CUET Chemistry

Cuet (Common University Entrance Test) For Undergraduate Courses Chemistry (Code: 306) By Dr. N.K. Verma S.K. Khanna Formerly, Associate Professor Formerly, Associate Professor Department of Chemistry Department of Chemistry D.A.V. College D.A.V. College Chandigarh Chandigarh Dr. B. Kapila Formerly, Associate Professor Department of Chemistry D.A.V. College Chandigarh   LAXMI PUBLICATIONS (P) LTD (An ISO 9001:2015 Company) BEngalURU  • Chennai • Guwahati • Hyderabad • Jalandhar Kochi  • Kolkata • lucknow • mumbai • Ranchi New Delhi

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Introduction National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the Undergraduate entrance tests for all the Central Universities (CUs) for the academic session 2022–2023. CUET will provide a single window opportunity to students to seek admission in any of the Central Universities (CUs) across the country. The CUET (UG)–2022 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) Mode. Examination Structure for CUET (UG)–2022: CUET (UG)–2022 will consist of the following four sections:  Section IA – 13 Languages  Section IB – 19 Languages  Section II – 27 Domain Specific Subjects  Section III – General Test Choosing options from each section is not mandatory. Choices should match the requirements of the desired University. Broad features of CUET (UG)–2022: Some features of CUET (UG)–2022 are as follows: Section Subjects/Tests Questions to Question Type Duration be Attempted Section IA– There are 13* different 40 questions to Language to be tested through 45 minutes Languages languages. Any of these be attempted for each languages may be chosen. out of 50 in each Reading Comprehension language language (based on different types of passages–Factual, Literary and Narrative, [Literary Aptitude and Vocabulary] Section IB– There are 19** languages. Languages Any other language apart from those offered in Section I A may be chosen. Section II– There are 27*** Domain 40 questions to • Input text can be used for 45 minutes Domain specific subjects being be attempted for each offered under this section. out of 50 MCQ Based Questions Domain Section III– A candidate may choose specific General a maximum of Six (06) 60 questions to • MCQs based on NCERT subjects Test Domains as desired by be attempted the applicable University/ out of 75 Class XII syllabus only 60 minutes Universities. For any such under- • Input text can be used for graduate programme/ programmes being offered MCQ Based Questions by Universities where a General Test is being used • General Knowledge, Current for admission. Affairs, General Mental Ability, Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple application of basic mathematical concepts arithmetic/algebra geometry/ mensuration/stat taught till Grade 8), Logical and Analytical Reasoning

