Comprehensive CBSE Question Bank in English X (Term-II)

CBSE II Question Bank in English Language and Literature CLASS 10 Features Strictly Based on the Latest CBSE Term-wise Syllabus Poetry: Summary, Paraphrase, Literary Devices, All Four Sections Entirely Solved Word Meanings, Very Short/Short/Long Answer Reading & Literature Questions/Extract Based Multiple Choice Questions Latest Typology of Multiple Choice Questions Grammar: Wide Range of Multiple Choice Questions Prose/ Supplementary Reader: Summary, Word Meanings, Very Short/Short/Long Answer Questions/Extract Based Multiple Choice Questions



Comprehensive CBSE Question Bank in English Language and Literature Term II (CLASS X) (According to the Latest CBSE Examination Pattern) by R.K. GUPTA   LAXMI PUBLICATIONS (P) LTD (An ISO 9001:2015 Company) BENGALURU • CHENNAI • GUWAHATI • HYDERABAD • JALANDHAR KOCHI • KOLKATA • LUCKNOW • MUMBAI • RANCHI NEW DELHI

Comprehensive CBSE QUESTION BANK IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE–X Copyright © by Laxmi Publications Pvt., Ltd. All rights reserved including those of translation into other languages. In accordance with the Copyright (Amendment) Act, 2012, no part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, translated into any other language or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise. Any such act or scanning, uploading, and or electronic sharing of any part of this book without the permission of the publisher constitutes unlawful piracy and theft of the copyright holder’s intellectual property. If you would like to use material from the book (other than for review purposes), prior written permission must be obtained from the publishers. Printed and bound in India New Edition ISBN : 978-93-93738-07-3 Limits of Liability/Disclaimer of Warranty: The publisher and the author make no representation or warranties with respect to the accuracy or completeness of the contents of this work and specifically disclaim all warranties. The advice, strategies, and activities contained herein may not be suitable for every situation. In performing activities adult supervision must be sought. Likewise, common sense and care are essential to the conduct of any and all activities, whether described in this book or otherwise. Neither the publisher nor the author shall be liable or assumes any responsibility for any injuries or damages arising here from. The fact that an organization or Website if referred to in this work as a citation and/or a potential source of further information does not mean that the author or the publisher endorses the information the organization or Website may provide or recommendations it may make. Further, readers must be aware that the Internet Websites listed in this work may have changed or disappeared between when this work was written and when it is read. All trademarks, logos or any other mark such as Vibgyor, USP, Amanda, Golden Bells, Firewall Media, Mercury, Trinity, Laxmi appearing in this work are trademarks and intellectual property owned by or licensed to Laxmi Publications, its subsidiaries or affiliates. Notwithstanding this disclaimer, all other names and marks mentioned in this work are the trade names, trademarks or service marks of their respective owners. & Bengaluru 080-26 75 69 30 & Chennai 044-24 34 47 26 Branches & Guwahati 0361-254 36 69 & Hyderabad 040-27 55 53 83 & Jalandhar 0181-222 12 72 & Kochi 0484-405 13 03 & Kolkata 033-40 04 77 79 & Lucknow 0522-430 36 13 Published in India by & Ranchi 0651-224 24 64 Laxmi Publications (P) Ltd. C—00000/021/12 Printed at: Ajit Printing Press, Delhi. (An ISO 9001:2015 Company) 113, GOLDEN HOUSE, GURUDWARA ROAD, DARYAGANJ, NEW DELHI - 110002, INDIA Telephone : 91-11-4353 2500, 4353 2501 www.laxmipublications.com [email protected]

Contents Pages Reading 1 26 1. Discursive Passage 2. Case-Based Factual Passage 42 57 Writing Skills 68 1. Formal Letter 80 2. Analytical Paragraph 88 96 Grammar 101 1. Tenses 113 2. Modals—Expressing Attitudes 134 3. Subject-Verb Concord 148 4. Determiners 157 5. Reported Speech 171 Literature First Flight (Prose) 184 193 1. Glimpses of India 2. Madam Rides the Bus 3. The Sermon at Benares 4. The Proposal First Flight (Poetry) 1. Amanda! 2. Animals 3. The Tale of Custard the Dragon (iii)

Footprints without Feet (Supplementary Reader) 216 231 1. The Making of a Scientist 246 2. The Necklace 257 3. The Hack Driver 4. Bholi (iv)

Syllabus CLASS X TERM 2 MARKING SCHEME SECTION WEIGHTAGE (in marks) READING SKILLS 10 WRITING & GRAMMAR 10 20 LITERATURE 40 TOTAL 10 50 INTERNAL ASSESSMENT GRAND TOTAL READING Question based on the following kinds of unseen passages to assess inference, evaluation, vocabulary, analysis and interpretation: 1. Discursive passage (400-450 words) 2. Case based Factual passage (with visual input/ statistical data/ chart etc. 300-350 words) WRITING SKILLS 1. Formal letter based on a given situation · Letter of Order · Letter of Enquiry 2. Analytical Paragraph (based on outline/chart/cue /map/report etc.) GRAMMAR 1. Tenses 2. Modals 3. Subject-Verb Concord 4. Determiners 5. Reported Speech · Commands and Requests · Statements · Questions (v)

LITERATURE Questions based on extracts/texts to assess interpretation, inference, extrapolation beyond the text and across the texts FIRST FLIGHT (Prose) 1. Glimpses of India 2. Madam Rides the Bus 3. The Sermon at Benares 4. The Proposal (Play) FIRST FLIGHT (Poetry) 1. Amanda 2. Animals 3. The Tale of Custard the Dragon FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET (Supplementary Reader) 1. The Making of a Scientist 2. The Necklace 3. The Hack Driver 4. Bholi (vi)

1CHAPTER Reading Discursive Passage Read the passages given below carefully and based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions out of the TEN by choosing the correct option. Passage I In most societies that have any glimmering of civilisation, a person accused of wrong doing is given at least a nominal chance of proving his innocence. The Romans had a highly sophisticated/comprehensive system of courts and the members of their legal profession were well educated but the Saxons who followed them to rule Britain used rougher methods. From about the sixth century A.D. to the eleventh the majority of the trials were in the form of cruel physical torture (carrying a piece of red hot iron, stepping barefoot and blindfold across a floor covered with red hot coals or sometimes by a gentler method of oath-swearing. The accused was ordered to bring to the Saxon authorities, a police officer or a priest could be persuaded to swear on oath or still a number of persons who would say that the accused was of good character and thus innocent. The number of persons who swore depended on the crime. A noble / a landlord or a priest counted for up to half a dozen ordinary peasants. As almost everyone lived in small villages, where almost everyone knew everyone else, and very few would risk telling a lie on oath (the people were mostly religious), the truth was generally told. If the accused could not produce enough oath helpers, he was found guilty and punished. In the eleventh century the Normans introduced trial by battle in certain cases. The accused and the accuser fought with special weapons until one was dead or surrendered. If was believed that God would know the guilty and give the innocent the power to win. The whole idea became ridiculous when both the parties were allowed to hire champions who would fight on their behalf. It seemed likely whoever could pay the more for a stronger professional fighter stood a good chance of winning and judged innocent. This may sound unfair to us but there is a parallel with a wealthy person today who can hire a costly and brilliant barrister to defend him. In the early middle ages when England was a land of small villages remote from each other, cirme tended to be basic and direct: beating up, theft, sex and murder being the main offences. But as towns and manufacturing and commerce grew, the possibilities for cheating and fraud soared. The whole organisation of society became 1

2 English X (Term 2) more complex and opened the door to a world of more sophisticated wickedness. With no regular police force, spies and informers were offered rewards when they brought in criminals. (CBSE Term I 2021-22) Q.1. England (or Britain) turn by turn came under the rule of A. Saxons; Romans; Normans. B. Normans; Saxons; Romans. C. Romans; Saxons; Normans. D. Normans; Romans; Saxons. Q.2. The article describes A. The development of the system of justice in England B. civilised societies and justice. C. Justice v/s civilisation. D. Rule of justice in England. Q.3. Study the following statements: 1. Romans were proud of their judicial system. 2. There is not much difference between the Norman and modern system of justice. A. 1. is right and 2. is wrong. B. 2. is right and 1. is wrong. C. Both 1. and 2. are right. D. Both 1. and 2. are wrong. Q.4. Match the following: 1. Romans i. A priest to swear for the accused 2. Saxons ii. Highly paid lawyers can win a case 3. Modern iii. Educated judges and lawyers 4. Normans iv. The winner in a battle declared innocent A. 1.-iv; 2.–ii; 3.-i; 4.-iii B. 1.-iii; 2.–i; 3.-ii; 4.-iv C. 1.-i; 2.–iii; 3.-iv; 4.-ii D. 1.-ii; 2.–i; 3.-iii; 4.-iv Q.5. Study the following statements: 1. In a trial by battle, money played a main role. 2. God helped the innocent win the battle. A. 1. is right and 2. is wrong. B. 2. is right and 1. is wrong. C. Both 1. and 2. are right and 1. was the conclusion. D. Both 1. and 2. are right and 1. was not the conclusion. Q.6. Study the following statements: 1. Saxon system of trial was nobler then that of the Romans. 2. Saxon system had two aspects – rough and noble. 3. The rich Saxons could hire champions to argue their case. 4. Even an innocent person would be held guilty if enough people did not swear for him. The following are correct: A. 1. and 2. B. 2. and 3. C. 3. and 1. D. 2. and 4.

