a 100 g block is (2) 100 g suspended from the spring and is at rest x00.625 m is 0.625 m. (3) x0 (3) Assuming that the slope of the force- deformation curve at the point corresponding to the deformation x0 can 45 be used as an equivalent spring constant, then the frequency of vibration 2 of the block is 4 5 . 2 (4) (4) None of these 1001CT103516018 H-17/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 28. Choose the correct statement for the given 28. capacitor arrangement. (All the 6 capacitor 6 are of same capacitance). AA B D B D C C (1) If a battery is connected across AB, all (1) AB 6 capacitors get charged. 6 (2) If a battery is connected across AC, all (2) AC 6 capacitors get charged. 6 (3) If a battery is connected across AD, all (3) AD 6 capacitors get charged. 6 (4) It is not possible to charge all the 6 (4) 6 capacitors using single source. H-18/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 29. A uniform solid cylinder of mass M and 29. M R radius R can freely rotate around its axis O O. There is a elastic string of relaxed length LK L and stiffness K attached to the cylinder and a static wall. Initially, the string is relaxed. As the cylinder starts rotating, the string will wind the cylinder. The surface of cylinder is very rough, so that the string does not slip on the cylinder’s surface. The minimum initial angular speed of the 02 cylinder, 0, so that it can rotate to angle 2 is (Assume Hooke’s law to be valid.) R R M O 0 M O 0 K K L L 82 K K 82 K K (1) (2) (1) (2) M M M M 2 K (4) None of these 2 K (3) (3) (4) M M 1001CT103516018 H-19/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 30. The diagrams below show the intensity 30. distribution in diffraction of light of two sources. In which of the following cases the sources are just resolved? (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) H-20/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 PART B - CHEMISTRY 31. The hypothetical reaction : 2A + B C + D 31. :2A + B C + D is catalyzed by E as indicated in the possible E mechanism below : - Step-I : A + E AE (fast) -I : A + E AE () Step-2 : AE + A A2 + E (slow) -2 : AE + A A2 + E () Step-3 : A2+ B D (fast) -3 : A2+ B D () what rate law best agrees with this mechanism (1) r = k[A] [B] (2) r = k[A] [E] (1) r = k[A] [B] (2) r = k[A] [E] (3) r = k[A]2 [E] (4) r = k[A]2 [B] (3) r = k[A]2 [E] (4) r = k[A]2 [B] 32. Calculate the percentage of hydrolysis in 0.01M 32. NaOCN 0.01M aqueous solution of NaOCN (Kb for OCN– = 10–10) (OCN– Kb = 10–10 ) (1) 0.1 (2) 0.01 (1) 0.1 (2) 0.01 (3) 0.0001 (4) None (3) 0.0001 (4) 33. 10 mole of ferric oxalate is oxidised by x mole 33. 10 MnO4– of MnO4– in acidic medium. The value of 'x' is- x x (1) 12 (2) 4 (1) 12 (2) 4 (3) 40 (4) 18 (3) 40 (4) 18 34. A solution containing 200 ml 0.5 M KCl is mixed 34. 200 ml 0.5 M KCl with 50 ml 19% w/v MgCl2 and resulting solution 50 ml 19% w/v MgCl2 is diluted 8 times. Molarity of chloride ion in final 8 solution : (1) 0.30 M (3) 1.5 M (2) 0.15 M (1) 0.30 M (2) 0.15 M (4) 3 M (3) 1.5 M (4) 3 M 1001CT103516018 E-21/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 35. The enthalpyof vapour is 10 kcal/mole higher than 35. 