iSW MOET 6 Practice Test

CONTENTS Page 4-7 UNIT TEST 1 8-11 UNIT TEST 2 12-15 PROGRESS TEST 1 16-19 UNIT TEST 3 20-23 UNIT TEST 4 24-27 PROGRESS TEST 2 28-31 UNIT TEST 5 32-35 UNIT TEST 6 36-39 PROGRESS TEST 3 40-43 UNIT TEST 7 44-47 UNIT TEST 8 48-51 PROGRESS TEST 4 52-55 UNIT TEST 9 56-59 UNIT TEST 10 60-63 PROGRESS TEST 5 64-67 SEMESTER TEST 1 68-71 SEMESTER TEST 2 72-75 ADVANCED 1 76-79 ADVANCED 2 80-83 ADVANCED 3 84-87 AUDIO SCRIPTS

UNIT TEST 1 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the option that best completes each sentences. (15 points) 1. My father ............ the gardening every Sunday. A. makes B. does C. works 2. Can you please help me ............? The clothes are dirty. A. clean the house B. sweep the floor C. do the laundry 3. People often gather to dance, eat, drink and watch fireworks ............ New Year’s Eve. A. at B. on C. in 4. The shoe company my father works ............ is really big. A. on B. for C. in 5. My house has three floors ............ it has no basement. A. because B. but C. and 6. Jenny: Who does the ............ housework in your family? Anna: My younger sister. She’s just 3 years old. A. most B. least C. best 7. Simon: ............ bedrooms does your apartment have? Fred: It has two bedrooms. A. How many B. How C. What 8. John: ............ does his sister work? Jack: In a bank. A. What B. How C. Where 9. Children ............ Halloween by playing Trick or Treat. A. decorate B. celebrate C. greet 10. As a waiter, I serve ............ food and drink. A. guests B. eaters C. customers 11. During Tet, everyone ............ their families and friends. A. visits B. visit C. visiting 12. What does the sign say? A. This is a construction site. B. Someone is digging. C. You can plant trees here. 13. What does the sign say? A. There’s a school nearby, so drivers have to slow down. B. School children run slowly. C. You cannot run slowly near schools. Choose the option whose underlined part is pronounced differently. 14. A. cooks B. plays C. dates 15. A. children B. lunch C. school 4

Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the following dialogue with the sentences. There is one EXTRA question. (10 points) a. Does she enjoy her job? Mary: Hi Tom! I met your mom in the City Library yesterday. Tom: Hello Mary! My mom works there. b. What else does she do? Mary: (1)............ . Tom: She’s a librarian. c. H ow does she travel to Mary: Interesting! (2)............ work? Tom: She sorts out new books, labels them and lends them to readers. Mary: Oh. I saw her working on a computer. (3)............ d. How many hours a day Tom: Ah, she keeps records of the books and the readers. does she work? Mary: (4)............ . Tom: She works from 8 to 10 hours a day. e. W hat does she do on Mary: (5)............ her job? Tom: Yes, she likes it very much. Mary: I hope to talk to her about the library. f. What’s her job? Tom: You can come and meet my mom at home. Mary: Thanks! See you then. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. My brother is 24 years old and he works on a _____________________ site. (CONSTRUCT) 2. Christmas is one of the biggest _____________________ holidays in the USA. (TRADITION) 3. I like shopping at that store – the shop _____________________ is very friendly and helpful. (ASSIST) 4. At Tet, children usually receive _____________________ money. (LUCK) 5. I’m really looking forward to _____________________ my grandparents during the holiday. (VISIT) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) My family has just moved into a new 1. The writer’s family doesn’t like the new house. house. It just has everything we wish 2. There are four members in the writer’s family. for, especially a garden. It is not 3. The writer’s new house has a big garden. big and there are not a lot of trees 4. The writer’s father wants to make the now, but my Dad plans to add more to make it beautiful. He thinks our garden beautiful. family can have outdoor dinners at 5. The children enjoy their mom’s cooking. weekends. Mom cooks the best food in the world, so my sister and I can’t wait to invite some friends over some time. 5

UNIT TEST 1 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) In Vietnam, Mid-Autumn Festival is a great celebration for children. It (6)........ on the 15th of the eighth lunar month, (7)........ the preparation starts a few weeks before that: teenagers (8)........ how to make beautiful lanterns. On the day, adults prepare fruits and cakes (9)........ children. The (10)........ part of the celebration is in the evening. Children walk around their neighbourhood with their lanterns before enjoying the food together. 6. A. falls B. is falling C. will fall 7. A. so B. or C. but 8. A. teach B. study C. learn 9. A. of B. for C. with 10. A. least B. best C. most Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) In my family, Mom always does the most housework and everyone else helps her. My father repairs things around the house and does (11)................... cleaning. I think he likes (12)................... the plants the most. My sister helps Mom cook (13)................... iron the clothes. When Mom is on business, my sister (14)................... the cooking and ironing. As the youngest child, I do the least housework and I (15)................... learning to do more. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. the third floor./is/my classroom/on _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. a day./a sales assistant/John is/and he/ten hours/works _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. the patients/takes care of/a nurse/in a hospital. _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. in the countryside?/or/do you/in the city/live _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. in/your new neighbourhood?/how many/are there/houses _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 6

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. There are three bedrooms in my house. My house _______________________________________________________________________________________ 7. This house is very small. This is __________________________________________________________________________________________ 8. My mother teaches at this school. My mother is ____________________________________________________________________________________ 9. Mary is a doctor at St. Luke’s Hospital. Mary works _____________________________________________________________________________________ 10. Is there a basement in your new house? Does ___________________________________________________________________________________________ Part 6 LISTENING Listen to a young girl describing her room. Task 1. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. The girl’s room is a nice big one. _______ 2. The girl doesn’t enjoy the garden. _______ 3. The girl enjoys reading books in the morning. _______ 4. The girl’s mother wants her to take her teddy bears out of her bed. _______ 5. The girl shares the room with her sister. _______ Task 2. Listen again and fill in the blank with ONLY ONE WORD from the recording. (10 points) 6. The girl calls her teddy bears “___________________”. 7. In the girl’s room, there’s a bed, a desk and a ___________________. 8. The girl keeps too many books and ___________________. 9. The girl’s mother suggests she give the books to her ___________________. 10. The girl cleans her room and sweeps the ___________________ everyday. 7

UNIT TEST 2 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. I like arts and crafts so I will sign up for the ............ . A. acting club B. tennis club C. basketball club 2. John loves making beautiful things ............ hand. A. with B. by C. through 3. Thanks to the ............, the police could solve the mystery. A. thief B. crime C. clue 4. Tim Jenkins ............ a barbecue at 7 p.m. yesterday. A. was having B. were having C. had 5. Tran Hung Dao died in 1300 ............ the age of 72. A. in B. on C. at 6. I learned about To Hoai, To Huu and Tran Dang Khoa in my ............ class. A. biology B. physics C. literature 7. Trang: Why don’t you sign up for the drama club? Linh: ............ A. Yes, of course. B. Great idea. C. No, thanks. 8. Leo was hungry ............ he stole some food from the convenience store. A. because B. but C. so 9. Sam was hailed as a hero after ............ a child’s life from a fire. A. helping B. saving C. winning 10. A good leader must be good at ............ decisions. A. giving B. making C. doing 11. Lola ............ want to join the I.T. Club. She finds working with computers boring. A. isn’t B. don’t C. doesn’t 12. What does the notice say? Book Club A. The meeting for book club new members is on Tuesday morning. B. Book club members don’t often meet at 9 a.m. on Tuesdays. New meeting time: C. A new book club starts on Tuesday. Tuesday 9 a.m. Room 405 13. What does the notice say? A. Users of the library cannot bring food or drinks to the reading room. B. The library doesn’t sell food or drinks. C. Don’t leave food or drinks in the reading room. Choose the option whose underlined part is pronounced differently 14. A. defeated B. died C. called 15. A. history B. biology C. literature 8

Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the following dialogue with the sentences. There is one EXTRA question. (10 points) a. I enjoy I.T. and physical education. Linh: (1) ............ b. Great to hear! Lan: 12 subjects. How about you? c. Do you join any sports club? Linh: (2) ............ d. H ow many subjects do you have at Lan: Which subjects do you like best? Linh: (3) ............ school, Lan? Lan: I don’t like I.T. but P.E. is OK. e. Just the same. Linh: (4) ............ f. Do you like I.T.? Lan: I sign up for the soccer club. We are having a meeting this Friday. I am really looking forward to it! Linh: (5) ............ Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. I don’t have any ___________________ subjects at school. (FAVOR) 2. Susan enjoys learning to make many ___________________ things in her arts class. (USE) 3. Which ___________________ do you want to sign up for? (ACT) 4. As a great ___________________ of Vietnamese people, Uncle Ho led a very simple life. (LEAD) 5. The soldiers heroically ___________________ for their country. (FIGHT) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Alexander the Great was a king of the ancient Macedonia. He was born in 356 B.C. He was only 20 years old when he became the king of Macedonia. He won many battles during his life and the most famous was the battle of Gaugamela, in which he defeated the Persian army. Alexander the Great was one of the history’s greatest military leaders. 1. Alexander the Great became the king in 376 B.C. 2. Alexander the Great lost the battle to the Persian army. 3. Alexander the Great was famous for his military leadership. 4. Alexander the Great was a king of the modern Macedonia. 5. Alexander the Great’s least known battle was that of Gaugamela. 9

UNIT TEST 2 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) When he was young, Jim loved (6).............. mysteries and he always dreamed (7).............. becoming a detective when he (8).............. up. Once his neighbors’ cat went (9).............. . Jim helped them (10).............. the neighborhood for clues and found the cat was hiding inside an old warehouse. 6. A. solve B. solving C. solved 7. A. of B. up C. away 8. A. developed B. got C. grew 9. A. missed B. missing C. miss 10. A. look B. search C. find Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Hi everyone. My name is Bill. I'm twelve years (11)................... . I'm studying at Le Van Tam secondary school. There are 12 (12)................... in the school curriculum and my favorites are English and physics. I (13).................... like P.E. because I hate outdoor activities. Besides, my school offers a lot of extracurricular activities. I enjoy acting so I sign (14)................... for a drama club. My club often meets at weekends and we (15)................... a really good time together. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. was/the house/How much/worth?/money ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. yesterday./Molly/at 6.30 a.m./was/making breakfast ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. I/likes/studying/William/, but/don’t./geography ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. the jewelry/The thief/stole/worth $10,000. ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. R onald/doesn’t/know/to join./which club ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 10

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. T he subject I like most is history. My ____________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. T he last time Simon saw the car was last Tuesday. Simon last ______________________________________________________________________________________. 8. I finished my two-hour biology class at 6 p.m. yesterday. At 5.30 p.m. yesterday, __________________________________________________________________________. 9. I really admire General Vo Nguyen Giap. Someone _______________________________________________________ _______________________________. 10. After winning the Battle of Bach Dang River, Ngo Quyen became the king. Before _________________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Someone has stolen 3 diamonds worth $100,000 from the Smiths’ mansion. The police is interviewing Fred, the caretaker working for the Smiths. Task 1. Listen and complete the table with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS from the recording. (10 points) Fired Mary Little Bin Where was in the (1) ________________ in the (3) ________________ in his room he/she? What was he/ planting (2) ________________ (4) ________________ (5) ________________ she doing? Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. Fred was watering the trees when he saw Mary. _______ 7. Little Bin’s mom was making lunch. _______ 8. Carl usually washes the car at noon. _______ 9. Carl wasn’t in the garage from 11 to 11.30 a.m. yesterday. _______ 10. Fred will call the policeman to give him more information. _______ 11

PROGRESS TEST 1 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. John works ........... a shoe company and he doesn’t earn much. A. in B. at C. for 2. Peter is going to the ........... to report the theft. A. hospital B. police station C. bus stop 3. In my family, my mom and I ........... dinner and my father prepares breakfast. A. make B. do C. heat 4. When I do the ..........., my little sister helps me put it in the washing machine A. dishes B. laundry C. cooking 5. Our apartment is on the third ........... and it does not have a good view. A. floor B. balcony C. basement 6. Tran Hung Dao’s army ........... three important battles. A. defeated B. fought C. joined 7. My family moved to Ho Chi Minh City ........... 2013. A. at B. in C. on 8. Having no money, my uncle left school at the ........... of 15. A. age B. year C. birthday 9. We all ........... our father for his devotion to the society and care for the family. A. win B. enjoy C. admire 10. Mom says that I should ...........up for the book club. A. join B. ask C. sign 11. On Thanksgiving, no American goes to school ........... work. A. or B. and C. but 12. What does the sign say? A. Students will have their medical check-up in this room. B. Students will come in to complete their examination. C. Students are checking the room for problems. 13. What does the sign say? A. The coffee shop is serving customers now. B. Y ou are not allowed to leave your things here. C. Bags or luggage left here will be removed. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 14. A. hero B. stole C. office 15. A. battles B. fights C. mysteries 12

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose appropriate questions from a list to complete the blanks. There are THREE extra questions. (10 points) a. What about your subjects at school? Tom: Hi, Mary. (1) .............. b. Where is your school? Mary: It’s great. It has many big classrooms, a great yard, and c. What is your favourite subject? d. How is your new school? many good facilities. e. How are the teachers? Tom: (2) .............. f. Is it big or small? Mary: It’s in block A, on the second floor. g. Do you like your school? Tom: (3) .............. h. Where is your classroom? Mary: It’s quite big with many windows. So the room is airy. Tom: Great. (4) .............. Mary: I have 12 subjects in all. All of them are very interesting. Tom: Really? (5) .............. Mary: It’s maths. I like doing calculations and solving problems. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. We didn’t have dinner until we had finished the _____________________________ (DECORATE) 2. Teenagers should join _____________________________ activities like jogging and gardening. (DOOR) 3. When do you usually wear your _____________________________ clothes? (TRADITION) 4. I often send my Mom a _____________________________ and a card on her birthday. (GIVE) 5. The man disappeared _____________________________ . We couldn’t find him. (MYSTERY) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Lan is a student at Nguyen Van Troi Secondary school. Her favourite subject is English. She has English classes twice a week, on Tuesday morning and Friday morning. In an English class, Lan learns new words and structures. She learns how to speak and write. She also reads and listens to a lot of English. She hopes to communicate with friends in English. Lan also goes to an evening class to practise English. Lan loves English classes a lot. The teachers are so nice and helpful. 1. Lan prefers English to any other subject. _______ 2. Lan learns English on Tuesday and Friday. _______ 3. Lan wants to speak English with her friends. _______ 4. Lan just learns English at Nguyen Van Troi School. _______ 5. Lan doesn’t like her English teachers. _______ 13

PROGRESS TEST 1 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Uncle Ho is a famous Vietnamese leader. He was (6) .............. in Nghe An. (7) .............. he was a little boy, he was very bright. He left his hometown and (8) .............. to Saigon. From there, he travelled to several countries to find the way to free the nation. He (9) .............. many languages and did many different jobs. After he returned (10) .............. Viet Nam, he led the people’s struggle to success. Uncle Ho was the first President of Viet Nam. 6. A. lived B. grew C. born 7. A. After B. Until C. When 8. A. went B. left C. took 9. A. learnt B. read C. taught 10. A. back B. to C. in Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) I live in a small flat with my parents. The flat (11) ........................ quite small. It has a living-room, a kitchen and two bedrooms. (12) ........................ is no real dining-room. We have a dining table in the small kitchen. The big bedroom is my parents’. The (13) ........................ one is mine. There is not much furniture in my flat, (14) ........................ it has what we need. My (15) ........................ room in the house is the kitchen. I like it very much. I help my mom cook there and I love my family dinners. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. d o/does/housework/What/your/weekends?/sister/at _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. for/prepare/Americans/Christmas./of/a/things/lot _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. hero/George Washington/famous/a/18th/of/was/century./the/American _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. a nd/people/dances/fireworks./watch/Vietnamese/lion/often Tet,/at _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. o ffices/worker/houses./construction/builds/a/and _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 14

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 points) 6. I am not interested in maths. I don’t __________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. M y cousin is a sales assistant. My cousin works _________________________________________________________________________________. 8. M y house has three bedrooms. There __________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. John used lights to decorate the Christmas tree. (WITH) John __________________________________________________________________________________________. 10.What is your favourite subject? (BEST) _________________________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the tasks. Task 1: Listen and write down the job of the speaker’s family members. (10 points) • Father: (1) ..................... • Mother: (2) ..................... • Uncle: (3) ..................... • Aunt: (4) ..................... • Sister and brother: (5) ..................... Task 2: Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. Lan’s father and uncle never work at night. _______ 7. Lan’s aunt helps the children in the family with their school work. _______ 8. Lan’s mother does the cooking for the whole family. _______ 9. Lan lives in a big flat. _______ 10. Lan enjoys being in a big family. _______ 15