Discursive Passage 3 Q.7. Study the following statements: 1. Earlier England comprised small villages each with a small population. 2. Crimes like cheating and fraud were rare. A. 1. is an assertion and 2. is the response B. 2. is an assertion and 1. is the response C. Both 1. and 2. are unrelated assertions D. Both 1. and 2. are responses to some other assertions Q.8. Which of the following statements are true? The rich have always enjoyed an advantage in the judicial system because 1. they were physically strong, so would win the trial by fighting. 2. they could hire the strongest champion. 3. they can hire the best lawyers. 4. they could persuade the priest to swear on their behalf. A. 1. and 2. B. 2. and 3. C. 3. and 4. D. 1. and 4. Q.9. Which of the following statements are NOT true? 1. In the quest for justice the guilty often went unpunished. 2. For seven hundred years from the sixth century trial was mostly rough. 3. Swearing value of a priest was equal to a dozen ordinary peasants. 4. Use of champions in a trial by battle finds an equivalent in the modern times. A. 1. and 3. B. 2. and 3. C. 3. and 4. D. 1. and 2. Q.10. “any glimmering of civilisation” “Glimmering” in the above expression has been used as a metaphor. “Glimmering” stands for A. a slight suggestion. B. a great hope. C. some fear. D. a little confidence. Passage II 1. Nature is our mother, our first teacher. The greatest lesson that she teaches us is to maintain an equilibrium in life. We learn to maintain composure through our joys, sorrows and fears. In fact, there are a thousand lessons that nature can teach us, provided we look for them. 2. With time, a sapling grows into a full-grown tree; something so tiny and delicate develops into a strong tree capable of supporting others. No matter how tall it grows, how much it may flourish, or how many animals and birds it may support, its roots are firmly buried from where it once rose. That’s a lesson—to keep ourselves grounded, respect and embrace our roots, and give something back to those humble beginnings that nurtured us into who we are. 3. Then there is the message of peaceful coexistence. ‘I am because we are.’ Nature provides every creature a chance to exist. However, the existence of one creature or being depends on the existence of the other. The tiger eats the antelope; without the antelope, the tiger wouldn’t survive. Likewise, without tigers, the over-abundance of antelopes would cause them to starve to death.

4 English X (Term 2) 4. I wonder if you have noticed that when birds or squirrels see a predator, they give out an alarm call to their fellow creatures, of the lurking danger. They put themselves in danger to save the lives of others. Many animals, like the salmon, usually die after they spawn, but this doesn’t stop them. One life extinguished for the betterment of others is a small price to pay. 5. The snow melts in the warmth of spring to give birth to fresh green leaves. In autumn these leaves age into shades of gold only to be buried in the cold grave of winter. Change is inevitable; the sooner we embrace this, the better it is for us. We must also understand that even in pain there is growth. If you cut a hole in the tree, it will grow around it. No matter what may come in its way, a river will continue to flow. Similarly, no matter what grief may break your heart, nature teaches us that life goes on. 6. Keep in mind life isn’t about making lists and trying to be one step ahead of others. Life is to live. Take a break-stop being a workaholic, and smell the roses, do whatever makes you feel happy and most of all spend some time with nature to pick up invaluable lessons. (CBSE Sample Paper Term I 2021-22) Q. 1. According to the author, what, from the following, is the greatest lesson being taught by nature? A. balanced in our emotions B. partial to joys in life C. afraid of unhappiness D. indifferent to fears Q. 2. Select the option that suitably completes the dialogue with reference to paragraph 2. Jai: I’ve done well for myself in this school. I’m the best they have. I can get admission anywhere. This is my moment! Sid: Congratulations! Just remember, we should _________ A. become strong despite our weakness. B. be kind and supportive towards everyone. C. respect the origins from where we have grown. D. nurture ourselves well from the beginning. Q. 3. Choose the option that best conveys the message in—“I am because we are.” A. Tigers are dependent on antelope. B. Antelope are dependent on tigers. C. Humans are dependent on animals. D. Everyone is dependent on each other. Q. 4. What qualities do the birds and squirrels display when they warn others of possible danger? Choose one option from the following: A. observation skills and alertness B. tendency to get easily frightened C. selfless assistance to help others D. determination to protect themselves Q. 5. Select the option with the underlined words that can suitably replace lurking (paragraph 4). A. The policeman pulled up the person who was wandering aimlessly through the city.

Discursive Passage 5 B. The thief knew that remaining hidden was the best strategy to avoid being caught. C. The policeman was caught on camera while pouncing with force, to grab the fleeing culprit. D. The thief was walking boldly into the house thinking it was devoid of residents. Q. 6. A portmanteau word like smog (smoke + fog), is a blend of words in which parts of multiple words are combined into a new word. From the options given below, select a portmanteau word that appears in para 4. A. coexistence B. workaholic C. full-grown D. flourish Q. 7. Select the qualities from paragraph 3, that the author wants us to imbibe. Being— (1) acceptive (2) passionate (3) emotional (4) resilient (5) perceptive A. (2), (4) & (5) B. (1), (3) & (4) C. (1), (4) & (5) D. (3), (4) & (5) Q. 8. Which of the following is shown by the changing of seasons? A. the beauty of nature B. nature’s creativity C. All seasons are equal. D. Nothing lasts forever. Q. 9. What does the writer advise, in paragraph 6? A. indulging in competition with others B. making priority lists C. taking life seriously D. having free time for ourselves Q. 10. Choose the option that lists the quote best expressing the central idea of the passage. A. Nature: She pardons no mistakes. Her yea is yea, and her nay, nay.  —Ralph Waldo Emerson B. Look deep into nature, and then you will understand everything better.  —A. Einstein C. Nature never deceives us; it is we who deceive ourselves.  —Jean Jacques Rousseau D. All the ugliness of the world can best be forgotten in the beauty of nature!  —Mehmet Murat Passage III The choices we make on a daily basis—wearing a seat-belt, lifting heavy objects correctly or purposely staying out of any dangerous situation—can either ensure our safety or bring about potentially harmful circumstances. You and I need to make a decision that we are going to get our lives in order. Exercising self-control, self-discipline and establishing boundaries and borders in our lives are some of the most important things we can do. A life without discipline is one that’s filled with carelessness.

6 English X (Term 2) We can think it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge. We like the image of “Yeah! That’s me! Living on the edge! Woo-hoo!” It’s become a popular way to look at life. But if you see, even highways have lines, which provide margins for our safety while we’re driving. If we go over one side, we’ll go into the ditch. If we cross over the line in the middle, we could get killed. And we like those lines because they help to keep us safe. Sometimes we don’t even realise how lines help to keep us safe. I’m not proud of this, but for the first 20 years of my life at work, I ignored my limits. I felt horrible, physically, most of the time. I used to tell myself “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it.” I ran to doctors, trying to make myself feel better through pills, vitamins, natural stuff and anything I could get my hands on. Some of the doctors would tell me, “It’s just stress.” That just made me mad. I thought stress meant you don’t like what you do or can’t handle life, and I love what I do. But I kept pushing myself, travelling, doing speaking engagements and so on— simply exhausting myself. Finally, I understood I was living an unsustainable life and needed to make some changes in my outlook and lifestyle. You and I don’t have to be like everyone else or keep up with anyone else. Each of us needs to be exactly the way we are, and we don’t have to apologise for it. We’re not all alike and we need to find a comfort zone in which we can enjoy our lives instead of making ourselves sick with an overload of stress and pressure. (413 words) (Sample Question Paper 2020-21) Q.1. The reason why living on the edge has become popular, is because of the A. constant need for something different. B. population being much younger. C. exhausting effort to make changes. D. strong tendency to stay within our limits. Q.2. Choose the option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the given quotes. It's all about quality of To go beyond is as wrong Life is like riding a bicycle. Balance is not something life and finding a happy as to fall short. To keep your balance you you find, it’s something balance between work must keep moving. you create. and friends and family. —Confucius —Albert Einstein —Jana Kingsford —Philip Green 2. 3. 4. 1. A. Option 1. B. Option 2. C. Option 3. D. Option 4. Q.3. Which of the characteristics are apt about the writer in the following context? “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it.” 1. negligent 2. indecisive 3. spontaneous 4. reckless 5. purposeless 6. patient A. 2. and 5. B. 3. and 6. C. 1. and 4. D. 2. and 3.

Discursive Passage 7 Q.4. Which of the following will be the most appropriate title for the passage? A. Much too soon B. Enough is enough C. How much is too much? D. Have enough to do? Q.5. The phrase “potentially harmful circumstances” refers to circumstances that can A. certainly be dangerous. B. be fairly dangerous. C. be possibly dangerous. D. seldom be dangerous. Q.6. Select the option that makes the correct use of “unsustainable,” as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space. A. In the long run, the __________ officials followed emergency procedures. B. Emergency procedures were __________ by the officials. C. Officials reported an __________ set of events during the emergency. D. Officials admit that the emergency system is __________ in the longer run Q.7. The author attempts to __________ the readers through this write-up. A. rebuke B. question C. offer aid to D. offer advice to Q.8. The author uses colloquial words such as “yeah” and “Woo-hoo!.” Which of the following is NOT a colloquial word? A. hooked B. guy C. stuff D. stress Q.9. What does the author mean when he says, “to get our lives in order?” A. to resume our lives B. to organise our lives C. to rebuild our lives D. to control our lives Q.10. Choose the option that correctly states the two meanings of “outlook,” as used in the passage. 1. a person’s evaluation of life 2. a person’s experiences in life 3. a person’s point of view towards life 4. a person’s regrets in life 5. a person’s general attitude to life A. 1. and 4. B. 2. and 3. C. 3. and 5. D. 4. and 5. Passage IV 1. Tourism is travel for recreation, leisure, religious, family or business purposes, normally for a limited duration. Tourism is generally associated with international travel, but may also refer to travel to another place within the same country. The World Tourism Organisation defines tourists as people “travelling to and staying at places outside their usual environment for not more than one consecutive year for leisure, business and other purposes.” 2. Tourism has become a popular global leisure activity. Tourism can either be domestic or international and international tourism can be classified as either inbound or outbound tourism. Today inbound tourism is a major source of income for many countries, especially in terms of foreign exchange earned by the country as a whole.

