downturns, that the current forms of development and economic policies are the only ways for people to prosper), there are an increasing number of poor people who are missing out on this apparent boom, while increasingly fewer people are becoming far more wealthy. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 Questions 1-7 Choose which of the answers (A-D) best completes the sentence according to the information in the reading passage. Write the appropriate letter (A -D) in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet. 1. What do you think is the purpose of the reading passage? A. to warn about the dangers of globalization. B. to urge a change in international anti-poverty efforts. C. to highlight the role of the IMF and World Bank. D. to suggest that rich countries offer more aid to poor ones. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 2. The world’s three richest people A. have become rich since entering the 21st century. B. live on less than two dollars a day. C. are better off than nearly one billion people. D. together have more wealth than the GDP of 48 nations. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 3. The poor countries are poor because A. the rich countries can enforce unequal trade agreements. B. their governments are corrupt. C. their governments are incompetent. D. of unfavourable geographical factors. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 4. Competition between poor nations A. brings them more IMF and World Bank loans. B. is vital for economic growth and development. C. makes them primarily commodity exporters. D. leads to increases in poverty and dependency. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 5. The United Nations A. channels its aid to poor countries through their governments. B. is hampered by the politics of the rich countries.
C. furthers the interests of the rich countries. D. is composed of satellite organizations and entities. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 6. NGOs A. are becoming more responsive to poor people‘s needs. B. are foreign policy tools of powerful countries. C. are essential to the anti-poverty effort. D. strive to realize the Declaration of Human Rights. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 7. The mainstream media in the developed nations A. are paying attention to the increase in poverty. B. are warning against economic downturns. C. are complacent about the global economy. D. ignore the role of non-governmental assistance. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 8-13 Complete the following summary by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage for each number, to complete spaces 8- 13. Write the words in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet. Summary: The Causes of Poverty Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Among the many causes of the increase in poverty worldwide are the . . . 8 . . . of the IMF and World Bank, which will only lend money to poor countries on condition that the latter . . . 9 . . . Providing food is not the answer to the problem of hunger; allowing poor people to use the . . . 10 . . . is the answer. The United Nations is a major player in . . . 11 . . . worldwide, but the policies of . . . 12 . . . hinder its efforts. Where governments cannot or will not help, NGOS . . . 13 . . . . which indicates shortcomings in international political and economic systems. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 1” Reading Passage 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on the Reading Passage 2 below. Questions 14-18 Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number (i-ix) in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet Paragraph D has been done for you as an example. NB: There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use any heading more than once. List of Headings i. The psychology of volunteer vacationers ii. Paying to work iii. Benefits for volunteers iv. Helping poor countries v. Environmental tourism vi. Vacations to learn vii. The cost of volunteering viii. The attraction of non-profit bodies ix. Holidays with a difference Example Answer Paragraph D iv 14. Paragraph A Paragraph “A.” 15. Paragraph B Paragraph “B.” 16. Paragraph C Paragraph “C.” 17. Paragraph E Paragraph “E.” 18. Paragraph F Paragraph “F.” Volunteer Vacationers A. A growing number of Americans are using their holiday time not to laze on the beach or to frequent casinos but to restore old railways, snorkel for science and band rare birds. They are a group of individuals known as
“volunteer vacationers,” and many of them are professional people. “We‘ve seen a huge increase in interest from professionals as well as others who want short-term meaningful vacations,” said Christine Victorino of the International Volunteer Programs Association. Her group was formed to organize the non-profit bodies which arrange working vacations. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 B. And these organizations want money as well as time: volunteers’ contributions typically top US$ 1,500 for one week, and the air fare is extra. Altruism doesn’t come cheap, but these vacations are partially tax- deductible, provided the volunteers put in five eight-hour days. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 C. “If someone had told me a few years ago that I‘d pay to pick weeds on a tropical island, I would have told them they were crazy,” said Leonard Stone, a retired dentist from Chicago. Yet Stone and his wife each paid to go on a-week-long Oceanic Society expedition to Midway Island in the Pacific Ocean. They worked on a tiny island helping ornithologists look after albatross nesting areas and counting chicks. Like most sites where volunteers work, the conditions were Spartan; the volunteers lived in an army barracks dating from World War ll. But Stone, who is an enthusiastic bird watcher, found it a worthwhile experience. He thoroughly enjoyed his daily access to the rare birds, and the lectures and films about wildlife arranged by the Society. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 D. Some volunteers are motivated by a desire to lend a helping hand to the developing world. In the 16 years it’s been in business, Global Volunteers has sent thousands of people all over the world on projects ranging from constructing a children’s home in India to looking after orphans in Romania. Like other such organizations, Global Volunteers has trimmed the longer trips to accommodate professionals’ busy schedules, and added less-strenuous options for retirees, who now make up one-third of its clients. Steve Rosenthal of Cross- cultural Solutions places vacationers on 21-day projects. Volunteers help women in India start small businesses or teach English to children in Ghana.
Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 E. Rosenthal said that the number of students, professionals and retirees signing up for his trips has consistently doubled over the past five years. Many people agree that this seems to indicate a rising tide of disillusionment among Americans with their materialistic way of life. Once he explains that most of program fee funds community—based organizations in the host countries, the volunteers are quite happy to pay for a working holiday. “I’d rather be paying my vacation money to a non- profit company which is helping poor people than to a hotel corporation,” said Ron Cooke, who is a veteran volunteer vacationer. He and his wife have counted birds in Costa Rica and trapped ocelots in Mexico. Cooke’s last trip was an eight-day vacation helping the environmental group Earthwatch in the Caribbean. “We spent part of each day snorkelling and counting shellfish”. They also interviewed fishermen and made a survey of seashells, while camping on a Dominican Republic beach. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 F. Not all the vacationers consider the vacations work; some of the programs are de- signed for hobbyists, or for people who want to learn a new skill. For example, each summer railway enthusiasts join in the ongoing restoration of a historic narrow-gauge railway in the southwest US. A special group of volunteer vacationers work on organic farms. In return, they learn about organic farming and get to eat a lot of healthy food. Questions 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 Questions 19-22 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 19-22, write YES if the statement agrees with the writer NO if the statement contradicts the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this Example Answer Many professional people are attracted to volunteer vacations. YES 19. All volunteers enjoy their vacations. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 20. There is a trend to keep volunteer vacations short.
Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 21. The only attraction of volunteering is the chance to help others. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 22. Non-profit associations are undermining regular tourism companies. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 23-26 Choose one phrase (A—H) from the list of phrases to complete each key point below. Write the appropriate letter (A-H) in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet. The information in the completed sentences should be an accurate summary of points made by the writer. NB: There are more phrases A—H than sentences so you will not use them all. You may use any phrase more than once. 23. Spending one’s vacation helping others Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 24. Volunteers do not expect Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 25. Volunteers are looking for Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 26. Volunteer vacations are a sign of Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” List of Phrases A. doesn’t come cheap to eat B. a lot of healthy food C. luxury conditions D. growing awareness of the importance of the environment E. to learn new skills F. growing disillusion with America’s material culture G. to restore old railways H. short but meaningful vacations Answer Key “Reading Passage 2” Reading Passage 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based
on Reading Passage 3. Is There Water on Mars? A. A large number of photographs taken by the Mars Global Surveyor spacecraft suggest that even today water may be flowing up from the interior of Mars, and streaming onto the surface—dramatically increasing the likelihood that at least part of the planet is biologically alive. “If this proves to be the case,” said Ed Weiler, of NASA’s Office of Space science, “it has profound implications for the possibility of life on Mars.” Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 B. Finding liquid water on Mars’ surface has never been easy—mostly because it simply can’t exist there. The modern Martian atmosphere has barely 1% the density of the Earth’s, and the planet‘s average temperature hovers around -55 degrees C. In an environment as harsh as this, any water that did appear would either vaporize into space or freeze solid. What scientists who studying Mars have always been looking for instead are clues that there was water in the planet’s distant past: In fact, they admit that there may have been oceans at one time on Mars. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C. The 65,000 images, which the Surveyor has beamed home since it was launched in 1998, show plenty of channels and terraces on the surface of Mars. But a handful of the pictures took the scientists by surprise. Besides looking fairly new, the channels are mainly located near the poles of Mars, where the temperature is coldest. Scientists have long assumed that if underground water was going to bubble up on Mars, it would have to do so somewhere in the comparatively balmy equatorial zones, where temperatures at high noon in midsummer may approach 20 degrees C. Moreover, the channels are all carved into the cold, shaded sides of slopes. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D. Paradoxically, this finding may increase the chances that the gullies are water-related. Any water that appeared on the sunny sides of hills would be likely to evaporate almost instantly. Moisture that seeped out in the shade would form a temporary crust of ice that would last only until the pressure of upwelling water behind it caused it to burst. When it did, there
would be a sudden downward gush that would leave precisely the kind of clear-cut channel Surveyor spotted. If such features were discovered on Earth, said Michael Malin, principal investigator for the Surveyor’s camera system, “there would be no question that water would be associated with them.” Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 E. However, there are alternative explanations for these channels and ridges. One school of thought maintains that they could have been caused by “rivers” of silicon dust. The theory goes that millions of years ago, when the molten mass of Mars cooled down, the fast cooling of the surface lava produced extremely small silicon particles. It has been proved that Martian soils contain a large amount of silicon. These particles would then have bonded with the methane gas which was also produced by the cooling process due to the action of ultraviolet light. The silicon combined with methane would then have flowed in much the same way as rivers—from high to low areas. Over a long period of time, the flow would disintegrate rock and form channels or gullies, like those photographed by the Surveyor. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 F. Another theory is that the features which seem to be evidence of the action of water —whether oceans or rivers—are more likely linked to the planet’s volcanoes. Paul Withers of the University of Arizona and Gregory Neumann of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, think that there is a closer correlation between the sizes of the terraces and seismic activity than the formation of ocean shore lines. They explained that the surface crust of Mars is not formed of a network of plates, like the Earth’s, which move over time. So, Martian volcanoes grew much higher than those on Earth, putting tremendous stress on the crust, and generating the ridges and channels seen in the Surveyor photographs. “In our future work,” said Withers and Neumann, “we intend to study the terraces further in order to ascertain what the Martian crust and lithosphere were like at the time the seismic activity led to the formation of the volcanoes.” Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 G. For NASA, the new findings couldn’t have come at a better time. After the
recent spectacular failures of two unmanned Mars probes, the agency’s entire planetary exploration program came under fire. The possibility of a wet Mars, however, suggests that not only might the planet be home to indigenous life, it could also more easily support human life. Visiting astronauts would need water for a variety of purposes, including manufacturing air and perhaps even rocket fuel. Pumping up water available on Mars rather than hauling supplies from earth could dramatically slash the cost of a mission. All this, NASA hopes, will encourage the reluctant Congress to give the green light to future Mars missions, both manned and unmanned. Questions 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Questions 27-29 Choose the appropriate letter A—D and write it in boxes 27-29 on your answer sheet. 27. Scientists studying Mars have always looked for A. evidence of the presence of water on the planet’s surface. B. signs that water was once present on the planet’s surface. C. indications of intelligent life. D. gullies carved out by rivers of silicon. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 28. The formations discovered by the Mars Global Survey were surprising because A. they were carved out by flows of silicon. B. they have profound implications for the possibility of life. C. they are located near the equator of Mars. D. they appear in the coldest parts of the planet. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 29. The new findings may benefit NASA by A. providing water for astronauts landing on Mars. B. disproving the “rivers of silicon” theory. C. persuading Congress to allow more Mars missions. D. making people forget about the previous failed Mars missions. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Questions 30-32 Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your answers in boxes 30-32 on your answer sheet.
30. How long has the Mars Global Surveyor been gathering data? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 31. According to the “silicon rivers” theory, what destabilized the silicon? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 32. What distinguishes the Earth’s crust from that of Mars? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Questions 33-40 Using the information in the passage, identify the following. In boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet, write LW if the statement refers to liquid water VW if the statement refers to vaporised water O if the statement refers to oceans S if the statement refers to silicon V if the statement refers to volcanoes T if the statement refers to terraces Note: Each letter may be used more than once. Example Answer Martian soils contain a lot of this. S 33. These could have existed a long time ago on Mars. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 34. This would be found on the sunny side of Martian hills. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 35. This cannot exist on the surface of Mars. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 36. Paul Withers and Gregory Neumann intend to study these further. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 37. These are much bigger on Mars than on Earth. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 38. If channels like the Martian ones were discovered on Earth, they would indicate the presence of this. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 39. This probably resulted from fast cooling of surface lava. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 40. The forms of these indicate a seismic origin.
Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 3” Answer Key “IELTS READING TEST - III”
IELTS READING TEST - IV
IELTS READING TEST - IV Reading Passage 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading Passage 1 on the following pages. Questions 1 - 6 Reading Passage 1 has seven sections A-G. Choose the most suitable headings for sections A-G from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-xii in boxes I-6 on your answer sheet. List of Headings i. The cost to our quality of life ii. The cost of hybrids iii. Stars with hybrids iv. How hybrids worked in the past v. How hybrids help vi. The rise and fall of hybrids vii. Rising oil prices and hybrids viii. Differentiating hybrids ix. A car that makes a difference x. The benefits of hybrids for consumers xi. The pros and cons of hybrids US traffic conditions Example Answer Section G iii 1. Section A Paragraph “A.” 2. Section B Paragraph “B.” 3. Section C Paragraph “C.” 4. Section D Paragraph “D.” 5. Section E Paragraph “E.” 6. Section F Paragraph “F.”
Streets Ahead A. Car companies are well aware of the fact that the 700 million vehicles on roads across the globe are causing destruction - to the ecosystem on a massive scale. The demand for private transport is on a constant increase; only 5% of the US population uses public transport, despite of having to collectively spend 8 billion hours stuck in traffic and the adverse effect it has on our bodies. However, the automobile industry is beginning to listen to its more environmentally conscious consumers. Around the turn of the century, the popularity of hybrid cars, which arc dramatically less harmful to our health and the environment, began to take off. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7-12 13-14 B. Contrary to popular belief, hybrids are not new technology; they have been around for well over a century, in 1900, gas, steam and electric cars were manufactured in equal numbers. However, in 1913 with the advent of the self-starting engine and the gas powered Ford Model T coming off the production line in mass numbers, steam and electric cars disappeared for a good 50 years and environmental devastation ensued. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7-12 13-14 C. The amount of damage is alarming. Driving a car is a citizen’s most air- polluting activity as vehicles are the most considerable contributor of CO, emissions. In the US, 8.2 million barrels of oil are consumed each day, which equates to 300 million tonnes of carbon dioxide. The health care costs that are accrued by people developing such conditions as acute respiratory problems, asthma and cancer— related illnesses amount to US$ 60 billion every year. Hundreds of thousands of tonnes of oil, fluids and chemicals enter our waterways every year. Noise pollution from traffic, stereos and alarms is at an all-time high, resulting in sleep deprivation and stress, among other things. 800 million tyres are stockpiled each year, while tyres in use lose one pound of rubber per year on average, which flies in minute quantifies into the air and enters our lungs or rivers. 120 Americans die every day in accidents, 1 million animals are run over every year and 10 million cars are scrapped per year. Crops lose their yield as a result of the pollution and the government allocates huge amounts of financial resources to build and maintain roads.
Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7-12 13-14 D. These environmental concerns and ever increasing oil prices have brought the idea of hybrids back to the forefront in the past few years. Although hybrids cannot provide the silver bullet to overcome all these problems, they are a step in the right direction. A hybrid by definition is a form of transport that combines more than one energy source. There are a number of different models on the market. A full hybrid is a vehicle which can move forward without any gasoline, unlike a mild hybrid which needs gas to start up. One characteristic they have in common is that they both require gas for travelling at high speeds. A parallel hybrid basically has the best of both worlds; it has a fuel tank to propel the engine and batteries for the electric motor. A series hybrid uses gas to turn a generator which powers either the batteries or an electric motor. Finally, a plug-in hybrid functions like the other hybrids, but also has the option of charging the battery at night to maximise driving range. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7-12 13-14 E. As previously mentioned, a hybrid’s gas engine is only used when turning on the ignition and when travelling at higher speeds. The rest of the time, the engine remains dormant as it runs on electric or battery power. This minimal reliance on gas, along with the hybrid’s light weight and aerodynamic design means there is a major boost in fuel efficiency and a massive reduction in the emission of greenhouse gases. And without the drone or roar of gas engines they also lend themselves to scaling down noise pollution, unless of course you are blasting some tunes out of your speakers. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7-12 13-14 F. Even though hybrids lack a heavy dependence on fuel, that doesn’t mean the cars rely a great deal on battery power. Most manufacturers’ warranty on this energy source is 80-100,000 miles, with one taxi driver having reported that the batteries in his hybrid cab remained strong even after driving over 200,000 miles in 25 months. Other advantages include lower maintenance costs, tax incentives, and higher resale values. On the other hand, some drivers have complained that the vehicles are not spacious enough, but these days there are even hybrid SUVs on the market.
Typically there is a waiting list of at least a couple of months to purchase a hybrid vehicle, so you have to be patient. Also, there is no immediate return on investment, contrary to what many believe, unless oil prices rise even higher. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7-12 13-14 G. Hybrid cars have been rather popular with celebrities, mainly due to their environmental friendliness and obviously not their financial incentives. Leonardo Di Caprio rolled up to the Oscars in his Toyota Prius, and it’s likely that his actions will have a positive effect on our fragile environment. Other hybrid owners include Cameron Diaz, Brad Pitt, Tom Hanks, Robin Williams, Harrison Ford and Jack Nicholson, to mention but a few. This doesn’t mean these cars are only affordable to the rich and famous; there are hybrids on the market to suit all purse sizes. Smart consumers who are looking at the road ahead agree that it’s time to get this hybrid show on the road. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7-12 13-14 Questions 7-12 Complete the diagram by writing what the arrows refer to or if there is more than one arrow, what effect they have on each other. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 1 for each Write your answers in boxes 7-12 an your answer sheet. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Questions 13-14 Choose the appropriate letters A-H and write them in boxes 13-14 on your answer sheet. How is a hybrid different from a gas-powered car? A. A hybrid burns less rubber.
B. A hybrid is readily available. C. A hybrid is only for the rich. D. A hybrid is quieter. E. A hybrid leaks fewer car fluids. F. A hybrid is less fuel efficient. G. A hybrid is worth more as a second hand car. H. A hybrid’s repairs are costly. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 1” ReadingPassage 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below. Entrepreneurs A. In the past, innovative new ideas came from the depths of large corporations R&D talent pools. These days, the new concepts that are taking the world by storm are usually an entrepreneur’s stroke of genius. More and more young business-minded people are turning their backs on the corporate world and the safer path of climbing the corporate ladder and setting their eyes on the riskier but more creative and lucrative challenge of being an entrepreneur. Janus Friis, the co-founder of Skype, a provider of PC to PC calling, sold his company to ebay in October 2005 for US$ 26 billion when he was only 29 years old. Ally Svenson, two years Janus’ senior, set up the Seattle Coffee Company in 1995 and 3 years later sold it to the Starbucks chain for £49 million. Joshua Schachter, the 31-year old founder of delicious, sold his start-up company, a website that combined social networking and media, to Yahoo for US$ 27 million. His advice for budding entrepreneurs is to get to the market as quickly as possible and develop a successful product, as this speaks louder than a business plan, and remember that happy customers are better at marketing than you are. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 B. Entrepreneurs, however, do not typically follow in the footsteps of other entrepreneurs. So how does one go about becoming one-can it be learned or are you born with it? Research conducted by the Royal Bank of Scotland suggests that the average male entrepreneur is more likely to be
the youngest child of a family, while female entrepreneurs are more commonly the eldest child. Both left school at 16 and did not meet academic qualifications. Those polled believed that energy and determination were the most important traits for business success. Books are a popular way to discover the secrets of success. A search on any of the major online bookstores lists thousands of results under a keyword search for ‘entrepreneur! With books on the market titled ‘Anyone can do it‘, ‘The beer mat entrepreneur and ‘Start your business week by week’, it seems becoming an entrepreneur is idiot-proof. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 C. Schools are getting in on the act. A one-week entrepreneurialism course is now part of the British high school curriculum. Universities place even greater importance on developing the business ideas of their students by offering financial support and scholarships to them. 28 year-old Carl Dietrich won a US$ 30,000 prize from MIT for his idea to develop a road- worthy aircraft which can fly 10,000 ft in the air at 125 mph and drive on the road at 65 mph. Ramos Mays and Mark Pydynowski won US$ 50,000 from Washington University for their idea to develop a smart tattoo which works like a radio frequency identification to track and tag cattle. Geography also seems to play a part in the likelihood of an entrepreneur making it big on his or her own. Americans have no problems embracing the concept that ‘failures are the Stepping stones to success, and it is this mentality that has resulted in them leading the way in breeding entrepreneurs. China, which holds a similar philosophy to the US in terms of ‘if at first you don’t succeed, try, try again, has seen its number of entrepreneurs rise up at a phenomenal rate. One such man is Jack Ma, founder of alibaba.com, a business-to-business website for which Yahoo recently purchased a 40% stake for around US$ 1 billion. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 D. Business culture in the UK, however, takes more of a ‘but what if you fail?’ attitude, with many of the opinion that you should get some experience under your belt first, get some money behind you and then consider the venture when you are a bit older. But if it is risk that you are afraid of, remember that there are two kinds of risk that need to be distinguished if one is to be successful: foolish and calculated risk. The
industry you are in also contributes to your chances of cashing in on your bright idea. The information technology sector has been the hottest place to work since the end of the 20th century and has shown some of the highest returns on investment. That doesn’t mean you have to move to Silicon Valley though; these days, many companies are shifting a lot of their operations to places like India, China, online communities or university labs. Venture capital flow is one indication of which industry to be in, and in the second quarter of 2004 in the US, 38% of venture funding went to companies in Silicon Valley, which was double that of its nearest rival, Boston. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 E. Not only is IT a hot sector to be in right now, but its applications are wide and varied. As a result, hybrid companies focusing on biotechnology and nanotechnology are also popping up. Venture capital in biotechnology is increasingly high due to the demand for biomedical research software. Dr Chris Evans is Britain’s leading biotechnology entrepreneur and has made himself a tidy £1 billion from his ventures. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 Question 15 Choose a suitable title for the whole of Reading Passage 2. Write the appropriate letter A-D in box 15 on your answer sheet. A. The hard road to becoming an entrepreneur. B. Entrepreneurs in the IT industry. C. Advice from entrepreneurs on how they did it. D. How you could be an entrepreneur. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” Questions 16-19 Look at the following descriptions mentioned in Reading Passage 2. Match the names (A-G) listed below with the descriptions. Write the appropriate letters A-G in boxes 16-19 on your answer sheet. A. Janus Friis B. Ally Svenson C. Joshua Schachter D. Carl Dietrich E. Ramos Mays and Mark Pydynnwski
F. Jack Ma G. Dr Chris Evans 16. An entrepreneur(s) that combined nature and technology to make a fortune. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” 17. An entrepreneur(s) that combined making friends and sharing information as an investment. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” 18. An entrepreneur(s) that invented a way to trace the whereabouts of livestock. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” 19. An entrepreneur(s) that is sponsored by an academic institution. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” Questions 20-23 Complete the summary below using information from Reading Passage 2. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 20-23 on your answer sheet. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” These days a greater number of ...20... are giving up the chance to work for large companies and opting to do it on their own. According to studies, ...21... for entrepreneurs is not of high importance while ...22... rate more highly. There are countless numbers of ...23... on how simple it is to be an entrepreneur. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” Questions 24-27 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the-statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this 24. British high schools are offering scholarships during their one-week course on entrepreneurship. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” 25. Americans and Chinese are more willing to take the risk of starting their own business.
Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” 26. Silicon Valley is the best place to be for budding entrepreneurs. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” 27. Biotech companies are as profitable as IT companies. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 2” Reading Passage 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on the Reading Passage 3 below. FORENSICS A. The police force has come a long way since the medieval days when suspected criminals were thrown into rivers to determine whether they were guilty or not; if they floated, they were innocent; if they sank, they were guilty. These days, high—rating TV programmes such as CSI show exactly how sophisticated the tools police use have become, as well as showcase the rise of forensic scientists as part of the police force. A forensic team assists in criminal investigation procedures by drawing on the knowledge of a number of sciences. One of the most acclaimed forensic experts is Dr Henry Lee, who has been awarded 5 honorary doctorates and has worked on over 6,000 cases, including war crimes in Bosnia and Croatia, the assassination of former US president John F. Kennedy and the suicide of former US President Clinton’s White House attorney. The resources he draws on are wide and varied. Questions 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 B. Forensic anthropologists are employed for their skill in recovering and examining skeletal remains. These experts apply the methods and techniques developed in skeletal biology and osteology to determine the type of injury sustained, the time of death and the sex, age, height, stature, ancestry and medical history of the victim. For example, the cranium or mandible is often used to ascertain sex and ancestry, the hands and fingers can be used to establish stature and the sacrum confirms age, pregnancy and childbirth in females. Unlike forensic anthropologists, forensic document examiners cannot determine the age or gender of a writer.
However, they can determine the source of a letter and when it was written or printed. These professionals analyse handwriting, typewriting, printing, photocopying, ink and paper, and are most commonly employed to closely examine wills, ransom notes, extortion notes, cheques and letters. They are so skilful that they can decipher obliterated or erased writing, burned or charred documents, and even detect alterations. Questions 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C. Entomology, the study of the life cycles of insects, is used in forensic science to determine the amount of time that has elapsed after someone has died. This is a valid method as insects behave predictably. They lay eggs on the exposed surface of a body and the amount of infestation follows certain patterns and time intervals. This method has been applied to child abuse and neglect cases as well as lack of care for wounds existing on the elderly under private or public care. Fingerprints, like DNA, are used to identify a person. Identical twins do not have identical fingerprints despite having the same DNA. DNA does not change whereas fingerprints may do so due to scarring, skin disease or skin growth. Forensic fingerprinting involves making the prints visible, saving them for further investigation and matching them to existing ones on a huge database of billions of prints from around the world. Questions 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D. Unlike fingerprints, which can easily be washed away, teeth are very resilient and can stay in good shape even after being submerged in water for long periods. As a result, forensic odontology is used to help police identify victims. Ante mortem dental records are compared with those of the deceased. lf no dental records exist before death, then these dentists can also narrow down the search by providing authorities with the victim’s age, ancestry, sex, socio~ economic status and in some instances occupation, diet, habits and diseases. Forensic serologists examine blood and bodily fluids to determine the nature of stain found at a crime scene, including determining which species the stain belongs to and matching the blood groups, isoenzymes, and DNA patterns to a known sample. To be accurate, it employs techniques and methods applied in immunology, biochemistry, serology, haematology and molecular biology. Blood can determine the sex, age and race of a suspect and wet blood can also be
tested for alcohol and drug content. By analysing the antibody profile in blood, we can distinguish between identical twins. Questions 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 E. Blood splatter analysis provides vital clues to the police. The height and angle from which the blood fell can be determined by analysing how it splatters. The surface also plays a part in how blood splatters. For instance, blood that hits a smooth, hard surface has very little distortion around the edge. Blood which lands on linoleum flooring distorts somewhat more, while blood that strikes wood or concrete distorts to a much larger extent. The force and direction of a blow can also be ascertained by examining blood smeared on walls or floors. Forensic chemistry and toxicology analyses unknown chemicals and toxins and attempts to trace them to known substances or identify specific origins. These practices help to identify the cause of death by analysing residues or powders to determine that a gun was fired or explosives were ignited. Questions 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 F. Forensic artists put together a composite sketch to help identify a victim or to track down a suspect. This is a complicated profession, as a forensic artist isn’t simply an artist. He or she also needs to know about anthropology if reconstructing a face from skeletal remains. If the sketch includes teeth, they also need to know about odontology and if they want to show the effects of ageing, they will need to know about psychology. This science can produce remarkable results. A classic case was that of John Emil List who was caught as a direct result of using a composite photo almost 20 years after killing his family. Questions 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Questions 28-33 Complete the table below using information from Reading Passage 3. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet. Forensic Related Analysis Criminal Science Sciences Implications Anthropology 28. Skeletal remains Determine the victim’s ..................
and................ age, sex, race, height, Document n/a Printed matter stature. Examiners Determine Entomology n/a Insects origin and time of Fingerprinting n/a Fingerprints printed matter. Odontology n/a 30.................. Confirm time Serology Immunology, Blood and bodily since death biochemistry, fluids & prove the Chemistry/ haematology mistreatment Toxicology & molecular of 29...... biology and........ n./a. Chemicals Verify the and toxins identity with a known Artists 33.................. Facial sample. , characteristics Verify identity or age, sex race. Determine source of blood & if it contains 31 ......................... Determine types of chemicals and 32.............. by examining substances left at crime scene. A useful tool to help
....................... apprehend suspects. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 34-39 Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 34-39 on your answer sheet. 34. Which detective series reveals how advanced today’s police are? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 35. Which president did not make it through a plot to assassinate him? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 36. The study of which bone can identify an expectant mother? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 37. Why is the study of insects in forensics considered accurate? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 38. Which two forensic sciences can differentiate between identical twins? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 39. Which two forensic sciences are needed to make a composite of a suspect who committed a crime many years ago? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Question 40 Choose the appropriate diagram A-C and write it in box 40 on your answer sheet . Which diagram shows the splatter pattern of blood that has fallen on glass? Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.”