UNIT TEST 3 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Susan: We are making a cake on Sunday. Do you want to join? Peter: ............ . A. Sure! B. You’re welcome! C. Thanks! 2. Tim: What’s your teacher like? Bella: ............ . A. She’s tall B. She has blond hair C. She’s very kind 3. Are you ............ swimming this Saturday? A. going B. playing C. doing 4. Tran Hung Dao was a ............ and talented General. He fought against the Yuan-Mongol army. A. shy B. generous C. brave 5. Don’t be ............! Share your food with your brother, Sam! A. confident B. lazy C. selfish 6. Karen does many mean things to her sister and her mother is really angry ............ her. A. to B. with C. on 7. Peter takes care ............ her younger sister when his parents are away. A. of B. about C. on 8. John and I ............ badminton at 3 p.m. tomorrow. A. play B. played C. are playing 9. Lucy is slim and has ............ fair skin. A. a B. an C. no article 10. When was the film Alice’s in Wonderland ............? A. at B. in C. on 11. Our teacher often advises us to ............ a diary to improve our writing. A. have B. keep C. write 12. What does the notice say? There are no classes on A. Classes stop after Monday. Monday. Classes continue on B. Classes are off on Monday and resume on Wednesday. Wednesday. C. There are no classes on both Monday and Wednesday. 13. What does the notice say? A. Contact Sarah if you want to get a ticket for the class picnic trip. Class picnic trip B. Let Sarah buy the ticket for the class picnic trip. C. If Sarah wants to go on the class picnic, buy one ticket for her. Only a few tickets left. Let Sarah know if you want to go. Choose the option whose underlined part is pronounced differently 14. A. bag B. candle C. water 15. A. swimming B. sure C. serious 16

Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the following dialogue with the sentences. There is one EXTRA question. (10 points) a. Our family are having a picnic. Mark: (1) ............ Do you want to come? Sarah: I’m free. Why? Mark: (2) ............ b. What’s it for? Sarah: Of course! What do I need to prepare? Mark: (3) ............ . c. A re you doing anything this Sarah: Don’t forget to bring your phone too! Saturday? Mark: (4) ............ Sarah: To take photos! d. Bring your sleeping bag. We Mark: (5) ............ will bring some snacks and water. e. Great idea! f. What’s it like? Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. Remember to bring ___________________ water with you. (BOTTLE) 2. I’m going ___________________ with my father this weekend. (FISH) 3. Wayne has few friends because he’s mean and ___________________. (FRIEND) 4. Thank you, Jane! You’re such a ___________________ friend! (HELP) 5. Put your ___________________ at the end of the letter. (SIGN) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Harry Potter is a story about a young and kind-hearted teenage wizard Harry Potter. He meets his two close friends, Ron Weasley and Hermione Ranger at Hogwarts School. Ron is very tall and has short red hair. He’s friendly and funny. Hermione is of average height and she has long brown hair. Unlike Ron, she is very serious about her study but she’s kind. Together, the three friends fight against Dark Lord Voldemort. They won the final battle against him. 1. Harry, Ron and Hermione are friends before they start school. 17 2. Ron’s hair color is brown. 3. Both Ron and Hermione are serious students. 4. Ron is taller than Hermione. 5. The three friends defeated Voldemort in the end.

UNIT TEST 3 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Camping is an exciting experience but you have to prepare carefully for the trip. Following are the (6).............. that you must remember to pack for the trip. First, make sure you bring plenty of water and food (7).............. they don’t provide those at the campsite. Second, pack a first aid kit in case someone (8).............. medical help. If you plan to stay overnight, bring tents and sleeping (9).............. . You may also need a flashlight because it will (10).............. dark. 6. A. reasons B. solving C. thing 7. A. but B. and C. because 8. A. need B. needs C. needed 9. A. packages B. boxes C. bags CAMPING 10. A. become B. grow C. get Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Son Tinh and Thuy Tinh are Vietnamese Gods (11)................... characters. They (12)...................very brave and talented and both want to (13)................... married to Princess My Nuong. The king then asks the two men to find and give (14)................... special items as proposal gifts. (15)................... Son Tinh comes earlier, he wins and marries the Princess. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. do/for/What/need/we/our picnic? _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. battery/charge/we/to/our mobile phones./need/to bring _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. in the park/after school./My best friend and/play/I/often _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. T ina/because/with poor children./is/shares food/she/kind _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. six pillows and/for our trip?/some flashlights/order/Could you _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 18

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. Rachel’s hair is long and brown. Rachel has ______________________________________________________________________________________. 7. Kate’s birthday party is tonight. Kate is _________________________________________________________________________________________. 8. What is the color of Sean’s hair? What color ______________________________________________________________________________________? 9. Jack, the speaker, is very confident. Jack is a ________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. I think you don’t have to bring candles. You don’t need __________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen to an introduction about the book The Adventures of Tom Sawyer. Task 1. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. The book is about a teenager named Tom Sawyer. _______ 2. Tom Sawyer lives with his parents. _______ 3. The town where Tom lives is near a river. _______ 4. Tom likes playing tricks on people. _______ 5. Tom is a kind boy. _______ Task 2. Listen again and fill in the blank with ONLY ONE WORD from the recording. (10 points) 6. Mark Twain wrote the book in the year ___________________. 7. He is ___________________ years old. 8. Tom often gets into ___________________. 9. He had several ___________________ with his close friend Huckleberry Finn. 10. He is one of best-loved ___________________ characters. 19

UNIT TEST 4 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Some ............ stories feature robots that can talk and have feelings like humans. A. horror B. romance C. science fiction 2. Susan: Was the movie on Channel 7 last night good? Tommy: No, ............ . A. it was awesome B. it was awful C. it was fantastic 3. Toby: ............ guitar is it? Amanda: It’s Simon’s. A. Who B. Which C. Whose 4. There are two kinds of Cai Luong. One is about Vietnamese history and the ............ is about modern Vietnam. A. another B. other C. others 5. I watched a horror movie ............ Insidious 3 last night. A. called B. calling C. call 6. What kind of movie do they all agree ............? A. over B. on C. with 7. There is a romance ............ at 9 p.m. I remember it’s Me Before You. A. in B. up C. on 8. Emma Thompson is a talented actress both in drama ............ in comedies. A. or B. but C. and 9. Opera singers who perform Mozart’s works often wear historical ............ . A. clothing B. customs C. costumes 10. I enjoy listening and dancing ............ jazz with my friends. A. with B. to C. in 11. Let’s go to ............ this weekend. Read this table and answer questions 12 and 13. A. the movies B. the movie C. movies 12. Tim and his cousins want to choose a movie to watch this Film Show Length Rating Sunday. Tim is 15 years old and his cousins are Jack, times 13 and Susan, 10. They have to return home by 11.30. Which film should they choose? The 9:30 -- 123 R (Under 17 Shape of 10:15 minutes viewers need Water accompanying A. The Shape of Water B. The Grinch C. Early Man parents) 13. Michael’s family want to watch Black Panther. There are Michael’s The 9:00 -- 85 G (General parents, his sister Penelope, 12 years old and Michael, 14 years Grinch 10:00 minutes audience) old. How much do they have to pay for the tickets? Black 8:30 -- 135 PG-13 (Children A. $56 B. $22 C. $32 Panther 11:00 minutes under 13 need 3D accompanying parents) Choose the option that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. Early 10:00 -- 100 G Man 11:15 minutes 14. A. terrible B. fantastic C. wonderful Adults $7.50 Adults 3D $16.00 15. A. cartoon B. drama C. action Child (3-13) $3.50 Child (3-13) 3D $8.00 20

Part 2 SPEAKING Match the questions in column A with the correct response in column B. There is one EXTRA response. (10 points) A B 1. What kind of movie is Home Alone? a. At 8.30 p.m. every Sunday. 2. How was the horror IT? b. It’s a comedy. 3. Why don’t we watch The Polar c. Great idea! d. I love pop music more than any Bears? 4. What is your favorite kind of music? other kind. 5. When is the show on? e. Oh, I couldn’t stop laughing! It was so funny. f. It was really scary. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. Did you watch the horror on Channel 9 last night? It was really ___________________. (BORE) 2. Cai Luong has a long history, starting at the ___________________ of the 20th century. (BEGIN) 3. You must be over 15 to enter the hip-hop ___________________. (COMPETE) 4. Cai Luong originally comes from ___________________ Vietnam. (SOUTH) 5. The teacher ___________________ the children with songs, stories and drama. (ENTERTAINMENT) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) A female pig with a pink face dressed in a pink dress. Fans of the Peppa Pig series are probably familiar with this image. Peppa Pig is a cartoon series. First, it was on Channel 5 in the UK in 2004 and now it is shown in more than 170 countries. Each episode is around 5 minutes long. The show is about Peppa with her family and friends. The series shows Peppa’s everyday activities such as playing with friends, visiting her grandparents or going swimming. The show is very popular with children around the world. There is even a Peppa Pig World Theme Park in Hampshire, UK with play zones and a water park. 1. Peppa Pig often wears a pink dress. 2. Peppa Pig is only shown in the UK. 3. Each episode lasts 5 minutes. 4. The show is mainly about Peppa’s activities at school. 5. A theme park is named after the cartoon series. 21