8 English X (Term 2) It also has a substantial impact on the local economy and employment of a place frequently visited by tourists. 3. India is a country with a rich cultural heritage which has always fascinated travellers. It is a unique land of diversities where all kinds of natural beauty including desert, sea, forests, mountains, flowers, wildlife, is present within a single geographical boundary of a country. Anybody visiting India will have experience of different dresses, culture, flora and fauna in different states. Thus, India has always been a destination for tourists who want to enjoy this combination of culture, tradition and rich heritage. Not only this, but also foreign tourists act as “Ambassadors of Indian Culture” and take the message farther across the world. 4. Indian government has made various efforts to take advantage of these unique possessions to promote tourism. One such big initiative is the scheme of e-Tourist Visa. The measure has been introduced to make travelling to India easier and simpler for foreign tourists. 5. The entire scheme began with the demand by the tourism industry to liberalise the visa regime for foreign tourists to give a boost to tourism in the country. In response, “Visa-On Arrival” was initiated by the government and is now made available to forty four countries. “Visa-On-Arrival” means that you need a visa to enter but it is possible to apply for and receive the visa only when you show up in the country of visit itself. 6. But tourism can bring damage to the local area, and/or the tourists. Litter, scuba- diving and deforestation are problems for popular places such as St. Lucia, Hawaii and others. Scuba-diving can damage coral reefs which are home to hundreds of species of sea animals. Tourism can change culture when people learn each others’ ways, and certain local traditions are being put aside for tourists. (435 words) Q.1. Who is a tourist, according to the passage? Tick the correct option. 1. Rama is on vacation. She is going to Goa with friends. 2. Rohit has got admission in Oxford University. He is leaving for London tonight. 3. Nidhi wanted to see the Eiffel Tower in France. So, she left for France yesterday, 4. Anuj is going to Agra to see his ailing mother. A. Option 1. B. Options 2. & 3. C. Options 1. & 4. D. Options 1. & 3. Q.2. What is economically beneficial for India? Tick the correct option which supports the central idea of the second para. 1. A Japanese tourist visits India. 2. A local tourist visits Delhi. 3. An English tourist returns from India. A. Option 1. B. Option 2. C. Option 3. D. Options 1. & 3.

Discursive Passage 9 Q.3. What plays an important role in making a place a popular tourist destination? Tick the correct option, according to the passage. 1. India, a tourist destination 2. 3. 4. A. Options 1.–4. B. Options 1.–3. C. Option 4. D. Options 2. & 3. Q.4. Tick the correct statement(s). 1. Tourism, national or international, generates revenue. 2. Tourism can alter culture. 3. India is a land of unity in diversity. 4. There are no requisites for “Visa-On Arrival.” A. Statements 2. and 3. B. Statements 1., 2., 3. C. Statement 4. only D. Statement 2. only Q.5. Which sentence, clause or phrase in the passage says that foreigners can promote the Indian culture? A. Tourism has become a popular global leisure activity. B. “…foreign tourists act as ‘Ambassadors of Indian Culture’ … .” C. India is a country with a rich cultural heritage which has always fascinated travellers. D. Tourism can change culture…

10 English X (Term 2) Q.6. “Tourism has environmental effects.” Tick the pictures which support the statement as mentioned in the passage. 1. 2. 3. A. Pictures 1. and 2. B. Pictures 2. and 3. C. Pictures 1. and 3. D. Picture 1. only Q.7. Identify the word which means the same as “consecutive” (para 1). A. period of time one after the other without interruption. B. period of time with some interruption C. period of event with some interruption D. period of event with no interruption at all Q.8. Identify the word which is the synonym of “frequently” (para 2). A. daily B. habitual C. sometimes D. always Q.9. Identify the word which is the antonym of “simple” (para 4). A. complicated B. plane C. possible D. foolish Q.10. “Liberalise” (para 5) means “____________.” A. more freedom B. more opportunities C. more restrictions D. bondage or slavery Passage V 1. I am very fond of bananas. Sometimes I consume apples or grapes when bananas are not available. But one day when I stopped on the red light, a vendor selling kiwis approached me and requested me to buy some. He claimed them to be very sweet. I immediately bought one dozen of them. 2. A nutrient-rich serving of kiwifruit may be just what you need. A serving of kiwi fruit (2 kiwis) has twice the vitamin C of an orange, as much potassium as a banana and the fibre of a bowl of whole grain cereal–all for less than 100 calories!

Discursive Passage 11 3. The fuzzy fruit is sky-high in both soluble and insoluble fiber, both of which are essential for promoting heart health, regulating digestion, and lowering cholesterol levels—that’s a winning trifecta. Kiwi fruit has also been considered a “nutritional all-star,” as Rutgers University researchers found that kiwi fruit has the best nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits. 4. Along with vitamin C, kiwi fruit are rich in many bioactive compounds that have antioxidant capacity to help to protect against free radicals, harmful by-products produced in the body. If you want clean energy, think of kiwi fruit because they are rich in magnesium, a nutrient essential to convert food into energy. 5. A kiwi fruit also doubles as a peeper-keeper by supplying your eyes with protective lutein, a carotenoid that is concentrated in eye tissues and helps protect against harmful free radicals. Kiwi fruit is also packed with blood pressure-lowering potassium. In fact, a 100- gram serving of kiwi fruit—that is about one large kiwi— provides 15% of the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of potassium. 6. Kiwi fruit has been growing in New Zealand for over 100 years. Once, the fruit gained in popularity, other countries started to grow them including Italy, France, Chile, Japan, South Korea and Spain. At first, kiwis were referred to as “Yang Tao” or “Chinese Gooseberry,” but the name was ultimately changed to kiwi fruit so that everyone would know where the fruit came from. 7. A ripe kiwi fruit will be plump and smooth-skinned, and free of wrinkles, bruises, and punctures. If you find that your kiwi is a little too firm after buying it, simply let it ripen at room temperature for three to five days. The firmer the fruit, the more tart it will taste. To speed up the ripening process, you can also place kiwis in a paper bag with an apple or banana. If you want to store the fruit longer, you should keep in a plastic bag in the refrigerator. (429 words) Q.1. If you consume two kiwis, you will have ___________. Tick the correct option. 1. 2 × Vitamin C of Orange 2. K of a banana 3. fibre of a bowl of whole grain cereal 4. > 100 calories A. Options 1., 2., 3., 4. B. Option 1. or 2. or 3. C. Options 1., 2., 3. producing 4. D. Option 4. Q.2. Why has kiwi been considered a “nutritional all-star?” A. It is equipped with the best nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits. B. It is devoid of the best nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits. C. It contains the worst nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits. D. It is deprived of any nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits. Q.3. How is a kiwi fruit helpful for the eyes? A. A kiwi fruit supplies the eyes with protective lutein that protects the eye tissues against harmful free radicals. B. A kiwi fruit provides carotenoid that concentrates on eye tissues. C. A kiwi fruit strengthen the eye tissues. D. A kiwi fruit helps eyes fight cataract or vision loss.

12 English X (Term 2) Q.4. How can you make a kiwi fruit ripen fast? Tick the correct picture. 1. 2. 3. A. Picture 1. or 2. B. Picture 2. or 3. C. Picture 1. only D. Picture 2. only Q.5. The word “compound” as used in para 4 means “___________.” A. calcium B. mixture C. texture D. vitamin Q.6. The word “concentrated” as used in para 5 means “___________.” A. strong B. liquid C. large D. replace Q.7. The word ‘bruises’ as used in para 7 means “___________.” A. roughness B. desolation C. popularity D. discoloured Q.8. The word “tart” as used in para 7 means “____________.” A. sweet B. salty C. bitter D. nutty Q.9. Tick the correct bar graph reflecting the author’s choice of fruits (approximate %). 100 100 80 80 60 60 (%) (%) 40 40 20 20 1. 2. 0 Banana Apple Grapes 0 Banana Apple Grapes Fruits Fruits 100 80 60 (%) 40 20 3. 0 Banana Apple Grapes Fruits A. Graph 1. or 2. B. Graph 2. or 3. C. Graphs 1. and 3. D. Graph 3. only

Discursive Passage 13 Q.10. The most appropriate title for the passage can be “_________.” A. Kiwi Fruit and Its Wonders B. Effects of the Kiwi Fruit C. Kiwi—The Best Fruit D. Kiwi—The Golden Fruit Passage VI 1. Girls are more vulnerable and face discrimination at many levels from being unwelcome since birth to being pulled out of school for a variety of reasons. Dropping out of school, low motivation for academics and general disinterest in sports and physical activities too are some of the problems that need to be addressed. It must not be forgotten that women have done wonders almost in every field. 2. Children in India live in diverse circumstances and have diverse needs and rights. Along with their need to be educated, healthy and skilful, they need, and have rights to adequate nutrition, to live in a safe and supportive environment, have opportunities to reach their optimal potential and generally lead healthy, joyful and fulfilling lives so that they can be productive and well adjusted citizens of tomorrow. 3. Children in our country face many challenges. Many of them are first generation learners and face myriad problems throughout their schooling. They, due to the socio- economic and cultural determinants, may be vulnerable in many ways. Peer pressure and lack of positive role models may prompt them to make unsafe and unhealthy choices. Anxiety and depression amongst the students, to the point of turning them suicidal, have been a cause of concern in the recent past. 4. Child malnutrition is rampant in most parts of the country. This has an adverse bearing on their cognitive capacities, learning performance and physical capacity. 5. Our children have a right to age-appropriate learning, skills building, a safe and supportive environment, positive role models, empowerment, and friendly health services and counselling. Well informed and skilled children are likely to make better decisions concerning not only their careers and relationships, habits, physical and mental health, but also will be successful and an asset to the society. 6. They also need to understand and deal with emerging issues like newly available career choices, pollution, water and energy conservation, global warming, protection of environment, terrorism and disasters. Dealing with anxiety and depression, negative peer pressure, violence, accidents, are some other significant issues that impact individuals health and also the social, economic and health indicators of the country. Gender sensitivity, prevention of female infanticide and good parenting are some important social issues that all children need to understand. Children require guidance and assistance — both covert and overt — from their parents, teachers, peers and society in general to complete the various “tasks” of development and deal with such issues.  (408 words) Q.1. The gist of para 1 is that ____________. Tick the correct option. 1. girls are treated well since their birth 2. girls are given opportunities to excel in academics and games 3. girls are given proper food 4. girls are Ill-treated from the day they are born

