IELTS Reading Practice Materials (10 sets), Part 1 2019 Updated Edition (IELTS Reading Books by Liza Simon)_nodrm

Write your answers in Boxes 19 - 29 on your answer sheet. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 1380s John Hayle, who is .................19...................... apparently gave his name to Hayles Tye. 1520s The name of Hayles Tye was still........20.......... ..........21........again in the following two centuries to taxes. 18th Hayles tye was renamed .......22..........the original dwellings may century either have disappeared, or were .....................23............. 1817 The land was..........24..........by Charles Townsend. 1821 Charles Townsend built.......25.......cottages on the site. .........26........inhabited by two families, but by the end of the nineteenth century only one cottage ..................27.................... 1933 The cottage, now called File’s Green Cottage, was bought by the local........28......... manager who converted the cottage into.......29........ Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 2” Reading Passage 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 30-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below. Haydn’s late quartets A. By the time he came to write the String Quartets published as Opus 76 and Opus 77, Haydn was undoubtedly the most famous living composer in the whole of Europe. He had recently returned from the highly successful second visit to England, for which he had composed his last six symphonies, culminating in the brilliant and festive Drum Roll Symphony (No. 103) and London Symphony (No. 104). This is public music, full of high spirits, expansive gestures and orchestral surprises. Haydn knew how to please his audience. And in 1796, following his return to Vienna, he began work on his largest and most famous choral work, the oratorio, ‘The Creation’. In the succeeding years, till 1802, he was to write a series of other large scale religious choral works, including several masses. The

oratorios and masses were also public works, employing large forces for dramatic effect, but warm and full of apparently spontaneous religious feeling. Yet at the same time he composed these 8 quartets, in terms of technical mastery and sheer musical invention the equal of the symphonies and choral works, but in their mood and emotional impact far removed, by turns introspective and detached, or full of passionate intensity. Questions 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 B. Once again, as in the early 1770s when he appears to have been going through some kind of spiritual crisis, Haydn returned to the String Quartet as a means to accomplish a twofold aim: firstly to innovate musically in a genre free from public performance requirements or religious convention; secondly to express personal V emotions or philosophy in a musical form that is intimate yet capable of great subtlety and complexity of meaning. The result is a series of quartets of astonishing structural, melodic, rhythmic and harmonic variety, inhabiting a shifting emotional world, where tension underlies surface brilliance and calm gives way to unease. Questions 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C The six quartets of Opus 76 differ widely in character. The opening movement of No. 2 is tense and dramatic, while that of No 4 begins with the soaring long-breathed melody that has earned it the nickname of ‘The Sunrise’. The minuets too have moved a long way from the stately court dance of the mid-eighteenth century. The so-called ‘Witches Minuet’ of No. 2 is a strident canon, that of No. 6 is a fast one-in-a-bar movement anticipating the scherzos of Beethoven, while at the heart of No. 5 is a contrasting trio section which, far from being the customary relaxed variant of the surrounding minuet, flings itself into frenetic action and is gone. The finales are full of the energy and grace we associate with Haydn, but with far less conscious humour and more detachment than in earlier quartets. < l i l But it is in the slow movements that Haydn is most innovative and most unsettling. In No. 1 the cello and the first violin embark on a series of brusque dialogues. No.4 is a meditation based on the hushed opening chords. The slow movements of No.5 and No.6 are much looser in structure, the cello and viola setting off on solitary episodes of melodic and harmonic uncertainty. But there the similarity ends, for While No.5 is enigmatic, and predominantly dark in tone, the overlapping

textures of its sister are full of light- filled intensity. Questions 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D. The Opus 76 quartets were published in 1799, when Haydn was well over 60 years old. Almost immediately he was commissioned to write another set by Prince Lobkowitz, a wealthy patron, who was later to become an important figure in Beethoven’s life. Two quartets only were completed and published as Opus 77 Nos 1 & 2 in 1802. But these are not the works of an old man whose powers are fading, or who simply consolidates ground already covered. Once again Haydn innovates. The opening movement of Opus 77 No.2 is as structurally complex and emotionally unsettling as anything he ever wrote, alternating between a laconic opening theme and a tense and threatening counter theme which comes to dominate the whole movement. Both quartets have fast scherzo-like ‘minuets’. The slow movement of No.1 is in traditional variation form but stretches the form to the limit in order to accommodate widely contrasting textures and moods. The finale of No.2 is swept along by a seemingly inexhaustible stream of energy and inventiveness. Questions 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 E. In fact, Haydn began a third quartet in this set, but never finished it, and the two completed movements were published in 1806 as Opus 103, his last published work. He was over 70, and clearly lacked the strength to continue composition. The two existing movements are a slow movement followed by a minuet. The Slow movement has a quiet warmth, but it is the minuet that is remarkable. It is in true dance time, unlike the fast quasi- scherzos of the earlier quartets. But what a dance! In a sombre D minor Haydn unfolds an angular, ruthless little dance of death. The central trio section holds out a moment of consolation, and then the dance returns, sweeping on relentlessly to the final sudden up rush of sound. And then, after more than 40 years of composition the master falls silent. Questions 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Questions 30-32 Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in Boxes 30-32 on your answer sheet. 30. Which one of the following statements is true? A. Haydn wrote the London Symphony in England

B. We do not know where Haydn wrote the London Symphony C. Haydn wrote the London Symphony in Vienna D. Haydn wrote the Drum Roll Symphony in England Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” 31. Like symphonies 103 and 104, the oratorios and masses were.... A. written in the eighteenth century B. for the public C. as emotional as the quartets D. full of religious feeling Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” 32. The string quartets in Opus 76 and Opus 77 were...... A. the cause of a spiritual crisis B. intimate yet capable C. calm unease D. diverse Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” Questions 33-37 Complete the text below, which is a summary of paragraphs 3 and 4 in Reading Passage 3. Choose your answer; from the Word List below and write them in Boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet. There are more words and phrases than spaces, so you will not be able to use them all. You may use each word or phrase only once. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” For example, the opening of ‘The Sunrise’ is not nearly as ................33................... as that of No.2. ...................34................ those of the mid-eighteenth century, the minuets are more frenetic and less relaxed. It is in the slow movements, however, that Haydn tried something very different. In contrast to No.4, No.1 is much ...............35...................... brusque, the former being much ..............36 .......... . .................37.............., Nos. 5 and 6 are alike in some respects. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” Word List wide less different more long-breathed unlike

similarly subdued tense like conversely quieter Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” Questions 38-40 Do the statements below agree with the information in Reading Passage 3? In Boxes 38-40, write: TRUE if the statement agrees with the information in the passage FALSE if the statement contradicts the information in the passage Not Given if there is no information about the statement in the passage 38. Before the Opus 76 quartets were published, Haydn had been commissioned to write more. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” 39. The writer says that Opus 103 was Haydn’s last published work. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” 40. The writer admires Haydn for the diversity of the music he composed. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C” “D.” “E.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 3” Answer Key “lELTS READING TEST - VI” Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.”