UNIT TEST 4 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Hi John, (6)............. for asking me to the cinema. I’m sorry to say that I’m not really into action films. I think they are (7)............. heavy for me. Why (8)............. we watch a cartoon? How about The Secret Life of Pets? I love cartoons and this one (9)............. really funny. Let me (10)............. what you think. Your friend, Tammy. 6. A. thanks B. thanking C. thank 7. A. too B. to C. enough 8. A. aren’t B. don’t C. didn’t 9. A. seem B. seemed C. seems 10. A. knowing B. to know C. know Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) I love jazz ever since I first listened (11)................... it when I was 16 years old. For me, jazz is not only music - it offers a way to (12)................... stories. People often play jazz in small clubs or coffee shops. My favorite jazz singer is Louis Armstrong, who (13)................... born in New Orleans (14)................... 1901. He was an important figure in the world of jazz. He died at the (15)................... of 70. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. p layed/didn’t know/Sarah/who/in that band./the drums _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. w hat happened/She/was/in the movie./confused/about _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. o f/is/What/Who wants to be a millionnaire?/kind/show _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. the main/Tom Cruise/in Mission Impossible./plays/character _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. is/one/Country music/the most/in the States./of/popular _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 22

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. Let’s watch a musical together! Why ___________________________________________________________________________________________? 7. This area has three cinemas. There are ______________________________________________________________________________________. 8. What do you plan to do this Sunday? What are _______________________________________________________________________________________? 9. The name of the movie I watched was Kitty Cat. I watched a movie ________________________________________________________________________________. 10. I don’t want to watch drama. I don’t like _____________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen to a movie review. Task 1. Listen and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.(10 points) 1. What kind of movie is Sing? A. a musical B. a comedy C. Both are correct 2. How many companies are involved in producing the movie? A. one B. two C. It is not mentioned 3. What is the movie about? A. animals B. a competition C. music 4. How many animals appear in the movie? A. 60 B. 16 C. It is not mentioned 5. How much does the movie earn? A. 634 million dollars B. 644 million dollars C. 600 million dollars Task 2. Listen again and fill in the blank with ONE WORD from the recording. (10 points) 6. The movie Sing was produced in the year ___________________. 7. Buster Moon is the owner of a ___________________. 8. All the characters’ stories are very ___________________. 9. Songs in the movie are from famous ___________________. 10. According to the reviewer, the movie is ___________________ and meaningful. 23

PROGRESS TEST 2 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Don’t shout. Mom ........... . A. sleeps B. is sleeping C. slept 2. We ........... a movie tonight. Would you like to come? A. watch B. are watching C. watched 3. ........... Saturdays, I always get up very late. A. On B. In C. At 4. John needs ........... some new books now. A. to buy B. buying C. buy 5. When I ........... up, I will be a famous singer. A. live B. grow C. get 6. My uncle is very ........... . He always gives me presents when he visits me. A. helpful B. friendly C. generous 7. When was the movie ...........? Around 7.30 p.m.? A. at B. in C. on 8. We need a flashlight for the trip ........... it will get dark in the forest. A. so B. and C. because 9. It’s very cold ........... night, so make sure you bring your blankets. A. in B. on C. at 10. ........... make us laugh and think about a topic. A. Comedies B. Horrors C. Documentaries 11. John and Mary ........... a great movie last night. A. watch B. are watching C. watched 12. What does the sign say? A. Students will have their medical check-up in this room. B. Students will come in to complete their examination. C. Students are checking the room for problems. 13. What does the sign say? A. Turn left to go to the concert. PLEASE NO TEXTING B. Turn right to go to the concert. C. Go straight ahead for the concert. IN MOVIE THEATER Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Thank You! 14. A. hero B. stole C. office 15. A. battles B. fights C. mysteries 24

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the best options to complete the dialogue. (10 points) 1. Tom: Let’s go to the zoo tomorrow. 4. Tom: ............ Mary: ............ . Mary: She’s friendly and helpful. A. Good idea. A. What does Helen look like? B. I’d love to. B. What is Helen like? C. I don’t think so. C. What does Helen like? 2. Tom: ............ 5. Tom: I think pop music is interesting. Mary: She’s tall and slim. Mary: ............ . A. What does Helen look like? A. I agree. B. What is Helen like? B. So am I. C. What does Helen like? C. OK. 3. Tom: Would you like to join our trip? Mary: ............ . A. Yes, let’s. B. I promise. C. Great! I’d love to. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. T here were ten ______________________________ in the band and they were really friendly. (MUSIC) 2. P eter does not join in class activities. He seems _____________________________ with his classmates. (POPULAR) 3. T he singer sang _____________________________ and the whole audience loved his performance. (WONDER) 4. Lily, our class monitor, is average _____________________________ . (HIGH) 5. This piece of music sounds so _____________________________, making us think about love and friendships. (ROMANCE) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions. (5 points) Peter Rabbit is an English picture book for children. It is a book by Beatrix Potter. The author also drew the pictures in the book. Peter Rabbit tells the adventures of a playful and misbehaved rabbit in Mr. McGregor’s garden. Luckily, the rabbit escapes dangers and gets home with his mother. The writing of the book started in 1893 and it was printed in 1902. Readers can buy the book in many languages now. Peter Rabbit is one of the most popular children’s books of all time. 1. W here does the book come from? A. The United Kingdom B. The United States C. The United Nations 25

PROGRESS TEST 2 2. W ho drew the pictures in the book? 4. W hen was the book printed? A. Beatrix Potter A. Right after the author finished writing B. Peter Rabbit B. 9 years after the author finished writing C. Mr. McGregor C. 9 months after the author finished writing 3. W here are Peter Rabbit’s adventures? 5. Which of the following is NOT true of the book? A. In a forest A. Peter Rabbit is a playful character. B. In a park B. You can only read the book in English. C. In a garden C. The main character returns home safe. Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Rock music started around the 1960s in the United States. The main musical (6) .............. is the electric guitar. There is also a bass guitar (7) .............. the drums. Rock music is mainly (8) .............. love. Sometimes it also mentions a social (9) .............. . Rock players (10) .............. their musical skills and live performance during a rock concert. Rock music has developed over the years and there are many types of rock. 6. A. device B. equipment C. instrument 7. A. but B. so C. and 8. A. about B. on C. in 9. A. song B. topic C. content 10. A. show B. express C. keep Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. The key (11) ......................... a great camping trip is preparation. Organizers of the trip need to (12) ......................... careful plans about the site, participants and activities. Campers need to prepare for the trip. There is no (13) ......................... to bring lots of things, but clothes, sleeping bags, food and (14) .........................-aid kits must be available. They should (15) ......................... bring their mobile phone to contact their parents. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (20 points) 1. Tom and Jerry./watched/called/last/I/a/night,/cartoon _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. Korea/teenagers/pop music/the USA./listening/from/enjoy/to/and _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. all of us/pop music./the party,/to/at/danced/favourite/our _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. an important test/my friend/the week./have/at the beginning/is going to/of _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. write/my daily activities/about/often/in my diary./I _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 26

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. 6. P eter is keen on playing the guitar. Peter enjoys _____________________________________________________________________________________. 7. Mary’s hair is short. Mary ___________________________________________________________________________________________. 8. It’s not necessary to bring so many clothes. You ____________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. Let’s go for a picnic next Sunday. Why ____________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. J ohn plans to do the shopping this weekend. (GO) John is ________________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the tasks. (20 points) Listen and choose the correct answers. 4. What is she holding? A. A book 1. How old is the girl? B. A teddy bear A. 3 years old C. A toy car B. 4 years old C. 5 years old 5. W ho is waiting for her information? A. Her father 2. W here does she go missing? B. Her mother A. In a market C. Her grandmother B. In a supermarket C. In a shopping mall 3. What is she wearing? A. A dress B. A blouse and a skirt C. A shirt and jeans Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. 6. The girl is quite fat. _______ 7. The girl has blue eyes. _______ 8. Her hair is long. _______ 9. She is wearing pink shoes. _______ 10. We can contact her family by phone _______ 27