14 English X (Term 2) 5. females’ achievements in all spheres should not be ignored A. Options 1. and 2. B. Options 1. – 4. C. Options 3. and 4. D. Options 4., 5. Q.2. How does undernourishment affect the children? Tick the correct option. 1. Their cognitive capacities remain as it is. 2. They are unable to perform in the sphere of learning. 3. Their physical capacity is negative affected. 4. Malnutrition disaffects them. A. Options 2., 3. B. Options 1.– 4. C. Options 1.–3. D. Option 4. Q.3. How are well informed children better than the other children? Tick the correct option. 1. The former can prove to be better decision makers. 2. They can decide about their careers and relationships. 3. They can decide with regard to habits and health. 4. They can succeed in their endeavours. 5. They are a liability to the society. A. Options 2., 4., 6. B. Options 1., 3., 5. C. All options except 3. D. Options 1., 2., 3., 4. Q.4. The social issues the children have to deal with are _________. Tick the correct option. 1. career options 2. illiteracy 3. unemployment 4. environmental protection 5. tourism 6. terrorism 7. anxiety and depression A. Options 1. to 7. B. Options 2., 3., 5. C. Options 4., 6., 7. D. Options 1., 2. Q.5. What kind of learning is indicated by age-appropriate learning? Tick the correct option. 1. learning according to the age of a child 2. learning according to the capacity of a child 3. learning all about adapting to a child’s level of understanding, identifying the readiness of a c hild to learn and then following the best-suited method of teaching 4. considering the mental, emotional and social maturity of a child, rather than choosing an educational path linked only to numerical age A. Options 1., 2. B. Options 3., 4. C. Options 1., 3. D. Options 2., 4. Q.6. Identify the meaning of the phrase “a great number” (para 3). A. amongst B. determinant C. myriad D. peer pressure

Discursive Passage 15 Q.7. Identify the word which means the same as “easily hurt” (para 1). A. vulnerable B. discrimination C. malnutrition D. motivation Q.8. Identify the word which means the same as “a valuable person or thing” (para 5). A. appropriate B. asset C. adverse D. cognitive Q.9. Identify the word which means the opposite of “covered” (para 6). A. covert B. overt C. energy D. conservation Q.10. The current passage has many pairs of antonyms and synonyms. Tick the option having correct pairs. 1. healthy – unhealthy (antonyms) 2. safe – unsafe (antonyms) 3. positive – negative (antonyms) 4. covert – overt (antonyms) 5. nutrition – malnutrition (antonyms) 6. myriad – some (synonyms) 7. potential – productive (synonyms) 8. physical – mental (antonyms) A. Options 1. to 8. B. Options 1. to 6. C. Options 7. and 8. D. all options except 6. and 7. Passage VII If your roly-poly doctor tells you to hit the gym, would you take him seriously? A new study by researchers at the Johns Hopkins University School of Medicine shows that doctors need to practise what they preach as much as anyone else. Because their own girth can influence how they care for patients with weight problems. The study, carried in the medical journal Obesity, revealed that overweight doctors were less likely to discuss weight loss with patients: only 18% discussed it compared to 30% doctors of normal weight. An increased tendency to prescribe medication over lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise was also observed. Indian doctors agree on the need to maintain fitness levels to be able to take better care of their patients. ‘‘A physician who is fit acts as a role model. There is a confidence level when he talks to his patient about losing weight, exercising daily and maintaining healthy food habits. It really works. But if the doctor is himself obese, the message lacks conviction and often fails to motivate,’’ says Dr Kameshwar Prasad, a senior neurologist at AIIMS. Though doctors spend a lot of time advising patients on healthy living, many end up obese, hypertensive and diabetic themselves. ‘‘Young doctors often complain about lack of time, high stress levels on account of work pressure. But they must understand the importance of good health. We need to follow what we preach,’’ Dr Prasad says. Diabetes specialist Anoop Misra of Fortis Hospitals, says he has a family history of diabetes and works out daily for 30 minutes. ‘‘It gives me the right amount of energy and I am able to routinely work 12-14 hours a day,’’ says Dr Misra.

16 English X (Term 2) The John Hopkins study builds on earlier work that analysed how doctors’ smoking habits affected their advice to patients. Here, too, researchers found that physicians who lit up were less likely to recommend that their patients kick the butt, because it would seem hypocritical to do so. According to Dr R C Jiloha, a psychiatrist at G B Pant hospital, there is a need to sensitise doctors about looking after their health—for their own good and for the patients. (400 words) Q.1. This passage is about ______. A. health awareness among doctors B. health hazards among doctors C. health consciousness among doctors D. health problems among doctors Q.2. The common complaint/s of young doctors is/are ______. A. lack of time and high stress levels due to work pressure B. lack of time and energy C. lack of time and work levels D. lack of time and work stress Q.3. According to this passage, doctors should remember ______. A. “practise what you teach” B. “practise what you preach” C. “practise what you think” D. “practise what you plan” Q.4. A fit and healthy physician acts as a ______. A. role model for his patients B. model for his patients C. role model for his parents D. role model for his presents Q.5. Maintaining fitness level is must a for the doctors to ______. A. be able to take care of themselves B. be unable to take care of their patients C. be able to take better care of their patients D. be enable to take care of their family Q.6. Many doctors are suffering from ______. A. obesity, hypertension and diabetes themselves B. obese, hypertension and diabetic themselves C. obese, hypertensive and diabolic themselves D. verbose, hypersensitive and diabetes themselves Q.7. The phrase “Kick the butt” means ______. A. to leave the habit of speaking B. to leave the habit of drinking C. to live the habit of learning D. to leave the habit of smoking Q.8. Tick the correct option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the given statements. 1. A doctor should care for his health. 2. A doctor should care for his patients’ health. A. Options 1. and 2. B. Option 1. C. Option 2. D. No option is correct.

Q.9. The author attempts to __________ the doctors. Discursive Passage 17 A. rebuke B. question C. warn D. advise Q.10. It is an irony that ____________. A. doctors are healthy B. doctors advise their patients to be healthy C. even doctors are unhealthy D. doctors are worried about their patients. Passage VIII School-age children with dyslexia may exhibit signs of difficulty in identifying or generating rhyming words, or counting the number of syllables in words – both of which depend on phonological awareness. They may also show difficulty in segmenting words into individual sounds or may blend sounds when producing words, indicating reduced phonemic awareness. “Difficulties with word retrieval or naming things” is also associated with dyslexia. People with dyslexia are commonly poor spellers. The secret of Leonardo Da Vinci’s talent and Pablo Picasso’s success may have been their dyslexia. The two men suffered from the “word blindness” that affects as many as one in 12 children—but it seems it can also bring the keen spatial awareness that makes the difference between a jobbing painter and a master of art. The researchers put 41 men and women through tests to assess their visuo-spatial ability. Although we tend to think of the skill in terms of map-reading and marking, the ability to process 3D information accurately is also key to art and design. Around half of those taking part were dyslexic and so had trouble learning to spell, read and write. The dyslexic men did better than the other men on many of the tests, including recalling the direction of the Queen’s head on a postage stamp and reproducing designs using coloured blocks. They were also faster and more accurate at navigating their way around a “virtual town” on a computer screen, the journal “Learning and Individual Differences” reports. The researchers said there could be several explanations for the findings, including dyslexics developing an enhanced sense of space to compensate for problems with language. Also many dyslexic people prefer to work out problems by thinking and doing rather than by speaking. This could help dyslexic men develop the kind of skills they need to succeed in the artistic and creative world. However, the dyslexic women had no better spatial awareness than the other women, perhaps reflecting that the ability to manipulate 3D images tends to be more of a “male” trait. “Now we have real evidence to indicate that dyslexic men are better in this area.” Artists known or believed to have suffered from dyslexia include Da Vinci, Picasso, Rodin and Andy Warhol. Da Vinci, who is also thought to have suffered from attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, wrote this note backwards from right to left. Picasso had trouble in reading and struggled at school. (402 words) Q.1. Success requires __________. A. healthy brain B. knowledge of spellings C. dyslexia D. none of the above

18 English X (Term 2) Q.2. Tick the correct statement, according to the passage. A. Word blindness affects intelligence. B. Word blindness and spatial awareness go hand in hand. C. Leonardo Da Vinci and Pablo Picasso could not have succeeded without dyslexia. D. Dyslexic men have spatial awareness. Q.3. Select the option that makes the correct use of “phonological,” as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space. A. __________ alphabet B. __________ components C. __________ notebooks D. __________ material Q.4. The author attempts to __________. A. condemn those having word blindness B. be sympathetic towards the dyslexic C. appreciate the dyslexic D. say that dyslexic men may have word blindness but they have better spatial awareness Q.5. “Dyslexia” means __________. A. a slight disorder of the brain that causes difficulty in reading and spelling, for example but does not affect intelligence B. a slight disorder of the brain that causes difficulty in reading and spelling, and affects intelligence C. a slight disorder of the brain that causes difficulty in reading, for example but does not affect intelligence D. a slight disorder of the brain that causes difficulty in spelling, for example but does not affect intelligence Q.6. “Aryan has difficulty in reading and writing. He also finds it tough to spell words. But he can judge the positions and sizes of objects. On the other hand, Sanyam can read fluently. He can spell words. Besides, he has no hassle in writing.” Who is dyslexic? A. Aryan and Sanyam are dyslexic. B. Aryan is dyslexic. C. Sanyam is dyslexic. D. No one is dyslexic. Q.7. “They were also faster and more accurate…” (para 5). Who are “they?” A. Leonardo Da Vinci and Pablo Picasso B. the dyslexic men C. the dyslexic women D. the researchers Q.8. In para 6, “work out” means __________. A. to train the body by physical exercise B. to develop in a successful way C. to develop in a continuous way D. to solve