IELTS READING TEST - VII

IELTS READING TEST - VII ReadingPassage 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 - 13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. SHOULD I BE AFRAID OF THIS SPIDER? A. Many people are deathly afraid of handling a spider because they fear it may be poisonous. Although almost all spiders are capable of producing venom, very few species produce harmful bites, and even fewer cause death. Compared to other venomous creatures, spiders rank low on the fatality scale. During a typical year in the U.S., twelve deaths were caused by bees, ten by wasps, fourteen by snakes, and only six by spiders. Learning a little about the spiders that are dangerous might help overcome a spider-phobia. In the U.S., there are three kinds of spiders which are considered dangerous. They are the Black Widow, the Brown Recluse and the Aggressive House spider. The Black Widow is a small to medium sized spider, easily recognized by its glossy coal-black colour and the reddish hourglass marking on the underside of its globe- shaped abdomen. In the northern species, the hourglass may appear incomplete or split into two triangles. The female‘s body is about half an inch in length, and with her slender legs extended, about an inch and a half. She has eight relatively large eyes arranged in two rows of four. The web she constructs is irregular, tangled, and cris-crossed. Invariably, she builds it outside the house in protected places, like under large rocks or logs, or in holes of dirt embankments, barns, outhouses, and other outbuildings. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 B. The Widow spider gets its name from the fact that the female frequently eats her male partner after mating, thus making herself a “widow”. Despite its reputation, Black Widows are very timid and are not known to aggressively bite humans unless they are guarding an egg mass or are cornered and pressed. However, the bite of a Widow contains a neurotoxin that interferes with muscle control. The bite causes a lot of pain in the abdomen and limbs and it can result in breathing difficulties and paralysis. In the rare event that death occurs, it is usually by suffocation. The Brown Recluse is a small spider with two unique characteristics. The first is a dark fiddle or violin-shaped marking on its thorax (the part to which the

legs are attached). The second is its six eyes arranged in three pairs that form a semi- circle (most spiders have eight eyes). Its slim light brown to yellow body measures about three eighths of an inch long, and with its slender legs extended, it measures more than an inch. It doesn’t always spin a web, but when it does, the web is irregular in shape and can usually be found under logs, stones, or piles of lumber. It is not uncommon for a Recluse to live inside a house in the dark corners of a trunk, among piles of stored clothing, or inside a garage or basement storage area. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 C. The Brown Recluse is a shy spider and searches for its insect prey primarily at night. People typically are bitten accidentally while putting on clothes in which the spider is hiding or by rolling onto them while in bed. The physical bite of the Brown Recluse is fairly painless with maybe only a slight stinging sensation being felt. People often do not know when the actual bite occurred. The symptoms from the venom appear about six to eight hours after the bite. The first symptom is a pimple-sized swelling at the bite site. About 12-24 hours after being bitten one may feel malaise, chills, fever and nausea. The bite usually produces a necrotic (death of tissue) condition followed by deep scaring, which often requires skin grafts. The poison also destroys red blood cells and may cause death by liver and/or kidney failure. The Aggressive House spider, nick-named the “Hobo spider“, is a medium sized, long-legged, swift running member of the funnel web spider family. The brown abdomen has a distinctive yellowish chevron pattern. The legs are a uniform brown without the darker brown bands that other non-poisonous funnel web spiders have. Adult Hobo spiders are approximately a half to five eighths of an inch in size. The male spider has pedipalps between the front legs, which are swollen and are often referred to as “boxing gloves“. These spiders build funnel shaped webs in corners of homes as well as on stairs. In the yard, the webs are usually attached to anything that remains stationary near the ground level. Its web is non-sticky by spider standards and serves more as a trip web. Thus, the Hobo spider must pounce upon its prey to capture it before it can get away. This may explain its aggressive nature. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 D. Experts call it the Aggressive House spider because it bites with little

provocation when cornered or threatened. Fortunately, the bite is relatively painless, and often times the victim does not even realize that he has been bit. 50% are “dry” bites that do not inject venom. If venom is injected, an immediate redness will develop around the bite; later, it will blister in the centre. Within 24 to 36 hours, the blister breaks open, leaving an open, oozing ulceration. This ulceration ‘scabs’ over within three weeks from the initial bite, leaving a permanent scar. In addition to the tissue damage, other symptoms such as headaches, nausea, sweating, and joint pain may be experienced after the bite. In extreme cases, skin graft, amputation, and the possibility of bone marrow failure may occur. On the positive side, the Widow, the Recluse and the Aggressive House spider, can be helpful creatures. They consume enormous numbers of harmful insects. The Widow, in particular, eats troublesome flies and mosquitoes (which carry diseases), locusts, and grasshoppers (which destroy grain crops) and beetles and caterpillars (which defoliate plants and trees). Keeping debris and woodpiles away from living quarters will aid in limiting their food sources and thus decrease the chances of having contact with them. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 Questions 1-5 Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 1. The bite of the Brown Recluse spider is relatively painless. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 2. The Black Widow’s venom is more dangerous than that of the Brown Recluse spider. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 3. Dangerous spiders cause more deaths in the U.S. than other venomous creatures. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 4. The Hobo spider is timid compared to the female Black Widow spider. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 5. Dangerous spiders serve useful purposes.

Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Questions 6-8 Look at the drawings of the different spiders below, A-F1 In Questions 6-8, match the name of each spider with one of the drawings. Write the appropriate letter, A-F, in boxes 6-8 on your answer sheet. Example Answer The “woIf spider” F Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 6. The Hobo Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 7. The Brown Recluse Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 8. The female Black Widow Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Questions 9-13 Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from Reading Passage 1 for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 9 – 13 on your answer sheet.

Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Species Number of Body-only Body Usual Shape of eyes length Colour Behaviour web Recluse ....9..... 3/8in. Brown to shy Irregular Brown Yellow Black Eight .....10...... ......11...... Timid Tangled Widow Hobo Eight ½ - 5/8 in. Brown ....12... .....13.... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 1” Reading Passage 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-28 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. Questions 14-18 Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphss, A-F. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphss A-C and E—F from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number, i—ix, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet NB: There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use them all. List of Headings i. An energy alternative but a matter of choice ii. Promising but stifled by safely issues iii. Our present sources of energy iv. An impending shortage on the horizon v. A profile of energy use in the U.S. vi. The side effects of industrialisation vii. Shale oil and Tar sands, a limitless source viii. Detrimental effects limit its growth ix. A cleaner medium-term solution Example Answer Paragraph D ii 14. Paragraph A

Paragraph “A.” 15. Paragraph B Paragraph “B.” 16. Paragraph C Paragraph “C.” 17. Paragraph E Paragraph “E.” 18. Paragraph F Paragraph “F.” A. Oil accounts for approximately 40% of the world’s primary energy consumption. Coal contributes 23%. Natural gas provides 22%. Nuclear energy and hydroelectric facilities add about 7% each. Biomass, geothermal, solar and wind energy together kick in only 1%. Despite the low world oil prices that have prevailed since 1986 and the absence of any apparent sign of shortage, concern over disruption and depletion of non- renewable energy reserves has continued to be a major concern in industrialized countries. Ongoing issues include: How much longer can we heavily rely upon oil before we run out? What sources of energy can we rely on in the future and at what cost, financially and environmentally? Let us examine the current status of our main energy sources. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 B. Experts predict that a permanent worldwide oil shortage will begin in the year 2010, after which date production from the world’s oil fields will steadily decline. They also say that by the year 2040, all active and recoverable crude oil re- serves will have been depleted. No doubt, there are alternative sources of petroleum. Some of these sources are hundreds of times more abundant than existing crude oil reserves, e.g., shale oil and tar sands. However, the high cost of recovering and converting these resources into usable petroleum products remains a major stumbling block to its commercial use. in the future, we may have no choice but to tap into these resources, but the cost may be higher than most people want to bear. With regard to the environment impact, the use of oil continues to result in disastrous ocean oil spills by oil transport tankers, contaminated ground water and polluted air. In addition, burning this type of fuel releases stored