UNIT TEST 5 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Do you have these trousers in ............? A. medium size B. medium C. extra medium 2. Simon wants to buy ............ jeans. A. small dark blue B. dark small blue C. dark blue small 3. There is a long queue of ............ waiting to pay for their goods. A. guests B. customers C. users 4. The generous customer left a big ............ for the waiter. A. order B. charge C. tip 5. Waiter: Can I get you anything for dessert? Customer: ............, please. A. Two hamburgers B. A sandwich C. One ice cream 6. Sorry, Sir. We’re ............ orange juice. Would you like anything else? A. off B. out of C. out from 7. Sam: I need some aspirins. Sue: Well, the ............ is just over there. A. post office B. bookstore C. pharmacy 8. Pad Thai is a noodle dish ............ with chicken or seafood. A. make B. made C. making 9. Pho, the traditional Vietnamse dish, is often served with a lot of fresh ............ . A. fish sauce B. beef C. herbs 10. I hope the shop will have more sizes ............ you can have one in your size. A. because B. but C. so 11. Tim tried ............ a new pair of shoes. A. out B. on C. in 12. What does the notice say? Kimbab Restaurant A. When you come to pick up your orders, ring the bell. B. You can make orders at the restaurant. We are taking orders online or by phone only. Pick up orders, ring the bell. C. The restaurant stops taking orders via the Internet. 13. What does the notice say? Changing Room A. You have to buy at least 2 things at the store. B. You are not allowed to bring 3 pairs of jeans into the room. Take no more than C. You can try on at least 2 pieces of clothing. 2 items. Choose the option that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. 14. A. dessert B. sandwich C. menu 15. A. spaghetti B. hamburger C. restaurant 28

Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the dialogues with the sentences. There is ONE EXTRA sentence. (10 points) a. No, thank you. Waiter: Good evening, Sir. b. Is there anything you Customer: (1) ............ Waiter: Please come this way. recommend? Customer: (2) ............ c. Oh, great! I’ll order that. d. Good evening. I booked a Waiter: Yes, of course. Would you like something to drink? Customer: (3) ............ table for two at 8 p.m. Waiter: Yes, sure. Here’s your water. e. Can I have the menu, please? Customer: (4) ............ f. Can I have some water? Waiter: The chef’s special is very popular. Customer: (5) ............ Part 3 WORD FORMS Waiter: Yes, sure. Can I get you anything for dessert? Customer: I’ll have a pudding please. Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. May I have ___________________ chicken please? (FRY) 2. The sales ___________________ at this shop are very friendly. (ASSIST) 3. My pleasure as a chef is to see the customers eat my food ___________________. (HAPPY) 4. This chowder is so ___________________. Can I have another helping? (TASTE) 5. At weekends, this department store is crowded with ___________________. (SHOP) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Goi cuon, or Vietnamese spring rolls, is made with pork, prawn, vegetables and other ingredients. They are all wrapped in Vietnamese rice paper (banh trang). Goi cuon, can be served fresh or fried. In Vietnamese restaurants, customers often order goi cuon, as appetizers, served at the beginning of the meal. Foreigners also like this dish as it’s easy to make and good for health. 1.Goi cuon is often ordered as desserts. 2. Goi cuon can be easily made. 3. There are usually two ways to serve goi cuon. 4. Goi cuon is healthy. 5. Goi cuon is not popular with foreigners. 29

UNIT TEST 5 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Spencer Department Store is a beautiful new building. It has three floors. The first floor is full (6).............. toys and clothes for children. On the second floor, you can find a wide range of food from fresh vegetables to beef and pork. That’s perfect for (7).............. a meal. On the ground floor, there is a cafeteria which (8).............. excellent lunches and desserts. The staff there is (9).............. too. As Spencer offers things at cheap (10).............. , it is really popular in this area. 6. A. with B. off C. in 7. A. make B. making C. made 8. A. serves B. cooks C. sells 9. A. serious B. helpful C. brave 10. A. prices B. prizes C. costs Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Hi Karen, I’m happy that you like my new shoes. I bought them (11)................... a store called Tara. It’s (12) ................... to the bookstore on Baker Street. They have them (13)................... dark blue and pink. The (14)................... was $20. I also like the staff there. They are very friendly. I hope we can go shopping together some time in (15)................... future. Your friend, Betty. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. this is/Excuse me,/I ordered./not/what ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. g round/hamburgers,/Americans/like/made with/which is/beef./to eat ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. the theater./is/between/the mall/and/The post office ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. do/main courses?/What/you/for/often have ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. coffee/Can/have/sugar,/I /of/with both/a cup/milk and/please? ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 30

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. The store has the shirt in blue but not in pink. The store is out __________________________________________________________________________________. 7. People often make paella with rice, chicken and vegetables. Paella is often ____________________________________________________________________________________. 8. Timothy knows a lot about foods around the world. Timothy is an expert _______________________________________________________________________________? 9. Pho has a wonderful taste and smell. Pho tastes ________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. Can I take your order? Are you ________________________________________________________________________________________? Part 6 LISTENING Listen to a dialogue between Jim and Tina. Task 1. Listen and choose the correct letter (A-F) to match the places (1-5). (10 points) A pharmacy B parking lot E Main Street D F police station the speakers C Parker Street are here Maplestrf 1. bakery _______ 2. clothes store _______ 3. shoe store _______ 4. post office _______ 5. bus station Tom is a kind boy. _______ Task 2. L isten again and write down what Tim needs at each place. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS. (10 points) 6. bakery ______________________________________________ 7. clothes store ______________________________________________ 8. shoe store ______________________________________________ 9. post office ______________________________________________ 10. bus station ______________________________________________ 31

UNIT TEST 6 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the option that best completes each sentences. (15 points) 1. Miren often ............ hopscotch with her friends. A. does B. goes C. plays 2. Have you ever ............ rock climbing, Max? A. gone B. been C. done 3. I usually play soccer with my Dad ............ Sunday afternoons. A. every B. on C. in 4. Cristiano Ronaldo won the World Player of the Year ............ three times. A. Reward B. Prize C. Award 5. So far the sprinter has ............ 10 medals at 2 Olympic Games. A. won B. win C. wins 6. Michael Jordan was born ............ 1963 in the USA. A. in B. at C. on 7. On the high bar, the ............ swung forward. A. boxer B. soccer player C. gymnast 8. I’m not really into outdoor activities so I ............ go jogging. A. usually B. rarely C. always 9. Josh: ............ goals did the player score during his career? Bin: 1281. A. When B. How often C. How many 10. Nguyen Hong Son was ............ the best soccer player in Asia in August, 1998. A. named B. called C. made 11. How did Bean feel ............ he heard someone had broken into his house? A. because B. when C. while 12. What does the sign say? A. Be careful with the deep water. B. Don’t swim here because the water is deep. C. Deep water can cause danger to swimmers. 13. What does the sign say? A. Don’t touch the hot surface. B. Don’t touch or you may be injured. C. Stop touching the surface. Choose the option whose stressed syllable in different from that of the rest. 14. A. martial B. basketball C. recreation 15. A. Vietnamese B. national C. usually 32

Part 2 SPEAKING Complete the following dialogue with the sentences. There is one EXTRA question. (10 points) a. Which position does he play? Peter: What sport do you play, Mary? b. Who is your favorite player? Mary: (1) ............ c. What does he look like? Peter: I see. I enjoy playing soccer the most. d. M y health is not quite good so I Mary: (2) ............ Peter: It’s Lionel Messi. He’s an Argentine player. just do yoga. Mary: (3) ............ Peter: He’s a forward. e. W hat makes you admire him so Mary: (4) ............ much? Peter: He’s the captain of both Spanish club Barcelona and the Argentina’s national team. f. What team does he play for? Mary: (5) ............ Peter: He’s not only talented but also friendly with other players and fans. I want to become a soccer player like him. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. Michael Jordan won 6 NBA _____________________ with his team. (CHAMPION) 2. Nguyen Hong Son played for Vietnam’s _____________________ football team. (NATION) 3. The spectators watched the _____________________ splashing the water. (SWIM) 4. Someone broke into the house and _____________________ the safe last night. (STEAL) 5. Dory is _____________________ and loves outdoor games. (ADVENTURE) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Hoang Xuan Vinh is a Vietnamese shooter who participated in the Olympic Games 2012 and 2016. He was born in 1974 in Hanoi. Xuan Vinh won a gold medal in the 10 meter air pistol and a silver medal in the 50 meter pistol Olympic competitions in 2016. His gold medal was the first Olympic gold medal ever won by a Vietnamese athlete. His victory made history and brought joy to Vietnamese people. Many fans are very proud of him. 1. Hoang Xuan Vinh won 2 medals at each of the Olympic Games he took part in. 2. Before Xuan Vinh, Vietnamese teams didn’t win any Olympic gold medals. 3. Xuan Vinh won the Olympic medals at the age of 38. 4. Xuan Vinh came second place in the 10 meter pistol competition at the Olympic Games 2016. 5. Xuan Vinh was the pride of Vietnamese people. 33