Discursive Passage 19 Q.9. According to the passage, the percentage of children affected by “word blindness” is __________. A. 8.33 B. 8.34 C. 8 D. 8.30 Q.10. “Word blindness” means __________. A. a person is unable to recognise and understand words that he sees B. a person cannot see words C. a person cannot understand words D. a person cannot see or understand words Passage IX 1. Mankind’s fascination with gold is as old as civilisation itself. The ancient Egyptians esteemed gold, which had religious significance to them, and King Tutankhamun was buried in a solid gold coffin 3500 years ago. The wandering Israelites worshipped a golden calf, and the legendary king Midas asked that everything he touched be turned into gold. 2. Not only is gold beautiful, but also it is virtually indestructible. It will not rust or corrode; gold coins and products fabricated from the metal have survived undamaged for centuries. Gold is extremely easy to work with, one ounce, which is about the size of a cube of sugar, can be beaten into a sheet nearly 100 square feet in size, and becomes so thin that light passes through it. An ounce of gold can also be stretched into a wire 50 miles long. Gold conducts electricity better than any other substance except copper and silver, and it is particularly important in the modern electronic industry. 3. People have always longed to possess gold. Unfortunately, this longing has also brought out the worst in the human character. The Spanish conquistadores robbed palaces, temples and graves and killed thousands of Indians in their ruthless search for gold. Often the only rule in young California during the days of the gold rush was exercised by the mob with a rope. Even today, the economic running of South Africa’s gold mines depends largely on the employment of black labourers who are paid about £40 a month, plus room and board, and who must work in conditions that can only be described as cruel. About 400 miners are killed in mine accidents in South Africa each year, or one for every two tons of gold produced. 4. Much of gold’s value lies in its scarcity. Only about 80,000 tons have been mined in the history of the world. All of it could be stored in a vault 60 feet square or a super tanker. 5. One of the big gold-mining areas in the Soviet Union is the Kolyma River region, once infamous for its prison camp. The camp has gone, but in a way nothing has changed. Many ex-prisoners have stayed on to work in the mines and are supervised by ex-guards. 6. Despite the current rush to buy gold, 75 percent of the metal goes into jewellery. Italy is the biggest user of gold for this purpose and many Italian jewellers even tear up their wooden floors and burn them to recover the tiny flecks of gold. (419 words)

20 English X (Term 2) Q.1. In the current passage, the author does not describe __________. 1. the qualities of gold 2. mankind’s attraction towards gold 3. mankind’s triviality for its possession 4. deficiency of gold 5. mankind’s indifference towards gold A. Options 1.–4. B. Option 5. C. Options 2.–5. D. Option 3. Q.2. “My cousin lives in Italy. I want to present her something on her birthday, something unusual which she does not possess.” What should I present her? 1. silver earrings 2. a beautiful dress 3. something made in India 4. gold bangles A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 1., 2. or 3. Q.3. Imagine you have 9.5 ounce of gold. How many wires of 50 miles long each can this gold be stretched into? A. 9 B. 9.5 C. 475 D. 9 wires, each 50 miles long and 1 wire of 25 miles long Q.4. Which metals conduct electricity? A. aluminium, gold, copper B. gold, silver, copper C. silver, bronze, aluminium D. gold, bronze, aluminium Q.5. If a mine in South Africa produces 50 tons of gold, how many miners are killed? A. 24 B. 25 C. 26 D. 27 Q.6. “Conquistadores” refers to the Spanish __________. A. government B. army C. robbers D. people who took control of Mexico and Peru by force in the sixteenth century Q.7. How can you say that a man can go to any extent to fulfil his desire for gold? Quote examples from the passage and tick the correct option. 1. Robbery and murders by the Spanish conquistadores 2. The California Gold Rush 3. Mining in South Africa 4. Kolyma River region’s notorious prison 5. Midas’ desire to get gold A. Examples 1., 2., 3. B. Examples 4., 5. C. Examples 1. to 4. D. Examples 1. to 5. Q.8. Select the option that makes the correct use of “exercise” as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space. A. It is important to __________ every day. B. He wants to __________ his muscle. C. We need to __________ common sense. D. Arithmetic __________ is fun for me.

Discursive Passage 21 Q.9. In para 3, “longed” and “longing” are __________ respectively. A. noun and verb B. verb and noun C. noun and adjective D. adjective and noun Q.10. “Since time immemorial gold has been mesmerising humans.” Examples of which countries does the author quote in this context? Tick the correct option. 1. Egypt 2. Israel 3. Greece 4. Italy A. Options 1. and 4. B. Options 3. and 4. C. Options 1. to 3. D. Options 2. and 4. Passage X Stenting Sinusitis Sinusitis, also known as rhinosinusitis, is inflammation of the mucous membranes that line the sinuses resulting in symptoms that may include thick nasal mucus, a plugged nose, and facial pain. For years, they have been used to open blocked arteries. In a novel approach, drug-eluting stents are now being used to cure chronic sinusitis which is not treatable with medicines. The technique is also advisable for diabetics and those suffering from hypertension. The procedure, which involves insertion of a small tube-shaped wire coated with steroid solution into the sinus cavity, was recently conducted at Sir Ganga Ram Hospital. The patient–an orthopaedic surgeon at the hospital–is doing fine, claimed Dr Shalabh Sharma, the ENT surgeon. “In the case of angioplasty the stent remains inside the body. But here, we put the stent in the nasal passage–there is formation of grape-like swelling–and it is removed after four weeks. The main aim is to administer low doses of steroids in the affected area and save the patient from the side-effects caused by a large quantity of steroids,” said Dr. Sharma. He added that the stent can be inserted under local anesthesia, making it safe even for the elderly or those unfit for general anesthesia. “I was recently diagnosed with early stage sinusitis. Doctors prescribed high doses of steroids but I wasn’t willing to go in for the treatment because of the numerous side-effects. So, when the ENT specialist suggested the stent option, I was more than happy to go for it,” said the 40- year old patient. “Sinusitis is caused by inflammation of the mucous membrane located in the face and nose region. It puts pressure on eyes, nose and on one side of the head, resulting in a headache. The common causes of the disease include bacterial or viral infection, cold, allergies, airborne fungus, nasal or sinus obstructions, and respiratory tract infections,” said a senior doctor. According to a recent report by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAD), one in eight Indians suffers from chronic sinusitis. “In most patients, the symptoms are controlled with oral medications and nasal spray. In about 15% cases, steroids do not work for various reasons and patient need to undergo surgical removal of the polyps. Drug-eluting stents are less painful and more effective than surgery,” said Sharma.

22 English X (Term 2) However, the cost of surgery is a little steep. The stent itself comes for ` 80,000 and the surgery costs about ` 20,000. (375 words) Q.1. What do you mean by simusitis? A. the painful swelling of the sinuses B. the injury in the sinuses C. the pain in the sinuses D. the itching and irritation in the sinuses Q.2. “They” in the second line refer to __________. A. medicines B. steroids C. stents D. surgery Q.3. Sinusitis is caused by inflammation of the mucous membrane located in the __________. A. face and nose region B. nose region C. face region D. throat region Q.4. The stent remains inside the body in the case of __________. A. angiography B. angioplasty C. encocardiography D. anglegraphy Q.5. Drug-eluting stents are __________. A. less painful than surgery B. more effective than surgery C. equal to the surgery D. less painful and more effective as compared to surgery Q.6. The total cost of treatment of stenting sinusitis is __________. A. ` 1 lakh B. ` 80,000 C. ` 20,000 D. ` 2 lakhs Q.7. The main aim of stenting sinusitis is __________. A. to administer high doses of steroids in the affected area B. to administer low doses of steroids in the affected area C. to administer long doses of steroids in the affected area D. to administer medicines and steroids in the affected area Q.8. The word which means “swelling” is __________. A. inflammation B. obstructions C. chronic D. steroids Q.9. In the current passage, the author does not describe __________. A. the treatment of sinusitis B. causes of sinusitis C. effects of sinusitis D. the cost of its treatment Q.10. Following are assertion 1. and reason 2. Read them and tick the correct option. 1. One in eight Indians suffers from chronic sinusitis. 2. People visit the doctors when sinusitis becomes unbearable. A. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. B. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. C. Assertion and Reason both are correct. D. Assertion and Reason both are incorrect.

Discursive Passage 23 Passage XI 1. Farmland is essential for our survival. Today’s crops yield much better harvests than ones 50 years ago, but with a growing population, the pressure is on to produce even more. This is a tough challenge, because farmland needs to be kept in good condition so that it can keep producing food year after year. If things go wrong, the results can be disastrous: crops can fail, and the soil may even disappear. 2. To produce good yields, crops need fertile soil. Traditionally, farmers fertilised soil by adding animal manure—a technique that organic farmers still use today. But in 1909, Fritz Haber, a German chemist, devised a way of making artificial fertiliser. Haber’s invention launched intensive farming—a type of agriculture that relies on artificial inputs, such as fertilisers, pesticides, fuel and animal feed. Intensive farming has increased world food production dramatically, but at a price: it uses a lot of energy, and its chemicals often contaminate soil, water and food. 3. In natural habitats, the remains of dead plants break down to form soil, and the roots of living plants hold the soil in place. But when the ground is cleared and ploughed, the soil can be washed away by rain or blown away by wind. Soil erosion is a big problem for farmers, because new soil forms very slowly—often at a rate of less than 1 mm a year. 4. Until the 1950s, fields often teemed with colourful weeds, and farmland birds could rely on plentiful seeds and insects. Some organic farms are still like this, but intensive farmlands are very different. Herbicides and pesticides keep weeds and insects at bay, while combined harvesters gather up every speck of grain. Hedges and trees are cleared away to make larger fields, leaving wild animals with nowhere to breed. These changes help farms produce food more efficiently, with fewer losses from pests and disease. The downside is that wild plants and animals find themselves squeezed out. 5. Despite the surge in the human population, the world’s farmland still produces enough food to keep everyone on the planet properly fed. This has been achieved by clearing more land, by making farming more intensive, and by breeding better strains of crops. Even so, three-quarters of the world’s people—mainly in Africa and Asia— have less food than they need. The reason is that food supplies are unevenly spread. Developed regions, such as North America and Europe, produce more food than they can consume, while poorer parts of the world go short. Here, farmers do not have the money to buy improved seed and tools, and climatic hazards—such as droughts and floods—often make a difficult situation worse. Emergency food aid can prevent people from starving, but the real solution to hunger is to help farmers get the most from their land. (450 words) Q.1. The pressure to produce more is due to __________. A. starvation B. make the soil fertile C. crop rotation D. growing population