carbon dioxide into the Earth’s atmosphere, which is a major cause of global warming. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 C. Experts say we have enough coal reserves to last another 200 years. Despite coal’s relative cheapness and huge reserves, its growth in use has been limited by its detrimental effect on humans and the environment. Underground mining causes black lung disease in miners, sinking of land over mines, and drainage of acid into underground water supplies. Surface mining scars the land and renders it unproductive for planting. In addition, the burning of coal causes emission of sulphur dioxide particles, nitrogen oxide, and other impurities. Millions of people who depend on coal for indoor cooking and heating suffer bronchitis and respiratory illnesses, including lung cancer. In additional to severely polluting the air, coal burning causes highly acidic rainfall that is damaging to lakes and forests. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 D. Nuclear power does not contribute to air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions. However, mining uranium ore is hazardous to human health. Moreover, splitting the atom to boil water is like using a chainsaw to cut butter. The process creates tons of waste, i.e., radioactive waste that remains highly lethal to all life forms for thousands of years. The safe storage and transport of nuclear fuel waste have proven to be a serious obstacle to the industry and add significantly to the financial, social, and environmental cost of producing electricity with atomic energy. Another stifling factor has been the technical engineering difficulties and unexpected equipment and system failures, such as the ones that caused the radioactive accidents at Chernobyl and Three Mile Island. The public’s fear of the lethal radioactivity released in nuclear accidents is well founded. Health officials estimate that at least 4,365 people who took pan in the Chernobyl cleanup have died. Other factors that have crushed the expected rapid growth of nuclear energy are increasing regulatory demands, construction cost overruns, court challenges, and resistance by well-organized antinuclear activists. Many countries are now abandoning their nuclear programs, instead shifting to natural gas and renewable energy sources. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28

E. Natural gas is not as convenient, safe or flexible as crude oil. It is also more expensive to recover, transport and store. Existing gasoline engines, such as car engines, are not capable of using natural gas. Nevertheless, it is being widely touted by energy providers as an abundant, clean fuel for the 21st century. However, this resource, like other fossil fuels, is non- renewable. Experts estimate that the world’s natural gas reserves will last only about 65 years. Thus, some say that it is not a viable solution to the long-term energy crisis. One of the greatest advantages of natural gas is that it contains less sulphur, and therefore burns far cleaner than oil and coal. However, it still emits greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 F. Many people have come to recognize that increased energy efficiency could help the world energy balance in the short and middle term, and that productive conservation should be considered as no less an energy alternative than the energy sources that have been described. A number of obstacles stand in the way, however. One major roadblock is its highly fragmented and unglamorous character; it requires hundreds of millions of people to do mundane things such as turn off lights and keep tires properly inflated. Another barrier has been the price. Low energy prices make it difficult to convince people to invest time in energy efficiency. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 Questions 19-22 Complete the table below using the information in paragraphs B – E of Reading passage 2. Choose your answers from the box below the table and write them in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Energy activity Detrimental effect on humans or the environment ....19..... Black lung disease .....20.... Ocean pollution .....21.... Long-term lethal waste products .....22.... Greenhouse gasses

Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” A. Burning natural gas B. Mining for Coal C. Processing natural gas D. Burning oil-based fuels E. Generating nuclear energy F. Transporting oil via tankers G. Indoor use of coal for cooking or heating Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 23-27 Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write them in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet. 23. According to the text, one of the greatest benefits of using natural gas is that A. it has been widely touted as the fuel of the 21“ century. B. it burns cleaner than oil and coal. C. worldwide reserves will last us 65 years. D. it is more flexible and easier to transport than coal. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 24. According to the text, energy conservation may be difficult for some people because A. low energy prices do not motivate energy efficiency. B. conserving energy is expensive and very time consuming. C. many lack the knowledge of how to be energy efficient. D. of all of the above reasons. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 25. According to the text, “acidic rainfall” is caused by A. processing crude oil into petroleum-based products. B. mining coal above the ground. C. radioactive incidents like Chemobyl and Three Mile island. D. coal burning. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 26. According to the text, the production of nuclear energy A. accounts for about 3.5% of the world‘s energy consumption. B. is cleaner than any other type of conventional energy source. C. has been held back by engineering difficulties and equipment and

system failures. D. has caused 4,365 deaths worldwide. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 27. With regard to shale oil and tar sands as a future energy source, the writer believes that A. it is a better source of energy than coal. B. it will not be viable due to the high cost of transport and storage. C. people might not be willing to bear the expense. D. it will produce cleaner burning fuels than crude oil. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Question 28 From the list below choose the most suitable title for Reading passage 2. Write the appropriate letter, A—E, in box 28 of your answer sheet. A. A comprehensive look at energy sources around the globe B. Imminent energy depletion crises in the industrialized nations C. Environmental pollution and its main sources D. Concern over oil reserves and the potential of other energy sources E. Fossil fuels: Energy source for the 21st century? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 2” Reading Passage 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below. FAMILY SOCIOLOGY The basic family structures A. The structure of the family, and the needs that the family fulfils vary from society to society. The nuclear family—two adults and their children—is the main family unit in most Western societies. In others, especially in Asian societies, it is a subordinate part of an extended family unit, which also consists of grandparents and other relatives. A third type of family unit, which is becoming more prevalent, is the single-parent family, in which children live with an unmarried, divorced, or widowed mother or father. History and evolution of the family unit

Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 B. The family unit began primarily as an economic unit; men hunted, while women gathered and prepared food and tended children. Infanticide and expulsion of the infirm who could not work were common. Later, with the advent of Christianity, marriage and childbearing became central concerns in religious teaching. However, after the Reformation, which began in the 1500s, the purely religious nature of family ties was partly abandoned in favour of civil bonds. Today, most western nations now recognize the family relationship as primarily a civil matter rather than a religious one. The modern family Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C. The modern family differs from earlier traditional forms, primarily in its functions, composition, and life cycle and in the roles of husbands and wives. Many of the functions that were once performed by or within the traditional family unit are now performed by or within community institutions, e.g., economic production (work), education, and recreation. In the modern family, members now work in different occupations and in locations away from the home. Education is provided by the state or by private groups. Organized recreational activities often take place outside the home. The family is still responsible for the socialization of children. Even in this capacity, however, the influence of peers and of the mass media has assumed a larger role. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D. Family composition in industrial societies has also changed dramatically. The average number of children born to a woman in the United States, for example, fell from 7.0 in 1800 to 2.0 by the early 1990s. Consequently, the number of years separating the births of the youngest and oldest children has declined. This has occurred in conjunction with increased longevity. In earlier times, marriage normally dissolved through the death of a spouse before the youngest child left home. Today husbands and wives potentially have about as many years together after the children leave home as before. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 E. During the 20th century, extended family households declined in

prevalence. This change is associated particularly with increased residential mobility and with diminished financial responsibility of children for aging parents, as pensions from jobs and government- sponsored benefits for retired people became more common. By the 1970s, the prototypical nuclear family had yielded somewhat to modified structures including the one-parent family, the stepfamily, and the childless family. One-parent families in the past were usually the result of the death of a spouse. Now, however, most one-parent families are the result of divorce, although some are created when unmarried mothers bear children. In 1991, more than one out of four children lived with only one parent, usually the mother. Most one-parent families, however, eventually became two-parent families through remarriage. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 F. A stepfamily is created by a new marriage of a single parent. It may consist of a parent and children and a childless spouse, a parent and children and a spouse whose children live elsewhere, or two joined one- parent families. In a stepfamily, problems in relations between non- biological parents and children may generate tension; the difficulties can be especially great in the marriage of single parents when the children of both parents live with them as siblings. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 G. Childless families may be increasingly the result of deliberate choice and the availability of birth control. For many years, the proportion of couples that were childless declined steadily as venereal and other diseases that cause infertility were conquered. In the 1970s, however, the changes in the status of women reversed this trend. Couples often elect to have no children or to postpone having them until their careers are well established. Since the 1960s, several variations on the family unit have emerged. More unmarried couples are living together, before or instead of marrying. Some elderly couples, most often widowed, are finding it more economically practical to co- habit without marrying. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 World trends H. All industrial nations are experiencing family trends similar to those found