UNIT TEST 6 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Hike and seek is a (6).............. game that has been played for a long time. You can play it indoors or outdoors but the basic rules (7).............. the same. In this game, at least two players hide (8).............. and one player, or “(9).............. ”, will find them. This game is quite (10).............. around the world and can be played by children or adults. 6. A. children B. children’s C. child’s 7. A. often are B. are often C. are often not 8. A. themselves B. them C. their 9. A. hider B. looker C. seeker 10. A. common B. popular C. usual Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) I’m not a very sporty person, so you will never see me going swimming or (11)................... martial arts like my friends. Instead, I do yoga. I (12)................... doing yoga when my mother took me to her yoga class. So far, I have practised yoga for 2 years. I often practise yoga early (13)................... the morning because it gives me the energy for the rest of the day. Yoga helps me control my emotions better. I also (14)................... friends with a lot of people in my yoga class. I believe yoga is good (15)................... both my physical and mental health. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. w on/The gymnast/of/medals/3 Olympic Games./a total/ten/at _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. invited/a talk/a sports star/The principal/to/give/at my school/yesterday. _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. is/Usain Bolt/in Jamaica./famous/sprinter/who/a/was born _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. I/play hide and seek/usually/break./with my/during/classmates/time _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. d oes/How often/with her sister?/Susan/play _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 34

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. Is this the first time you have been rock climbing? Have __________________________________________________________________________________________? 7. When’s Huynh Duc’s birthday? When was ______________________________________________________________________________________? 8. I want to try surfing some day. I would ___________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. Anh Vien took part in her first Olympic at the age of 16. When she _______________________________________________________________________________________. 10. I always come to school on time. I’m never ______________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen to the biography of Michael Phelphs. Task 1. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. Michael Phelphs is a swimmer from the USA. _______ 2. He began swimming when he joined a local swimming team. _______ 3.He was the only one in his family to learn swimming.. _______ 4. Phelphs first took part in the Olympic Games 1996. _______ 5. Before Phelphs, no American swimmer won so many Olympic medals. _______ Task 2. Listen and fill in the blank with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER. (10 points) 6. Michael Phelphs was born on ___________________, 1985. 7. Phelphs dreamt of becoming an Olympic ___________________ when he saw American swimmers in the Games. 8. Phelphs was the ____________________ American male swimmer to take part in the Olympic Games. 9. Phelphs has won a total of ___________________ Olympic gold medals so far. 10. Phelphs is considered one of the most ___________________ swimmers of all time. 35

PROGRESS TEST 3 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. She’s coughing and she is buying some medicine at the ........... . A. pharmacy B. supermarket C. post office 2. John is going to the bus station to buy a season ........... . A. coffee B. letter C. ticket 3. This dish is made with rice and ........... vegetables. A. a B. the C. some 4. I bought this shirt ........... a shop called NICECLOTHES near here. A. at B. on C. for 5. Vietnam’s national soccer team won the gold medal in the 30th SEA GAMES ........... 2019. A. at B. in C. on 6. We always start our days with a(n) ........... of coffee. A. cup B. bowl C. package 7. After a good meal at a restaurant, you should _______ the waiter a tip. A. drop B. leave C. pay 8. The customers asked for the _______, paid and left. A. menu B. check C. tip 9. My son would like _______ ice-cream with chocolate syrup. A. an B. a C. the 10. Can you order something else? We are _______ soup now. A. out of B. away from C. into 11. _______ hide and seek? It’s great fun. You should try it. A. Do you ever play B. Have you ever played C. Did you ever play 12. What does the sign say? A. We are not serving customers now. B. We have to take a rest now. CLOSED C. We do not need to work now. 13. What does the sign say? A. Ladies can try on the clothes in this room. B. Anyone can try on their clothes in this room. C. Females can change the dirty clothes in this room. Ladies changing room Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. 14. A. onion B. potato C. popular 15. A. chicken B. noodle C. invite 36

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose a question from the list to fill in each blank to make a complete dia- logue. There are TWO extra questions. (10 points) Sales assistant: Good afternoon. (1) ........................ a. Do you need anything else? Mary: Yes. Do you have this blouse in white? b. Do you have a changing room? c. What colour do you need? Sales assistant: Yes, we have some. (2) ........................ d. Can I help you? e. What size would you like? Mary: Medium. f. How many skirts are you going to take? g. How much is it? Sales assistant: Here you are. Medium and white. Mary: Thank you. Can I try it on? (3) ........................ Sales assistant: Yes. It’s over there. Mary: It looks so good on me. I’ll take it. (4) ........................ Sales assistant: $5. (5) ........................ Mary: No, thanks. Here’s $10. Sales assistant: Thank you. And here’s your change. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. This salad tastes _____________________________ . Can I have the recipe? (WONDER) 2. Ronaldo is a star soccer _____________________________ from Brazil. (PLAY) 3. John _____________________________ chats with his friends at break time. (USUAL) 4. What a(n) _____________________________ orange this is! (JUICE) 5. The _____________________________ offered us a good service, and we really liked her. (WAIT) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Usain Bolt is a legend of athletics. He was born on August 21, 1986 in Jamaica. When he was at school, he was a good cricket player and sprinter. He was famous for his speed. His first championship was in high school in 2001. He became well-known after his success at the 2002 World Junior Championships in Kingston, Jamaica. He received the International Association of Athletics Foundation’s Rising Star Award in the same year. Over different Olympic Games, Bolt has become “the fastest man alive”, an 11-time world champion with many world records. 1. Usain Bolt runs the fastest in the world. _______ 2. He won the first championship at the age of 17. _______ 3. At school, he was good at cricket. _______ 4. He got a special award from the International Association of Athletics in 2002. _______ 5. He only set one world record. _______ 37

PROGRESS TEST 3 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) The school has (6) .............. a survey among teenagers in our school. The survey asks about their recreation. Most students play one or two (7) ............... The most popular ones include soccer, table tennis and jogging. Others (8) .............. reading. They (9) .............. books from the school library or buy ones from bookstores. Some teenagers (10) .............. time doing creative activities such as painting and drawing. The most popular forms of recreation now are surfing the web and playing online games. 6. A. made B. done C. had 7. A. games B. sports C. activities 8. A. would like B. are C. enjoy 9. A. lend B. prevent C. borrow 10. A. spend B. take C. waste Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Tom yum is (11) ......................... popular hot and sour Thai soup. “Tom” means “boiling” and “yum” (12) ......................... “mixed”. It is usually (13) ......................... with some fresh herbs, lime juice, fish sauce and red chilli peppers. It sounds difficult to follow the recipe with such ingredients. In fact, you can (14) ......................... tom yum paste from supermarkets. Add it (15) ......................... the broth to have a perfect tom yum. The soup is normally served with seafood, pork or chicken. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. is/Green Street./opposite/my/a bakery/café/on/favourite _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. television/rarely/sister/school./watches/after/my _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. in/are/popular/of/there/spaghetti/Italy./many kinds _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. w ants to drink/orange juice/after breakfast./her daughter/some/usually _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. the/swimming/and/my friends/on/often/I/go/weekends _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 38

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 points) 6.This is the first time John has played basketball. John ____________________________________________________________________________________________. 7.Jack always goes to class on time. (NEVER) Jack is __________________________________________________________________________________________. 8.John rarely rides a bike to school. (BY) You ____________________________________________________________________________________________. 9.A bookstore is to the left of the bakery and a corner shop is to the right of the bakery. (BETWEEN) _________________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. I last met Tom in February. I have __________________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the tasks. Task 1: L isten and choose the 5 things that the woman ordered. (10 points) a. Steak 1. ____________________ b. Salad 2. ____________________ c. Noodles 3. ____________________ d. Soup 4. ____________________ e. Tuna fish 5. ____________________ f. Lemonade g. Soft drinks h. Soda i. Fruits j. Cakes Task 2: L isten again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. The woman came to the restaurant for lunch. _______ 7. The woman came with three other people. _______ 8. The woman ordered seafood noodles. _______ 9. The woman chose chicken soup. _______ 10. The woman did not want ice in her lemonade. _______ 39