24 English X (Term 2) Q.2. What is intensive farming? A. A type of agriculture which relies on artificial inputs B. A type of agriculture which is intense C. A type of agriculture which relies on superficial inputs D. A type of agriculture which relies on substantial inputs Q.3. Intensive farming uses a lot of __________. A. water B. energy C. fertilisers D. manure Q.4. What is soil erosion? A. the washing away of soil due to chemicals B. eroding of soil C. the washing or blowing away of soil due to rain and wind D. the blowing away of soil due to earthquakes Q.5. Herbicides and pesticides keep the following away. A. insects and birds B. weeds and roots C. insects and weeds D. insects, weeds and birds Q.6. Three quarters of the world’s people have less food than they need because __________. A. food supplies are evenly spread B. one quarter of the world’s people eat up all the food C. food consumption is evenly spread D. food supplies are unevenly spread Q.7. The word “rely” means “__________.” A. depend B. stand C. based D. basis Q.8. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and see if (R) is the correct explanation for (A). Tick the correct option. (A) Farmland is essential for our survival. (R) This is a tough challenge because farmland needs to be kept in good condition so that it can keep producing food year after year. A. (A) and (R) both are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A). B. (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A). C. (A) and (R) both are incorrect. D. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. Q.9. The real solution to hunger is that __________. A. the farmland has to be in good condition B. the land has to be cleared up to grow more and more food C. farmers should be helped to get the most from their land D. modern farming techniques should be adopted Q.10. The suitable title for the passage can be __________. A. Starvation and Food B. Farmland and Its Importance C. Growing Food D. Surge in the Human Population

Discursive Passage 25 Answers Passage I 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. B Passage II 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B Passage III 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C Passage IV 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A Passage V 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A Passage VI 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. D Passage VII 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. C Passage VIII 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. A Passage IX 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A Passage X 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A Passage XI 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C

2CHAPTER Case-Based Factual Passage Read the passages given below carefully and based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the EIGHT questions by choosing the correct option. Passage I Around 194 millions birds and 29 million mammals are thought to be killed each year on European roads, according to a new study that has ranked the most vulnerable species. The research has found that the species killed most often were not necessarily the endangered species. This means action to preserve wildlife when new roads are built risks being targeted at the wrong species based on current methods. Road densities in Europe are among the world’s highest, with 50% of the continent with 1.5 km of a paved road or railways. Roads are therefore a significant threat to wildlife, and evidence shows deaths on them could even cause some species to disappear completely. Despite this, the long-term protection of species is not currently considered when assessing the impact of new roads on wildlife, meaning we rick giving support to only the endangered species, doing nothing to help those most at risk. A better understanding of which species are most vulnerable to roads is therefore important if we are to take a more effective action of protection. A research team based in Lisbon calculated road-kill rates for 423 bird species and 212 mammal species. They found that small animals with high population densities and which mature at an early age were most likely to be killed on roads. Nocturnal mammals and birds with a diet of plants and seeds were also shown to have higher death rates. The study also use the road-kill surveys to rank the bird and mammal species whose long-term survival was most threatened by road-kill. The hazel grouse and ground squirrel were found to be the most at risk of local extinction. Both are common in Europe but are classified as species of Least Concern Red list of Threatened Species. The most vulnerable animals classified as threatened by IUCN were the red- knobbed coot, Balcan mole and Podolian mole. The study revealed that road-kill hotspots were not the areas with the highest population of endangered species. For example, house sparrows had a high road-kill rate (2.7 per km/year) but were ranked 420th of 423 bird species for vulnerability. Conversely, the hazel grouse had a low predicted road kill-rate (0.2 per km/year) but was most vulnerable of all birds studied. (CBSE Term I 2021-22) Q.1. Study the following statements: 1. Roads are killers for animals. 2. Both birds and mammals are killed on roads. 26

Case-Based Factual Passage 27 3. species most killed are necessarily the endangered ones. A. 1. is correct and 2. is false B. 2. is correct and 3. is false C. 1. and B. both are correct D. 3. is correct and 1. is false Q.2. Study the following statements: 1. Roads have covered 50% of land in Europe. 2. Road traffic causes a great risk to wild life. 3. Some species can survive all kinds of traffic on roads. A. 1. is correct and 2. is false. B. 2. is correct and 3. is false. C. 3. is correct and 1. is false. D. 1. and 2. both are false. Q.3. Choose the correct statement: A. While planning roads we should see which species to protect. B. We are doing a lot to protect those most at risk. C. 50% of Europe is covered only with roads. D. Small animals even with low population density are most at risk. Q.4. Choose the correct statement: A. More mammals than birds are killed on the roads. B. Small animals generally keep away from roads. C. Number of road-kills depends upon the population density of small animals. D. Animals that come out only at night are saved. Q.5. 1. The surveys ranked the road-kill rate of birds and mammals. 2. The finding puts grouse and squirrel at great risk. A. 1. is an assertion and 2. is the response. B. 2. is an assertion and 1. is the response. C. Both 1. and 2. are false. D. Both 1. and 2. are unrelated to each other. Q.6. “Hazel grouse and ground squirrel are classified as species of least concern.” The statements is A. a logical conclusion. B. a piece of good news. C. ironical. D. a pleasant surprise. Q.7. The title of the study should be: A. A Birds and Mammals survey. B. Road-kills. C. Road density in Europe. D. Need for conservation. Q.8. The purpose of the study is A. how to prevent road-kills. B. to see who is more at risk on the roads. C. how to plan better roads. D. to estimate the number of road accident victims. Passage II 1. Research from the Publishers Association has shown that films based on books take 44% more at the box office revenue in the UK and 53% more worldwide than original screenplays. The report explores what impact a book has when adapted for film and TV.

28 English X (Term 2) 2. The report reads: ‘Published material is the basis of 52% of top UK films in the last 10 years, and accounts for an even higher share of revenue from these leading performers, at 61% of UK box office gross and 65% of worldwide gross.’ The Hollywood adaptation of ‘My Cousin Rachel’ was shown to have a significant impact on the sales of the Daphne Du Maurier thriller. The sales of the book in 2017 alone accounted for 23% of all sales since 1992. 3. The research suggests that adapted films tend to perform better, because films can ‘leverage the popularity’ of well-known books through an existing audience. Films adapted from books also tend to have a richer, more fully-developed story to draw on. In terms of TV adaptation, it was revealed that a quarter of dramas were based on literary sources and attracted a 56% larger share of the audience than those based on original scripts. Fourteen of the 35 high end series produced in the UK in the period between January and September 2017 were based on books, compared to seven based on true stories or historical events and five based on pre-existing films or TV stories. 4. In the case of the 2016 BBC broadcast of ‘The Night Manager’, research revealed that while the novel was in circulation for over 25 years, 82% of the copies it sold were in 2016 and 2017. Sales of the paperback edition remained strong in 2017 even after the series went off the air. 5. In conclusion, the report states that ‘there is a strong two-way relationship between publishing and the wider creative economy, wherein a successful adaptation often has spill-over effects and gives a substantial boost to the sales of the original book.’ (CBSE Sample Paper Term I 2021-22) Q.1. The purpose of the research by Publishers Association was to study the _________. Choose the correct option A. variety in films and TV shows B. impact of films on books C. choice of books for film-making D. connect between books and films Q.2. Select the option that is true for the two statements given below. 1. The revenues generated at the box office have increased. 2. Majority of the top films in the UK are based on published material. A. 1. is the result of 2. B. 1. is the reason for 2. C. 1. is independent of 2. D. 1. contradicts 2. Q.3. Select the option that gives the correct meaning of the following statement: “The sales of the book in 2017 alone accounted for 23% of all sales since 1992.” A. There were 23% higher sales in 2017 than previous years. B. A major chunk of sales happened in 2017. C. The sales were limited to 23% in 2017. D. There were very few books sold in the previous years. Q.4. According to the research, the films based on books have greater success because _________ A. people like to see the characters from the books on screen. B. the films get the advantage of the fame of the books. C. it takes less effort for people to watch films than read books. D. the films get a ready-made script from the books.

Case-Based Factual Passage 29 Q.5. Select the option listing what the given sentence refers to. “Films adapted from books also tend to have a richer, more fully-developed story to draw on.” 1. The plot and the storyline of such films are better. 2. The characters are likely to be more vivid. 3. The production of such films is meant for the rich and famous. 4. The settings and costumes are adapted from the book. 5. The making of such films require the author to write a sequel. A. 1., 3. and 4. B. 2., 3. and 5. C. 1., 2. and 5. D. 1., 2. and 4. Q.6. On what from the following were the maximum TV serials in UK in the year 2017 based? A. books B. historical stories C. original true stories D. previous films Q.7. This passage lists an example proving that TV dramas based on literary works have _________. Select the correct option. A. increased the immediate sales of the book B. increased the sales of the book during the first screening C. had no immediate impact on the sales of the book D. had very little impact on the sales of the book Q.8. Choose the correct option to answer the following: According to paragraph 5, “there is a two-way relationship between books and the screen.” This is so because both A. revolve around the same stories. B. cater to an audience with the same taste. C. gain from each other’s popularity. D. belong to the creative field. Passage III The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that sustainable tourism is an important tool for development, most importantly in poor communities and countries. Today sustainability – environmental, social, and economic – is increasingly recognised as the benchmark for all tourism business. As noted by the UN World Tourism Organisation, 57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies, by 2030. The various “Tourism Terms’’ are defined as follows: Category Definition Ecotourism Responsible travel to natural areas that conserves the environment, socially and economically sustains the well-being of local people, and creates knowledge and understanding to interpretation and education of all involved (including staff, travellers and community residents)

30 English X (Term 2) Ethical Tourism in a destination where ethical issues are the key driver, examples — Tourism social injustice, human rights, animal welfare, or the environment Geotourism Tourism that sustains or enhances the geographical character of a place — its environment, heritage, aesthetics, culture, and well-being of its residents Pro-poor Tourism that results in increased net benefit for the poor people in a destination tourism Responsible Tourism that maximises the benefits to local community, minimises negative tourism social or environmental impacts, and helps local people conserve fragile cultures and habitats or species Sustainable Tourism that leads to the management of all resources in such a way that economic, tourism social, and aesthetic needs can be fulfilled while maintaining cultural integrity, essential ecological processes, biological diversity and life-support systems Based on data collected by a survey by Travel Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was constructed: Age: 35-54 years old, although age varied with activity and other factors such as cost Gender: 50% female and 50% male, although clear differences based on activity were found Education: 82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high levels of education to those with less education was also found, indicating an expansion into mainstream markets. Household composition: No major differences were found between general tourists and experienced ecotourists**. Party composition: A majority (60%) of experienced ecotourism respondents stated they prefer to travel as a couple, with only 15% stating they preferred to travel with their families, and 13% preferring to travel alone. (**experienced ecotourists = tourists that had been on at least one “ecotourism” oriented trip) Trip duration: The largest group of experienced ecotourists — (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 days. Expenditure: Experienced ecotourists were willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group (26%) Important elements of trip: Experienced ecotourists’ top three responses were: (a) wilderness setting, (b) wildlife viewing, (c) hiking/trekking. Motivations for taking next trip: Experienced ecotourists’ top two responses were (a) enjoy scenery/nature, (b) new experiences/places. (435 words) (Sample Question Paper 2020-21) Q.1. In the line “……recognised as the benchmark,” the word “benchmark” DOES NOT refer to A. a basis for something. B. the criterion required. C. the ability to launch something new. D. a standard point of reference.