in the United States. The problem of unwed mothers—especially very young ones and those who are unable to support themselves—and their children is an international one, although improved methods of birth control and legalized abortion have slowed the trend somewhat. Divorce is increasing even where religious and legal impediments to it are strongest. Unchecked population growth in developing nations threatens the family system. The number of surviving children in a family has rapidly increased as infectious diseases, famine, and other causes of child mortality have been reduced. Because families often cannot support so many children, the reduction in infant mortality has posed a challenge to the nuclear family and to the resources of developing nations. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Questions 29-35 Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 29-35 on your answer sheet, write YES if the statement reflects the views of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 29. Due to changes in function, the modern family is weaker than earlier traditional forms. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 30. Some elderly couples prefer living together without marriage because it is more practical. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 31. Peer influence and mass media have assumed a larger role in the socialization of children. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 32. During the 20th century, extended family households became more common. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 33. Presently, most western countries view the family relationship as essentially a civil matter. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 34. The family unit first began as a product of religious teaching.

Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 35. Divorce is slowly decreasing, especially where religious and legal impediments are strongest. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” Questions 36-39 Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 36-39 on your answer sheet. 36. Childless families maybe increasingly the result of deliberate choice and the availability of...... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 37. Unchecked population growth in developing nations threatens the...... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 38. Now, most one-parent families are the result of...... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 39. The main family unit in most western societies is the.... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” Question 40 Choose the appropriate letter, A-D, and write it in box 40 on your answer sheet. This text is most probably taken from A. an encyclopaedia article that provides basic facts about the subject. B. a critical study of the positive and negative aspects of the evolving family unit C. a newspaper editorial about one person’s view of family sociology. D. a guidebook for people wanting to start their own family. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 3” Answer Key “IELTS READING TEST - VII”

IELTS READING TEST - VIII

IELTS READING TEST - VIII Reading Passage 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 -13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. William Gilbert and Magnetism A. The accredited father of the science of electricity and magnetism was the English scientist, William Gilbert, who was a physician and man of learning at the court of Elizabeth. Prior to him, all that was known of electricity and magnetism was what the ancients knew, that the lodestone possessed magnetic properties and that amber and jet, when rubbed, would attract bits of paper or other substances of small specific gravity. William Gilberts great treatise De Magnete, Magneticisique Corporibus or On the Magnet, printed in Latin, in 1600, containing the fruits of his researches and experiments for many years, indeed provided the basis for a new - science. William Gilbert was born in Colchester, Suffolk, on May 24, 1544. He studied medicine at St. Johns College, Cambridge, graduating in 1573. He was prominent in the College of! Physicians and became its president in 1599. The following year he was appointed physician to Queen Elizabeth I, and a few months before his death on Dec. 10, 1603, physician to James I. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 B. The ancient Greeks knew about lodestones, strange minerals with the power to attract iron. Some were found near the city of Magnesia in Asia Minor (now Turkey), and that city lent its name to all things magnetic. The early Chinese also knew about lodestones and about iron magnetized by them. Around the year 1000 they discovered that when a lodestone or an iron magnet was placed on a float in a bowl of water, it always pointed south. From this developed the magnetic compass, which quickly spread to the Arabs and from them to Europe. Britain was a major seafaring nation in 1588 when the Spanish Armada was defeated, opening the way to British settlement America. British ships depended on the magnetic compass, yet no one understood why it worked. Did the pole star attract it, as Columbus once speculated; or was there a magnetic mountain at the pole, as described in Odyssey, which ships should never approach, because the sailors thought its pull would yank out all their iron nails and fittings?

Did the smell of garlic interfere with the action of the compass, which is why helmsmen were forbidden to eat it near a ship’s compass? For nearly 20 years William Gilbert conducted ingenious experiments to understand magnetism. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 C. “William Gilbert was fascinated by magnets,” as Dr. David P. Stern of NASA notes. Given two magnets, Gilbert knew that; magnetic poles can attract or repel, depending on polarity. In addition, however, ordinary iron is always attracted to al magnet. Gilbert guessed, correctly, that near a permanent magnet iron became a temporary magnet, of a polarity suitable for attraction. That is, the end of an iron bar stuck to an S pole of a magnet (south-seeking pole) temporarily becomes an N- pole. Because magnetic poles always come in matched pairs, the other end of the bar temporarily becomes an S-pole, and can in its turn attract more iron. Gilbert confirmed his guess of temporary (“induced”) magnetism by an original experiment. Using strings, he hung two parallel iron bars above the pole of a terrella, a model earth he designed for this experiment, and noted that they repelled each other. Under the influence of the - terrella, each became a temporary magnet with the same polarities, and the temporary poles of each bar repelled those of the other one. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 D. In 1600 Gilbert published De Magnete in Latin. Very quickly it became the standard work throughout Europe on electrical and magnetic phenomena. In this work he describes many of his; experiments with his model earth terrella. From his experiments, he concluded that the Earth was itself magnetic and that this was the reason A l compasses pointed north. In his book, he also studied static electricity using amber. Gilbert strongly argued that electricity and magnetism was not the same thing. For evidence, he ( incorrectly ) pointed out that electrical attraction disappeared with heat, magnetic attraction did not. By keeping clarity, Gilbert’s strong distinction advanced science for nearly 250 years. It took James Clerk Maxwell to show electromagnetism is, in fact, two sides of the same coin. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 E.

De Magnets is not only a comprehensive review of what was known w about the nature of magnetism; Gilbert added much knowledge through his own experiments. He likened the polarity of the magnet to the polarity of the Earth and built an entire magnetic philosophy on this analogy. In Gilbert’s animistic ‘ explanation, magnetism was the soul of the Earth and a perfectly spherical lodestone, when aligned with the Earth’s poles, would spin on its axis, just as the Earth spins on its axis in 24 hours. He speculated that the moon might also be a magnet caused to orbit by its magnetic attraction to the Earth. This was perhaps the first proposal that a force might cause a heavenly orbit. Gilbert did not, however, express an opinion as to whether this rotating Earth was at the centre of the universe or in orbit around the Sun. In traditional cosmology the Earth was fixed and it was the sphere of the fixed stars, carrying the other i heavens with it, which rotated in 24 hours. Since the Copernican cosmology needed a new physics to undergird it, Copernicans such as Johannes Kepler and Galileo were very interested in Gilbert’s magnetic researches. Galileo’s efforts to make a truly powerful armed lodestone for his patrons, probably date from his reading of Gilbert’s book. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 F. The first major scientific work produced in England, Gilbert’s De Magnete reflected a new attitude toward scientific investigation. Until then, scientific experiments were not in fashion: instead, books relied on quotes of ancient authorities and that is where the myth about garlic interfering with the compass started. Unlike most medieval thinkers, Gilbert was willing to rely on sense experience and his own observations and experiments rather than the authoritative opinion or deductive philosophy of others. In the treatise he not only collected and reviewed critically older knowledge on the behaviour of the magnet and electrified bodies but described his own researches, which he had been conducting for 17 years. It was because of this scientific attitude, together with his contribution to our knowledge of magnetism, that a unit of magneto motive force, also known as magnetic potential, was named the Gilbert in his honour. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 Questions 1 -8 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage.

