JEE-Physics x () 15 (iii) v=–4 (96) sin sin (96t) f = f' v vs f0 v vs v v vs at x = 7.5 cm, t = 0.25 sec 1 1 v = –4 × 96 sin 7.5 sin 9 6 =0 Beat frequency ( ) 15 4 x f = f0 v vs –f 256 330 5 256 (iv) Y = 4 sin 15 cos (96 t) v vs 0 330 5 = 7.87 Hz 2 sin x 96 t + 2sin x 9 6 t v vw v0 3 40 10 10 15 15 v vw 340 10 22. f = f 7 00 observer 0 = 680 Hz B 4000 106 14. v 2000 m / s 1000 v 330 v S 1 8 0 330 60 220Hz 23. f = f v 0 24. f1 = f v 440 330 484Hz 1 5 . 2 =1 = 2m 0 20 v v S 330 1.5 v = f = 2.53 × 103 × 2 = 5.06 × 103 m/s 16. Let the pipe resonates in nth & (n+1)th harmonic f= f v 440 330 403.3Hz 0 vS 20 (n(n+1)) 2 v 330 1.5 (n+1) 1944 = n(2592) v v 324 f0 v 3 25. f = f v v S v S n = 4 L = 1296 = 0.25 m 0 18. F > F pipe 330 330 string 3 340 330 v 330 vS v= 1.5m/s S F =2 T T S string 2L 4 1 0 2 = 40 T 2 6 . Frequency received by subnarine () v 320 F= 200 Hz pipe 4 0.4 v f= f1 f0 v v s 40 T 200 8 T = 27.04 N 1 1 9 . f = 305 – 300 = 5Hz Frequency reflected by subrnarine, (i) Total beats produced in 5s = 5 × 5 = 25 () (5) f =f v vs f0 v vs = 140 1450 100 2 1 v v vs 1450 100 (ii) Time interval in which max intensity becomes Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 = 45.93 kHz minimum ( )=12 1 1 1 0.1 sec 1gm 103 kg f 2 5 2 7 . = = 10–4 kg/m, T = 64 N 10cm 0.1m 2 0 . The frequency of B < frequency of A T v 1 64 (B<A ) v= f = 2L 104 = 5 × 8× 100 0 2 0.1 f – f = 5 427 – f = 5 f = 422 Hz = 4000 m/s v – v = 1 AB BB string fork 21. Frequency reaching the wall f1 ' f0 v 300 300 () v v s 4000 – 4000 v 1 v = 0.073 m/s Frequency received by the observer 75
JEE-Physics v vw EXERCISE –IV (B) vw 2 8 . (i) f = f v v Hill 0 s v v 1. f = f 0 v v 0 max s 1200 40 = 580 1200 40 40 = 599 Hz 5 vsound = 1240km/h 340 2 6 = 34 0 340 10 3 (ii) t1 = 438.7 Hz 1240 t = 1 t = 1 hr v v0 340 60 v vs 340 30 1 1 1240 f = f 3 40 = 257.3 Hz min 0 where t = time the sound to reach the hill 1 (t =) 1 2 . I = 4I0cos2 where = (1 – 2)t = 103t Let t = time for the echo to reach the train (2t = ) (i) For successive maxima 2 () v = speed of echo ( ) echo = 1200 – 40 = 1160 km/hr 2 t = 10 =6.28 × 10–3 sec v + v = d – v t train echo train 1 40 1200 (ii) For detection of sound () (40 + 1160) t = 1 – 1240 1240 2A2 = 4A2cos2 2 1 cos = ± 1 , t2 1240 hr 2 44 Distance from the hill where echo reaches 4 2 the train 103t = 2 () = d–v(t + t )=1– 40 2 =0.935 km t = 103 1.57 103 s 2 12 1240 Frequency reaching the hill 3. Frequency reaching the wall f' = f v () () 1 0 v v b v vw Frequency reaching the motorist after reflection vw v t f' = f v from wall ( 1 0 Frequency of echo () ) f = f' v vw vt f =f ' v v m = f v vm Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 v v w 1 1 v v vb 1 1 0 v vw v vw vt Frequency directly reaching the motorist vw v vw f0 v v () t 1240 1200 f = f v vm = 580 × = 620 Hz 0 v vb 1200 1160 2 v vs Beat frequency ( ) v vs 29. f= f = f 2v o 2 guard o f = f –f = f (v + v) v b 2 0 m b 12 v 76
JEE-Physics 4 . (i) For the particle P (P) 6 . For air () y v y 20 3 v( 3) 1 = L1 1 = 2L t x 2 1 v =–20 cm/s v = 330 v = f 330 = 500 (2L ) (along negative x-axis) 1 1 1 (x-) L = 33 cm (ii) Equation of wave ( ) 1 y = A sin (t + kx + ) For CO (CO ) 2 L2 22 4 2 = 4L , v = 264 2 2 v = f 264 = 500 (4L ) 22 2 at t =0, x = 0, y = 2 2 , A= 4 L = 13.2 cm. 2 7. (i) = v 330 = 1.65 m, d 4 = 2.4242 4 = 2 2 sin = 4 , = 5.5 – 1.5 = 4 cm f 200 1.65 f = v 20cm / s 5Hz At infinity, path difference = 0 4cm () 10t x As the man approaches, the path difference changes as 2 4 y = 4 sin () (iii) Energy carried in one wavelength 0, , , 3 ,2 22 () Hence only minima will appear to the man. 1 E = A22 () 2 1 50 (4 102 )2 (10)2 4 (ii)For = d2 x 12 x1 and 3 d2 x 2 x2 2 2 2 2 1000 100 x = 9.28 m , x = 1.99 m 12 = 162 × 10–5 J 5. Amplitude of reflected wave () 9 . 2 x = 20cm 10 L 100 (i) Total no of wavelength = 5 k k1 25 50 20 A= A k 2 k1 2 25 50 10 3 () r i 2 = 0.667 × 10–3 = 6.67× 10–4 Number of loops formed = 2 × 5 =10 Amplitude of transmitted wave () () 5 Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 (ii) Maximum displacement at x = 3 (x) At 2k1 Ai 2 50 2 103 A = 6 sin 5 = 3cm k1 k2 50 25 10 3 = 2.67 × 10–3 Equation of reflected wave x (iii) y = 6 sin 10 cos (100 t) () = 6 sin (10 x) cos (100 t) y = 6.67 × 10–4 cos (2x + 50 t) v = 6 sin(10 x) sin (100 t) m/s r Equation of transmited wave () 11 14 6 sin(10x) 2 dx 0 2 v2dx 20 = KE max y = 2.67 × 10–3 cos (x – 50t) t 77
JEE-Physics T 100 10 EXERCISE –V-A where ==0.4 KE = 36J 10 max 1. The fundamental frequency for an open pipe is x () (iv) y = 6 sin 10 cos (100t) = y + y fv 1 2 y =3sin x 100t , y = 3 sin x 100t ; 2 l 1 10 2 10 2 l 1 0 . (i) Combination of waves producing standing v (ii) wave : Z + Z fopen 2 12 () Combination of waves prodcuing a wave 4 travelling along x = y line :Z + Z open pipe close pipe 13 (x=y ; fclosed = vv 4 4 ) (iii) Position of nodes in case (i)x = (2n + 1) fopen fA v 4 2k fclosed fB 2 v 2 :1 ((i)) 4 . As the string is tied between two rigid supports hence case (ii) x–y = (2n+1) k there will be nodes at both ends. The longest wavelength for nodes at both ends will be the one Y 2 1011 12. v 5000 m / s for which) ( 8000 ) 5 2L 2 1 = 2= L = 5 5 0.4 m k 2 2 5 2 40cm 0.4 2 = 2f = 2v 2 5000 2,5000 longest = 2 × 40 = 80 cm 0.4 (i) Equation of the wave ( ) 5. y 10 4 sin 6 0 0 t 2x 3 = 2 × 10–6cos(5x) sin(25,00 t) (ii) y = 10–6 sin (25000t – 5x) On comparing the given equation with the general 1 y = 10–6 sin (25000 t + 5x) equation of wave, we get ( 2 ) 1 3 . Amplitude after reflection y y0 sin t kx Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 () = 600 ; k =2 A = A k 2 k1 2.5 5 Wave speed ( )= 600 =300 m/s r i k 2 k1 = 0.3 2.5 5 = –0.1 k2 Amplitude after transmission () 6 . The frequency of the vibrating string with respect to tuning fork is either (256+5) Hz or (256–5) Hz A= A 2k1 0.2 cm t i k1 k2 ( (256+5) Hz (256–5) Hz) 1T fwire = 2l 78
JEE-Physics On increasing tension; the beat frequency decreases 1 0 . Intensity change in decibel to 2Hz, so probable (f r eq uencyofthewi re wi th( ) respect to fork none is 2Hz= 10 log I2 =20 log I2 =2 I2 = 102 =100 ) I1 I1 I1 256 11. n 1 RT , xn 1 RT , x T 256 4x M 4M 258 But on increasing the tension of wire, the frequency 1 2 . y = 0.005 cos (x - t) of the wire must have to increase. So, if the original comparing the equation with the standard form, frequency of the wire is assumed to be 261 then () it reduces to 258 whereas if it is assumed to be 251 it has increased to 254. As we were expecting y A cos x t increase, so the correct frequency of the piano wire T 2 is (256–5) Hz. (2/= and 2/T = = 2/0.08 = 25.00 and = 261 258 251Hz 254 C 13.A B +1 –1 (256–5)Hz ) Between A & B 1 b/s 1 7 . If the frequency of fork 1 is 200 Hz then probable B & C 1 b/s 1 frequencies of fork 2 is either 196 Hz or 204 Hz. As on attaching some tape on fork 2, be at C & A 2 b/s 2 frequency increases, this is possible only if the 2 b/s 2 2 frequency of fork 2 is 196 Hz. ( 1 20 0 Hz 2 196Hz 204 Hz 214. n' =vv0 n 94 n 2196 Hz) v 100 v sound from (iii) eqn. of motion v2 = u2 + 2as 5 8. Given that ( )vobserver = v 2 = 0 + 2as v0 = 2as 0 Applying Doppler's effect, we get 94 n v 2as n 100 v () s = 98 m. f f v v0 ; f f 6v / 5 6 ; f 6 v v 5 f5 Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 f f 6 1 1 20% 15. y = 0.2 sin 0 t 4 – x 2 .0 0.50 f5 5 v 1 9 . n' = v v s n T T 0.04 v= mk 0.04 1 300 0.50 10000 = 300 v s (9500) 300–v = 300 9500 285 v = 15 ms–1 T= 0.50 2 0.04 = 6.25 N s s 0.04 10000 79
JEE-Physics 1 6 . y(x1t) = e[ ax bt]2 EXERCISE –V-B v = /K = b in –ve x direction. 1 . Mass per unit length of the string, a () 1 7 . y1(x, t) = 2a sin (wt – kx) 1 0 2 y2(x, t) = a sin (2wt – 2kx) m = 2.5 × 10–2kg/m But Intensity ( ) 0.4 Velocity of wave in the string. I1 2a n 2 1 () I2 a 2n I = 22n2a2v 1 Intensity depends on frequency and amplitude v T 1.6 2.5 102 v= 8m/s So statement-1 is true statement-2 is false m (1 For constructive interference between successive ) pulses 1 8 . y1 = A sin (wt – kx) & y2 = A sin (wt + kx) () By superposition principle ( ) 2 (2)(0.4) tmin = = 0.10s y = y1 + y2 v 8 = A sin (wt – kx) + A sin (wt + kx) (After two reflections, the wave pulse is in same = 2A sin wt cos kx phase as it was produced, since in one reflection its phase changes by , and if at this moment next Amplitude ()= 2A cos kx identical pulse is produced, then constructive in- terference will be obatined.) At nodes displacement is minimum ( () 2A cos kx = 0 cos kx = 0 kx (2n 1) 2 x (2n 1) 2 2 2 x (2n 1) where n = 0, 1, 2.... ) 4 A v 340 340 f 306 2. f = f v v s f1 = f 340 34 1 19. and f = 340 340 f1 323 19 f 340 f 323 f2 2 17 306 18 v 1T 3. Fundamental frequency is given by 2 v vv () n0 = 2 nc = 4( / 2) 2 (with both the ends fixed) () 2 0 . Fundamental frequency ( ) 1 f V 2 1 T1 y strain S Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 2 1.5 S Fundamental frequency ( )v eq 3 [for same tension in both strings] (S cross – section Area) ( ) [] =1 2.2 1011 1 where = mass per unit length of wire= .A 100 = 178.2 Hz (==.A) 3 7.7 103 ( = density ()) = (r2) 1 r v r v1 r2 2 r 2L 1 v2 r1 1 2r L 80
JEE-Physics 4 . Energy E (amplitude)2 (frequency)2 harmonic while in the second case it corresponds ( E ()2 ()2 to third harmonic. Amplitude (A) is same in both the cases, but ( frequency 2, in the second case is two times the ) frequency () in the first case. ((A) 2 8. The motorcyclist observes no beats. So, the ap- parent frequency observed by him from the two () sources must be equal. Therefore () E = 4E ( 21 5 . After two seconds both the pulses will move 4 cm ) towards each other. So, by their superposition, the f = f 330 v = 330 v resultant displacement at every point will be zero. 2 176 330 22 165 Therefore, total energy will be purely in the form 1 330 of kinetic. Half of the particles will be moving up- Solving this equation, we get v = 22m/s wards and half of downwards. 9 . Let be the end correction. ACB A CB () Given that, fundamental tone for a length 0.1m= first overtone for the length 0.35m. ( 4m ( 0.1 =0.35m ) v 3v 4(0.1 ) 4(0.35 ) ) Solving this equation ( ) ( ) f'f v v0 we get = 0.025m = 2.5 × 10–2 m v 6. Using the formula we get, 5.5 v vA ...(i) 1 0 . The frequency is a characteristic of source. It is 5 v independent of the medium. ( v vB ) 5 v and 6.0 ...(ii) 1 1 . f = f (both first overtone) Here () c0 v = speed of sound ( ) 3 vc 2 v0 4L 20 v = speed of train A (A ) A 0 4 v 0 L 4 1 L 1 v = speed of train B (B ) 3 v c 3 2 as v B Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 Solving equations (i) and (ii) vB 2 1 2 . The frequency is a characteristic of source. It is vA independent of the medium.( 7 . Let f0 = frequency of tuning fork. ) (f0=) 13. v f1 (2nd harmonic of open pipe) 5 9g () f= 2 v 0 f2 n 4 (nth harmonic of closed pipe) 3 Mg (n) ( = mass per unit length of wire) 2 ( =) Solving this, we get M = 25 kg Here, n is odd and f > f (nf>f ) In the first case frequency corresponds to fifth 21 21 It is possible when n=5 because with n = 5 81