Case-Based Factual Passage 31 Q.2. The World Tourism Organisation of the UN, in an observation, shared that A. emerging economies of the world will gain 57% of their annual profits from international tourists. B. countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade. C. a large number of international tourists in 2030 will be from developing countries. D. barely any tourist in the next decade shall travel from an economically strong nation to a weak one. Q.3. One of the elements that is important to ecotourists on trip is A. wild and untouched surroundings. B. cultural exchange. C. car and bus rides. D. fully furnished flats. Q.4. Choose the option that lists the CORRECT answers for the following. 1. “Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and wishes to travel to places that safeguard their rights and inculcate awareness of their rights.” What kind of tourist is she? 2. “Gurdeep Singh from UK is an environmental scientist and has always chosen to travel to places that are examples of a symbiotic relationship between man and nature.” What kind of tourist is he? A. 1. is an ecotourist and 2. is a geotourist. B. 1. is an ethical tourist and 2. is a geotourist. C. 1. is a sustainable tourist and 2. is a pro-poor tourist. D. 1. is a geotourist and 2. is a responsible tourist. Q.5. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of geotourism. 1. showcases adventure sports 2. promotes landscape appreciations 3. promises luxurious travel 4. includes being environmentally responsible 5. believes in commercialising forests 6. initiates donations for the underprivileged A. 1. and 2. B. 5. and 6. C. 2. and 4. D. 3. and 5. Q.6. In the market profile of an ecotourist, the information on gender indicates that A. female ecotourists were more than the male ecotourists. B. the activity preferences were varied in females and males. C. the choice of things to do on a trip was quite similar for both the genders. D. male ecotourists were frequent travellers.

32 English X (Term 2) Q.7. The education aspect in the market profile of the ecotourist revealed that A. mainstream market trends were popular with undergraduates. B. ecotourists were only those who had basic education. C. mainstream markets were popular tourist destinations for educated ecotourists. D. ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers. Q.8. According to the survey conducted by the Travel Bureau, the total percentage of experienced ecotourists who DID NOT prefer to travel alone was A. 60%. B. 75%. C. 15%. D. 13%. Passage IV Social media, a computer-based technology, facilitates the sharing of ideas, thoughts, and information through the building of virtual networks and communities. By design, social media is Internet-based and gives users quick electronic communication of content. On average global internet users spent 2 hours and 22 minutes on social media per day, though trends differed widely by country. In many of the markets that  Global Web Index surveyed, social media use had shrunk or plateaued in Q1 2020 when compared with 2019 and 2018 figures. Average time spent connected to social networks during a typical day in 2020 (hh:mm) Philippines 03:50 Nigeria 03:42 India 02:36 USA 02:08 China 01:57 UK 01:41 Germany 01:20 Japan 00:46 676,000 internet users aged 16-24 were interviewed across 46 markets. Source: Global Web Index via DataReportal Emerging markets continue to spend the most time on social networks during a typical day. This could be driven by these markets generally having younger populations, with the 16 to 24-year-old segment driving growth globally. The Philippines spent the most time connected to social network, devoting almost four hours a day to the digital social sphere. Nigerians typically spent almost three and a three quarters of an hour a day on social media sites, while Indians and Chinese clocked around 2.5 hours and 2 hours, respectively, per day.

Case-Based Factual Passage 33 Some of the more developed markets have shown signs of plateauing which could be driven by aging populations in these countries. During a typical day in Japan, people spend only three quarters of an hour staying connected on social networks. Germany posts only slightly higher numbers, with users going on social media for one hour and twenty minutes every day, while the UK and the U.S. both spent closer to two hours per day engaging with social media. (300 words) Q.1. Arrange the following countries according to the time spent on the social media, in ascending order. Tick the correct option. 1. India 2. USA 3. China 4. Germany A. 1., 2., 3., 4. B. 2., 3., 4., 1. C. 4., 1., 2., 3. D. 3., 1., 4., 2. Q.2. Which of the following is/are wrong statement(s)? 1. Germany spent the most time on the internet. 2. India spent the least time on the internet. 3. The Philippines spent the most time on the internet. 4. Japan spends the least time on the internet. A. Statements 1. and 2. B. Statements 1., 2. and 3. C. Statements 2. and 3. D. Statements 3. and 4. Q.3. You have two Chinese pen friends. How much total time did they spend on social media in one day? A. 3.15 hours B. 3 hours 14 minutes C. 3:14 (hh:mm) D. B. or C. Q.4. Which of the following expressions suits the current passage in context of spending the most time on the internet? Tick the correct option. 1. Nigeria < UK < Japan 2. Nigeria > UK > Japan 3. Philippines < Nigeria < Japan 4. India > Japan < Germany A. Options 2. and 4. B. Options 1. and 3. C. Options 1. and 2. D. Options 3. and 4. Q.5. The best title of the passage can be: A. Where do People Spend the Most Time on Social Media? B. How do People Spend the Most Time on Social Media? C. Why do People Spend the Most Time on Social Media? D. Time Spent on Social Media During a Day. Q.6. People engage with social media via a ____________ via web-based software or applications. A. computer B. smartphone C. tablet D. any of the above Q.7. “Plateaued” as used in para 1 means ___________. A. “stopped growing” B. “continued growing” C. “enlarged” D. “used excessively” Q.8. Use of social media is declined at many places by ___________. A. young people B. children C. elderly people D. women

34 English X (Term 2) Passage V Producing silk is a lengthy process and demands close attention. First, quality feed for silkworms needs to be cultivated. Then the worms need to be carefully hand- reared in controlled environmental conditions till the pupae spin the silk cocoons. The silk is extracted by human hand and then woven into fabric. South India is the leading silk-producing area of the country, also known for its famous silk-weaving enclaves like Kanchipuram, Dharmavaram and Arni. The traditional handloom silk always scores over the power looms in the richness of their textures and design, in their individuality, character and classic beauty. Handloom weaving remains a symbol of versatility and creativity of living craft. Today, Indian silks, especially the handloom products, remain the most beautiful and cherished world over. The following graph shows the volume of raw silk produced in India in financial year 2017, by different states (in 1,000 metric tones): Raw silk production in thousand metric tons It is estimated that almost 85 percent of the price of silk in the market goes back to communities that are engaged in sericulture and silk industry as the entire families are involved in production rather than one bread winner. It plays a huge role in the upliftment of communities from poverty to prosperity. If the consumption of silk increases, the entire village tends to prosper. The final part of silk production is the weaving of the fabric which is considered more of an art than an act. These communities depend solely on weaving silk for their livelihood and the distinct regions have developed their own character of weaving silk to establish indelible identities for themselves. Silk has been intermingled with the life and culture of the Indians. Though India is producing all the varieties of silk, i.e. dress materials, scarves/stoles, ready-made garments, etc., the silk sarees are unique. The saree is almost synonymous with the word silk. It is the traditional costume of Indian women from time immemorial. There are innumerable references in Indian literature about this draped garment and the style of wearing differs from time to time, region to region and people to people. The silk sarees of India are among the living examples of the excellent craftsmanship of the weavers of the country. (350 words)

Case-Based Factual Passage 35 Q.1. Tick the flowchart showing the correct order of silk production. 1. Obtaining silk Weaving silk material Cultivating quality feed for silkworms Hand-rearing silkworms 2. Obtaining silk Weaving silk material Hand-rearing of silkworms Cultivating quality feed for silkworms 3. Weaving silk material Obtaining silk Hand-rearing silkworms Cultivating quality feed for silkworms 4. Cultivate quality feed for silkworms Hand-rear the silkworms Have the pupae spun the silk cocoons? No Wait Yes Obtain silk by hands Weave silk material A. Flowchart 1. B. Flowcharts 2. and 3. C. Flowchart 4. D. Flowcharts 1. and 4. Q.2. “There are three farmers: 1., 2. and 3.. 1. keeps the worms in suitable machines. 2. tries to extract silk just after he has hand-reared the worms. 3. carefully hand-rears the worms in controlled environmental conditions till the pupae spin the silk cocoons.” Who is taking care of the worms in a right manner? A. 1. and 2. B. 2. and 3. C. Only 3. D. Only 2.

36 English X (Term 2) Q.3. Silk from __________ is the most famous one. D. East India A. North India B. West India C. South India Q.4. Which state(s) was/were the leading silk producer(s) in the financial year 2016-17? 1. Assam, Meghalaya 2. UP, Tamil Nadu 3. Karnataka 4. Manipur, West Bengal 5. Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand A. 1. B. 2. and 4. C. 3. D. 4. and 5. Q.5. The silk produced by Meghalaya was __________. A. 930 metric tons B. 93 metric tons C. 9300 tons D. 9.3 metric tons Q.6. A power loom is the one __________. A. having power B. producing powerful silk material C. driven by steam engine or electric power D. operated by a weaver Q.7. Silk can __________. A. improve the status of the weavers’ lives B. make a woman look gorgeous C. be bought at economical rates in Karnataka D. add richness to the clothes Q.8. A few famous South Indian silk producing centres are __________. 1. Arni 2. Dharmavaram 3. Kanchipuram 4. Karnataka A. 1. and 2. B. 2. and 4. C. 1. and 3. D. 1., 2. and 3. Passage VI Papaya is the healthiest fruit with a list of properties that is long and exhaustive. Papaya favours digestion as well as cures skin irritation and sunburns. You can munch on it as a salad, have it cooked or boiled or just drink it up as milkshake or juice. The most important of these virtues is the protein-digesting enzyme in the milky juice. The enzyme is similar to pepsin in its digestive action and is said to be so powerful that it can digest 200 times its own weight in protein. It assists the body in assimilating the maximum nutritional value from food to provide energy and body-building materials. Papain in raw papaya makes up for the deficiency of gastric juice and fights excess of unhealthy mucus in the stomach, dyspepsia and intestinal irritation. The ripe fruit, if eaten regularly, corrects habitant constipation, bleeding piles and chromic diarrhoea. The juice, used as a cosmetic, removes freckles or brown spots due to exposure to sunlight and makes the skin smooth and delicate. A paste of papaya seeds is applied in skin diseases like those caused by ringworms. The black seeds of the papaya are highly beneficial in the treatment of cirrhosis of the liver caused by malnutrition, alcoholism etc.