In boxes 1 -8 on your answer sheet write TRUE if the statement is true FALSE if the statement is false NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage. 1. It was Gilbert who first discovered some substances with magnetic properties. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 2. Arabs invented the magnetic compass in which an iron magnet always pointed south. . Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 3. Gilbert explained the phenomenon of the magnetic compass in his book De Magnete. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 4. Gilbert’s mistaken notion about the distinction between electricity and magnetism held back the development of science. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 5. Gilbert speculated that the moon orbited the Earth by magnetic force. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 6. Copernicans such as Galileo favoured traditional cosmology which held that the earth was the centre of the universe. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 7. Gilbert’s magnetic theories contradicted traditional cosmology. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 8. As a scientist, Gilbert set himself apart by favouring an intuitive approach and experiments rather than deductive reason. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 9-13 Choose the appropriate letters A—D and write them in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet. 9. In the Odyssey, why could ships not approach the mountain at the pole? A. People believed that they would get lost if garlic hampered the action of the compass. B. People believed that the pole star would distract ships away. C. People believed that the magnetism would wreck the ship. D. People believed that the magnetic mountain would make the compass

out of work . Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 10. By contacting two metal bars, one magnetised, the other neutral, he was able to pass on a charge to the neutral bar. He called this ______________ A. induced magnetism. B. permanent magnetism. C. terrella magnetism. D. polar magnetism. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 11. In De Magnete, Gilbert ______________ discussed electricity, magnetism and heat A. emphatically B. scientifically C. wrongly D. passionately Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 12. James Clerk Maxwell demonstrated that ______________ A. electricity and magnetism was the same thing. B. electrical and magnetic attraction disappeared with heat. C. there was some relationship between electricity and magnetism. D. electromagnetism has two opposite sides. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 13. Gilbert’s De Magnete, a collection of his theories and experiments and reflections on others’ work is commonly known as ______________ A. an essay. B. a treatise. C. a volume. D. a contribution. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 1” Reading Passage 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

The History and Evolution of Banana Hybrids A. Bananas are the world’s favourite fruit and many nations depend on banana trees to supply its citizens with this delicious food product to save them from famines. Bananas are available on markets year round and are rich in vitamins, minerals, and fiber, containing only small hollow seed that are infertile. Ornamental bananas, ‘Musa ensete’ and ‘Musa nana’ are inedible but in high demand for landscaping. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 B. India is the world’s largest producer of bananas and Alexander the Great found them growing there in 327 BC, when he conquered India. Soldiers of Alexander the Great returned to Greece and Persia with bulbs from banana plants, ‘Musa accuminata’, where they were distributed and planted. Antonius Musa, the personal physician of Augustus Caesar, imported the first banana trees, ‘Musa accuminata’, to Home from Africa in 63 BC. Later, slaves from Portugal brought bananas to Europe from Africa in the early 1400s. Even though the banana is believed to have originated in India (Eastern Asia), it was established in Africa and Europe as a staple food product many centuries ago and came into North America through Spanish missionaries. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 C. Those first bananas that people knew in antiquity were not sweet like the bananas we know today, but were cooking bananas or plantain bananas with a starchy taste and composition. The bright yellow bananas that we know today were discovered as a mutation from the plantain banana by a Jamaican, Jean Francois Poujot, in the year 1836. He found this hybrid mutation growing in his banana tree plantation with a sweet flavour and a yellow colour—instead of green or red, and not requiring cooking like the plantain banana. The rapid establishment of this new exotic fruit was welcomed worldwide, and it was massively grown for world markets. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 D. Each banana comes from a flower maturing into groups of 10-20 bananas called ‘hands’ that circle the stalk, which collectively is called a ‘bunch’. The bananas can require one year to mature after flowering in the field,

and then the mother banana plant dies. The plant is restored the following season by offshoots from the mother plant. An original cluster of banana trees can grow continuously for 100 years, but are generally replaced in banana tree plantations after 25 years. Bananas ripen best and develop more sweetness, if the bunch is removed from the tree, allowing the fruit to ripen off the tree in a shady place to slowly ripen. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 E. The banana tree can grow up to 30 feet tall, and the trunk of the tree grows to a width at the base of over 1 foot. The trunk of the banana plant is made sheaths and stems with new growth emerging from the centre of the trunk. The size of bananas can range from a fruit the size of a football to one as small as a child’s finger. Some bananas taste sweet; some starchy and some ornamental bananas are loaded with large seeds and are considered inedible. The colour of ripe bananas can range from green, orange, brown, yellow, or variegated with white stripes. Bananas are the world’s best selling fruit, outselling both apples and citrus; each American is estimated to eat 25 pounds of fruit every year. The ‘Cavendish’ banana is the most popular banana in the United States and over 400 cuItivars of bananas are available on world markets. The leaves of banana trees are used as wrappers for steaming other foods inside, and the banana flower is also edible. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 F. Bananas are also the largest exported fruit in the world, registering sales of 12 billion dollars a year for Chiquita and Dole. These bananas are imported into the United States from companies and plantations growing banana trees in India, South America and Africa. Many third world countries depend on the production of bananas to feed them as a major food staple, where they eat bananas 3 meals a day. Bananas are rich in sugars such as sucrose, glucose, and fructose, as well as fiber and special minerals containing potassium, phosphorous, magnesium and iron. Bananas contain tryptophan, a body protein that is converted to serotonin, a mood enhancer. They also are high in Vitamin A, Vitamin B6, Vitamin B12, and Vitamin C. Doctors claim that eating bananas can cut the risk of sudden stroke by 40%, as published in the New England Journal of Medicine.

Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 G. Most banana trees available today are grown from ‘mother’ bulbs by taking offsets that form shoots. Those can be replanted to multiply and increase a banana tree plantation. These banana sprouts that form at the base of the ‘ mother’ bulb can be shipped around the world to many countries, being almost genetically identical to the original banana plant parent of 10,000 years ago that mutated and stopped making seed and became the first naturally evolved hybrid. No pollinated sex means no annoying seeds, which may be good news for hungry consumers but also means that there is little or no genetic variation—and hence little or no resistance to the ‘banana’s many natural enemies. Devoid of sex, the poor cloned banana is a sitting target for any pest. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 H. Recently, an evil-sounding beast called the Black Sigatoka fungus has been throwing those livelihoods into jeopardy. Black Sigatoka, along with the weevils, worms and viruses that also routinely attack bananas, is a particularly disturbing menace in the tropics, where the cooking banana and starchy plantain provide up to a quarter of the daily intake of essential calories. Finding a way of introducing a little spice—and therefore genetic variety- into the reproductive life of the banana (and its cousin the plantain) is therefore a pressing problem. That’s why a project to do just that has now begun. Announced recently, it involves scientists from 11 countries forming a consortium to decode the banana’s genome within the next five years. As with the human genome project, the information will reveal much about the genes that make a banana what it is, and more importantly what it might be with a little extra help. This information and any resulting advances in genetic modification will be of profound importance, not just to banana boffins, but to a large proportion of humanity Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 Questions 14—21 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 14-21 write YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this. 14. Ornamental bananas are valued as a delicacy. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 15. Augustus Caesar brought bananas from Greece to Home via Africa. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 16. Third World countries grow bananas as n major food source. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 17. After maturing for one year bananas are at their peak. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 18. The banana genome project aims at changing the genetic code of bananas. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 19. Bananas are the No. 1 fruit crop in the world in terms of consumption. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 20. Without pollinated sex, the cloned banana is vulnerable to pests. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 21. Doctors believe that eating bananas can heal some diseases. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” Questions 22 -26 Complete the sentences below with words taken from the passage. Use ONLY ONE WORD. 22. The bright yellow bananas we eat today were a ______________ from the plantain banana. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 23. ______________ is a key factor in curing mood depression. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 24. The benefit to cloned fruit is that it has no ______________ . Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 25. Some ornamental bananas are full of large seeds, making them ______________. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” 26. The bananas of antiquity required ______________ before eating.

Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 2” Reading Passage 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27- 40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below. Questions 27-32 Reading Passage 2 has 7 paragraphs A— G. From the list of headings below choose the 6 most suitable headings for paragraphs A, B, C, D, E and F. Write the appropriate numbers (i—x). NB: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. List of Headings i. Toys challenging the early conceptions ii. Parental love never changes iii. Toy representing Medieval art iv. The first archaeological evidence v. Various sources of medieval toys vi. Development of toy industry and trade vii. Written evidence of toys viii. Window to the Middle Ages childhood ix. Tangible proof of toys x. Exceptionally rare toys 27. Paragraph A Paragraph “A.” 28. Paragraph B Paragraph “B.” 29. Paragraph C Paragraph “C.” 30. Paragraph D Paragraph “D.” 31. Paragraph E Paragraph “E.” 32. Paragraph F

Paragraph “F.” Medieval Toys and Childhood A. The toy knight comes from a rich harvest of archaeological finds, made in the mud banks of the River Thames in Landon during the last 30 years. It was manufactured in about 1300, and illustrates several facets of medieval childhood. Then as now, children liked playing with toys. Then as now, they had a culture of their own, encompassing slang, toys, and games. Then as now, adults cared for children and encouraged their play. An adult made this toy and another adult bought it for a child, or gave child money to buy it. The toy knight was made from a mould, and produced in large numbers. It probably circulated among the families of merchants, shopkeepers, and craft workers, as well as those of the nobility and gentry. The finds also include toys that girls might have liked: little cups, plates, and jugs, some sturdy enough to heat up water by a Fireside. There is even a self-assembly kit: cupboard out out of a sheet of soft metal, instead of the plastic that would be used today. Toys give us a positive view of medieval childhood. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 B. Medieval toys might be home-made by adults with time on their hands, fashioned by the children themselves, or bought from wandering peddlers or merchants at fails—even ordered specially from the most prestigious makers. Some of the dolls appear to have been given to children once their usefulness as fashion models was past. Naturally, the types and magnificence of the toys varied with the status of the recipient. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C. Many of the dolls sold In England came from abroad, chiefly from many and Holland, although very fancy dolls were sold in the Palais du Justice, alongside other expensive luxuries. However, the industry as slow to develop into a guild, hampered partly by its own rules—toys ad to be finished by the appropriate masters, and thus could not be made all in one workshop, for instance. There was also the hindrance that toy making was for a long time considered an addition to a ‘real’ trade, and to a great extent left to the local craftsmen in their spare me, rather than quickly becoming an industry of its own, as was the case in many other fields.

However, dolls among other toys appear to have been traded on a small but constant and gradually increasing level throughout the Middle Ages and Renaissance. Dockenmacher (‘doll- makers’) are recorded in Nuremberg from 1413, and their very existence indicates the rising importance of the toy trade on both the local and the international scene. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D. Written sources for the existence of toys, and to some extent of their type and manufacture, are fairly plentiful, from legal records, to poetry describing the age of innocence, and sermons on the immature behaviour of the socialites of the day. Most pictorial sources are generally later, but one drawing survives from around 1200, which shows two youths playing with a pair of foot soldiers. The warriors appear to be on strings, enabling them to be pulled back and forth in semblance or battle. Boys are often shown in illustrations playing with such warrior dolls, an various Jousting figures survive which show the perfection of articulated armour and fine horse-trappings which could be achieved in a boy‘s plaything. In portraiture of the sixteenth century, noble girls are often pictured holding exquisitely dressed dolls, possibly bought new for the sitting as they seem fresh from the box and neither grubby nor worn own with use. These dolls are likely to be accurately painted rather than idealized, as the sitters themselves often were, so it must be assumed that such dolls were indeed artistically finished, beautifully attired and painted with the most delicate of features. In contrast, the seventeenth-century painting of a peasant family, by Adriane van Ostade, offers proof that children of more humble origins also play with dolls. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 E. Archaeological evidence is more widely available than might at first thought. Naturally, more survives, the closer we get to modem times, and the material of which dolls were made doubtless influences our picture of their history. From Viking settlements in the far north a few oils have been separated ‘from the multitude of figures identified by the experts as idols and funerary figures. Some heads and limbs have been found, which may once have had cloth bodies, although it is certain whether these were designed as toys or votive offerings. Although no surviving pieces have thus far been uncovered, wealthy Anglo-Saxon children in England may

have entertained themselves with carved alabaster dolls, a substance which had been used for doll-making since the Roman occupation, while poorer children of this age would have owned wooden or cloth dolls. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 F. Dating from as early as the 13th century, items unearthed from the mud banks of the River Thames include tiny cannons and guns, meta figurines, and miniaturized household objects such as stools, jugs. cauldrons, and even frying pans complete with little fish. Made mainly from pewter (a tin- lead alloy), these medieval toys are exceptionally rare and have helped transform perceptions of childhood during the Middle ages says Hazel Forsyth curator of post-medieval collections at the Museum of London. “In the 1960s French historian Philippe Aries claimed at there wasn’t really such a thing as childhood in the Middle Ages and that parents didn’t form emotional attachments with their offspring, regarding them as economic providers or producers for the household,” Forsyth said. Aries pioneered ways of looking beyond kings, politics, and war to everyday medieval life. He argued that parents invested little emotional capital in their children because they had lots of offspring, many of them died in infancy, and that surviving children were sent to work at the ages of six or seven. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 G. Aries’s views had a lot of currency. And for very many years, people took it for granted. It has only been recently, with discovery of ancient childhood items by contemporary treasure hunters, that we’ve challenged this received wisdom. “Surprise, surprise, human nature doesn’t change,” Forsyth said. “Some parents from the Middle Ages are very devoted to their children and gave them every luxury and pleasure they could afford.” Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Questions 33-36 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet write TRUE if the statement is true FALSE if the statement is false NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage.

33. In the past boys have played with soldier dolls and girls with feminine, fashionably dressed miniatures. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 34. The establishment of the toy trade grew together with the formal establishment of a toymaker’s guild. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 35. England was the largest doll market during the Middle Ages. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 36 Paintings show young boys playing with dolls that having moving pieces. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Questions 37- 40 Complete the summary below. Choose your answers from the box and write them in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet. NB: There are more words than spaces so you will not use them all. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” French historian Philippe Aries claimed that there wasn’t .........37......... the Middle Ages. Aries also asserted that people at that time had so many ............38............ that they could not invest much effort in everyone. Although many people ...........39.......... those views, the discovery of Medieval Toys cast much doubt on them. Hazel Forsyth believed that .......40........... didn’t change and in the Middle Ages parents spent vast money to buy luxury toys for their children. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 3” Answer Key “IELTS READING TEST - VIII”