Answer Key “Reading Passage 3” Answer Key “IELTS READING TEST - IV”
IELTS READING TEST - V
IELTS READING TEST - V Reading Passage 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions I-14, which are based on Reading Passage 1 on the following pages. Questions 1-4 Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B—E from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number, i—ix, in boxes J – 4 on your answer sheet. NB: There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use them all. List of Headings i. Newton’s third law of motion ii. The basic engine of the jet age iii. Bernoulli’s principle iv. A generation above v. Mechanically simple but impractical vi. A modern derivative vii. Thrust and the reaction principle viii. The theory behind the turbojet ix. How a jet engine works Example Answer Paragraph A i 1. Paragraph B Paragraph “B.” 2. Paragraph C Paragraph “C.” 3. Paragraph D Paragraph “D.” 4. Paragraph E Paragraph “E.” THE BASIC PRINCIPLES AND MECHANICS OF MODERN FLIGHT A. The third law of motion formulated by English physicist Isaac Newton
states that every action produces an equal and opposite reaction. It is this principle of physics that causes an airplane to rise in the air and fly forward. Have you ever noticed that when an airplane is level, the front edges of its wings are higher than the rear ones? As the wings move through the air, the angle puts a downward push on the air flowing under them. The equal and opposite reaction pushes the airplane’s wings upward. This upward force is known as lift. Lift is often explained using Bernoulli’s principle, which states that, in some circumstances, a faster moving fluid (or gas) will create a lower pressure than a slower moving fluid. In fact, the air flowing across the top of an airplane wing is at a lower pressure than the air underneath. However, this is an effect of lift, not its cause. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 B. Newton’s reaction principle is also the basis for thrust. Thrust is the force that moves an airplane forward through the air. In smaller airplanes, like ones that carry 4 — 6 passengers, a conventional gas-powered piston engine is used to turn a propeller which forces air rearward. In larger airplanes, a jet engine either turns a propeller through a gearbox, or uses its jet thrust to create a rearward force. This powerful rearward force is balanced with an equal reactive force that pushes the airplane forward. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 C. Nearly all commercial passenger airplanes use jet engines for propulsion. Modern versions of these engines are able to produce a relatively quiet, smooth and fuel efficient ride. Generally speaking, a jet engine works by sucking air into the front, compressing the air and mixing it with fuel. When the mixture is ignited, it explodes rearward with great force, out through the exhaust nozzle at the back of the engine. A rocket engine operates on the same principle, except that, in order to operate in the airless vacuum of space, the rocket must carry along its own air for combustion. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 D. There are several different types of jet engines. The simplest is the ramjet. A ramjet has no moving parts and achieves compression of intake air by the forward speed of the air vehicle. It is mechanically simple, but vastly
more aerodynamically complex than a modern turbine jet engine. How exactly does it work? Air entering the intake of the aircraft is slowed and compressed by aerodynamic diffusion created by the inlet and diffuser. The expansion of hot gases after fuel injection and combustion accelerates the exhaust air to a velocity higher than that at the inlet and creates positive push. Due in part to its simplicity, the ramjet engine is still used in certain special military aircraft, like the SR-71 high altitude surveillance aircraft. However, in commercial aviation, there are no practical uses for it. Its elegant simplicity is offset by the need to boost a ramjet to several hundred miles an hour before ram-air compression is sufficient to operate the engine. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 E. The development of the turbojet engine represented the greatest advance in commercial propulsion technology. It is based on the jet-propulsion system of the ramjet, but with the addition of a compressor section, a combustion chamber, a turbine to take some power out of the exhaust and power the compressor, and an exhaust nozzle. Air is drawn into the engine through the front intake. The compressor squeezes the air to many times normal atmospheric pressure and forces it into the combustor. Here, fuel is sprayed into the compressed air, is ignited and burned continuously like a blowtorch. The burning gases expand rapidly rearward and pass through the turbine. The turbine extracts energy from the expanding gases to drive the compressor, which intakes more air. After leaving the turbine, the hot gases exit at the rear of the engine, giving the aircraft its forward push ... action, reaction! For additional thrust or power, an afterburner or augmenter can be added. An augmenter introduces additional fuel into the hot exhaust and burns it with a resultant increase of up to 50 percent in engine thrust by way of even higher velocity and more push. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 F. A modem derivative of the turbojet engine is the turbofan or fan-jet. It adds a large fan in front of the compressor section. This fan pulls an enormous amount of air into the engine case, only a relatively small fraction of which is sent through the core for combustion. The rest runs along the outside of the core case and inside the engine casing. This fan flow is mixed with the hot jet exhaust at the rear of the engine, where it
cools and quiets the exhaust noise. In addition, this high-volume mass of air, accelerated rearward by the fan, produces a great deal of thrust by itself, even though it is never burned. This additional thrust of air, similar to the thrust produced by a propeller, adds propulsion and thereby reduces fuel consumption. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 G. Jet engines can also be used to turn propellers on smaller planes. These small jet engines are known as turboprops. As in a turbojet, hot gases flowing through the engine rotate a turbine wheel that drives the compressor. The gases then pass through a power turbine. This power turbine is coupled to a shaft, which drives the propeller through gear connections. As a power source for a propeller, a turbine engine is extremely efficient, and many smaller airliners in the 19- to-70-passenger- capacity range use turboprops. They are particularly efficient at lower altitudes and medium speeds up to about 640 km/h (400 mph). Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 Questions 5 and 6 Choose the appropriate letter A—D and write them in boxes 5 and 6 on your answer sheet. 5. According to the text, the greatest application of Bernoulli’s principle to airplanes was that it A. solved the problem of thrust deployment. B. was wrongly applied to explain the cause of lift. C. explained the concept of lift. D. provided a means for developing bigger and better airplanes. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 6. According to the text, the greatest progress in modern commercial propulsion technology was made A. when the Wright Brothers built the first light piston engine for an airplane. B. upon the development of the turbojet engine. C. during the Second World War. D. when scientists applied Newton’s reaction principle to the fan-jet. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Questions 7-10
From the information in the text, indicate which engine would MOST PROBABLY be used for the airplanes in the list below. Write the appropriate letter A—E, in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet. NB: You may use any letter more than once. Example Answer 150-passenger-capacity commercial airliner A 7. 4-passenger-capacity private airplane Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 8. 20-passenger-capacity commercial airliner Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 9. SR-71 high altitude surveillance military aircraft Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 10. 280-passenger-capacity fuel-efficient/low noise commercial airliner Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Engine MOST PROBABLY used A. Turbojet B. Fan-jet C. Piston engine D. Ramjet E. Turboprop Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Questions 11-14 Look at the drawings of the different engines below, A-6, and the names of the types of engines given in the passage. In Questions 11—14, match each name with one drawing. Write the appropriate letter, A-G, in boxes 11-14 an your answer sheet. Example Answer The “aeoIipile” F 11. The turboprop Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 12. The turbojet Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 13. The fan-jet Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.”