UNIT TEST 7 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. In space, water ............ around the space station. A. floats B. dances C. lifts 2. My phone is dead now. I need to ............ it. A. replace B. recharge C. return 3. Robots work perfectly and they make no ............ . A. faults B. mistakes C. problems 4. Doctor Alan is going to operate ............ my uncle’s knees. A. for B. in C. on 5. Robots don’t have feelings, so they never get bored ............ their work. A. at B. by C. with 6. ............ robots work better than humans, they may take our place. A. However B. Because C. Although 7. We need someone strong to ............ this job. A. make B. do C. cause 8. Our maid robot can do many household ............ . A. work B. chores C. services 9. I think robot ............ should replace the army to fight in wars. A. soldiers B. cleaner C. machines 10. The package is too heavy for me to ............ . A. operate B. run C. lift 11. On ............, there will be a new film about robots on TV. A. July B. night C. Monday 12. What does the notice say? A. There is someone to receive your money here. B. You need to operate this machine to pay for your service. C. The machine can display your tickets and give you money. 13. What does the notice say? A. You should look for another machine. MACHINE NOT IN USE B. You need to choose this machine. C. You must not turn on this machine. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 14. A. heavy B. dead C. leave 15. A. language B. factory C. replace 40

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct response to complete the dialogue. (10 points) 1. John: Scientists should explore the space more. 4. Peter: Robot soldiers will save thousands of lives. Mary: ............ . It’s a waste of money. Jack: ............ . A. You’re right A. I believe B. That’s the point B. I agree C. I don’t think so C. I do 2. P eter: I find action films most interesting. 5. H elen: Where would you like to spend your Mary: ............ . holiday? A. So do I Daisy: ............ . B. Me neither A. For a week C. Here you are. B. With my family C. By the sea 3. Jack: Teenagers should study hard. Mary: ............ . But they also need to exercise. A. I totally agree with you B. I see your point C. I don’t think you are sure Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. This book describes a doctor’s ___________________ life. (DAY) 2. Fruit is very good for our ___________________. (HEALTHY) 3. A robot will be very ___________________ in a hospital. (HELP) 4. There is a great ___________________ between life on Earth and life in space. (DIFFERENT) 5. Jack says a robot will help a lot in the house, but I ___________________ with him. (AGREE) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) A university in Ho Chi Minh City is 1. A science club invents the rescue robot. working on a rescue robot. It is designed 2. The rescue robot can move under the ground. to be able to fly to an intended area. It 3. The robot tells where the victims are. can also dig to get under the ground and 4. The robot only rescues victims from the ground. find people. Then it sends information 5. The rescue robot works on the battery for a few hours. about the location of victims and their states to the controller. This valuable information makes the rescue effective. Because it is just the size of a small book, it requires little energy. Its battery allows it to do rescue work in 48 hours. 41

UNIT TEST 7 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Inside the space shuttle, life is quite like that on Earth, except the zero-gravity. The astronaut does not (6).............. a spacesuit all day round. He just needs it for exploration (7).............. space or for the launching flight. Astronauts need cotton shirts and underwear just as we do on Earth. (8).............., he cannot wash his clothes easily. What about baths? As water does not flow in zero-gravity, he (9).............. to clean himself with wet towels or (10).............. his hair with waterless shampoo. 6. A. wear B. dress C. bring 7. A. out B. on C. in 8. A. However B. Because C. But 9. A. can B. has C. must 10. A. clean B. wash C. do Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Space exploration costs a lot of money. Is it really necessary? Up to now, very few astronauts have had chances to visit space. (11)..................., space research has benefited humans in many ways. Satellites in space send information to (12)................... the daily weather. Communications satellites mean easy and instant contact (13)................... two people from afar. During the space trips, scientists can (14)................... more about human bodies. Some scientists even (15)................... of finding new homes for mankind on another planet. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. c an/patients/robots/doctors/help/on/operate ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. lock/sleeping/wall/astronauts/to/to/have/their/bags/the ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. really/can/life/interesting/a/be/as/scientist ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. c omplete/have/astronauts/day/to/checklist/every/a ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. first/who/person/space/the/to/to/Vietnamese/was/go/? ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 42

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. No one else in John’s class is as tall as him. John ___________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. There is no more tea now. We have run ____________________________________________________________________________________. 8. Robots don’t need to sleep, so they can work all day and night. Because ________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. John is 6 years old. Peter is 7 years old and Jack is 9 years old. Jack is ______________________________________________________________________________ in the group. 10. My advice for you is to eat more fruit. You should ______________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the task. Task 1. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with a NUMBER. (10 points) 1. There are ___________________ kinds of pet robots. 2. You have to recharge the pet robot ___________________ times a week. 3. Each pet robot costs ___________________ dollars. 4. The shop is at ___________________ Pet Street, London. 5. The phone number of the shop is ___________________. Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. This is an advertisement. _______ 7. You can get a bird robot. _______ 8. The pet robots stay the same. _______ 9. You have to give food to it. _______ 10. The pet robots take a lot of care. _______ 43

UNIT TEST 8 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. From the museum, John is going to go to the park ............ foot. A. by B. on C. with 2. Parents ............ take their children to new places each year. It’s good for the kids. A. may B. can C. should 3. I’m afraid you can’t meet Dr. Jones now. He’s ............ holiday. A. at B. during C. on 4. Mary: Please keep this a secret. Tom: Yes, I ............ . A. will B. am going to C. do 5. ............ do the sights around the capital city. A. I suggest B. Let’s C. How about 6. I will take this book. It’s ............ that one. A. not so interesting as B. more interesting than C. less interesting than 7. I often travel around the country ............ I have a long weekend. opening hours A. when B. because C. and 8. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the notice? A. We do not work on Sunday. Mo1n0daamy-to5pFmriday B. We work longer hours on Sunday than on Tuesday. Saturday & Sunday 12pm - 5pm C. We offer services on Saturday afternoon. 9. Look at the notice of entrance fees to a park. How much does a 4 year old boy pay? A. 60 pounds B. 55 pounds C. 00 pounds Family £60.00 10. Water falls from a 300-meter-high ............ . (2 adults and 2 children) Senior Family £55.00 A. forest B. waterfall C. beach 11. Da Lat is a popular tourist attraction. It is always ............ in the summer. (2 seniors and 2 children) A. crowded B. modern C. boring Under 5's FREE 12. ............ her late arrival, we missed the plane. A. In spite of B. Because of C. For 13. There is a great ballet on at the City’s ............ House next Sunday. A. Cinema B. Opera C. Museum Choose the word whose stress is on the second syllable. 14. A. forest B. wonderful C. between Choose the word whose stress is on the first syllable. 15. A. nature B. excite C. cathedral 44

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the correct questions to make a complete conversation. There are 5 EXTRA questions that you don’t need to use. (10 points) a. When are you going to start your trip? Helen: Hi, there! It’s summer time. b. How long are you going to stay in Hanoi? Tom: (1)............ c. Who are you going to visit in Sapa? Helen: M om says we are going to visit Hanoi next d. Where are you going to stay in Sapa? e. What are you going to do in Hanoi? week. f. Who are you going to travel with? Tom: That sounds great! (2)............ g. What are you going to bring with you? Helen: By plane. It will be my first flight! h. How are you going to get there? Tom: (3)............ i. W here are you going to spend your Helen: A bout 3 days. Then we are going to travel summer holiday? north, visiting Sapa. j. When are you going to get back? Tom: (4)............ Helen: Mom says she has booked a small hotel. Tom: (5)............ Helen: My parents, my brother and my two cousins. Tom: You will have a good time, I’m sure. Helen: Thank you, Tom. Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. There will be a new __________ park to the north of the city. (AMUSE) 2. Many tourists visit Da Lat for its __________ atmosphere. (PEACE) 3. Life is more __________ in the city than in the country. (EXCITE) 4. Weekends are our time for __________. (RELAX) 5. Jack got back home too late, so his mom shouted __________. (ANGRY) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) Melbourne is worth a visit. It is not as large as Sydney, but it is more MELBOURN peaceful. It is really hot in summer, and too cold in winter. The best time to visit Melbourne is in spring and autumn. Visitors can enjoy the pleasant climate, fresh air and beautiful flowers. The most popular landmarks include the Flinders Street Railway Station, the Phillip Islands and various museums. With its fantastic malls and well-known graffiti streets, Melbourne makes a wonderful world for keen shoppers and artists. 1. Sydney is bigger than Melbourne. 45 2. Visitors should visit Melbourne in winter. 3. Melbourne attracts nature lovers. 4. Shoppers do not enjoy their time in Melbourne. 5. Sydney is famous for street arts.