IELTS READING TEST - IX

IELTS READING TEST - IX Reading Passage 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 12, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. THE SMITHSONIAN INSTITUTE A. The Smithsonian was established in 1846 by the U.S. Congress under the terms of a gift by British scientist James Smithson. Today, it is the largest museum complex in the world. It comprises 16 museums, a National Zoo, and several prominent research centres, most of which are located near its headquarters in Washington, D.C. The institutions collections number more than 140 million items, from masterpieces of modern sculpture and the world’s oldest fossil to the original compass used by the “Lewis and Clark expedition” to the American West. A hallmark of the Smithsonian is its accessibility. Every museum is open to the public free of charge, generally every day of the year except December 25. The research centres offer frequent public exhibitions and educational programs. The Smithsonian’s principal museums and research centres are briefly described below. The National Air and Space Museum presents a comprehensive survey of the evolution of aviation and space flight. Two dozen galleries trace themes and events in aviation and space history. The large and diverse collection of aircraft, spacecraft, and artefacts includes the Flyer, designed by the Wright brothers; the Spirit of St. Louis, used by Charles Lindbergh to make the first flight across the Atlantic Ocean; and the command module of Apollo 11, the first space mission to land on the moon. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 B. The National Museum of American History is devoted to providing an understanding of the United States and its many peoples through extensive collections, exhibitions, and public programs. Highlights of the collection include the original Star-Spangled Banner (the battle flag from the War of 1812 that inspired American lawyer and poet Francis Scott Key to compose the words of the United States’ national anthem); the compass explorer William Clark used on his expedition to the American West with Meriwether Lewis from 1804 to 1806; and the oldest operable locomotive, the John Bull, built in 1841. The National Museum of Natural History is

one of the world’s leading centres for research and learning about the natural world and humans‘ place in it. Its collections, which number more than 120 million specimens, are the foundation for research, exhibitions, and education. Highlights include the 45.5-carat Hope Diamond, the largest deep blue diamond in the world; millions of fossilized plants, animals, and geologic specimens; and one of the most complete AlIosaurus dinosaur skeletons displayed in a museum. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 C. The Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory was founded in 1890. As the era of space exploration began, the observatory was at the forefront of space science research, gaining a prominent reputation for its worldwide satellite-tracking network. In 1973 the joint Harvard-Smithsonian Centre for Astrophysics was created. The organization has been a pioneer in developing instruments and methods for astronomical research. Its facilities and equipment include ground-based telescopes in Arizona and Massachusetts, a highly advanced radio telescope in Cambridge, and many instruments aboard spacecraft and balloons. The Smithsonian Environmental Research Centre conducts long term ecological studies that contribute to the protection and management of natural resources, interdisciplinary studies at the centre investigate the effects of human activities on natural systems. Biology is the primary focus, but scientists also use geography, geology, hydrology, chemistry, physics, and other disciplines to find answers to environmental questions. Studies are conducted over 25 years to identify patterns and draw conclusions about causes of environmental phenomena. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 D. At the Smithsonian Tropical Research Institute (STRI), staff scientists and visiting researchers from around the world study the organisms, ecosystems, and peoples of the world’s tropics in the institute’s laboratories and research stations. As one of the world’s leading centres for tropical research, STRI has programs exploring animal behaviour, plant ecology, forest canopy biology, paleoecology (the study of ancient or prehistoric organisms in their environment), archaeology, evolution, genetics, marine ecology, anthropology, and conservation science. Research by the institute’s staff and visiting scientists has increased

understanding of how tropical plants respond to increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. By studying how tropical organisms communicate, scientists know more about the tropical forest canopy’s effect on global biological diversity. Smithsonian scientists use a specially designed tower crane system to reach the forest canopy. The crane was developed by STRI and is the only system of its kind in the tropics. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Questions 1 - 6 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write TRUE if the statement is true according to the passage. FALSE if the statement is false according to the passage. NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage. Example The National Museum of American History is devoted to providing an understanding of the United States and its many peoples. Answer TRUE 1. The Smithsonian consists of large museums, all of which are located near its head- quarters in New York. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 2. At the National Air and Space Museum, you can learn about the evolution of aviation. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 3. The 45.5-carat Hope Diamond, located in the National Museum of Natural History, is the world’s most valuable diamond. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 4. The Smithsonian was established by an American scientist from Harvard University. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 5. A hallmark of the Smithsonian is their lack of a public admission fee. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 6. The Smithsonian Environmental Research Centre conducts 25 year- studies to identify patterns and draw conclusions about causes of

environmental phenomena. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Questions 7-12 Some of the exhibits and instruments of the Smithsonian Institute are listed below (Questions 7-12). The writer gives these items as examples of what can be found at the Smithsonian’s various museums and research centres. Match each exhibit or instrument with the name of the museum or research centre which it is associated in Reading Passage 1. Write the appropriate letter in boxes 7-12 on your answer sheet. NB: You may use any museum or research centre name more than once. Museums and Research Centres AS National Air and Space Museum AH National Museum of American History NH National Museum of Natural History AO Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory TR Smithsonian Tropical Research Institute. Example Answer Explorer William Clark’s compass AH 7. The original Star-Spangled Banner Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 8. A highly advanced radio telescope Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 9. The oldest operable locomotive Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 10. The command module of Apollo 11 Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 11. A specially designed tower crane system Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 12. The “Spirit of St. Louis” Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 1”

Reading Passage 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-25 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. Questions 13-15 Reading Passage 2 has six sections, A—F. Choose the most suitable headings for sections B—C and E from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number; i—vii, in boxes 13-15 on your answer sheet. NB: There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use them all. List of Headings i. Massive heads, carved out of rock ii. Present day demographics iii. The island’s archaeological importance iv. Massacre and destruction by the Polynesians v. Geographic profile vi. How to carve a 27-ton statue vii. 18th century inhabitants Example Answer Paragraph A v 13. Paragraph B Paragraph “B.” 14. Paragraph C Paragraph “C.” 15. Paragraph E Paragraph “E.” MYSTERY OF THE MEGALITHS A. Easter Island, also known as Rapa Nui, is a triangular-shaped island belonging to Chile. It is located in the South Pacific Ocean, about 3700 km west of the Chilean coast. The island is formed by three extinct volcanoes. Swept by strong trade winds, the area is warm throughout the year. Indigenous vegetation consists mainly of grasses. Potatoes, sugarcane, taro roots, tobacco, and tropical fruits are grown in the fertile soil. The prime source of fresh water is the rain that gathers in the crater lakes.

Questions 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 B. The Island was named by a Dutch explorer who landed there on Easter Day in 1722. At the time, several thousand Polynesians inhabited the island. However, disease and raids by slave traders reduced the number to fewer than 200 by the late 19th century. The Chilean government annexed the island in 1888. An area on the western coast is reserved by the government for the indigenous population; the remainder is used as grazing land for sheep and cattle. Some intermarriage has taken place between the Polynesians and the Chileans. Questions 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 C. Easter Island is of considerable archaeological importance. It is the richest site of the megaliths (giant stone monuments) of the Pacific island groups and the only source of evidence of a form of writing in Polynesia. Very little is known about the people who made the megaliths and carved the wooden tablets. One belief is that settlement of Easter Island took place about 18 centuries ago, al- though some scholars contend that the settlement occurred more recently. Archaeological and botanical evidence suggests that the island’s original inhabit- ants were of South American origin. The ancestors of the present Polynesian population are thought to have travelled in canoes from the Marquesas Islands, massacred the inhabitants, and made the island their home. Many archaeologists believe that at the time of the invasion, the megaliths, including about 600 statues, were standing throughout the island and that many were destroyed by the Polynesians during a period of violence on Easter Island. Questions 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 D. Largest of the existing stone monuments are the great burial platforms, called ahus, which were used to support rows of statues. The ahus were situated on bluffs and in other positions commanding a view of the sea. Each ahu was constructed of neatly fitted stone blocks set without mortar. The burial platform usually supported 4 to 8 statues, although one ahu, known as Tongariki, carried 15 statues. Within many of the ahus, vauIts house individual or group burials. Questions 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 E.