JEE-Physics n=5 n=5 MCQ 5v 5 1 . Since, the edges are clamped, displacement of f2 4 4 f1 the edges u(x,y) = 0 for ( 1 4 . The question is incomplete, as speed of sound is u(x,y)=0) not given. Let us assume speed of sound as 330 m/s. Then, method will be as under. y ((0,L) C (L,L) 330 m/s) B O A x = (63.2–30.7)cm or = 0.65 m (0,0) (L,0) 0<x<L 2 speed of sound observed ( ) Line OA i.e. y =0 v= f = 512 × 0.65 = 332.8 m/s AB i.e. x =L 0<y<L 0 BC i.e. y =L 0<x<L Error is calculting velocity of sound () OC i.e. x =0 0<y<L = 2.8m/s = 280 cm/s The above conditions are satisfied only i nalternatives (b) and (c). ( (b) (c)) 15. f v T Note that u(x,y)=0, for all four values e.g. in alternative (d), u(x,y)=0 for y=0, y=L but it is not f = 2f zero for x=0 or x=L, Similarly in option (a) u(x,y)=0 AB CD at x=L, y=L but it is not zero for x=0 or y=0 while in options (b) and (c), u(x,y)=0 for x=0, y=0 x = L T = 4T ....(i) and y=L. AB CD Further p=0 (–x) T (x) = T AB CD – (as T = 4T ) 4x = x AB CD x = /5 (u(x,y)=0 (d)y=0, y=Lu(x,y)=0 x=0 1 6 . Take y=Asin(t–kx) y x=L P (a) x=L, y=L u(x,y)=0 x=0 x y=0 (b)(c) x=0, y=0 x = L y=L u(x,y)=0 2. Maximum speed of any point on the string =a y () so vP = t = –Acos(t – kx) = a(2f) 2v v 10 (Given : v=10m/s) vP = A 2 y2 = A 2 y2 1 2(10 102 ) 10 10 Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 2af = 1 = (10)2 (5 )2 10 2 = 3 ms–1 0.5 50 f 1 a = 10–3m (Given) 2 a 1 T 3v 1 103 17 . 2L m 4 f 2 103 Hz 2 where v = 340 ms–1, = 75 cm = 0.75 m Now according to given condition Speed of wave ( )v= f 1T 1T 3v 103 n– = 4 so n = m + 4 = 4 4 2 2L m 2L (10 m/s) = s1 3 340 4 = 344 Hz. = 2 × 10–2m = 4 0.75 82
JEE-Physics 3 . For a plane wave intensity (energy crossing per Speed of pulse ( ) unit area per unit time) is constant at all points. At t=1s and x=–1.25 m ( y y 0.16m 0.16m 12 –x x 12 x=–1.25 m x=0 (b) t=0 But for a spherical wave, intensity at a distance r t=1s from a point source of power P (energy transmit- ted per unit time) is given by : value of y is again 0.16 m, i.e., pulse has travelled a distance of 1.25 m in 1s in negative x- direction (Pr or we can say that the speed of pulse is 1.25 m/s ) and it is travelling in negative x-direciton. Therefore, it will travel a distance of 2.5m in 2s. S The above statement can be better understood from figure (b). S (t = 1s x = –1.25 m y0.16m x1s1.25m 1.25m/ s x-2s 2.5 m(b) ) I P or I 1 5 . In case of sound wave, y can represent pressure 4 r2 r2 and displacement, while in case of an electromagnetic wave it represents electric and magnetic fields. 4 . The shape of pulse at x=0 and t=0 would be as (y shown, in figure (a). (x=0t=0(a) ) ) y 6 . Standing waves can be produced only when two 0.16m similar type of waves (same frequency and speed, 0.8 –x 0 x but amplitude may be different) travel in opposite y(0,0) = = 0.16m t=0 (a) directions. 5 ( From the figure it is clear that y = 0.16m ) max Pulse will be symmetric (Symmetry is checked Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 about y ) if at t=0 max ( y = 0.16m Comp rehensi on#1 max 1 . In one second number of maximas is called the beat frequency. y t=0 max y(x) = y(–x) (1s) From the given equation and () 100 92 0.8 Hence, f =f –f = 4Hz b 1 2 2 2 y(x) y(x 16x2 5 at t=0 y(x) = y(–x) 2. Speed of wave ( ) 0.8 ) 100 92 16x2 5 v= = v 0.5 = 200 m/s R 0.46 Therefore, pulse is symmetric.( ) 83
JEE-Physics 3. At x=0, y=y + y = 2A cos 96t cos 4t SUBJECTIVE 1 2 Frequency of cos (96t) function is 48Hz and that 1 . (i) Frequency of second overtone of the closed pipe of cos (4f) function is 2 Hz. () (cos (96t) 48Hz cos v (4f) 2Hz) 5 4L = 440 In one second cos function becomes zero at 2f times, where f is the frequency. Therefore, first function will become zero at 96 times and the sec- x=0; P=0 ond at 4 times. But second will not overlap with first. Hence, net y will become zero 100 times in 1s. L=5 x=x; P=±P0sin Kx 4 (1scos2ff 964 y1 100 ) L 5v m 4 440 Comprehension#2 B Substituting v= speed of sound in air =330m/s 1 . v = 340 + 20 = 360 m/s (v==330 m) SA 5 330 15 v = 340 – 30 = 310 m/s L m SB 4 440 16 A 20m/s 340m/s 340m/s 30m/s 15 4 16 2 . For the passengers in train A, there is no relative 4L 3 m 5 54 motion between source and observer, as both are (ii) Open end is displacement antinode. Therefore, moving with velocity 20m/s. Therefore, there is it would be a pressure node or at x=0; P=0 no change in observed frequencies and correspondingly there is no change in their ( intensities. x=0 P=0) (APressure amplitude at x=x, (x=x ) 20m/s can be written as P = ± P0 sin kx ) 2 2 8 m 1 k where 3/4 3 3 . For the passengers in train B, observer is reced- Therefore, pressure amplitude at ing with velocity 30m/s and source is approach- ing with velocity 20m/s. () (B 30m/s L 15 /16 20m/s) x m or (15/32) m will be 22 Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 P = ± P sin 8 15 =± P s i n 5 0 32 f1' 340 30 775Hz 3 0 4 800 340 20 and f2' 340 30 1085Hz P0 1120 340 20 P = ± 2 (iii) Open end is a pressure node i.e. P=0 Spread of frequency ( ) (P=0) =f ' – f ' = 310 Hz Hence, P = P = Mean pressure (P ) 21 max min 0 (P = P = (P )) max min 0 84
JEE-Physics (iv) Closed end is a displacement node or pressure i.e., the amplitude of reflected wave will be 1.5cm. antinode.(Negative sign of A indicates that there will be a r ) phase change of in reflected wave. Similarly. Therefore, P = P + P0 and P = P – P0 (1.5cm A max 0 min 0 r 2 . Amplitude of incident wave () ) P QR 2 32 A t 32 80 (3.5) 2.0cm A = 3.5 cm L1=4.8m L2=2.56m i Mass = 0.06 kg Mass = 0.2 kg i.e., the amplitude of transmitted wave will be 2.0cm Tension () T = 80N Mass per unit length of wire PQ is (2.0cm) (PQ) 3 . Speed of sound ( )v = 340 m/s 0.06 1 Let be the length of air column corresponding m= kg/m 0 1 4.8 80 to the fundamental frequency. ( and mass per unit length of wire QR is 0 ) Then (QR) v 212.5 0 v 340 40 4(212.5) 4(212.5 ) = 0.4 m m2 0.2 1 kg / m 2.56 12.8 (i) Speed of wave in wire PQ is Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 (PQ) 3.2m v1 0.4mT 80 2.4m 1.2mm11 / 80 =80m/s 1.6m 2.0m and speed of wave in wire QR is 2.8m (QR ) 0.8m T 80 In closed pipe only odd harmonics are obtained. Now let , , , etc., be the lengths v= m2 1 / 128 = 32 m/s 2 1 2 34 Time taken by the wave pulse to reach from P corresponding to the 3rd harmonic, 4th harmonic, to R is 7th harmonic etc. Then, (PR) ( , , 1 2 34 4.8 2.56 4.8 2.56 v t 80 32 s t = 0.14s V1 V2 3 41 = 212.5 = 1.2m 1 (ii) The expressions for reflected and transmitted amplitudes (A and A ) in terms of v ,v and A are v rt 12 i 5 212.5 2 =2.0 m as follows :(v v 42 12 (A A )Ai rt v2 v1 2v2 and v = 212.5 = 2.8m 7 43 3 A= A and A = v1 A r v2 v1 i t v2 i Substituting the values, we get ( ) v 9 34 = 212.5 4 = 3.6m A 32 80 –1.5 r = 32 80 (3.5) = cm or heights of water level are () 85
JEE-Physics (3.6–0.4)m, (3.6 –1.2)m, (3.6 – 2.0) m,(3.6 – 2.8)m. 4 . Velocity of sound in water is () Heights of water level are () 2.088 109 v= 103 1445m / s 3.2m, 2.4m, 1.6m and 0.8m. w Let A and a be the area of cross-sections of the pipe and hole respectively. Then Frequency of sound in water will be (Aa)() A f0 vw 1445 f = 105 hz w 14.45 103 Hz 0 (i) Frequency of sound detected by receiver (ob- server) at rest would be ( ) a Source f0 vs=10m/s Observer A = (2 × 10–2)2 = 1.26 × 10–3 m2 (At rest) and a = (10–3)2 = 3.14 × 10–6 m2 vr=2m/s Velocity of efflux ( )v 2gH f1 f0 vw vr (1 0 5 ) 1445 2 H z Continuity equaiton at 1 and 2 gives : vw vr 1445 2 vs 1 0 (12) dH f = 1.0069 × 105 Hz a 2gH A dt 1 Rate of fall of water level in the pipe. (ii) Velocity of sound in air is () () va RT (1.4)(8.31)(20 273) = 344m/s M 28.8 103 dH a 2gH Frequency does not depend on the medium. dt A Therefore, frequency in air is also f =105 Hz Substituting the values we get ( ) 0 dH 3.14 106 ( dt 1.26 103 2 10 H f =105 Hz) 0 Frequency of sound detected by receiver (ob- server) in air would be () dH f2 f0 va va w vs 105 344 5 (1.11 10 2 ) H w 344 5 10 Hz dt Between first two resonances, the water level falls from 3.2m to 2.4m. ( f = 1.0304 × 105 Hz 2 3.2 m2.4 m) 5 . (i) Frequency of second harmonic in pipe A = Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 dH frequency of third harmonic in pipe B =–(1.11 × 10–2)dt ((i)A=B H ) 2.4 dH t vA vB H =–(1.11 × 10–2) dt 2 2A 3 4B 3.2 0 2[ 2.4 3.2 ] = –(1.11 × 10–2).t vA 3 B) A RTA 3 t 43s vB 4 A MA (as = B RTB 4 MB 86
JEE-Physics A MB 3 dE = 22 f2 a2 sin2 kx dx B MA (as T = T ) T 4 AB MA A 16 5 / 3 16 v2 MB B 9 7 / 5 9 Here, f 2 (42 ) and k = 5 7 Substituting these values in equation (i) and inte- A 3 and B 5 grating it from x=0 to x=, we get total energy of string ((i)x=0 x= MA 25 16 400 )E 2 a 2 T MB 21 9 4 189 (ii) Ratio of fundamental frequency in pipe A and v f v vs in pipe B is : (A B 8. From the relation f' ) fA vA / 2A va 2.2 300 fB vB / 2B vB f 300 (as = ) we have vT ...(i) AB A RTA 1.8 f 300 and 30 0 v ...(ii) MA T B RTB A . MB (as T = T) Here, vT = vs = velocity of source/train B MA A B Solving equation (i) and (ii), we get v = 30m/s MB T MB 189 9 . Maximum particle velocity ( ) MA 400 from part (i), we get Substituting A = 3m/s ...(i) Maximum particle acceleration fA 25 189 3 () 2A = 90m/s2 ...(ii) fB 21 400 4 Velocity of wave ( ) =20m/s 6 . Fundamental frequency ( ) k ...(iii) 0.6r From equation (i), (ii) and (iii), we get =30 rad/s A = 0.1m and k=15m–1 v Equation of waveform should be ( ) f = 4( 0.6r) y = A sin(t + kx + ) y=(0.1m) sin [(30 rad/s)t + (1.5m–1)x + ] Speed of sound ( )v = 4f (+0.6r) 1 0 . L = 20 cm; m = 1 gm v = (4) (480) [(0.16) + (0.6) (0.025)] = 336m/ m 1 gm / cm 1 10 3 20 20 s = = × g/m L 10 2 2 7. = 2, k = 1 200 2 = kg / m ; T = 0.5 N Node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 5 & 6\\03.Wave Motion.p65 The amplitude at a distance x from x=0 is given by A = a sin kx (x=0xA= asinkx) 0.5 \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\a v= 1 = 10 m/s; f = 100 Hz \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ 200 x=0 x= v 10 1 m f 100 10 Total mechanical energy at x of length dx is 1 m = 5 cm (dxx ) 2 20 11 dE = (dm) A22 (dx) (a sin kx)2 (2f)2 22 87