14. The ramjet Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 1”
Reading Passage 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-28, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below. WHY AM I ITCHING ALL OVER? A. When Marcy prepared a peanut butter and jelly sandwich for her 1-year- old son Ben’s lunch that morning, she did it because they were running late for day care and it was the quickest thing she could put together. However, shortly after Ben began eating his lunch, his child-care provider noticed he seemed to be trying to scratch an itch in his mouth. After he vomited and began wheezing, she sought medical treatment for Ben, who was later diagnosed with a food allergy to peanuts. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 B. One out of three people either say that they have a food allergy or that they modify the family diet because a family member is suspected of having a food allergy. But only about three percent of children have clinically proven allergic reactions to foods. In adults, the prevalence of food allergy drops to one percent. What is a food allergy? A person first develops a food allergy when his body misinterprets an otherwise harmless substance in a food product as a harmful one. His body’s immune system (which fights infection and disease) reacts by creating antibodies to attack the substance. In the first exposure, the person does not experience any symptoms. However, the next time the person encounters that particular food by touching, or eating it or inhaling its particles, it activates the antibodies. In turn, the antibodies cause the body cells to release a substance called histamine, a chemical that dilates blood vessels, promotes fluid secretions, and stimulates nerves that cause muscles to spasm. These reactions can affect the person’s respiratory system, gastrointestinal tract, skin, or cardiovascular system. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 C. Allergy symptoms could appear within a few minutes or up to 2 hours after coming into contact with the food. “Typically the first symptom is a rash; other symptoms involve itching, gastrointestinal symptoms, nausea, diarrhoea, respiratory symptoms, and swelling,“ says Michael Young, MD, a paediatric allergist and immunologist and author of The Peanut Allergy
Answer Book. A common skin symptom of a food allergy is hives, or raised red itchy bumps on the skin. Swelling of the face, throat, lips, and tongue may also occur, often within minutes of contact with the food. Respiratory symptoms such as wheezing and trouble breathing or gastrointestinal symptoms such as sudden abdominal pain and vomiting are also common reactions. When a child has a serious allergic reaction with widespread effects on the body, this condition is known as anaphylaxis. A child with anaphylaxis, which can involve the heart, lungs, blood vessels, and other body systems may feel dizzy or lightheaded or even lose consciousness. Other indications that the food allergy reaction is serious include a rapid heart rate, difficulty breathing because of a swelling in the throat and airways, or a life-threatening drop in the blood pressure (which is also known as anaphylactic shock). Without rapid emergency medical treatment, children with anaphylaxis can die if they are unable to breathe. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 D. Who is susceptible to developing a food allergy? Doctors say that some factors may place a child at higher risk for developing food allergies. “The capacity to be an allergic person is inherited.” says Dr. Young. Many children with food allergies come from families whose members have a history of other allergies, although it is not known whether a child is allergic to a food until the first time she has a reaction to it. In addition, “some people believe that being exposed to highly allergenic [allergy- triggering] foods early in life increases the risk of allergy,” he says. There is nothing parents can do that will completely eliminate the possibility that their child will develop food allergies. However, breastfeeding (especially exclusive breastfeeding that is not supplemented with infant formula) can help infants who are especially prone lo milk or soy allergies avoid allergic reactions. When an infant consumes only breast milk, she has a decreased exposure to foods that can cause allergies. Some doctors also recommend that allergy-prone babies not be fed solid foods until 6 months of age or later to avoid exposure to allergenic foods. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 E. Food allergies are more difficult to diagnose and treat than other types of allergies. It is often difficult to isolate the substance in the food that is
causing the allergic reaction. Skin tests are unreliable, and blood tests can be inconclusive. When a particular food is suspect, the patient simply should not eat it. Regularly eating minute amounts of the allergy-causing food won’t cure the allergy. If the culprit food is unknown, the allergist may put the patient on a special diet that eliminates various foods. If symptoms decline, the allergist will reintroduce each of the foods one at a time to help identify which food is the offending allergen. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 F. Food allergy, which is an immune response, is often confused with food intolerance, which may cause similar symptoms of gastrointestinal discomfort. Food intolerance, however, has nothing to do with an immune response. Rather, it is caused by other factors, such as the lack of digestive enzymes. For example, a person may lack an enzyme to digest the lactose in dairy products such as milk. Technically speaking, this person would be more properly deemed “lactase deficient” rather than “allergic to dairy products.” Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 Questions 15-17 Choose the appropriate letter, A—D, and write them in boxes 15-1 7 on your answer sheet. 15. According to the information in the text, food allergy symptoms A. are experienced during the first exposure to the allergy-causing food. B. include loss of feeling in the fingertips. C. are triggered by the release of histamine. D. usually appear within seconds after coming into contact with the food. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 16. According to the information in the text, an allergy to a particular kind of food A. is an immune response. B. is often prevalent among people of the same race. C. is inherited from one’s parents. D. can be caused by overt consumption. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 17. According to the information in the text, food allergies A. are relatively easy to diagnose and treat.
B. are three times more common in children than in adults. C. can cause liver damage. D. are a more serious type of food intolerance. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 18-21 Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet, write YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 18. Breast milk can also help build up a baby’s immunity to diseases. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 19. Regularly eating minute amounts of the allergy-causing food might cure the allergy. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 20. Anaphylaxis can be deadly. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 21. Lactase deficiency is a common cause of milk allergies. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 22-24 Choose ONE phrase from the list of phrases, A–I below, to complete each of the following sentences (Questions 22-24). Write the appropriate letter in boxes 22-24 on your answer sheet. 22. A food allergy . . . Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 23. Compared with “food allergies”, “food intolerance” . . . Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 24. In the text, Dr. Michael Young . . . Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” A. has nothing to do with the immune response system. B. can cause serious kidney problems. C. can be caused by over-eating the allergy-causing food. D. indicates that the capacity to be an allergic person is inherited.
E. indicates that usually, the first allergy symptom is a sneeze. F. is difficult to diagnose and treat. G. is becoming increasingly common among adults. H. reduces weight over a period of time. I. can be caused by the presence of bacteria in the gastrointestinal system. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Questions 25-28 Classify the following statements as being A. a finding by doctors mentioned in the text B. an opinion by the writer a factual statement by the writer C. an assumption by milk drinkers who suffer gastrointestinal discomfort Write the appropriate letter; A—D, in boxes 25-28 on your answer sheet. NB: You may use any letter more than once. 25. Typically, the first symptom of an allergic reaction is a rash. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 26. Intolerance for milk is a food allergy. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 27. If you suspect that you are allergic to a particular food, you should not eat it. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” 28. About three percent of children have clinically proven allergic reactions to foods Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 2” Reading Passage 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29 – 40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 on the following pages. Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs, A—G. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B—F from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number, i—ix, in boxes 29 – 33 on your answer sheet. NB: There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use them all.