About 100 statues still stand on the island; they vary in height from 3 to 12 m (10 to 40 ft). Carved from tufi, a soft volcanic rock, they consist of huge heads with elongated ears and noses. Material for the statues was quarried from the crater called Ftano Ftaraku, where modern explorers found an immense unfinished statue, 21 m (68 ft) long. Many of the statues on the burial platforms bore cylindrical, brimmed crowns of red tuff; the largest crown weighs approximately 27 metric tons. Questions 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 F. Excavations have also disclosed hidden caves containing decayed remains of tablets and wooden images, and numerous small wooden sculptures. The tab- lets are covered with finely carved and stylized figures, which seem to be a form of picture writing. Questions 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 Questions 16-21 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 16-21 on your answer sheet, write YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this Example Answer Easter Island is a square-shaped island. NO 16. Easter Island is a significant source of artefacts. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 17. The settlement of Easter Island took place about 18 centuries ago. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 18. A few archaeologists believe that the Polynesians destroyed many of the megaliths. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 19. Disease and raids by slave traders decimated the island’s population. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 20. Evidence confirms that the island‘s first inhabitants came from South America. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.”

21. Not much is known about the makers of the megaliths and the wooden tablets. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 22-25 Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write them in boxes 22-25 on your answer sheet. 22. The primary source of fresh water on Easter Island comes from A. natural underground springs. B. Chile. C. rain that gathers in the crater lakes. D. tropical vegetation. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 23. The ancestors of the present-day Polynesian population A. are thought to have built some of the megaliths. B. are believed to have come from the Mariana islands. C. used some form of picture writing on wooden tablets. D. may have destroyed many of the megaliths. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 24. The brimmed crowns found on the island A. each weigh more than 27 metric tons. B. were made from soft volcanic rock. C. are the largest stone monuments on the island. D. were only worn around the necks of statues on burial platforms. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 25. The giant stone burial platforms A. typically supported fewer than 7 stone statues. B. were only used for the burial of tribal chiefs. C. contained numerous chambers where wooden tablets were found. D. weighed as much as 27 metric tons. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 2” Reading Passage 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 26-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

OUCH! YOU’VE GOT SOME NERVE! A. Serious pain starts with the stimulation of one or more of the body’s many special sensors, called nociceptors, in the skin or internal organs. These special sensors receive information about intense heat, extreme pressure, sharp pricks or cuts, or other events that can cause body damage. Two types of nerve fibres carry this information from the nociceptors to the spinal cord: A-delta fibres, which transmit information quickly and appear to be responsible for sudden and sharp feelings of pain; and C-type fibres, which transmit pain impulses more slowly and may be the cause of a nagging sense of pain. Questions 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35-37 38 39 40 B. At the spinal cord, messages from nociceptors may be modified by other spinal nerves that enhance or, more frequently, diminish the intensity of the pain. The pain impulse then travels to several pans of the brain. Some brain areas determine where the pain is and what is causing it, while other areas combine the sensory information with the total state of the body and produce the emotional sensation called pain. These same brain centres can activate long nerve fibres that descend to the place in the spinal cord where the pain signal originates and decrease the signal. Questions 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35-37 38 39 40 C. In the mid-1970s, researchers showed that many nerve fibres that holdback pain messages in the spinal cord release a neurotransmitter called enkephalin. Some areas of the brain that process pain messages produce a related chemical called endorphin. Although the exact roles of these two substances in pain perception is not yet clear, scientists hope that studies of these chemicals may eventually give rise to better types of pain treatment. Questions 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35-37 38 39 40 D. The complex nature of pain is illustrated by the stories of soldiers who are severely wounded and do not complain of pain, or of athletes who are injured but do not experience pain until the contest is over. In some cultures, an operation can be performed on the skull without an anaesthetic (anti-pain drug). On the other hand, scientists have recently shown that the expectation of pain can actually intensify the experience, perhaps by

inducing anxiety. The emotional component of pain is also illustrated by the words frequently used to describe its nature, such as “vicious”, “nauseating”, and “nagging”. Questions 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35-37 38 39 40 E. Acute or severe pain—such as that produced by physical injury, burns or surgery— is most often treated with anti-pain drugs, which can range from simple ones, like aspirin, to more powerful drugs, like morphine. In the terminal stages of cancer, combinations of powerful painkilling drugs may be used, including mood-altering drugs, like tranquilizers or anti- depressants. In some patients who have had surgery, pain is effectively relieved by a nerve block: the injection of an anaesthetic into the regional nerve centre through which the nerves from the surgery site pass. With certain types of back pain, surgery can correct the problem causing the pain. Beginning about 1965, physicians came to appreciate the uniqueness of the condition called-”chronic pain.” In this syndrome (bodily condition), patients may com- plain of pain for years, without having any apparent or detectable injury or cause. Researchers suggest that chronic pain is a behaviour state, initiated by a real injury, in which the pain has lasted so long that it has itself become the disease. Of the many millions of Americans who suffer from chronic pain, one-third have back pain and another third arthritis (swelling between the bone joints). Many of these patients are dependent on strong painkilling medicines, and they usually have fallen into a cycle of pain, depression, and inactivity. Questions 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35-37 38 39 40 F. A number of special clinics have been formed to treat people who suffer from chronic pain. Such clinics emphasize reduction of drug dosages, along with exercise, activity therapy, and mental relaxation techniques such as hypnosis and biofeedback. Some include psychological counselling, and many attempt to change learned pain behaviours by enlisting the patient’s family. In other cases, patients are helped by an electronic nerve-stimulating device, called T.E.N.S., that can be used to send electricity into the nerves and up the spinal cord. Exactly how and why this device works is not known, but it may stimulate the brain to send pain-inhibiting impulses down the spine. Questions 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35-37 38 39 40

Questions 26-28 Choose the appropriate letter, A—D, and write them in boxes 26-28 on your answer sheet. 26. “Chronic pain” A. causes many patients to become dependent on strong painkilling medicines. B. is long-term pain that may lack any observable injury or cause. C. is believed by researchers to be a behaviour state initiated by a real injury. D. is all of the above. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 27. A person’s perception of pain is intensified by A. the body’s release of enkephalin in the spinal cord. B. anticipation and anxiety. C. the release of morphine by the brain. D. a nerve block. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 28. C-type fibres are responsible for A. carrying information from the spinal cord to the Nociceptors. B. transmitting quick pain impulses. C. creating chronic pain. D. probably causing a sense of nagging pain. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 29-34 Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 29-34 on your answer sheet, write TRUE if the statement is true according to the passage FALSE if the statement is false according to the passage NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage 29. Mood-modifying drugs are used to treat pain in the late stages of cancer. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 30. T.E.N.S. is an effective drug therapy that blocks pain impulses from reaching the brain. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.”

31. Some experts suggest that sensitivity to pain is a good sign of healthy nerves. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 32. Researchers suggest that chronic pain is a behaviour state, initiated by an imaginary injury. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 33. Most painkillers have detrimental side effects. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 34. In some cultures, a skull operation can be performed without an anaesthetic. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 35-37 According to the text, which THREE of the following have been used to reduce the effects of pain in humans? Choose THREE letters, A—G, and write them in boxes 35-3 7 on your answer sheet. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” A. enkephalin B. arthritis C. morphine D. skull surgery E. tranquilizers F. music G. biofeedback Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 38-40 Complete each of the following statements with the best ending from the box below. Write the appropriate letter, A-G, in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet. 38. A number of special clinics have been formed to treat people who suffer from..... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 39. Sudden and sharp feelings of pain are transmitted by..... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 40. Expectation of pain can actually intensify the experience, perhaps by inducing.... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.”

A. endorphins B. anxiety C. terminal cancer D. hypnosis E. chronic pain F. nerve blocks G. A-delta fibres Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 3” Answer Key “IELTS READING TEST - IX”

IELTS READING TEST - X