JEE-Physics UNIT # 11 (PART - II) WAVE OPTICS (Nature of Light & Interference) EXERCISE –I I1 17. Given I2 =4 I = 4I (let the I = I) 2 8 . I a 2, I a 2 1 1 1 2 2 I = I + I + 2 I1 I2 cos Imax ( I1 I2 )2 (2 I I )2 = 9I resultant 1 2 2 2 2 I = I1 I2 = 2 I I = I I = I1 I2 , When cos = 1, = 0, 2,.... min max Imax Imin 9I I 8I 4 Imax Imin 9I I 5 9 . y = a sint = a cos t –/2), 1 101 y = a cos t 2 D 1 9 . For minima y = (2n–1) where n is the no. of 3 n 2d 10. y = a sin t and y = a sin t nD 1 2 d minimum. For maxima yn A a12 a 2 2a1a2 cos where 9D D 2 y 5th dark 2 d ; y1st max ima d 3 a2 a2 2aa cos 3a By Equation y 5th min y1st max = 7 × 10–3 3 9D D 7 10 3 15 105 2 2d d 7 103 7 50 102 1 1 . In interference pattern we can see that resultant amplitude of super imposed wave depends on the = 600 nm phase difference of waves so it varies from maximum to minimum amplitude by redistributing D of energy but total energy remains conserved. 2 0 . Fringe width = d ; ' = 'D ' 2D , ' 4 D 4 d' d/2 d 12. 3/2 2 0 2 2 1 . On a given screen width n= car tan, Here n is d number of fringes and = D is the fringe width When path difference is then phase difference is 2 2 n = n n =n 11 22 21 22 When path difference is 1 then phase difference is n2 n11 = 92 5898 99.360 2 5461 When path difference is x then phase difference is 2 x Number of fringes are integers so n = 99 2 13. Resultant amplitude A = a 2 a 2 2a1a2 cos 2 3 . Mica sheet of thickness 't' Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 1 2 P – Angle between two waves or phase difference. Refractive index '' S1 So A depends on both amplitude & phase S2 difference. XP = S P –[(S P–t) + t ] x 2 1 air sheet = (S P–S P) – (t – t) 21 = d sin –(–1)t 1 5 . From the definition of coherent source. Additional path difference Position of nth maxima 16. Sustained interference means a interference n dyn ( 1)t y = nD D (–1)t pattern (arrangement of fringes) can not be change D n dd with time. It is only possible when the phase difference between waves at a point does not Shift of interference pattern D 1 t change with time. d 76
JEE-Physics 24. Central fringe is that fringe where the path difference x =0, for all wavelengths. So the central fringe is white followed by the some coloured fringes and after that there is very much overlapping in fringes so equal illumination exists. 2 5 . Central maxima i.e. I = ( I1 I2 )2 I (2 I )2 =4I 0 0 I = I0 • When increases, the fringe patterns shift 4 towards the slit when sheet introduced shift [Intensity due to single slit] D 1 26. For maxima, I = ( I1 I2 )2 from the above two fact variation in I max t with is When I = I then I = 4I 12 max For minima I = 2 min I1 I2 I = 0 min 2 I2 I1 , then I' I1 I1 4 I1 2 max 2 2 3 1 . There is a phase change of when the ray enters I1 from rarer medium into denser medium, the I ' = I1 Imin boundary is called rigid boundary and also no 2 change in phase when it enters into rarer medium. min 3 2 . As distance between S & S is very much less and 2 7 . = 200nm, d= 700 nm 12 equal to 'd' so the angle made at 'P' is very much No. of maxima = 2d 2 700nm 7 small 200nm S1 28. Fringe width remains unchanged d d P D S2 But central bright fringe (zero path difference) D Shift downwards therefore whole fringe pattern shifts downwards. 2 9 . When =1 i.e. no change in path difference due to Arc d optical path difference so the mid point of the Angle = D D screen is again the central bright fringe. Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 Fringe width = D d B u t w h e n > 1 t h e c e n t r a l b r i g h t f r i n g e w i l l s h i f t d D D 3 4 . Path difference for points A & C is O so constructive according to d (–1)t interference take place. As increases, CBF will shift upwards from midpoint i.e. at mid point. Less bright fringe 5 appears and when the shift is equal to value of Path difference for B & D = 5m = 2 fringe width, the dark fringe (zero intensity) will So distructive interference take place. a p p e a r. OR • Intensity variation O central bright fringe y distance from 'O' screen 77
JEE-Physics 35. x+x P EXERCISE –II Ax x = n 1 . Path differences 3 y S1 3 S2 x1 2 x2 x3 4 x 4 4 O D Therefore I > I = I > I 2341 in this case path difference is d cos . 2 . Path difference = 1 So n = = 3 cos cos = 3 6 D1 Phase difference = 2 6 3 3D = D2 y2 D2 y2 3 I = I + I + 2 I1 I2 cos 1 2 y 8D = 2 2D If I = I = I then intensity at central 12 I = I + I + 2 I I cos 0° = 4I 3 6 . Let t be the thickness so corresponding 0 and intensity at a point 'P' x = t 3 t . Also I = 4I so I' = 2I I' = I + I + 2 I I cos max 3 2 We know I = I + I + 2 I1I2 cos 33 I0 = 3I 4I = 0.75 I R 1 2 4 4 0 2I = I + I + 2 I2 cos 3 t cos 3 t 0 Phase difference = 2 Path difference 3. cos 3t cos or cos 3 or 5 2 2 2 4 . Let the distance 'y'from 'O' where nearest white 3 t t ; 3 t 3 t = spot occurs. Then the path difference = 0 2 6 2 2 and 3 t 5 t 5 2 6 3 7 . At the central Maxima x=0 d 2d/3 y But upward shift (2 1)tD and D d Downward shift ( 1)2 tD 2d 2 d 2 d 3 3 tD tD D2 y D2 y 0 d d So net shift y = [2–1 – 2 + 2] y 3 d Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 3 8 . I' = 4 (4I)= 3I. y = 6 So 4I = I +I +2I cos cos = 1 5. Path difference occurs due to the medium of 2 3 variable refractive index = (–1)t But value should lie between 3 & 6. 1 a2 2 1 ax dx So it cannot be 3 For second minima = 3 0 For third maxima = 6 For minima at '0' the path difference should be (for minimum value of ) 2 a2 , a 2 2 78
JEE-Physics 6. For reflected light waves the two virtual source 11. The intensity of light is I() = I cos2 (images of source in mirrors) at a distance '3d' 0 2 Path difference at O = S O–S O where 2 ( x ) 2 (d sin ) 21 S1 d (i) For = 30° S O c 3 108 2d D = 300 m and d = 150 m 106 S2 2 (1 5 0 ) 1 300 2 2 2 4 D2 (2d)2 D2 d2 D2 + 4d2 = D2 + d2 + 2 + 2 D2 d2 I() = I cos2 I0 4 2 3d2 0 3d2 = 2D (ii) For = 90° 2D 2 (1 5 0 )(1 ) and I() = 0 7 . By Geometry, path difference at '0' for minima 300 2 2 d= 5cm S1 0 should be (2n–1) S2 /2 (iii) For = 0° : = 0 =0 I() = I 2 20 1 2 . From the snells law S O – S O = (2n – 1) D=12 1 × sin (90– ) = sin 2 1 2 12 D2 d2 D (2n 1) bd b 2 1× c c d 13 . d = 2 2 2 (13–12)cm = (2n–1) 2 2 12 6 3 For n=1, 2,3 = 2cm, 3 cm, d23 2 2 2 A 60° 2 A 8. As path difference d sin n d n sin 2 3A 2 2 As sin 1 so d > n, where n is an integer A' 3A 3A 2 Therefore d and d 2 I A2 A 2 =3A2 I = 3I R R 1 0 . Seperation between slits =b, screen distance d (>>b) 14. fringes to be more closed when fringe width becomes reduced fringe width D d Path difference at 'O' must be odd multiple of As decrease also decreases ( < ) 2 Blue green n for missing wavelengths S O–S O= Ba 1 5 . = 212 5 Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 S1 O y QP (–a,0) O (2a,0) bd 3a S2 For point P, x = 3a = 15 and at point Q it is also 15 somewhere at point B, it is zero thus in d2 b2 d n half part of the circle available maxima 2 15 × 2 = 30 n22 n Thus total maxima = 2 × 30 = 60 d2 + b2 = d2+ 2 d 42 b2 (n=1,3,5) nd 79
JEE-Physics 1 6 . The maxima at P becomes minima & then maxima Reflected (Source of alternately. But central bright fringe is always 2 . wave fronts reflected remain at O. will be wave fronts) 1 7 . Here the shift produced by mica sheet of thickness t is (t–t) = t(–1). It should be equal to extra path sin 45° = m sin =30° traveled by the ray SS O i.e. = SS – d 2d d 12 2 2 t S 2 2 1) t=2d ( infront of 1 d( 2 1) 3. (a b) 1 b 2a( 1) a 21. = 2( 1) For parallel beam, a . So = 2( 1) EXERCISE – III 4. Tr ue/False 2 . For interference pattern, sources must be cohrent and two independent light sources are never be coherent. 3 . Central bright fringe (Path difference at this point is zero so this fringe is white then following fringes are coloured.) Match the Column 5. v1t 1 . Additional path difference by introducing the thin 1=1 sheet is given by (–1)t v2t 2 Resultant path difference at P = Geometrical path difference + Optical path difference Comprehension–1 v1t 2 2 2 2 2 1 . Optical path length v2t 1 1 1 1 x3 1 4 6 . Angle made by the direction of light with the dx 0 = 1 x2 dx x 3 0 m 22 3 y–axis is cos 12 22 32 14 2 . Optical path length must be optimum i.e. mini- mum. Comprehension–4 P \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ 3. A B \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ 1 . Third order bright fringe is the 3rd bright fringe from the central bright fringe having 3 path difference. For any point AP + PB = constant 2 . At central bright fringe the waves from slits are in = 2 (semi–major axis of ellipse) phase and following bright fringes having a d i f f e r e n c e o f 2 . 4 = 2 × 2 2 nd o r d e r b r i g h t Comprehension–3 fringe 1 . Wave front of point source is spherical. The point 3 . CBF Path difference = 0 source is at origin and distance travelled by wave X At 1, in 't' time with a speed of light 'c' is 'ct'. Hence radius of wave front is 'ct'. A Equation of sphere is x2 + y2 + z2 = (ct)2 dark fringe having path difference = 2 80