350 K 2a tm liquid at 350 K and 2 atm. Under given conditions, 10 kcal/mole the difference ininternalenergyofvapour and liquid - will be - (1) 10700 cal. (2) –9300 cal. (1) 10700 cal. (2) –9300 cal. (3) 9300 cal. (4) –10700 cal. (3) 9300 cal. (4) –10700 cal. (2) A = 13, Z = 6 (2) A = 13, Z = 6 36. In the decay, 36. AZX 12C + + AZX 12C + + (1) A = 13, Z = 7 (1) A = 13, Z = 7 (3) A = 12, Z = 7 (4) A = 12, Z = 6 (3) A = 12, Z = 7 (4) A = 12, Z = 6 37. Which of the following statement is incorrect 37. regarding catalyst ? (1) (G) (1) Does not alter, gibbs energy (G) of a (2) reaction (2) The equilibrium position does not change in presence of a catalyst (3) (3) It increases speed of both forward and backward reaction (4) (4) Activation energy of reaction remain unaltered. E-22/39 1001CT103516018

38. For the reaction : Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 38. : NH3(g) 13 NH3(g) 13 2 N2(g) + 2 H2(g) ; KP 2 N2(g) + 2 H2(g) ; KP The degree of dissociation () of NH3 is related NH3 () to total equilibrium pressure (Pº) as : (Pº) : 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 3 Pº 3 3 Pº 2 3 3 Pº 3 3 Pº 2 (1) 1 4KP (2) 1 4K P 1 4K P 1 4K P (1) (2) 1 1 1 1 2 3P0 2 3P0 2 3P0 2 3P0 1 4Kp 4Kp 1 4Kp 1 4Kp (3) (4) 1 (3) (4) 39. Internal energy of an ideal gas increase in- 39. - (1) Adiabatic compression (1) (2) Isothermal expansion (2) (3) Isobaric compression (3) (4) Adiabatic expansion (4) 40. A salt MX has Ksp = 4 × 10–10. What value of 40. MX Ksp = 4 × 10–10 Ksp must another salt MX3 have if the molar MX3 K sp solubility of the two salts is to be identical - - (1) 3.2 × 10–10 (2) 1.024 × 10–19 (1) 3.2 × 10–10 (2) 1.024 × 10–19 (3) 1.78 × 10–5 (4) 4.32 × 10–18 (3) 1.78 × 10–5 (4) 4.32 × 10–18 1001CT103516018 E-23/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 41. On treating a solid salt 'A' with dil. H2SO4, 41. 'A ' H2SO4 and warming, reddish brown fumes of gas 'B' 'B' are evolved. Additon of 'C' to the salt 'A' 'C' solution of 'A' followed by freshly prepared starch solution and acidification with acetic 'C' acid produces blue colour. 'C' may contain :- :- (1) NO2– (2) NO3– (1) NO2– (2) NO3– (3) I2 (4) I– (3) I2 (4) I– 42. A pink colored salt on dry heating becomes 42. blue in colour. Salt may contain :- :- (1) Cu2+ (2) Fe2+ (1) Cu2+ (2) Fe2+ (3) Zn2+ (4) Co2+ (3) Zn2+ (4) Co2+ 43. Choose an INCORRECT match of colour of 43. :- compounds :- (1) MnO(OH)2 (1) MnO(OH)2 White precipitate (2) K3[Co(NO2)6] (2) K3[Co(NO2)6] Yellow precipitate (3) (NH4)3[As(Mo3O10)4] (3) (NH4)3[As(Mo3O10)4] Yellow precipitate (4) (NH4)3[P(Mo3O10)4] (4) (NH4)3[P(Mo3O10)4] Yellow precipitate 44. Choose the CORRECT statement :- 44. :- (1) Arsenic, antimony and bismuth are not (1) found mainly as sulphide minerals (2) Spontaneous combustion of white (2) phosphorus is technically used in Holme's signals (3) -16 , (3) Polonium is the only element of group-16, which does not exhibit allotropy (4) (4) Oxygen shows allotropy E-24/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 45. Choose the CORRECT reason for fluorine 45. being a stronger oxidising agent than :- chlorine :- (I) F–F (I) Low enthalpy of dissociation of F–F bond (II) F– (II) High hydration enthalpy of F– (III) F2 (III) Low atomisation enthalpy of F2 (1) I (2) II (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) I