Case-Based Factual Passage 37 A tablespoon of its juice, combined with a pint of fresh lime juice, should be taken once or twice daily for a month. The fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey can be applied over inflamed tonsils, for diphtheria and other throat disorders. (250 words) Q.1. Tick the wrong statement. A. Papaya overcomes the intestinal irritation. B. Papaya is a very strong digestive. C. Papaya can cure throat disorders. D. It can’t be eaten cooked or raw. Q.2. Cirrhosis of the liver is treated by A. the papain in raw papaya. B. the papaya juice. C. the enzyme. D. the black seeds of the papaya. Q.3. If you are deficient in gastric juice, you should eat A. the raw papaya. B. the ripe papaya. C. either the raw or the ripe papaya D. the black seeds. Q.4. If I have habitant constipation, I should opt for A. the raw papaya B. the ripe papaya C. either the raw or the ripe papaya D. the black seeds Q.5. Papaya has __________. 1. cholesterol 2. fat 3. calories 4. nutrients A. 1. to 4. B. 1. to 3. C. 1., 2. D. 1., 2., 4. Q.6. Arrange the nutrients found in one cup of papaya in descending order, according to their quantity. A. carbs, protein, fat, fibre B. carbs, fibre, protein, fat C. fibre, carbs, protein, fat D. carbs, fibre, fat, protein Q.7. Following are assertion (A) and reason (R). Read them and tick the correct option. (A) The multi uses of raw as well as ripe papaya and papaya seeds make papaya a versatile fruit. (R) Papaya is not versatile fruit as it has enough calories.

38 English X (Term 2) A. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. B. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. C. Assertion and Reason both are correct. D. Assertion and Reason both are incorrect. Q.8. Tick the correct statement. A. One papaya has 62 calories. B. One cup of papaya has 54 calories. C. One cup of papaya has no calories. D. One cup of 1 inch papaya pieces has 62 calories. Passage VII The following pie chart shows the headache types included in the 80 studies reviewed. A headache is usually caused due to spinal misalignment of the head due to poor posture. Sleeping on the stomach with the head turned to one side and bending over position for a long time makes it worse. It is known that any shift in the level of body hormones and chemicals, certain foods and drinks, and environmental stress can also trigger it. Modern life includes computers, driving, hand-held devices, and watching TV; all create severe stress on our neck and shoulders. While we know we should take constant breaks from these activities, we “forget!” Holding our arms out in front of us and/or cocking our necks to see the screen properly, we put pressure on our neck and shoulders that our body wasn’t built for. This results in muscle and joint strain and pain. In migraine headaches (one-handed headaches) the pain is usually on one side of the head and may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, irritability and bright spots and flashes of light. This headache is made worse by activity, especially bending. The throbbing pain in the head gets worse by noise and light. Certain triggers for migraines may be chocolate, caffeine, smoking or MSU in certain food items. The pain may last from 8 to 24 hours and there may be a hangover for two to three days. Work on your posture and customise the keyboard and monitor height to your needs. (250 words)

Case-Based Factual Passage 39 Q.1. What are the various reasons that cause headaches? Tick the correct option. 1. Spinal misalignment of the head due to the poor posture 2. Certain foods and drinks 3. Environmental stress 4. Computer and driving 5. Any shift in the level of body hormones and chemicals A. Options 1. and 2. B. Options 3. and 4. C. Options 4. and 5. D. Options 1., 2., 3., 5. Q.2. If one suffers from a headache that is accompanied by nausea or flashes of light, one could be suffering from __________. A. tension type headache B. cluster headache C. chronic daily headache D. migraine Q.3. The two things that can make migraine even worse are __________. A. activity like bending, and noise and light B. computer and driving C. nausea and vomiting D. noise and light Q.4. A migraine can last for __________. A. 8 to 38 hours B. 9 to 17 hours C. 8 to 24 hours D. 5 to 10 hours Q.5. Arrange the headaches in descending order as per their percentage. A. Tension type headache, cluster headache, chronic daily headache, migraine B. Migraine, tension type headache, chronic daily headache, cluster headache C. Tension type headache, migraine, chronic daily headache, cluster headache D. Tension type headache, chronic daily headache, cluster headache, migraine Q.6. Another word for “usually” is “__________.” A. generally B. mostly C. particularly D. generally, mostly, or routinely Q.7. What can act as a trigger for migraines is __________. A. chocolate, caffeine, smoking or MSU in food items B. caffeine, smoking or MSU in food items C. smoking or MSU in food items D. MSU in food items Q.8. While working at computers, we __________. A. should work on our posture B. should customise the keyboard and monitor height to our needs C. can sit the way we want to D. A. and B.

40 English X (Term 2) Passage VIII 1. Coral reefs are warm, clear, shallow ocean habitats that are rich in life. The reef’s massive structure is formed from coral polyps, tiny animals that live in colonies. When coral polyps die, they leave behind a hard, stony, branching structure made of limestone. 2. Coral reefs develop in shallow, warm water, usually near land, and mostly in the tropics; corals prefer temperatures between 70 and 85°F (21–30°C). There are coral reefs off the eastern coast of Africa, off the southern coast of India, in the Red Sea, and off the coasts of northeast and northwest Australia and on to Polynesia. There are also coral reefs off the coast of Florida, USA, to the Caribbean, and down in Brazil. Most reefs are located between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, in the Pacific Ocean, the Indian Ocean, the Caribbean Sea, and the Persian Gulf. % of Earth’s Oceans in Coral 3. The Great Barrier Reef (off the coast of NE Australia) is the largest coral reef in the world. It is over 1,257 miles (2000km) long. 4. The underwater coral city is a unique and diverse collection of colourful and weirdly patterned animals. This city is planned by tiny architects who have devised an inter-related web of large and complex structures, intricate waste disposal system, even its own water conditioning plant. Most of the problems of a city are present: food supply and distribution, that of accommodation and living space, leading to large scale squatting and a shift system, a large floating population, immigration and a balancing force of criminal predators. (250 words) Q.1. Coral reefs stay in __________. A. jungles B. gardens C. houses D. oceans Q.2. Coral polyps __________. A. are big coral reefs B. are tiny animals residing in colonies C. make the reef’s structure D. are colourful plants

Case-Based Factual Passage 41 Q.3. The largest coral reef in the world is found __________. A. off the coast of NE Australia B. on the coast of NW Australia C. off the coast of EW Australia D. off the coast of SA Australia Q.4. __________, __________ and __________ of Caribbean, Pacific and Indian Ocean are in corals respectively. A. 20%, 15%, 75% B. 20%, 75%, 15% C. 15%, 20%, 75% D. 15%, 75%, 20%, Q.5. The suitable title for the passage can be: A. The Coral City B. The Underwater Coral City C. Coral Reefs D. Coral Reefs—The Ocean Habitats Q.6. Reef means __________. A. plant B. animal C. fungus D. a long line of rocks or sand near the surface of the sea Q.7. In which of the following phrases, the use of “massive” is different from the one used in the passage? A. massive walls B. massive furniture C. massive information D. the dog’s massive head/jaw Q.8. What constitutes the underwater coral city? A. tiny architects B. unique and diverse colourful and weirdly patterned animals C. food supply and distribution D. criminal predators Answers Passage I 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 1. D 1. A Passage II 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 1. C 1. D Passage III 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 1. D Passage IV 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. C Passage V 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D Passage VI 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. D Passage VII 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. D Passage VIII 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B

1CHAPTER Writing Skills Formal Letter (Based on a Given Situation) Let’s Begin Effective communication is the soul of any business/industry. In fact, it is the lifeblood of a group or organisation. Modern business and industry need flawless correspondence to reach people with whom it has a business relationship. Written communication has this wide reach and is therefore used extensively in day-to-day life as well as in the business world. It takes several forms like a job application, a list, a report, a proposal, a quotation, a pamphlet or simply a letter. Correspondence in an organisation moves both ways, that is internally and externally. People within an organisation have to correspond with other departments. As an engineer in an industry, one may have to write letters to one’s peers, subordinates, superiors, clients, etc. Similarly, the organisation has to correspond with other organisations outside. Writing an effective letter can help achieve substantial gains for an organisation. It is believed that a good letter is seldom just written. It requires a good amount of planning and is always re-written many times. You must master the essentials of letter writing so that your correspondence in industry can be effective, influential and correct. What Is a Good Letter? When you write a job application/leave application/general complaint/technical/ industrial/business letter, your letter should conform to the following Seven Cs. 1. Clarity 2. Conciseness 3. Courtesy 4. Correctness 5. Completeness 6. Consideration 7. Co-ordination Essential Parts of a Letter It is convenient to divide a letter into different parts. These parts are considered as regular (essential) parts: (1) Sender’s address, (2) Date, (3) Inside address, (4) Salutation, (5) Subject line, (6) Body of the letter, (7) Complimentary close, (8) Signature, (9) Postscript, and (10) The envelope. 1. Sender’s Address In the beginning of any letter, one finds the address of the sender, so the recipient can easily find out where to send a reply to. Skip a line between your address and the date. It is not needed if the letter is printed on paper with the company letterhead already on it. In a letterhead, many other details like e-mail id, logo, website (URL) may also be included. 42