JEE-Physics Xc At 3, EXERCISE –IV(A) bright fringe having path difference= 600 nm 300nm 1. 2 2 2 (i) I = I + 4I + 2 × I 4I cos 4 (|X |–|X |)= result cA = 5 I + 2 2 I = 7.8 I Comprehension–6 (ii) I = I + 4I + 2 I 4 I cos = 5I– 4I = I 1 . For strongly reflect light path difference result (2t + 2 ) – 2 = (for minimum thickness) (iii) I = I + 4I + 2 I × 4I cos 4 = 5I + 4I = 9I result =1 2. The position of maxima where the path difference between two ways is integral multiple of . =1.5 And positions of minima where the path difference between two ways is odd multipleof /2. =1.8 2t = t 600nm 200nm 2 2 2 1.5 S1 S2 2 . Again as previous question path difference for n,t 2 reflect light must be the odd multiple of 3. I 2 As given reflection cofficient = 20% AB = 5 n 2t = 2 I B B' A I/5 4I × 4 t n 640 nm = n × 120 (n=1,3,5) 25 5 2 2 1.33 A' Hence = 3 × 120 = 360 nm 4I 4I 5 5× 5 16I 3 . Path difference 2t – 2 = 0 A'B' = 125 If AB and A'B' interference than 2t = t 2 2 2 4 I = I 2 = I 81 5 25 4 . t = 350nm, n = 1.35 max 16I 2nt – m (m =1,3,5,...) 5 125 22 2 I 16I I 1 Imin (m 1) 5 125 5 25 t 2 350nm I /I = 81 : 1 2 1.35 max min 4. d = 0.2 cm, = 5896 Å, D =1m Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 350 2.7 2 945 2 5. D 5896 10 10 1 Fringe width = = 0.3 mm (m 1) m 1 81 d 0.2 10 2 For m = 1,3,5, = 945, 473... If system is immersed in water (=1.33), then the fringe width becomes 5 . t = 1 m, n = 1.35, = 600 nm 2 1.35 106 ' 0.3 mm = 0.225 mm 2 1.3 Path difference = 2.7 × 10–6 – 300 × 10–9 = 2.4 m Shifting of fringe pattern due to plate is given by D d (–1)t [Towards the side of plate] Due to two plates introducing infront of slits then shifting is resultant of both
JEE-Physics D 5D EXERCISE –4(B) [(1.7 – 1)2t – (1.4–1)t] 1 . I = 10–15 W/m2, = 4000 3 Å, t = 3mm. dd The path difference due to glass plate 3mm (Position of 5th bright fringe) (t – thickness of one plate) 3mm t = 5 = 5 × 4800 Å = 2.4 m Thickness of second = 2t = 4.8 m Path difference= ds (n 1)dx 6 . Fringe width D ; ' (D 5 102 ) 0 dd 3mm (D 5 102 ) D 3 x 1)dx 2 x3/2 2 x Given |'–| 3 3mm d d (1 0 5 10 2 Phase difference 3 × 10–5 = = 4000 2 3 103 = × 107–3 d 2 3 105 103 5 102 = 6000 Å 3 10 10 7 . The length of the screen for the fringe pattern 2n = 104 × = 2y At point I there is point of maxima n = 5 × 103 y Intensity = I + I + 2 I I cos 104 = 4I = 4 × 10–15 W/m2 S1 max D 2 . Fringe pattern forms on a screen the distance of the nth maxima in x–direction i.e. x cordinates is S2 dsin nD' and y–position is decided by the SHM of spring. d sin max = y =1; y = D D Mg D' = D + (1 cos t) No. of maxima k 2 D 2D 3 . Path difference = d cos 60° fringe width D / d 2d 2 5cm = 3.3 (say 3) A 3cm 8 . Due to the introduction of sheet in front of one slit 30° 0.1mm O D B (thickness t and refrective index ) the shift = d (–1)t i.e. the path difference becomes (–1)t instead of zero at centre of screen (x 0) Phase difference = 2 ( 1)t As given at 0 the Intensity = 3I 3I = I + 4I+ 2 I 4I cos Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 Resultant intensity II I I cos 2 ( 1 ) t 2 I0 4 4 2 4 4 3 I 2 d (1.5 1) 20.4 10 6 1 t 106 2 Intensity at centre I = 4I' I' = 4 2 2 3 [I' – Intensity due to one slit] I0 2I cos 2 ( 1)t 0.1 × 10–3 + (20.4 – t)10–6 4 1 = 2/3 × 6000 × 10–10 = 4 × 10–7 I0 I cos2 2 ( 1t) I cos2 ( 1)t t = 20.4 – 0.4 + 100 = 120 m 2 82
JEE-Physics 4 . Fringe width OA = 3 = 3(1/3) mm or OA = 1mm D 5000 1010 80 102 m 150 m (ii) If the gap between L and L is reduced, d will 12 d 4 2 103 3 decrease. Hence, the fringe width will increase or the distance OA will increase. Net upward shift D D w g 1 t1 d w y 1 t2 25m 1 S1 0.5mm A d S 0.25mm O Phase difference at point C 0.25mm 2 S2 0.5mm 2 25m D=1.0m 150m 3 0.15m 0.3m 1.3 m IC Imax cos2 Imax 3 IC 3 7 . Path difference between rays 1 and 2 : 2 4 Imax 4 5 . Distance between two sources S and S Pr R Only 5000Å is coming out 12 ii r1 d = 2 × 2a cos sin = 2 a sin 2 S1 acos QS 2 acos x = (QS) – PR ...(i) da Further QS sin i ; PR = sin r 2acos PS PS S2 PR / PS sin r (QS) = PR QS / PS sin i Screen distance D = b + 2a cos2 Substituting in equation (i), we get x=0 D (b 2a cos2 ) (b 2a) Phase difference between rays 1 and 2 will be 0 d 2a sin 2 4a or these two rays will interfere constructively. (if is very much small) So maximum intensity will be obtained from their interference or 6 . (i) For the lens, u = –0.15 m; f = +0.10 m 2 2 Imax I1 I2 4I I 9I 11 1 8 . Each plate reflects 25% and transmits 75°. Incident Therefore, using we have vu f 1 11 1 1 beam has an intensity I. This beam undergoes v u f (0.15) (0.10) or v = 0.3 m multiple reflections and refractions. The corresponding intensity after each reflection and Linear magnification , m = v 0.3 2 refraction (transmission) are shown in figure. u 0.15 Hence, two images S and S of S will be formed 12 Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 at 0.3 m from the lens as shown in figure. Image S due to part 1 will be formed at 0.5 mm above 1 its optic axis (m=–2). Similarly, S due to part 2 is 2 formed 0.5 mm below the optic axis of this part as shown. Hence, d = distance between S and S = 1.5 mm Interference pattern is to take place between rays 12 1 and 2. I = I/4 and I = 9I/64 = 1.30 – 0.30 = 1.0 m = 103 mm 12 = 500 nm = 5 × 10–4 mm Therefore, fringe width, D (5 104 )(103 ) 1 I2 2 d (1.5 ) 3 mm = mm Imin I1 1 Imax I1 I2 49 Now, as the point A is at the third maxima 83
JEE-Physics EXERCISE – V-A cc 7 . µ = v v = µ 1 . To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference we Since I is decreasing so µ also decreases and hence require coherent sources, i.e., sources with same v increases frequency and a fixed phase relationship. So v is minimum on the axis of the beam. 2. dsin = n n= d sin = 2 sin =2sin 8. x Axis converge when it enter in the medium. When light is moving and as it enters the medium than along the axis velocity is decreasing so as we nmax = 2 move away from the centre (that is x in figure) the Maximum number of possible wave covers less distance and hence shape is interference maxima = (2n + 1) = 5 convex. max 3. The shape of interference fringes on the screen is 9 . At P : x = 0; 2 0 0 hyperbola. IP I I 2 4I 4 . The intensity at a general point with respect to 4 I I0 cos2 At Q : x 2 maximum intensity is 2 IQ I I 2 II cos 2I ; IP 4I 2 2 IQ 2I 1 Phase difference, (Path difference) 2 10. 2 6 3 I coherent I I 4 I Inoncoherent = I + I = 2I I 60 2 2 3 Icoherent 4I 2 I0 cos 4 Hence, 3 Inoncoherent 2 I 1 2 2 1 1 . 2 Im 9 5 . Third bright of known light Imax I 4I 9I Im I X3 = 31D ..... (1) IP = I + 4I + 2 (I)(4I) cos d = 5I + 4I cos 4th bright of unknown light = I + 4I (1 + cos) X4 = 42D ..... (2) = I + 8I cos2 d 2 Given X3 = X4 Im 1 31 = 42 9 2 = 8 cos2 33 1 2 . For bright fringe S1P – S2P = n Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 2 = 4 1 = 4 × 590 = 442.5 nm 6 . Parallel cylindrical beam gives planar wavefront P S1 S2 d D So fringes are concentric circles (centre of origin) 84
JEE-Physics EXERCISE –V-B points. 1. I = I + 4I + 2 Distance S = D1 (2 n 2 1) (2n1 1) 4I2 cos 2 =5I d 2 A I = I + 4I + 2 4I2 cos = I Now putting n = 10 and n = 3 21 B S = 4 × 7 × 10–3 m S = 28 mm So difference I – I = 4I AB 2 . As path difference due to slab = (–1)t 5. Given I = 4I = I. So I = I + I + 2I cos (–1) t= n R 4 for minimum thickness t of plate, n should be cos = 1 = 2 minimum i.e. n=1 (–1)t = 2 3 t = 1 t = 1.5 1 t = 2 Corresponding path difference x = 3 PR d 3 . In OPR ; = cos OP = So d sin = 3 = sin–1 3d OP cos OC 6. Inet = I0 + I0 + 2I0 cos = Imax 2I0 cos = in COP cos 2 = OP 2 OC= OP cos 2 d cos2 0 = n 2 x x = 2n 1 cos 2 4 So Path difference = CO + OP + 2 MCQ d cos2 d 1 . Given d, , I = 4I , I = 4I & I = I cos cos 2 1 21 2 if d=, then maximum path difference (d sin ) will be less than . So there will be only central maxima d(2 cos2 1) d 2d cos on the screen, because in the equation d sin = = cos cos 2 2 n, n can take only one value. Now for constructive interference at P between If < d < 2, then the maximum path difference BP and OP, path difference = n will be less than 2. So there will be two more maximum on screen in addition to the central 1 maximum. Intensity of dark fringes becomes zero 2 2 2dcos + = n 2d cos = n if intensities at the two slits made are equal. [So C & D are not correct] cos = 2n 1 ; For n = 1, cos = Comprehension based questions 4d 4d Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 4. At the area of total darkness, in double slit 1. apparatus, minima will occur for both the wavelength which are incident simultaneously and normally. 2n 1 1 (2m 1) 2 2n 1 2 The wave fronts in both the media, are parallel, 2 2 2m 1 1 the light will be a parallel beam. 2n 1 560 7 or 10n = 14m +2 2. Point c and d are on the same wave fronts, 2m 1 400 5 By inspection, the two solutions are C = . d Also = . So clearly – = – (i) If m = 2, n = 3 (ii) If m = 7, n = 10 cf dfce 11 22 Distance between are as correspond to these 85
JEE-Physics 3 . As the ray bends towards the normal so medium For minima, above centre O (2) is denser. 1 y = tan 1= 15 =0.26 m 1 Match the column 1 . ( A ) P central maxima so has highest intensity. 3 0 y = tan 2 = 7 = 1.13 m ( B ) (P0) = 4 2 I(P ) = 2I (P1) = 0 0 For minima, below centre O, I(P1) = 4I y ' = –0.26 m y ' = –1.13 m 12 3 (P ) = I(P ) = 2I+ 2I × There will be four minima due to interference at 2 43 22 positions ± 0.26 m, ± 1.13 m 3 4 (ii) When incident beam makes as angle of 30° with = 12 = 2I + 3 I 2. x–axis S1 y S1 = – = I (3.732) = 3.732 I NM 12 M S2 I (P ) = 0 y ( C ) (P) = 2 0 M S2 P1 I(P ) = 2I x1= d sin – d sin x2= d sin + d sin 4 1 For central maxima, path difference should be zero P2 I(P ) = 3I x =0 o r x = 0 2 3 2 1 2 d sin = d sin ==30° 3 2 y = D tan y = 1 × tan 30° = 0.58 m = = 66 For first minima d sin – d sin = 2 (D) P0 3 I(P ) = 2I 4 0 d sin = 2 + d sin sin = 2d + sin P1 3 I(P ) = 2I – 2I = 0 0.5 3 4 4 1 sin = 2 1 + sin 30° sin = 0.75 = 4 P2 3 3 3 4 3 I(P ) = 2I + 2I y = D tan = 1 × 7 = 1.13 m 22 2 = 9 4 5 = 3.732 I For first minima, on either side, 12 12 d sin = sin = 2 0.5 1 Subjective 2 2d 0.1 4 1 . (i) When the incident beam falls normally : tan 1 = 0.26 m Let path difference = x 15 x = S P – S P = d sin 21 For minimum intensity (2n 1) y = 1 × tan = 0.26 m Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 d sin = (2n–1) sin = 1 2 2d Therefore y coordinates of the first minima on sin = (2n 1)(0.5) sin = 2n 1 either side of the central maximum are y = 0.26 1 m and y = 1.13 m 2 2 1 4 (i) Location of central maximum on y–axis. Let the central maximum be obtained at a distance y below Since sin < 1 n can be either 1 or 2 point O. It will be below O because glass sheet covers the lower slit. 11 When n=1, sin 4 , tan 1 = 15 33 When n = 2, sin 2 = 4 , tan 2 = 7 y = D tan or y = 1 × tan 86