Questions 29 – 33 List of Headings i. Famous sayings by Abraham Lincoln and James Bryce ii. Early recognition of the need for public opinion research iii. Examining the source and opinion base of the poll iv. What is “public opinion”? v. The market for public opinion research vi. Trends in public opinion research vii. Pitfalls of public opinion surveys viii. Examining the timing and content of the survey ix. Surveys are inherently biased and statistically invalid Example Answer Paragraph A iv 29. Paragraph B Paragraph “B.” 30. Paragraph C Paragraph “C.” 31. Paragraph D Paragraph “D.” 32. Paragraph E Paragraph “E.” 33. Paragraph F Paragraph “F.” WHAT YOU SHOULD KNOW ABOUT PUBLIC OPINION RESEARCH A. “Public Opinion” means the expressed views of a group of people about is- sues of common interest or concern. The relevant public is most often considered to be the adult citizenry of a political unit such as a town, or a nation. However, one may also speak of neighbourhood public opinion, public opinion within various subgroups of a population, or even world public opinion. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34-35 36 37 38 39 40 B. Political leaders early recognized the need for some means of knowing
what people were thinking and saying. U.S. President Abraham Lincoln once said: “What I want to get done is what the people desire to have done, and the question for me is how to find that out exactly.” British historian James Bryce wrote in 1888: “The obvious weakness of government by public opinion is the difficulty of ascertaining it.” Efforts to accurately ascertain public opinion have long presented a challenge to politicians and public opinion researchers. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34-35 36 37 38 39 40 C. By far the biggest users of public opinion research are business and industry. Many companies have their own research departments or combine the function with advertising or marketing. Their interest ranges from attempts to measure the effects of their advertising, to controlled tests of new products, or to efforts to understand and improve their public image. Newspapers, magazines, and broadcasters use surveys to ascertain the opinions as well as the size and characteristics of their audiences. Another group of survey users are private foundations, voluntary agencies, sociologists, and political scientists. Their interest is usually in broad social trends, in the determinants of social decisions, and in the structure and effects of the opinion process itself. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34-35 36 37 38 39 40 D. Critics often argue that surveying methods are subject to bias because it all depends on how you ask the question. Furthermore, how does one know that people are telling the truth? No doubt, these are difficulties that must be addressed in the design of the survey. Clearly, the proliferation of surveys has brought with it problems of quality and standards, in a tree market, any- one can sell survey services, and price competition usually ensures the adoption of bare minimum survey standards. Similarly, there are no legal barriers to the widespread release of spurious survey data based on poorly worded questions or biased samples. Becoming an informed consumer of public opinion research can help you assess the value and validity of the data you encounter. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34-35 36 37 38 39 40 E. The first questions you should ask when evaluating poll results are: “who conducted the poll?” and “who paid for it?” The biases of a poll’s sponsors
can be reflected in its design — skewing results. Next, you should ask, “who was polled?” Public opinion research seeks to understand the opinion of an entire group by asking questions of a scientifically constructed sample of the group. Critical to understanding any poll data is, knowing what group was sampled. Are the opinions reported those of all adults, all parents or just those with school-age children? To be statistically valid, the sample itself must be randomly selected and of adequate size. In general, the larger the size of the sample, the smaller the margin of error. The margin of error should be 5% or less. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34-35 36 37 38 39 40 F. You should also examine the wording of the questions and the timing of the survey. Were the questions worded in a bias or leading manner? Certain words or sentence structures could improperly suggest the pollster‘s preferred answer. The poll’s results can also be affected by the order in which questions are asked and the order in which choices are presented. Did the survey solicit an opinion on a particular topic soon after the occurrence of a related event? An example would be conducting a survey on air safety a week after a major air disaster. The results might reveal more about the public’s emotional response to the disaster than about their long-term beliefs regarding the dangers of flying. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34-35 36 37 38 39 40 G. Good public opinion research can be invaluable to assessing the opinions and preferences of the public. Poor public opinion research can mislead users and severely reduce the public’s confidence in the survey process. Any- one who plans to rely on poll results — businessmen, advocates, journalists, consumers, or members of the general public, for instance — needs to be able to tell the difference to help them determine how much weight any given poll research should be given. Questions 29 30 31 32 33 34-35 36 37 38 39 40 Questions 34-35 In which TWO paragraphs in Reading Passage 3 does the writer give advice directly to the reader? Write the TWO appropriate letter, A –G, in boxes 34 and 35 on your answer sheet.
Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Questions 36-39 Do the following statements reflect the opinions of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 36-39 on your answer sheet, write YES if the statement reflects the opinion of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the opinion of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 36. Politicians and governments are the biggest users of public opinion research. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 37. Conducting an opinion survey on the safety of air travel soon after a major airplane disaster should yield more meaningful and reliable results. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 38. A reliable survey should have a margin of error no less than 5%. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” 39. Price competition usually ensures the adoption of high quality survey standards. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Question 40 Choose the appropriate letter, A – D, and write it in box 40 on your answer sheet. Which of the following statements best describes the writer‘s main purpose in Reading Passage 3? A. to advise survey participants about the pitfalls of public opinion research B. to encourage survey and poll users to beware of validity issues C. to explain the theory behind public opinion research D. to criticize those who conduct and use public opinion research Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 3” Answer Key “IELTS READING TEST - V”
lELTS READING TEST - VI
lELTS READING TEST - VI Reading Passage 1 Reading Passage 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. TEA TIMES A. The chances are that you have already drunk a cup or glass of tea today. Perhaps, you are sipping one as you read this. Tea, now an everyday beverage in many parts of the world, has over the centuries been an important part of rituals of hospitality both in the home and in wider society. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 B. Tea originated in China, and in Eastern Asia tea making and drinking ceremonies have been popular for centuries, Tea was first shipped to North Western Europe by English and Dutch maritime traders in the sixteenth century. At about the same time, a land route from the Far East, via Moscow, to Europe was opened up. Tea also figured in America’s bid for independence from British rule-the Boston Tea Party. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 C. As, over the last four hundred years, tea-leaves became available throughout much of Asia and Europe, the ways in which tea was drunk changed. The Chinese considered the quality of the leaves and the ways in which they were cured all important. People in other cultures added new ingredients besides tea-leaves and hot water. They drank tea with milk, sugar, spices like cinnamon and cardamom, and herbs such as mint or sage. The variations are endless. For example, in Western Sudan on the edge oi the Sahara Desert, sesame oil is added to milky tea on cold mornings. In England tea, unlike coffee, acquired a reputation as a therapeutic drink that promoted health. Indeed, in European and Arab countries as well as in Persia and Russia, tea was praised for its restorative and health giving properties. One Dutch physician, Cornelius Blankaart, advised that to maintain health a minimum of eight to ten cups a day should be drunk, and that up to 50 to 100 daily cups could be consumed with safety.
Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 D. While European coffee houses were frequented by men discussing politics and closing business deals, respectable middle-class women stayed at home and held tea parties. When the price of tea fell in the nineteenth century poor people took up the drink with enthusiasm, Different grades and blends of tea were sold to suit every pocket. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 E. Throughout the world today, few religious groups object to tea drinking. In Islamic cultures, where drinking of alcohol is forbidden, tea and coffee consumption is an important part of social life. However, Seventh-Day Adventists, recognising the beverage as a drug containing the stimulant caffeine, frown upon the drinking of tea. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 F. Nomadic Bedouin are well known tor traditions of hospitality in the desert. According to Middle Eastern tradition, guests are sewed both tea and coffee from pots kept ready on the tires of guest tents where men of the family and male visitors gather. Cups of ‘bitter’ cardamom coffee and glasses of sugared tea should be constantly refilled by the host. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 G. For over a thousand years, Arab traders have been bringing Islamic culture, including tea drinking, to northern and western Africa. Techniques of tea preparation and the ceremonial involved have been adapted. In West African countries, such as Senegal and The Gambia, it is fashionable tor young men to gather in small groups to brew Chinese ‘gunpowder’ tea. The tea is boiled with large amounts of sugar for a long time. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 H. Tea drinking in India remains an important part of daily life. There, tea made entirely with milk is popular. ‘Chai’ is made by boiling milk and adding tea, sugar and some spices. This form or tea making has crossed the Indian Ocean and is also popular in East Africa, Where tea is considered best when it is either very milky or made with water only. Curiously, this ‘milk or water’ formula has been carried over to the preparation of instant
coffee, which is served in cafes as either black, or sprinkled on a cup or hot milk. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 I. In Britain, coffee drinking, particularly in the informal atmosphere of coffee shops, is currently in vogue. Yet, the convention of afternoon tea lingers. At conferences, it remains common practice to serve coffee in the morning and tea in the afternoon. Contemporary China, too, remains true to its long tradition. Delegates at conferences and seminars are served tea in cups with lids to keep the infusion hot. The cups are topped up throughout the proceedings. There are as yet no signs of coffee at such occasions. Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 Questions 1-8 Reading Passage 1 has 9 paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the List of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xiii) in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet. One of the headings has been done for you as an example. NB: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them. 1. Paragraph A Paragraph “A.” 2. Paragraph B Paragraph “B.” 3. Paragraph C Paragraph “C.” 4. Paragraph D Paragraph “D.” 5. Paragraph E Paragraph “E.” 6. Paragraph G Paragraph “G.” 7. Paragraph H
Paragraph “H.” 8. Paragraph I Paragraph “I.” Example Answer Paragraph F xiii List of headings i. Diverse drinking methods ii. Limited objections to drinking tea. iii. Today’s continuing tradition - in Britain and China iv. Tea — a beverage of hospitality v. An important addition — tea with milk vi. Tea and alcohol vii. The everyday beverage in all pans of the world viii. Tea on the move ix African tea x. The fall in the cost of tea xi. The value of tea xii. Tea-drinking in Africa xiii. Hospitality among the Bedouin Questions 9-14 Complete the sentences below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage to complete each blank space. 9. For centuries, both at home and in society, tea has had an important role in .......................... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” “I.” 10. Falling tea prices in the nineteenth century meant that people could choose the ......................... of tea they could afford. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” “I.” 11. Because it .......................... Seventh-Day Adventists do not approve of the drinking of tea. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” “I.” 12. In the desert, one group that is well known for its traditions of hospitality is the ........................... Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” “I.” 13. In India, ....................... as well as tea, are added to boiling milk to make ‘chai’.
Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” “I.” 14. In Britain, while coffee is in fashion, afternoon tea is still a ................................. Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” “E.” “F.” “G.” “H.” “I.” Answer Key “Reading Passage 1” Reading Passage 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-29, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below. Tyes and Greens A. There are a number of settlements in this part of East Anglia with names containing the word ‘lye’. The word is Anglo-Saxon in origin, and the Oxford English Dictionary quotes the earliest usage of the term as dating from 832. Essentially a ‘tye’ was a green, or a small area of open common land, usually sited away from the main village or settlement, perhaps at the junction of two or more routes. Local people and passing travellers had the right to pasture their horses, pigs and other farm animals on the tye. In the Pebmarsh area there seem to have been five or six of these tyes, all, except one, at the margins of the parish. These marginal clearings are all away from the richer farming land close to the river, and, in the case of Cooks Green, Hayles Tye, and Dorking Tye, close to the edge of still existing fragments of ancient woodland. It seems likely then that, here, as elsewhere in East Anglia, medieval freemen were allowed to clear a small part of the forest and create a smallholding. Such unproductive forest land would, in any case, have been unattractive to the wealthy baronial or monastic landowners. Most of the land around Pebmarsh village belonged to Earls Colne Priory, a wealthy monastery about 10 kilometres to the south, and it may be that by the 13th and 14th centuries the tyes were maintained by tenant farmers paying rent to the Priory. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27. 28 29 B. Hayles Tye seems to have got its name from a certain John Hayle who is documented in the 1380s, although there are records pointing to occupation of the site at a much earlier date. The name was still in use in 1500, and crops up again throughout the 16th and 17th centuries, usually in relation to the payment of taxes or tithes. At some point during the 18th
century the name is changed to File’s Green, though no trace of an owner called File has been found. Also in the 18th century the original dwellings on the site disappeared. Much of this region was economically depressed during this period and the land and its dwellings may simply have been abandoned. Several farms were abandoned in the neighbouring village of Alphamstone, and the population dwindled so much that there was no money to support the fabric of the village church, which became very dilapidated. However, another possibility is that the buildings at File’s Green burnt down, fires being not infrequent at this time. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27. 28 29 C. By 1817 the land was in the ownership of Charles Townsend of Ferriers Farm, and in 1821 he built two brick cottages on the site, each cottage occupied by two families of agricultural labourers. The structure of these cottages was very simple, just a two-storey rectangle divided in the centre by a large common chimney piece. Each dwelling had its own fireplace, but the two families seem to have shared a brick bread—oven which jutted out from the rear of the cottage. The outer wall of the bread-oven is still visible on the remaining cottage. The fireplaces themselves and the chimney structure appear to be older than the 1821 cottages and may have survived from the earlier dwellings. All traces of the common land had long disappeared, and the two cottages stood on a small plot of less than an acre where the labourers would have been able to grow a few vegetables and keep a few chickens or a pig. The bulk of their time was spent working at Ferriers farm. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27. 28 29 D. Both cottages are clearly marked on maps of 1874, but by the end of the century one of them had gone. Again, the last years of the 19th century were a period of agricultural depression, and a number of smaller farms in the area were abandoned. Traces of one, Mosse’s Farm, still partly encircled by a very overgrown moat, may be seen less than a kilometre from File’s Green. It seems likely that, as the need for agricultural labour declined, one of the cottages fell into disuse, decayed and was eventually pulled down. Occasional fragments of rubble and brick still surface in the garden of the remaining cottage. In 1933, this cottage was sold to the manager of the newly-opened gravel works to the north-west of Pebmarsh
village. He converted these two dwellings into one. This, then, is the only remaining habitation on the site, and is called File’s Green Cottage. Questions 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27. 28 29 Questions 15-18 Choose the appropriate letters A—D and write them in Boxes 15-18 on your answer sheet. 15. A tye was... A. a green B. a large open area C. common land with trees D. found at the junction of two or more routes Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 16. The Pebmarsh area....... A. probably had seven tyes B. probably had six tyes C. appears to have had five or six tyes D. was not in East Anglia Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 17. The tyes in the Pebmarsh area were..... A. near the fiver B. used by medieval freemen C. mostly at the margins of the parish D. owned by Earls Colne Priory Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” 18. According to the writer, wealthy landowners....... A. did not find the sight of forest land attractive B. found the sight of forest land attractive C. were attracted by the sight of forest land D. considered forest land unproductive Paragraph “A.” “B.” “C.” “D.” Questions 19-29 Complete the text below, which is a summary of paragraphs 3 — 6 in Reading Passage 2. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage to fill each blank space.
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