* Languages (13): Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Gujarati, Odia, Bengali, Assamese, Punjabi, English, Hindi and Urdu ** Languages (19): French, Spanish, German, Nepali, Persian, Italian, Arabic, Sindhi, Kashmiri, Konkani, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Manipuri, Santhali, Tibetan, Japanese, Russian and Chinese. *** DomainSpecificSubjects(27):1.Accountancy/BookKeeping;2.Biology/BiologicalStudies/Biotechnology/ Biochemistry; 3. Business Studies; 4. Chemistry; 5. Computer Science/Informatics Practices; 6. Economics/ Business Economics; 7. Engineering Graphics; 8. Entrepreneurship; 9. Geography/Geology; 10. History; 11. Home Science; 12. Knowledge Tradition and Practices of India; 13. Legal Studies; 14. Environmental Science; 15. Mathematics; 16. Physical Education/NCC/Yoga; 17. Physics; 18. Political Science; 19. Psychology; 20. Sociology; 21. Teaching Aptitude; 22. Agriculture; 23. Mass Media/Mass Communication; 24. Anthropology; 25. Fine Arts/Visual Arts (Sculpture/Painting)/Commercial Arts; 26. Performing Arts– (i) Dance (Kathak/Bharatnatyam/Oddisi/Kathakali/Kuchipudi/Manipuri (ii) Drama-Theatre (iii) Music General (Hindustani/Carnatic/Rabindra Sangeet/Percussion/Non-Percussion); 27. Sanskrit [For all Shastri (Shastri 3 years/4 years Honours) Equivalent to B.A./B.A. Honours courses i.e. Shastri in Veda, Paurohitya (Karmakand), Dharamshastra, Prachin Vyakarana, Navya Vyakarana, Phalit Jyotish, Siddhant Jyotish, Vastushastra, Sahitya, Puranetihas, Prakrit Bhasha,Prachin Nyaya Vaisheshik, Sankhya Yoga, Jain Darshan, Mimansa, AdvaitaVedanta, Vishihstadvaita Vedanta, Sarva Darshan, a candidate may choose Sanskrit as the Domain]. • A candidate can choose a maximum of any 3 languages from Section IA and Section IB taken together. (One of the languages chosen needs to be in lieu of Domain specific subjects). • Section II offers 27 subjects, out of which a candidate may choose a maximum of 6 subjects. • Section III comprises General Test. • For choosing Languages (up to 3) from Section IA and IB and a maximum of 6 subjects from Section II and General Test under Section III, the candidate must refer to the requirements of his/her intended University. Level of questions for CUET (UG)–2022: All questions in various testing areas will be benchmarked at the level of Class XII only. Marking Scheme of Examination For Multiple Choice Questions: To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one option corresponding to the correct answer or the most appropriate answer. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner: (i) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+ 5) (ii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (– 1). (iii) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0). (iv) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options. (v) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vi) If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then all candidates who have appeared will be given five marks (+ 5). Note: C andidates are advised to visit the NTA CUET (UG)–2022 official website https://cuet.samarth.ac.in/, for latest updates regarding the Examination.

CONTENTS 1. The Solid State .............................................................................................................................................. 1 2. Solutions ...................................................................................................................................................... 13 3. Electrochemistry ......................................................................................................................................... 27 4. Chemical Kinetics ....................................................................................................................................... 41 5. Surface Chemistry ...................................................................................................................................... 52 6. General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements ..................................................................... 64 7. p-Block Elements ........................................................................................................................................ 70 8. d- and f-Block Elements ............................................................................................................................. 81 9. Co-ordination Compounds .......................................................................................................................... 90 10. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes ................................................................................................................... 100 11. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers ................................................................................................................... 113 12. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids ............................................................................................... 125 13. Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen .............................................................................................. 144 14. Bio-molecules ............................................................................................................................................. 158 15. Polymers .................................................................................................................................................... 169 16. Chemistry in Everyday Life ..................................................................................................................... 175 Answers ..................................................................................................................................................... 180 Mock Test Papers ........................................................................................................................... M-1–M-27

SYLLABUS (CHEMISTRY – 306) Note: There will be one Question Paper which will have 50 questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted. Unit I: Solid State Classification of solids based on different binding forces: molecular, ionic covalent, and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea), unit cell in two dimensional and three-dimensional lattices, calculation of density of unit cell, packing in solids, packing efficiency, voids, number of atoms per unit cell in a cubic unit cell, point defects, electrical and magnetic properties, Band theory of metals, conductors, semiconductors and insulators and n and p-type semiconductors. Unit II: Solutions Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in liquids, the solubility of gases in liquids, solid solutions, colligative properties – the relative lowering of vapour pressure, Raoult’s law, elevation of B.P., depression of freezing point, osmotic pressure, determination of molecular masses using colligative properties, abnormal molecular mass, Vant Hoff factor. Unit III: Electrochemistry Redox reactions; conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivity variations of conductivity with concentration, Kohlrausch’s Law, electrolysis and laws of electrolysis (elementary idea), dry cell – electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells; lead accumulator, EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential, Nernst equation and its application to chemical cells. Relation between Gibbs energy change and EMF of a cell, fuel cells; corrosion. Unit IV: Chemical Kinetics Rate of a reaction (average and instantaneous), factors affecting rates of reaction: concentration, temperature, catalyst; order and molecularity of a reaction; rate law and specific rate constant, integrated rate equations, and half-life (only for zero and first-order reactions); concept of collision theory (elementary idea, no mathematical treatment). Activation energy, Arrhenius equation. Unit V: Surface Chemistry Adsorption – physisorption and chemisorption; factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids; catalysis: homogenous and heterogeneous, activity and selectivity: enzyme catalysis; colloidal state: the distinction between true solutions, colloids, and suspensions; lyophilic, lyophobic multimolecular and macromolecular colloids; properties of colloids; Tyndall effect, Brownian movement, electrophoresis, coagulation; emulsions – types of emulsions. Unit VI: General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Principles and methods of extraction – concentration, oxidation, reduction electrolytic method, and refining; occurrence and principles of extraction of aluminum, copper, zinc, and iron.