JEE-Physics S1 the upper surface of layer as R . R is reflected 11 O y from a denser medium. It undergoes a phase S2 P change of . Part of AB is reflected from surface of layer as R . R is reflected from a rarer medium 22 as a =1.8 and a =1.5. mg There occurs no phase change in R . 2 x = S P – S P = yd A R1 R2 air 1 1 2 D B Due to glass sheet x 2 g t m=1.8 m 1 t C g=1.5 For zero path difference x = x 12 yd g g tD R and R therefore possess an initial phase B m 1 t y m 1 d 12 difference of before they undergo interference. y 3 / 2 1 10.4 106 (1 .5 ) Now, for construction interference net phase 4 / 3 0.45 10 3 difference should be 2n where n is an integer. y = 4.33 × 10–3m = 4.33 mm = 2n – = (2n–1) x = (2n–1) 2 (ii) Light intensity at O, x =0, x = g t Since x = 2(m)t = 1.8 × 2t = 3.6t 12 m 1 Net path difference = x2 or 3.6 t = (2n–1) Net phase difference = 2 x2 2 For least value of t is n=1 3.6 × t = 2 3 /2 1 (10.4 × 10–6)= 13 min 2 107 4 /3 3 6 648 or t = nm or t = 90nm. I() 3 min 3.6 2 min I() = I cos2 2 or Imax 4 = 0.75 max (iii) Wave length of light that form maxima at O, if 4 . (i) O is the middle point of slits S & S 12 600nm light is replaced by 400 to 700 nm light : g Also SS = d=0.8 mm in figure tan = y1 m 12 D1 At O, x = 1 t For maximum intensity at O, x = n, AC where n = 1,2,3....... R S1 = x , x , x ,..... P O 1 2 3 Q Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 x 3 /2 1 (10.4 × 10–6 m) or x = 1300 S2 4 /3 S 10cm D nm, For maximum intensity at O, 1300 1300 1300 = 1300 nm, 2 nm, 3 nm , 4 nm tan 40 1 sin 1 1 1 tan = 1300 nm, 650 nm, 433.33 nm,............ 200 5 26 5.1 5 or = 6.5 × 10–7 m, 4.33 × 10–7 m Path d ifferenc e x1 = SS – SS 1 2 3 . AB denotes incident ray. It is partly reflected from 87
JEE-Physics 1 6. Let the n th maxima of 1 coincide with n th maxima x1 = dsin = 0.8 × 5 or x1 = 0.16 mm ...(i) 1 2 of . 2 Let R represents the position of CBF i.e. n1 1D n2 2D n1 2 d d n2 1 Net path difference should be 0. Now x2 = S R– SR n1 700 n1 7 1 n2 500 n2 5 2 or x2 = dsin x1 =x2 ...(ii) For central bright fringe x2 – x1 = 0 dsin – x1 = 0 Minimum integral value permitted for n is 7. d sin = x = 0.16 mm 1 1 Minimum distance = n1 1D where D = 103 d d 0.16 1 (0.8) sin = 0.16 sin = = 0.8 5 7 500 109 103 tan 1 1 1 sin = = 3.5 mm 24 4.9 5 1 y2 1 DIFFR ACTION & POLARISATION D2 5 So tan y = 2 cm 2 Exercise II : Previous years questions Thus CBF will be 2cm above point Q. 2 . Intensity of the polarized light coming out of (ii) When liquid of refractive index is poured. 2 Then for CBF at Q, net path difference = 0 polarizing sheet will be I I0 cos2 d (–1)t = x –1)100 = 0.16 –1 = 0.0016 0 1 A C On solving, we get I I0 S1 Q 2 S S2 3. I I0 sin 2 and ay D For principal maximum y=0, =0 hence, intensity will remain same, i.e., I=I0 BD 4 . In polarisation intensity changes as the crystal is t 5 . (i) S is a point source, fringes formed will be circular. 1 (ii) Ratio of minimum and maximum intensities : rotated. In scattering for Rayleigh's law I 4 Intensity of light direct from source= I = I (say) is minimum for Blue; so I is larget 10 Both statements are correct and reason is also correct Intensity after reflection I = 0.36 I 20 I m in I1 I2 2 0.4 2 1 5. Since the incident regnt is unporaizes,after light Imax I1 I2 1.6 16 = passis through polaroid A= I0 Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\04.Wave Optics.p65 2 (iii) Shift of AB for same intensity After this light passes through B, If intensity at P corresponds to maximum it means that constructive interference occurs at P. Ienergent = I Iin cos2 = I0 cos245° = I0 2 4 Path difference between direct waves from S and reflected waves, from reflector AB, is n Let AB is shifted by x (towards P or away from P) additional path difference introduced = 2x For minimum value of x ; n=1. 1 Path difference = 1 × = 600 nm 2x = 600 nm x = 300 nm 88
JEE-Physics UNIT # 02 (PART – II) WORK, POWER, ENERGY AND CONSERVATION LAWS EXERCISE –I 3 m v 2 1 kx2 ; k 3mv2 8 2 4x2 1 . By applying work energy theoram change in kinetic 9. Total mass ; f 6m, f = 6m (20) = P C energy = W + W g ext.P To Drive 12m : f 14m f = 14 m C 0 = mg( cos 37° – cos 53°) + W ext P (14 m ) v = 6(m ) 20 8.57m/s CC To drive 6 boggie : force 8m = 50 × 10 × 3 4 W force = 8m P = 8 mv 1 5 5 + ext P C C (8m )v = 120m 15 m/s CC W = 100 joule 1 0 . By applying work energy theoram ext 1 mv2–0 = W + W 2 . Work F.dr , Work =– (0.5)(5)Rd F=mN 2 g fr 0 for the second half work energy theorem change [work] = (2.5) (R) (2) = –5 J in kinetic energy = W + W T g fr 3 . W f.d 0 = 100mg + W = –100 mg fr As work done for the first half by the gravity is Mg Mg g/2 100mg therefore work done by air resistance is mg T ; T less than 100 mg. 22 Mg W Mg x dx 2 1 1 . x = 3t – 4t2 + t3; v = 3– 8t + 3t2 dt 4 . For conservation force work done is independent of the path a dv = 0 – 8 + 6t dt W + W = W , 3+4 = W = 7 J AB BC AC AC 4 5 . By applying work energy theorem W F.dx 3(6 t 8)(3 8 t 3t2 )dt 0 K E v 1 v t2 K.E. mv2 t2 W= 528 mJ f .d m t1 2 t1 2 t12 OR From work energy theorem 6 . Slope of v–t graph Acceleration –10m/s2 W= 1 m v 2 1 m v 2 1 3 103 2 2 2 1 Area under v–t graph displacement 20 m 2 work = = 2 (10) (20) –400 J 3 8 4 3 42 32 528 mJ f.s 7 . By applying work energy theoram 1 2 . Power = constant, Fv = C node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 KE = work done by all the forces mvdv = Cdt v2 2C t v 2C t mm New kinetic energy = 1 m v 2 mv2 2 f 8 vf v0 v = u – gt0 v0 as v dx dx 2C tdt 2 2gt0 dt m 8 . By applying work energy theoram 2C t3/2 x x t3/2 1 m v2 1 1 kx2 – mv2= m 2/3 2 42 2 1 3 . a = k2 rt2 v 2 k2rt2 cr 52 E
JEE-Physics dv Put the value of u2 in equation (i) v2 = k2r2t2 v = krt a = kr m 5g T dt T – mg = T = 6 mg P = m (kr ).(krt ) mk2r2t m a T .v 2 0 . When the string is horizontal 1 4 . P.E. Maximum Unstable equilibrium mv2 T P.E. Minimum Stable equilibrium ...(i) v T P.E. Constant Natural equilibrium v2 = u2 – 2g v2 = 5g –2g = 3g mg None of these u So T m 3g 3mg 1 5 . P.E. Maximum Unstable equilibrium P.E. Minimum Stable equilibrium So net force P.E. Constant Natural equilibrium = T2 mg2 3mg2 mg2 10 mg dU 2 1 . In case of rod the minimum velocity of particle is Force = –(slope) zero at highest. dx 2 2 . As velocity is vector quantity [ slope is –ve from E to F ] Force = +ve repulsion v = v12 v 2 2v1v2 cos [as = 90°] 2 Force = –ve attraction v = v 2 v 2 1 2 1 6 . By applying work energy theoram By applying work energy theorem velocity at z KE = Work done by all the forces 11 mv 2 – mu2 = – mgL 0=W +W +W g spring ext agent 2 22 –W = (W + W ) v2 = u2 – 2gL u= 2(u2 gL) g spring ext agent 2 U = (W + W ext agent ) [U = W ] spring g 23. By applying work energy theorem KE = W g 1 7 . U = mgh 0 height w.r.t. ground = ( – h), U = mg (–h) (r–b) 1 8 . By applying work energy theorem K.E = W + W 1 S ext mv2 = mg(r–b) v 2g(r b) agent 2 1 2F mv2 0 = – Kx2 + Fx x 2 4 . Net force towards centre equal = 2K r node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 2F2 mg cos – N = m x v2 Work done = r K v rg cos 1 9 . At lowest point By applying work energy theoram mu2 u 12 T mg ....(i) 2 mrg cos – 0 = mgr(1– cos ) = cos = 3 at highest point T = 0 mv2 g and v2 = u2 + 2as 2 5 . P = P12 P22 2P1P2 cos mg , v for cos = maximum P minimum = 360° g 2 u2 2 g 2 for cos = minimum P maximum = 180° g = u2 –4g 53 u2 = 5 g E
JEE-Physics 2 6 . Tension at any point T = 3mgcos N+ m v 2 = mg cos ...(ii) Given 3mg cos = 2mg C 2 2 r cos 3 = cos–1 3 3 at C, N = 0 cos = 4 EXERCISE –II 8. W= U= U –U = m g mg – 3mg man 2 4 –2 = 8 f i 1 . For body B : mg – T = m(2a) 2E 1 g 9. At x = ; E = kx2 = U KE = 0 For body A : 2T – mg = ma a= 5 k 2total a = 2a and a = a 1 0 . Equation of motion : B A A Velocity B distance m gsin 37° – T = m a and 2T– m g = m a of after travelling A AA B BB 2as 4g gg 5 a = 2a = 2 × = AB 12 6 Velocity of A : v = v B g vA 2a A .sA gg 2 1 A2 5 6 3 2. COME K + U = K + U vA g 1 1 2 2 2 3 11 vB 2 0+ k x2 + k x2 21 22 1 1 x2 1 x2 1 1 . COME : K + U = K + U = mv2 + k + k B BA A 2 1 2 2 2 2 11 2 0 + k (13–7)2 = mv 2 + 0 2 2A 1 11 2 k 62 2 (k + k )x2 = mv2 + (k + k )x2 m v A 12 28 12 N = =1440 N AR 5 v = 3 k1 k2 x2 12. W =KE 0 1 mv2 v = 2gA f 2 4m .mg dr r 3 . Work done against friction = mgh = loss in P.E. 1 3 . Conservation of mechanical energy explains the Work done by ext. agent K.E. at A & B are equal. =W + PE Acceleration for A = gsin f 1 = mgh + mgh = 2mgh Acceleration for B = gsin 2 4 . COME K + U = K + U 112 2 sin > sin a >a 12 12 0+ mg (1–cos60°) = 1 = g F and displacements are in opposite directions. mv2 + 0 v ext 2 1 4 . COME : K + U = K + U 5 . COME : K + U = K + U A AB B 1 12 2 0 + mg × 25 = 1 m v 2 mg 15 mv 2 = 20mg node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 2 A A 1 0 + mg (4R) = mv2 + mg (2R) mv2 = 4mgR 2 2 Forces at position 2 : Forces at B : N = mg – m v A =0 R = 20 m mv2 R N= –mg = 4mg – mg = 3 mg R 1 5 . Area of graph 6 . F = m g – m g P = f .v = (m –m )gv P.dx mv.a.dx m v. vdv dx ext 2 1 inst ext 21 = dx 7 . COME : K + U = K + U v mv2dv m v3 u3 10.v3 1 B BC C u 3 73 1 m v 2 + mgr = 1 m v 2 + mg rcos...(i) = 2 0 2 C Force equation at C 1 4 m/s = (4+2) × 10 v = 2 54 E