UNIT TEST 8 Choose the options that best complete the passage. (10 points) Many people prefer living in the city (6).............. living in the country. They believe that the (7).............. schools and hospitals are in the city. Life in the city is also more exciting. A lot of young people move into big cities (8).............. their better jobs. However, cities are more (9).............. . They have also become more polluted. Cities people (10).............. their weekends in the country for peaceful atmosphere and fresh air. 6. A. than B. more C. to 7. A. better B. worst C. best 8. A. because of B. despite C. and 9. A. crowded B. noisy C. interesting 10. A. last B. spend C. take Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points) Visitors to San Francisco usually bring back with them a photo of the Golden Gate Bridge. This landmark (11)................... been there since 1937. At first, almost (12)................... one believed that the building of this 4.8 kilometer long bridge was possible. It (13................... four years to complete. In 1937, it was the (14)................... suspension bridge in the world. Its red colour is painted regularly. It helps people move easily (15)................... Marin Headlands and the city of San Francisco. Because of this, San Francisco has developed very quickly. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (10 points) 1. the teacher/where/spend/his summer vacation/going to/is/? ______________________________________________________________________________________ 2. H ue does./Ho Chi Minh City has/than/a/population/larger ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. her trip/is going to/the Hyde Park/Michelle/to London./visit/during ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. should go/because/I think/from here./by taxi/the museum/we/too far/is __________________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. attract/each year./natural wonders/thousands of /Viet Nam’s/foreign tourists ________________________________________________________________________________________________ 46

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. (10 point) 6. John is not as tall as Helen. Helen __________________________________________________________________________________________ 7. Peter plans to spend his vacation by the sea. Peter is __________________________________________________________________________________________ 8. My advice for you is to travel by train. You _______________________________________________________________________________________________ 9. This book is not so interesting as that one. That book _______________________________________________________________________________________ 10. Why don’t we take the bus? (BY) Let’s ___________________________________________________________________________________________ Part 6 LISTENING Task 1. Listen once and choose 5 things that Mr. Johnson mentioned about Viet Nam. (10 points) a. The food 1. ____________________ b. The capital 2. ____________________ c. The weather 3. ____________________ d. The prices 4. ____________________ e. The hotels 5. ____________________ f. Means of transport g. The traffic h. The people i. The nature j. The entertainment Task 2. Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 1. Mr. Johnson does not really like his trip to Viet Nam. _______ 2. He spent more than a week in each city. _______ 3. He travelled around each city by motorbike. _______ 4. He found Vietnamese food delicious. _______ 5. He enjoyed wonderful weather during his trip. _______ 47

PROGRESS TEST 4 Part 1 USE OF ENGLISH Choose the options that best complete the sentences. (15 points) 1. Robots will make perfect workers in ........... . A. factories B. hospitals C. wars 2. Jack will tell us when the time ........... out. A. goes B. runs C. walks 3. I love my school. All the teachers are very ........... . A. boring B. friendly C. perfect 4. The ........... team are still searching for the missing boy. A. rescue B. police C. speed 5. Jack won the race ........... he ran the fastest. A. and B. but C. because 6. Moon is the large round ........... we can see at night in the sky. A. gravity B. object C. space 7. ........... help scientists explore the undersea world. A. Satellites B. Planets C. Submarines 8. Students at our school ........... wear uniforms on school days. It’s the school rule. A. have to B. will C. can 9. My little brother is two, but he _________ say a few English words. A. must B. may C. can 10. Anh Vien was born _________ November 9, 1996. A. on B. in C. by 11. We usually eat out _________ the weekend. A. on B. by C. in Choose the option whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 12. A. robot B. broken C. modern 13. A. make B. replace C. fastest 14. What does the sign say? Gates D32-49 A. Turn left for Gate D40. B. Turn right for Gate D40. C. Turn left for Gate D31. 15. What does the sign say? A. Go ahead to collect your suitcases. Baggage B. Go straight ahead to check in your suitcases. C. Go ahead if you lose your luggage. 48

Part 2 SPEAKING Choose the best options to complete the following dialogues. (10 points) 1. Tom: Where are you going to spend your holiday? 4. Tom: Let’s go to the cinema! Mary: ............ . Mary: ............ . A. I’m going to visit Singapore. A. I’d love to. B. I’m going to play sports. B. OK. C. I’m going to dance with my sister. C. Yes, let’s. 2. Tom: ............ 5. Tom: ............ . Mary: By bus. It’s safer. Mary: Because they do all the hard work and they A. Which city are you going to visit? make no mistakes. B. How are you going to travel to the seaside? C. When are you going to set off? A. Why do you think robots cannot work 3. Tom: ............ in factories? Mary: I think Singapore is cleaner than Bangkok. A. Which city is cleaner, Singapore or Bangkok? B. W here do you think robots make B. What is Singapore like? perfect workers in factories? C. Why do you think robots make perfect workers? C. Do you like Bangkok? Part 3 WORD FORMS Supply the correct forms of the given words. (10 points) 1. We’re going to visit a _____________________________ waterfall tomorrow. (FAME) 2. How long does this _____________________________ on the knee take? (OPERATE) 3. The children are playing tennis _____________________________ in the court. (ENERGY) 4. Thanks to its _____________________________, robots can lift very heavy things. (STRONG) 5. Life in space is very _____________________________, so not everyone can travel into space. (DIFFER) Part 4 READING COMPREHENSION Read the following passage and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (5 points) ASIMO is a famous robot. Honda made it in 2000. _______ 49 ASIMO belongs to the humanoid robot because it looks _______ like a human being. Honda improved ASIMO between _______ 2000 and 2018. During those 18 years, ASIMO travelled _______ around the world to encourage students to learn science. _______ ASIMO can interact with people, shake people’s hands and dance. ASIMO is now in the Miraikan museum in Tokyo, Japan. 1. Humanoid robots look like human beings. 2. Honda spent 18 years working on ASIMO 3. ASIMO travelled to places to advertise Honda products. 4. Honda showed ASIMO to many places in the world. 5. ASIMO cannot communicate with people.

PROGRESS TEST 4 Choose the options that best complete the passage. Robots (6) .............. perfect workers in factories. They (7) .............. to eat, sleep or rest. They do not ask for a day off, either. They keep working until they (8) .............. out of energy. Robots work (9) .............. than humans. They make no (10) ............... They work faster and they never complain. Factories with robot workers have higher production and there is no argument. 6. A. produce B. make C. cause 7. A. must not B. do not need C. do not want 8. A. come B. have C. run 9. A. better B. best C. well 10. A. faults B. problems C. mistakes Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Hong Kong is the (11) ......................... crowded city in the world. This busy (12) ......................... modern city has many international companies. It attracts workers from around the (13) ......................... . Tourists to Hong Kong love its shopping malls and Disneyland. Some (14) ......................... days wandering through shops and looking for bargains. They bring back a dozen shopping bags and a lot of souvenirs. Others (15) ......................... their children to their dream world watching famous cartoon characters. Part 5 WRITING Rearrange the given phrases to make a complete sentence. (20 points) 1. robot/lots/languages./can/of/this/understand _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 2. s pacesuits/astronauts/space./wear/to/in/have _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 3. s tay/exercise/thirty/day/you/for/to/should/minutes/a/healthy. _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 4. a nd factories./is/modern/helpful/technology/hospitals in/very _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 5. think/than Paris/interesting/you/London/is/more/do/? _______________________________________________________________________________________________. 50

Rewrite the following sentences with the given words and/or beginnings in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged. 6. No one else in John’s class has as many books as him. John ____________________________________________________________________________________________. 7. Peter runs the fastest in the group. No one else ______________________________________________________________________________________. 8. My plan is to complete this work in one week. I am ____________________________________________________________________________________________. 9. I believe smoking is not good for you. (SHOULD) You _____________________________________________________________________________________________. 10. The robot can sing any song. (ABLE) The robot _______________________________________________________________________________________. Part 6 LISTENING Listen and do the tasks. Task 1: Listen to the news and complete each blank with ONE word or number. (10 points) • The recording is part of the (1) ................................... News. • The President opened the park in the (2) ................................... . • It took (3) ................................... years to build the park. • The park has both plants and (4) ................................... . • After the announcement, the viewers can see (5) ................................... of the Smart Park. Task 2: Listen again and decide whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. (10 points) 6. This is the first Smart Park in the world. _______ 7. The Smart Park is the biggest park in the area. _______ 8. Visitors can see animals around the park. _______ 9. The management of the park can know where each animal of the park is. _______ 10. Students can study the animals and plants in the park. _______ 51