and III only (4) Both I and II (3) I III (4) I II 46. Two students were given the task to prepare 46. NH3BH3 an adduct NH3 BH3 at low temperature :- :- Student I :- She mixed B2H6 and NH3 I :- B2H6 N H3 Student II :- He mixed B2H6 with THF II :- B2H6 THF followed by addition of NH3 NH3 Which student is expected to get the CORRECT final product ? ? (1) I only (2) II only (1) I (2) II (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II (3) I II (4) I II 47. In removal of temporary hardness of a 47. Ca sample containing Ca, what is the number Ca (HCO3)2 of moles of Ca(OH)2 used per mole of Ca(OH)2 :- Ca(HCO3)2 removed :- (1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1/2 (3) 3 (4) 1/2 48. Maximum calorific value per gram of the 48. fuel is of :- :- (1) H2(g) (2) H2(l) (1) H2(g) (2) H2(l) (3) LPG (4) CH4 (3) LPG (4) CH4 1001CT103516018 E-25/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 49. Portland cement contains :- 49. :- (I) Ca2SiO4 (II) Ca3SiO5 (I) Ca2SiO4 (II) Ca3SiO5 (III) Ca3Al2O6 (III) Ca3Al2O6 (1) I and II only (2) I and III only (2) I III (3) II and III only (4) I, II and III (1) I II (4) I, II III (3) II III 50. Which d-block element is expected to have 50. d- highest enthalpy of atomisation, among the ? following ? (2) Mn (1) Sc (2) Mn (1) Sc (3) V (4) Zn (3) V (4) Zn – – 51. CH3–CHO dil. OH / 51. CH3–CHO dil. OH / Major product formed in above reation is : (1) H2C = C–CHO (1) H2C = C–CHO CH3 CH3 OH OH (2) CH3–CH–CH2–CHO (2) CH3–CH–CH2–CHO (3) CH3–CH=CH–CHO (3) CH3–CH=CH–CHO O O (4) CH3–C–O–CH2–CH3 (4) CH3–C–O–CH2–CH3 E-26/39 1001CT103516018

Leader Course/Phase-III to VII/Score-I/11-03-2017/Paper-2 HO H2 (1 eq.) / Ni HO H2 (1 eq.) / Ni 52. 52. Major product of above reaction is : HO HO HO HO (1) (2) (1) (2) HO (4) HO (4) (3) (3) 53. Me–CC–CH2–COCl H2 / Pd-C 53. Me–CC–CH2–COCl H2 / Pd-C Me Cl Me (2) Cl (1) (1) (2) O O (3) (4) (3) (4) CHO COCl CHO COCl 54. C2H2 CH3MgBr (A) (B) 54. C2H2 CH3MgBr (A) (B) excess excess salt hydrocarbon salt hydrocarbon + + (A) Me–I (C) (i) NaNH2 (D) (A) Me–I (C) (i) NaNH2 (D) excess (ii) H+ excess (ii) H+ (1) Compound 'C' give Tollen's test (1) 'C' (2) Compound 'D' give Tollen's test (2) 'D' , (3) Compound 'B' is Ethane (3) 'B' , (4) Compound 'D' is 1º-amine (4) 'D' , 1º- 1001CT103516018 E-27/39

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2017/11-03-2017/Paper-2 55. The reaction giving incorrect major product 55. Cl COOH Cl COOH (1) (i) Mg / dry ether (1) (i) Mg / dry ether (ii) CO2 (ii) CO2 (iii) H+ (iii) H+ O (2) Me–C N (i) MeMgBr Me–C–Me (i) MeMgBr O (ii) H3O+ (ii) H3O+ Me–C–Me (2) Me–C N (3) Cl Mg/dry ether (3) Cl Mg/dry ether Cl 1 eq. Cl 1 eq. (4) Cl Mg/dry ether (4) Cl Mg/dry ether Cl 1 eq. Cl 1 eq. 56. Compounds giving 2,4-DNP test is : 56. 2,4-DNP O O (1) OH (2) (1) OH (2) (3) O (4) OH (3) O (4) OH OH OH OH OH OH OH OH OH 57. 57. OH C C CH3 OH C C CH3 (P) O OH OH (S) (P) O OH OH (S) (Q) (R) (Q) (R) Decide decreasing order of acidic nature P,Q, R S of above compound P, Q, R & S : (1) P > Q > R > S (2) Q > R > S > P (1) P > Q > R > S (2) Q > R > S > P (3) R > Q > S > P (4) P > R > Q > S (3) R > Q > S > P (4) P > R > Q > S E-28/39 1001CT103516018

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