JEE-Physics 1 6 . Power = QgH = Av.gH=A 2gH .gH 2 5 . Conservative forces depends on the end points not on the path. Hence work done by it in a closed = 103 d2 2 10 40 10 40 ( d= 5 cm) loop is zero. 4 2 = 21.5 kW 2 6 . For equilibrium, F=0 x(3x–2)=0x=0 x= 3 1 27. v2 = v2 +2 (–g)L 1 7 . For upward motion : mgh + fh = m × 162 0 2 For v =0, v0 2gL 1 2 8 . For velocity to maximum acceleration must be zero. downward motion : mgh – fh = m× 82 h = 8m mg – kx = ma = 0 2 W 3ˆi 4ˆj 8ˆi 6ˆj 8W mg 1 10 18. P F.S t t 6 x= k = = 5cm 0.2 Height from table = 15 cm 1 9 . For equilibrium : Ncos =mg & Nsin = kx 2 9 . 1 1 1 2 kx = mgtan (N = normal between m & M) W =KE= 2 mv2= 2 m(at)2 = 2 × 1× 10 N 3 =150 J U 1 kx2 m 2g2 tan2 3 0 . Sum of KE and PE remains constant. 2 2k 3 1 . mgx 1 0 1 kx2 0 1 m v 2 v=8 m/s 2 2 20. W + W = KE – mgh – f.d = 0– mv2 g F 2 1 3 2 . K.E. = work done by all the forces – mg 1.1 – mg d = – mv2 (= 0.6) d=1.17 m 2 K.E. = m a.s When acceleration is constant 21. For motion P 0 K + U = K + U 1 O O P P K.E. t2 [as s = at2] 2 For motion Q 0 K' + U' = K + U 33. F 3i 4j is a conservative force ie therefore O OQQ K =U; K' = U = 2U = 2K W =W OP O2 P O 12 t = 2 2h / sin 3 4 . To break off reaction becomes O, QO mv2 v2 g sin t1 i.e. mg cos = R cos = Rg ....(1) t = 2 h / sin t2 2 t1 PO g sin A mv2 R a2t2 N P 22. v a s ds Rcos mgcos s= mg dt 4 R O node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 W= 1 m v 2 0 1 m a2s = 1 ma2 a2t2 = ma4 t2 2 2 2 48 But from energy considerations 2Mg 1 2 3 . Maximum elongation in spring = mgR [1– cos ] = mv2 K 2 Condition block 'm' to move is v2 =2gR (1– cos ) using it in (1) 3 cos = 2(1– cos ) Kx mg sin37° + mg cos 37° M = 5 2 cos = 2 – 2 cos cos = 3 2 4 . COME : K + U = K + U So sin = 4 5 11 2 2 1 1 mg 1 cos 60 93 2 mv 2 0 0 v = 7 m/s Now tangential acceleration g sin = g 5 0 0 3 E 55
JEE-Physics 3 5 . Given v=gr EXERCISE –III mv2/R Match the column R=0 E 1 . W = force × (displacement in the direction of force) mg g mg r C mg 1 R=W R=W W = [10 × × 2 × 16] = –160 joule mg A mg g2 w= N.s = m(g+a) cos 1 2 16 cos N 2 NS R=mg+mv2/r=2mg=2W = (12) 3 (16) 3 90-a fr 22 mgsin\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ 2 r = 12 × 12 = 144 J 3 6 . In this case T = u [for 1 resolution] W= fr .s fr mgcos 1 gt2 2h = m(g+a)sin (16) cos (90 – ) mg 2 g Also h = t = 1 = (12) × 16 × 4 48 joule 2h 2r u 2h W =W +W + W 32 joule net g N fr But t = nT g = n u n= 2r g du 2. f =– dx 30 Ni 1 3 7 . Given mv2 = as2....(i) conservative 2 change in kinetic energy =2 [Area under (a–x) graph] v2 2as2 as mass is 1 kg [80 + 40] = 120, So a = = ....(ii) r R mR 1 KE = Mv2= 8 J 2initial dv dv ds dv (A) KE = 128 J Also a = . v f (B) W= 30 × 8 240 J t dt ds dt ds can f d 2a (C) W = KE 120 J But from equation (1) v = s Net m (D) W + W = 120; W = –120 J cons ext ext 2a 2a 2as 3 . By applying conservation of momentum wedge will put it above a = s m m m ....(iii) acquire some velocity = mv x where v is velocity t M m x 2 2as2 of block w.r.t wedge in negative x-direction. m So that a = a 2 a 2 2as2 ( A ) Work done by normal on block is r t mR 1 mv 2 – M 2 = M x 2 2as s m i.e. a R 1 ( B ) Work done by normal on wedge is m node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 1 mv 2 2 M s 2 = M x is positive. R So force F = ma = 2as 1 m ( C ) Net work done by normal is = 0 1 (D) less than mgh as K.E. is < m2gh, 38. Tension w i ll be mg cos at extreme s but it 2 mv2 KE > KE is positive. becomes mg cos + . f 4 . For v 5g , the bob will complete a vertical In the given situation by making diagram, we can circular path. shown that T – Mg cos = Mv2 and tangential For 2g <v< 5g , the bob will execute projectile motion. L acceleration = g sin For v < 2g , the bob oscillates. 56 E
JEE-Physics Comprehension#1 Comprehension#3 1. W= W = – mg 1 a t 2 1 . By applying work energy theoram f .d s 2 0 2 . For the motion of the block in vertical 1 Mv2–0 = W mg – N = ma , N = m(g–a ) 00 2g W= Na0t2 m(g a0 )a0t2 1 Mv2 = mg v 2g N 2 2 2 3 . For observer A pseudo force on the particle is zero 2 . 2g 5g( x) W=0 3 1 ma2t2 2g = 5g(–x) 5x=3 x 5 4 . W = fnet.ds W = ma 2 at2 2 5 . For observer A the block appears to be stationary 3 . Net force towards the centre will provide the Displacement is zero hence w =0 required contripetal force Comprehension#2 mv2 kx kx – mg = Mv2 1 . N – Kx cos30° – mg cos 60° = R m2g R kx – mg= As velocity of Ring = 0 N = kx cos 30° + mg cos 60° 3mg mg kx = 3mg x = k kn cos30° 60 Comprehension#4 30° N 1 . Particle will have some translatory kinetic energy mgcos60° 30° as well as rotatory energy the whole of the K.E. is 30° converted into potential energy h < 6 60° 2 . By applying conservation of mehanical energy kn mg 1 (2 3 )mg (2 3 mg 3 mu2 = mg(h) u2 = 80 3R 3 )R 2 2 2 mg mg mg 1 22 mu2sin2 30 = mgh h = 1m 2 Total height = 2 + 1 = 3m 2 . f = (kcos 60°) x + mg cos 30° Comprehension#5 net 1 . From the F.B.D. of the blocks : (2 3 )mg 1 mg 3 upper block is –ve and lower block is +ve as (2 3 )R 3R 2 2 node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 mg 1 3 2mg 1kg 6m/s 2 3 3 fr fr 2 a = 2a cos 60 = a = 2g horizontal rev 3 v = decreases, v = Increases upper lower 2 . By applying conservation of momentum 3 . By applying work - energy theoram 1 × 6 + 2 × 3 = 3(v) v = 4m/s By applying work energy theoram 1 mv2 – 1 1 1 (2 3 )mg (2 3 )2 R2 2 0= kx2; mv2= 2 3g 11 – (1) (36) + (1)(16) = w 2 2 2 2 fr 1 1 mg (2 3 )R v gR(2 3) –18 + 8 = W W = –10 J mv2 = 23 3 fr fr 2 and Work done on the lower block +10j Wnet = 0 E 57
JEE-Physics Comprehension # 6 3. Maximum power = F × V 4. max A B du 2A B 5. 1 . u = r2 r dr r3 r2 Maximum force applied by camel is during the accelerated motion. du 2A B r 2A We have V2 – U2 = 2as, 25 =02 + 2·a·50 f r2 , F = 0 dr r3 B a = 0.25 m/s2 a 2 . As potential is minimum at r=r the equilibrium is for accelerated motion Fc f 0 stable. F– f = ma c 3 . Given that F = mg + ma c AB 2A AB2 BB B2 = 0.1 × 1000 × 10 + 1000 × 2.5 r2 r U U= as r = B ; i 4A2 2A 4A = 1000 + 250 = 1250 N Uf=0 W =U – U B2 This is the critical point just before the point where f i it attains maximum velocity of almost 5m/s . 4A A B 3B2 Hence maximum power at this point is 4. K.E. + P.E. =T.E, 0 + r2 r = 1250 × 5 = 6250 J/s. 16A By solving the above equation r = 2r0 We have W = PT,P = 18 × 103V + 104 J/s 3 103 104 P = 18 × × 5 + J/s and 5 Comprehension#7 1. (A) W + W= KE WCL=KE – W 2000m CL f f T5 = 5 m / s =400s (a) During acceleration motion negative work is done P =18 × 103 × 104J/s 10 against friction and there is also change is kinetic energy. Hence net work needed is positive. 2000m and T10 = 10 m / s = 200s (b) During uniform motion work is done against friction only and that is positive. (c) During retarded motion, the load has to be W5 104 (9 1) 400 W10 104 (18 1) 200 stopped in exactly 50 metres. If only friction is considered then the load stops in 12.5 metres which is less than where it has to stop. Hence the camel has to apply some force so The time of travel in accelerated motion = time of travel in retarded motion. that the load stops in 50 m (>12.5 m). Therefore the work done in this case is also positive. DC BA 2. W| = K E – W 50 m 2000 m 50 m CL accelerated friction m otio n where W is work done by camel on load. V5 CL T = T = = 20 sec AB CD 0.25 1 a 2 mv2 = 0 – [–kmg.50] Now time for uniform motion =T = 2000 =400 s 1 ac 5 node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 = × 1000 × 52+0.1 × 10 × 1000 × 50 440 2 Total energy consumed = Pdt 125 =1000 2 0 similarly, W |retardation = KE – W 20 420 CL friction [18.103 V 104 ] dt [18.103.5 104 ] dt 0 1 mv2 – [– kmg.50] = 1000 75 2 2 0 20 WCL | accelerated motion 125 5 5 : 3 440 WCL | retarded motion = 75 3 [18.103 V 104 ] dt 420 58 E
JEE-Physics 20 20 From energy considerations [1 8 . 1 0 3 104 105 420 V dt dt t 20 1 mg R cos = mv2 v2 = 2g R cos 00 2 440 440 putting this value in equation (i) 18.103 Vdt 104 dt we get T = 3mg cos 420 420 Also acceleration a = a 2 a 2 Total r t Putting Vdt = dx and changing limits appropriately it becomes v2 2 R 60 g sin 2 2g cos 2 g sin 2 18.103 dx 1 0 4 t 20 105 [420 20] 0 0 = g 4 cos2 sin2 2100 1 0 4 440 420 aTotal = g 1 3 cos2 18.103 Now virtual component of sphere's velocity dx 2050 = 18.103.50 + 104[20] + 105·400 +18.103[50]+104[20] Joules vy=vsin = 2gR cos sin v = 90 × 104 + 20 × 104 + 400 × 105 vsin + 90 × 104 + 20 × 104 J = 4.22 × 107 J Comprehension#8 Applying maxima-minima 1 . By applying work energy theoram change in kinetic dvy sin sin d cos cos 1 2gR 2 cos energy = w 0 – mv2 = W S 2s 2. As the kinetic energy of block is decreasing, 2gR sin2 cos cos = 2 cos 1 sin2 cos2 tan2 = therefore work done by the normal is = – mv2 2 2 1 2 3 . W = – mv2 = tan–1 2 tan 2 net 2 So sin 2 and cos 1 5 . W = 0 as for the B change in velocity is zero. 33 net Thus tension T = 3 mg cos 6 . As there is no change in kinetic energy stored is 1 due to = 3mg × 3 = 3 mg node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 Comprehension#9 1 . Conservation of mechanical energy can only be applicable in absence of non conservative forces Comprehension # 10 Comprehension 11 Using work energy theorom Balancing the forces T = mv2 mg cos ....(i) m 2g R sin mgR 1 cos 1 mv2 ..(i) R 92 O R m 2mg mv2 T Also mg cos sin Rcos 9R N mv2 +mgcos 2g R v2 = gRcos – R sin ...(ii) mgsin mg 9 E 59
JEE-Physics From equation (i) & (ii) EXERCISE –IV(A) 2mg R sin mgR 1 cos m gR cos 2g R sin A Mgcos 9 2 9 Mgsin 4sin + 18 (1–cos) = 9cos–2sin 1. 6sin + 18–18cos = 9 cos 6 sin – 27cos + 18 = 0 2sin – 9 cos + 6 = 0 m BC m2g 90 W =Mgsin × AC = Mg × AB 9 Mg v W = Mgcos × AC × cos 180° f mg = –Mg × (BC) 4R 3 D Now let sin = x so cos = 1 x2 G Than 2x – 9 1 x2 +6 = 0 E BF 34 W = Mg(sin × DG + sin × GF) = Mg × DE Solving x = 5 = sin so cos = 5 ; = 37° Mg Now putting =37° W = – Mg (DG cos + GF cos) = – Mg(EF) 4R 4 f in = h+ Rcos = R =– Mg × BC (BC = EF) 35 From WET, KE will be same in both cases. = 20R 12R 32R 2. v =v 15 15 3. CF 2g From equation (ii) v2 = gRcos Rsin Heat generated = work done against friction (mg) (vt)= (0.2 × 2 × 10) × 2 × 5= 40 J 9 40 = cal = 9.52 cal 4.2 4 2g 3 Blocks are moving with constant speed. v2 = gR × – R 59 5 T=Kx = gR 4 2 = 10gR 2gR BT A node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 5 15 15 3 f mAg 1 32R 2gR t + 1 gt2 m g = T = kx = f = m g Now using S = ut + gt2; = AB 2 15 3 2 mA 2 2 9.8 = =10 kg and x = 1960 m= B 0.2 2R 1 t can be obtained t = g Energy stored in spring = kx2 2 1 19.6 2 = 2 × 1960 × 1960 = 0.098 J 60 E
JEE-Physics 4. Work done by force = Fdx 9 . Let extension in spring be x due to m 5. 01 6. 7. then m1gx0 = 1 k x 2 kx0 = 2m1g 0 8. 1/2 cos x 1 / 2 2 E W = sin xdx = m 0 0 but kx mg so 2m g mg m 0 1 1 2 = – cos + cos 0 = 1J m therefore minimum value of m1 = 2 2 Work done by external agent = – 1 J COME : K +U = K + U 1 0 . = 3 (t + sint); = 3 +3 cost; = –3 sin t 11 2 2 3mgr 1 1 = mv2 + kr2 ...(i) 22 2 F= m2R 2 mR 2 t 2 = 9 10N mv2 Force equation kr = mg + r 2mg 1 1 . COME : mv2 = mgh Solving we get, k = r = 500 N/m 2 If resultant acceleration, a, makes angle with v2 thread, then asin = gsin a = bt2 = v= bR t a = bR v2 2gh nR t acos = = P = FV = mbRt t sin sin 0 Pdt mbR t2 / 2 mbRt <P>= t = = tan = 2h = tan–1 2h 0 dt t 2 As C falls down, A & B move up. 12. COME : K +U = K + U COME : K + U = K + U 11 2 2 1 12 2 AC x 60° N B 60° mv2 mg R C 1 mgR AB 0 + MgR = mv2 + v = gR 22 4a Forces at B N = mgcos 60° + mv2 15 3 = 0 + mgx = 0 + 2mg a2 x2 a x = 3 R2 GFH JKIPotential energy U =1 × x2 x2 mv2 mv2 mv2/R x = –x 1 3 . T = mg+ , T = – mg 2 2 max R min R node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 For minimum U, mv2 T mg mg dU 2x d2U Tmax mv2 R 5 (R=2m) Tm in 3 T dx = 2 – 1 = 0 and dx2 = 1 = positive mg R mg mv2/R 1 v = 4 5 m/s so at x = 1, U is minimum. Hence Umin = – J 2 1 4 . Here the bob has velocity greater than 2g and Total mechanical energy = Max KE + Min PE Max KE = 1 1 = 5 smaller than 5g . Hence the thread will slack 2 mv2max = 2 – 2 2 after completing semicircle. 25 vmax = = 5 ms–1 1 2 61
JEE-Physics Force equation : N + mv2 = mgcos...(ii) v mv2/R r 90- T B h = rcos = 19 r mg 27 O (c) g sin 2 g cos g anet ar a t A 3g 1. EXERCISE –IV(B) COME : K + U = K + U a : Natural length 1 12 2 a : Initial elongation 1 m 3g + 0 = 1 mv2 mg sin ...(i) 2a : additional elongation 22 1 9a Force equation at B : COME : k(3a)2 = mgx x = 22 (above point of suspension) T + mg sin = mv2 ...(ii) R 2. WET : W + W + W + W = KE N Mg f sp 1 gsin 11 Solving for T=0, we get sin = v = 0 + 0 – k.mg (2.14 +x) + 0 – kx2 = 0 – mv2 3 B 2 2 The particle will execute projectile motion after x = 0.1 m tension become zero. At x = 1m, F = kx = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 N spring g 1 1 v = vsin = min 3 3 F = .mg = 0.22 × × 10 = 1.1 N S.F. S 2 Hence the block stops after compressing the spring. 1 5 . COME : K + U = K + U Total distance travelled by block when it stops A AB B 11 = 2 + 2.14 + 0.1 = 4.24 m 0 + mg(2R) + kR2 = mv2 + 0 + 0( k = mg/R) 22 mv2 dU d 2r3 = – 6r2 = 5 mg Force equation at B 3. Conservative force, F = – = – dr dr R mv2 This force supplies the necessary centripetal T = mg + = 6mg acceleration. BR mv2 1 = 6r2 mv2 = 3r3 1 6 . For speed u , contact at top is lost. 0 r2 E = K + U = 5r3 = 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 625 J N+ m u 2 =mg (N=0) u = gr 4. For part AB : (R=4a) node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 0 r0 v0 a 4a 2 2 v 0 r t1 t = 4 t= g 1 (a) For vertical motion; For part BC : (R=3a) t =3 a Horizontal distance 2 2 v 0 s = 2u .t =2 gr × 2r = 22r a 0 g For part CD : (R=2a) : t =2 2 v0 3 (b) COME : a 1 m u0 2 mgr 1 mv2 mgr cos ...(i) For part DA : (R=a) =: t = 2 v 0 4 23 2 62 E
JEE-Physics 5 a = 0 + mg 5 1 + 1 Mu2 1 m u cos 2 2 t = t + t + t + t = v0 2 1 2 3 4 5 . At position B; u = 3029 m/s mg = Tcos= k..cos 2mg a a a cos 8. Initial elongation in each spring = sin a 1 = Mg Mg 20cm = 2mgcot cot= kx kx0 2 2 0 2 a Total initial length of each spring (a) OB = acot = 2 = 50 + 20 = 70 cm (b) COME : K + U = K + U CCO O \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ 1 2mg 2 a 2 = 1 1 ka2 0 + mga + × a 2 mv2 + 2 2 (i) v = 2 ga (ii) K + U = K + U CCP P [ P is the point of greatest depth] 1 2mg 2 a 2 Equilibrium position = 2 kx = mg mga + 2 a 100 1 2mg x 10 cm = – mgx + 2 a (a2 + x2) x = 2 a 2 500 and due to inertia it goes 10 cm also up = 20 m 6 . COME : K + U = K + U 9. B iif f ucos 10 a m A u 6 x v 8 x For constant length of string =v = u cos M h= sin a COME : 11 10 mg × 5 = mv2 + mu2 u = 22 1.64 0 + mgx = 0 + Mg a2 x2 a 40 v = ucos = m/s 2mM 41 x M2 m2 a node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 7. COME : K + U = K + U 11 i if f 1 0 . COME : mu2 = mv2 + mgL ( 1+ sin)....(i) 1m M 1m 22 mv2 mv2 For equationT + mgsin = ...(ii) vR L M=2kg L mg m=½kg Since the particle crosses the T=0 cos = 2/ 5 8 m u line at its half of its range ucos v2 sin .cos L cos L ...(iii) u 0 + Mg × R g 8 1 E 63
JEE-Physics cos 1 60 EXERCISE –V(A) 2 N From equation (i) u = gL 3 3 1. Spring constant (k)= 800 2 2 2. 3. m Work done in extending a spring from 11. WET : W + W + W + W = KE X1 to X2 = Uf–Ui = 1 k X 2 1 kX 2 SP mg N f 2 2 2 1 1 h 2 m g h 1 1 0 2 sin sin 2 2 k sin 0 W k X 2 X 2 × 800 [0.15)2–(0.05)2] 2 1 mgh cot 1 mv2 400 15 2 5 2 400 2 100 100 = [225–25] 10000 v= 2 1 k h 2 m g h cot 400 200 m mgh 2 sin = =8J 10000 k = 5 × 103 N/m 1 2 . WET W + W + W + W = KE W 1 k x 2 x12 mg N T f 2 2 NT T f W 1 2 2 5 103 10 10 2 5 10 2 mgcos W 1 5 103 104 100 25 mg 2 /2 – mgR+0+W + mg sin .Rd cos180°= 0 75 5 10 1 75 T 18.75 N-m 0 24 W = mgR 1 Power = FV = constant i.e., mav = k T a v=k1 dv v k1 vdv k1dt dt 1 =/2 1 3 . t2 = ( = ) t = 2 sec On integrating both sides, we get 224 Average velocity = 2R = 1 m/s v2 k1t v2 2k1t v 2k1 t1/2 2 t ds k2 t1/2dt s k2 t3/2 s t3/2 3 / 2 1 4 . The string can break at the lowest point node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 m v 2 V0 4. z zHere F x, by using work energy theorem H 5. T = mg + KE = F dx KE x dx KE x2 max R 0.5 v2 VH v1 45 = 5 + Given that acceleration a = t1 ...(i) 0.5 COME: v 2 v 2 2gR H 0 1 Power = Fv P=(ma)v 2 v 2 40 2 10 =30 P=(ma2t) [v=at] 0 H = v 2 = 30 3 P m v12 t replacing a= v1 max 0 = = 1.5 m t12 on t1 2g 2 10 2 64 E
JEE-Physics 6. Work done in pulling the hanging part of the chain 10. V x x4 x2 mg 4 2 7. upon the table= For minimum value of V, 8. 2 9. dV 4x3 2x E 0 0 x = 0, x = ±1 dx 4 4 0.6 m=l 1 1 1 So, Vmin (x=±1) = = J 42 4 Now, Kmax + Vmin = Total mechanical energy where m = mass of the hanging part K max 1 2 or Kmax = 9 l = hanging part of chain 4 4 W 4 0 . 6 10 0.6 3.6 J mv2 9 v 3 ms–1 3 2 or 24 or 2 According to work-energy theorem, 1 1 . Applying work-energy theorem, W=K Case I : F 3 1 m v0 2 1 m v 2 2 2 2 0 where F is resistive force and v0 is initial speed. 45° l B Case II : Let, the further distance travelled by the AF bullet before coming to rest is s. F 3 s Kf Ki 1 m v 2 2 0 1 2 3 s 1 2 Mg 8 0 2 0 m v m v or 1 or 3 s =1 ors = 1 cm Work done by F from A to B (3+s)=1 = Work done by Mg from A to B 4 44 F( sin45°)=Mg [1–cos45°] F=Mg(2–1) Momentum would be maximum when KE would be maximum and this is the case when total elastic PE 12. a Fk 15 7.5 m/s2 . is converted into KE. According to conseration of energy m2 node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 1 kL2 1 Mv2 Now, ma 1 kx2 2 7.5 1 10000 x2 22 22 kL2 Mv 2 or MkL2 = p2 ( p = Mv) or x2 = 3 × 10–3 or x = 0.055 m or x = 5.5 cm M p L Mk 13. Question is somewhat based on approximations. Let mass of athlete is 65 kg. Applying work-energy theorem at the lowest and Approx velocity from the given data is 10 m/s highest point, we get So, KE = 65 100 3250 J WC + WNC + Wext = K 2 WC + 0 + 0 = Kf–Ki So, option (d) is the most probable answer. 1 WC(Gravity) = 0 – 2 × 0.1 × 25 WGravity = –1.25 J 65
JEE-Physics ab EXERCISE –V(B) 14. U= x12 x6 dm d Force = v = v × (volume × density) dU a 6b x= 2a /6 1. F = – dx 12 x13 – x7 0 b 2. dt dt U(x = ) = 0 3. = v d Ax = v A dx Av2 4. a b b2 dt dt Uequilibrium = 2a2 Power = Force × velocity b 2a 4a b = (Av2) (v) = Av Power v 3 b2 b2 dU U(x = ) – Uequilibrium 0 4a 4a F = – dx dU = – Fdx 1 x U x kx2 ax4 1 5 . m2 t dU 2 kx ax3 dx or 0 24 d 1 Let potential energy U(x) = 0 t dt t 2 1 1 x2 ax2 F = ma t 2 t 0 = 2 k 2 k1 x2 x has two roots viz x = 0 and x = 2k . k2 x1 16. Given same force F = k1x1 = k2x2 a 11 ax2 W1 = k 1x 2 & W2 = k 2x 2 If k < , P.E. will be – ve or 2 1 2 2 2 1 when x > 2k , P.E. will be negative. 2 W1 k1 x12 a W2 > 1 so As 1 1 F = – kx + ax3 At x =0, F=0, 2 k 2 x 2 Slope of U–x graph is zero at x=0. 2 F x1 k2 2k Fx2 > 1 k1 > 1 Thus P.E. is zero at x=0 and at x= k2 > k1 statement 2 is true a Slope of U–x graph, at x=0, is zero. OR Mechanical energy is conserved in the process. if x1 = x2 = x Let x=Maximum extension of the spring. Increase in elastic potential energy = 1 kx2 node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 2 1 2 K x 2 W1 1 K1 Loss of gravitational potential energy = Mgx W2 1 K2 2 K 2 x2 Mgx = 1 kx2 or x = 2Mg 2 k W1 K 1 <1 The gravitational field is a conservativefield. In a W2 K 2 conservative field, the workdone W does not depend on the path (from A to B). It depends on W1 < W2 initial and final points. statement 1 is false W1= W2 =W3 66 E
JEE-Physics 5 . For conservative forces, 9 . It is a case of uniform circular motion. xx kx2 Velocity and acceleration keep on changing their directions. Their magnitudes remain constants. Fdx kx dx or U(x)–U(0) =– Kinetic energy remains constant. U =– 2 1 1 . (i) For circular motion of the ball, the centripetal 00 force is provided by (mg cos–N) But U(0) = 0, as given in the question, U(x) = kx2 or x2 = 2U x mg cos–N = mv2 ...(i) d 2k R 2 It represents a parabola, below x–axis, symmetrical about U–axis, passing through origin. d 2 By geometry, h = R (1–cos) 6 . Energy conservation gives L 5gL By conservation of energy, v2= u2–2g(L–L cos) 5gL Kinetic energy= potential energy 5gL 1 mv2 mg R d 1 cos or or 4 =5gL–2gL (1–cos) 2 2 or 5=20–8 + 8 cos or cos = – 7 3 v2 2 R d 1 cos g ...(ii) 8 4 2 From (i) & (ii), we get total normal reaction force N. 7 . Tsin=m2 (Lsin) T = m2L N = mg(3cos–2) ...(iii) (ii) To find N and N NA AB \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\ For graphs : h From (iii), at A, v Tcos T mg N = mg (3cos–2) ...(iv) BA R A O (i) If N =0, A i.e. At A, N =0, Tsin 0 = mg (3cos–2) mg 2 or 3 cos =2 or cos = 3 max Tmax 324 36 rad/s When N becomes zero, the ball will lose contact mL 0.5 0.5 A with inner sphere A. After this, it makes contact with outer sphere B. When – 0, N= mg A The N versus cos graph is a straight line as shown A 8 . According to problem particle is to land on disc. in the figure. NA mg node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 2/3 cos t n (ii) To find N : Rsint B 2 R t Consider : cos > 3 The ball makes contact with B. If we consider a time 't' then x component of displacement is Rt N– (–mgcos) = mv2 or N + mg cos B B Rsint < Rt d Thus particle P lands in unshaded region. R 2 For Q, x-component is very small and y-component mv2 equal to P it will also land in unshaded region. = R d / 2 ...(v) E 67
JEE-Physics Sphere B N v 1 4 . A particle of mass 0.2 kg is moving in one dimension under a force that delivers a constant power 0.5 d W to the particle. If the initial speed (in ms–1) of the particle is zero, the speed (in ms–1) after 5 s is. [IIT-JEE 2013] mg Ans. (5) R Sphere A P = Fv mv dv 0.5 dt v 5 1 0.2 v2 1 5 0 2 2 2 0 mvdv dt By energy conservation, v2 = 25 v = 5 m/s 1 mv2 mg R d R d 1 5 . The work done on a particle of mass m by a force 2 2 2 cos mv2 x 3/2 ˆi y 3/2 ˆj or d = 2mg (1–cos) ...(vi) Kx2 y2 x2 y2 R 2 (K being a constant of appropriate dimensions), From (iv) and (v) when the particle is taken from the point (a, 0) to the point (0, a) along a circular path of radius N + mgcos = 2mg–2mgcos a about the origin in the x-y plane is :- B N = mg(2–3cos) ...(vii) B 2 [IIT-JEE 2013] When cos = ,N=0 2K K 3B (A) a (B) a When cos = –1, N = 5 mg. B Thus the N – cos graph is as shown in the figure. K B (C) 2a NB (D) 0 5 mg Ans. (D) mg Particle is moving in x-y plane so –1 2/3 cos xˆi yˆj k x ˆi y ˆj k xˆi yˆj r F r3 r3 r3 kr r3 1 2 . m g – T = m a ...(i) Force is central (i.e. conservative) so work done 11 by this force in closed loop = 0 T–m g = m a ...(ii) Paragraph for Questions 16 and 17 22 (m = 0.72kg; m = 0.36 kg) A small block of mass 1 kg is released from rest 12 at the top of a rough track. The track is a circular 10 From (i) and (ii) a = m/s2 arc of radius 40 m. The block slides along the track 3 1 10 5 TT without toppling and a frictional force acts on it a m2 m1 a d = × × 12 = m in the direction opposite to the instantaneous 23 3 velocity. The work done in overcoming the friction 10 10 up to the point Q, as shown in the figure below, node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 v = 0 + × 1 = m/s is 150 J. (Take the acceleration due to gravity, 33 51 100 g = 10 m s–2) [IIT-JEE 2013] W = 0.36 × 10 × + × 0.36 × T 32 9 y W =8J R P T 30° 13 . By using work energy theorem (W = KE) mgx 1 kx2 0 1 mV 2 QR 22 V 2 1.44 V 1.2 0.4 4 N 4 Ox 9 3 10 68 E
JEE-Physics 1 6 . The magnitude of the normal reaction that acts 1 7 . The speed of the block when it reaches the point on the block at the point Q is Q is (A) 7.5 N (B) 8.6 N (A) 5 ms–1 (B) 10 ms–1 (C) 11.5 N (D) 22.5 N (C) 10 3ms1 (D) 20 ms–1 Ans. (A) Ans. (B) Work energy principle from equation (i) mgRsin – W = 1 mv2 ..... (i) gR Wf f 2 m v= 2 sin = 10 m/s = 30° m = 1 kg R = 40 m Wf = 150 s = 30° mv2 N N – mg sin = R mv2 N = mg sin + =7.5N mg R node6\\E : \\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit 1 & 2\\04 Work Power Energy.p65 E 69
JEE-Physics UNIT # 12 (PART - I) MODERN PHYSICS (Atomic and Nuclear physics) EXERCISE –I e 6 V0 hc e 2V0 e2 1 14. hc 0 4 1 . P(D) = 1 – e–t = 1 – e =–× 2/ e2 hc 4 2 11 1 1 1 1 2 4 1 hr 15. I r2 intensity becomes th 2. T= hr, T = hr; T = 1 6 4 A 1 2B 4 A+B 24 v1 2h0 h0 1 v2 5h0 h0 2 v2 1 16. 8 106 ms1 so, first 2 hr = 1 half lives (by A) next 1 hr = 4 half lives (by B) 17. M = M e–t M0 M e t n 1 = –t 0 20 20 0 1 n(20) T1 / 2 t n(2 ) n (1 0 ) next 2 hr = 3 half lives (by A+B) n2 n2 N0 T1 / 2 t 28 thus N = ( Total eight half lives) t = 16.42 days 3. dp F (2P sin ) 18. hc 0 1 mv2 ; 4hc 0 1 m v 2 F 2 3 2 1 dt t F = 2npsin [n = number of photon] 0 4 0 0 4 1 m v 2 1 m v 2 h 3 3 2 2 1 1N= 2(n) sin 30° n = 1027 1 4 1 0 4 4 . In photo electric effect the maximum velocity of e– 2 m v 2 3 2 mv2 3 v1 v 3 will corresponding to KE & other are less than 1 max it. 0.1 n N 5. KE = h 19. (a) P = N hc (b) (c) max 100 i ne 20. K2 hc hc K < K2 6 . For threshold frequency, h0= 0 h K1 2 2 1 2 2 hc KE = h–= h(– ) hc 2 2 max 0 1 Isaturation n where I= nh 7 . K = h – V = Kmax 4eV 4 volts 2 1 . Greater work function greater intercept max se e 8. K1 h1 1 1 0.5 1 2 2 . De broglie waves are independent of shape & size K 2 h2 2 2.5 0.5 4 of the object. Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\05.Modern Physics.p65 9 . 1 2 2.53 2948 Å 2 3 . De broglie waves are probability waves and are 2 1 5.06 5896 applicable for all the objects. Wave nature is observed for the small particles like electrons. 1 0 . eV = h 2 4 . K.E. qV S 11. E = h hh hh 12. k K.E. = h 1 p1 2m1K1 ; 2 p2 2m 2K 2 max frequency depends on of light properties m2 m1 of cathode q q1 q2 & V is same 1 2 1 2 13. 2 1 89
JEE-Physics h 1 R(Z 1)2 1 1 2 5 . = p (so same) 38. n 2 n 2 1 2 h K 3 For K line, n =1, n = 2 2mK kT 12 26. ; 2 1 1 1 3 12 4 R(43 1)2 R 4 2 2 ...(i) 22 h h 25.15 Å and 2m 3 kT 3mkT T 2 1 R (2 9 1)2 1 1 R 282 3 ...(ii) 12 22 4 2 7 . Maximum photon energy = 13.6 eV (emitted) Dividing eq. (i) by (ii), we get 9 9 So K = 13.6 – 4 = 9.6 eV 4 4 max Hence stopping potential is – 9.6 V So – 10V can stop 2 8 . No. of electron that can accommodate in nth shell = 2n2 1 R(Z–1)2 1 1 Total number of elements = = 2(1)2 + 2(2)2 + 2(3)2 + 2(4)2= 60 39. n 2 n 2 1 2 13.6eV 2 9 . E = 22 = 3.4 eV For wavelength of K , n = 1 to n = 2 1 2 1875 R = R (Z –1)2 1 1 ...(i) 4 A 4 and 675 R = R[Z –1]2 1 1 ...(ii) 1 B 4 1 1 7 30. E – E = Z2 9 16 144 Z2 By solving eq. (i) & (ii) we get 43 Z = 26 and Z = 31 1 1 3 Z2 AB 4 4 [Four elements lie between these two] E – E = Z2 1 1 21 4 0 . min V so 6.22 10 min = 0.622 Å E –E = Z2 1 1 3 Z2 42 4 16 16 4 1 . Characteristic X–rays corresponds to the transition 31. E = h 1 1 of electrons from one shell to another. n12 4 3 . N x (200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10–19) = 1000 n 2 2 max for n =2 to n =1 4 4 . Q = –7(5.6) + [4(7.06)]2 Q = 17.3 MeV 2 1 1 1 1 45. 4 He 2n 2p number 12 n2 2 32. Wave 1.097 107 BE = [2(1.0073 + 1.0087) – 4.0015] 931.5 MeV Now in series limit corresponds to n = to n = 1 46. 2 Deuteron 4 H e 2 1 Wave number for series limit = =1.097× 107 Q = BE of product – BE of reactant = [28 MeV – 2(2.2 MeV)] Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\05.Modern Physics.p65 13.6(2)2 = [28 – 4.4] = 23.6 MeV 3 3 . E = 24.6 + 12 = 79.0 eV A 4 47. K= A 4 Q 48 = A 50 A = 100 A 3 4 . N =nC = 5C = 10 22 3 5 . 2r = n() 4 8 . 0 n1 1 p1 1 e0 3 6 . E = hc 1242eV nm = 59 keV 49. N = N – N N 0 [e t1 e t2 ] 0.021nm 12 3 7 . High atomic no. and high melting point. 1 5 0 . 90 days 3 half lives, left 8 i.e. 12.5% Disintegrated 100 – 12.5 = 87.5% 90
JEE-Physics N0 6. K = 10.4eV ; = 1.7 eV 10 max N0e–t n(1) n(10) 51. N = N e–t = – = –t E = 10.4 + 1.7 = 12.1 eV n=3 to n=1 0 t n10 T t =33 days 1242.eVÅ n2 1/2 12.1 = 5 2 . 63% or nearly 2/3 1 7 . Stopping potential frequency wave length m NA Saturation current rate of photoelectron 53. R = N = M w emission. Also, K.E. = h– , P= max 2mKE EXERCISE –II h h 8 . (1) A 2mTA (2) B 2mTB nh 13.6 Z2 (3) T = T – 1.5 eV (4) = 2 1 . (A) L = 2 (B) E = n2 BA BA cZ 9. K = 1242 eV 4.5eV (C) v 137 n (D) K = U max 200 2 K = 1.7eV at cathode 2. 1 R 1 1 , n =4 max 0 12 n2 K = (1.7 + 2) eV at anode max If polarity is revered, no e– reach at collector. hc hc hc 1 1 1 10. N = N e–t N0 N e T1/ 2 0 2 0 (a) 0 loge 2 1 1 2 0 1 2 T1 / 2 T = mean hc hc hc hc 1 1 1 1 Assuming to be 0 or 0 1 2 3 0 1 2 3 11. +1 3. 13.6 1 1 13.6Z2 1 1 69 E172 69 D172 71 C176 1 9 9 n2 1 0 72 B176 74 A 180 1 1 1 2 . At t = 0 : N = N 13.6 12 22 10 4. |K|= = 10.2 eV At time t : N = N e–t 20 Decayed in time t (N – N ) = N (1–e–t) 12 0 1 Probability that a radioactive nuclei does not decay 12 22 |U|= 27.2 = 20.4eV N N 0 e t e t N0 N0 in t=0 to t : 2h h h L = 2 2 2 13. Add equation 3 2 H 24 He + p + n 1 ke2 U ke2 m v2 (A) Q=[– [m ( 4 He )+m(p)+m(n)]+3m( 2 H )]× 931 MeV 5 . U 3r3 ; F r r4 r 2 1 n2h2 Q mv2 r3 = ke2; m2v2r2= 42 (B) 1016W = t Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\05.Modern Physics.p65 1 4 . A is balanced both in mass number & atomic no. m (constant), Also V2 n6 (h h0 ) r n2 m4 e 15. h = h0 + eV ;V = ; eVs=h– s s U ke2 Here =frequency of incident light and m3 , K.E. = 1 mv2 n6 = properties of emitter 3 n6 2 m3 hc 1 1 n6 n6 16. E = n 2 n 2 U m 3 , T.E. U K.E. m 3 1 1 2 For second excited state to first excited state n6 E= hc 1 1 hc 5 then total energy m 3 1 4 9 36 91
JEE-Physics For first excited state to ground excited state 1 2 6 . min V if V then (min) E2 hc 1 1 hc 3 4 4 No. of collision per electron increase then intensity increases (A) E1 5 (B) E1 hc 2 2 27 27. E2 27 E2 1 hc 1 N 5 1 P1 5 BE/A P2 (C) P 27 ZA 1 7 . P.E. = –2(K.E.) 28. = 0.173 , N = N e–t T.E. = (P.E.) + (K.E.) 0 T.E. = –2(K.E.) + (K.E.) T.E. =–(K.E.)–T.E. = K.E. K.E. = 3.4 eV N = (N – N e–t) = Decayed amount = 6.6 × 10–10 m 00 N = N 1 1 0 e 18. 122.4 = 13.6Z2 91.8 = 122.4 1 1 N N 0 (1 0.37) N 0 (0.63) 12 Z=3; 4 So an electron of KE 91.8eV can transfer its N N 0 (0 .6 3 ) 1 0 0 63% N0 N energy to this atom. 0 1 9 . Room temperature n=1 T = loge 2 4year Upon absorption excitations take place to many 1/2 higher states which upon de-excitation emit all U.V., infrared and visible light. 29. P= nrhc ,P = nbhc r b r b 2 0 . Room temperature n=1 so lyman series if P = P Since > n > n rb rb rb 27.2eV 13.6eV 21. U n2 C k n2 30. (a) P = N hc (b) i = e n (c) % 100% n N 13.6eV E = 1 1 3 1 . We have work is done by only electric field. Thus if E n2 C 13.6eV n2 m 2 decreases, & thus momentum of electron E v, v here in these questions C = + 27.2 eV decreases & vice–versa, while in magnetic field v remains constant. 2 2 . We have r 1 , = reduced mass 3 2 . For electron = 150 =1Å db 100 50 Kq2 m v 2 m v 2 nh r e N 2 ; mv r = re rN ee 3 3 . In photo electric effect only one to one Interaction. 2 3 . K > 20.4 eV for inelastic collision 34. N N 0e0t , N ' N e 100t 1 e 9 0t 0 e Node-6\\E:\\Data\\2014\\Kota\\JEE-Advanced\\SMP\\Phy\\Solution\\Unit-9 & 12\\05.Modern Physics.p65 24. decay : He4, so both Z & A decreases. 1 2 t = 90 decay : e0 , +1 so A will not change but Z will change (decreases) decay : e0 , hc hc h0 eV2 2 3 –1 1 so A will not change but Z will change (increases) 35. eV = , , eV = 1 3 decay : no change in A & Z. 25. V = 12400 10 10 volt 2 11 m in if 2V = V + V 2 1 2 2 1 3 12400 1010 12.4 104 harmonic progression 66.3 10 12 66.3 V = volt 18.75 kV 92
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