Unit VII: p-Block Elements Group 15 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, oxidation states, trends in physical and chemical properties; nitrogen – preparation, properties, and uses; compounds of nitrogen: preparation and properties of ammonia and nitric acid, oxides of nitrogen ( structure only); Phosphorous- allotropic forms; compounds of phosphorous: preparation and properties of phosphine, halides (PCl3, PCl5) and oxoacids (elementary idea only). Group 16 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties; dioxygen: preparation, properties, and uses; classification of oxides; ozone. Sulphur – allotropic forms; compounds of sulphur: preparation, properties, and uses of sulphur dioxide; sulphuric acid: industrial process of manufacture, properties and uses, oxoacids of sulphur (structures only). Group 17 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties; compounds of halogens: preparation, properties and uses of chlorine and hydrochloric acid, interhalogen compounds, oxoacids of halogens (structures only). Group 18 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties, uses. Unit VIII: d and f Block Elements General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence and characteristics of transition metals, general trends in properties of the first-row transition metals – metallic character, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states, ionic radii, colour, catalytic property, magnetic properties, interstitial compounds, alloy formation. Preparation and properties of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4. Lanthanoids – electronic configuration, oxidation states, chemical reactivity, and lanthanoid contraction and its consequences. Actinoids – Electronic configuration, oxidation states, and comparison with lanthanoids. Unit IX: Coordination Compounds Coordination compounds: Introduction, ligands, coordination number, colour, magnetic properties and shapes, IUPAC nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, bonding, Werner’s theory VBT, CFT; isomerism (structural and stereo) importance of coordination compounds (in qualitative analysis, extraction of metals and biological systems). Unit X: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Haloalkanes: Nomenclature, nature of C-X bond, physical and chemical properties, mechanism of substitution reactions. Optical rotation. Haloarenes: Nature of C-X bond, substitution reactions (directive influence of halogen for monosubstituted compounds only). Uses and environmental effects of – dichloromethane, trichloromethane, tetrachloromethane, iodoform, freons, DDT. Unit XI: Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Alcohols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties (of primary alcohols only); identification of primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols; mechanism of dehydration, uses, with special reference to methanol and ethanol. Phenols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, acidic nature of phenol, electrophilic substitution reactions, uses of phenols. Ethers: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses.

Unit XII: Aldehydes, Ketones, and Carboxylic Acids Aldehydes and Ketones: Nomenclature, nature of carbonyl group, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, mechanism of nucleophilic addition, the reactivity of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes; uses. Carboxylic Acids: Nomenclature, acidic nature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties; uses. Unit XIII: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses, identification of primary secondary, and tertiary amines. Cyanides and Isocyanides – will be mentioned at relevant places in context. Diazonium salts: Preparation, chemical reactions, and importance in synthetic organic chemistry. Unit XIV: Biomolecules Carbohydrates – Classification (aldoses and ketoses), monosaccharide (glucose and fructose), D-L configuration, oligosaccharides (sucrose, lactose, maltose), polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen): importance. Proteins – Elementary idea of a-amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides, proteins, primary structure, secondary structure, tertiary structure and quaternary structure (qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins; enzymes. Hormones – Elementary idea (excluding structure) Vitamins – Classification and functions. Nucleic Acids: DNA and RNA Unit XV: Polymers Classification – Natural and synthetic, methods of polymerization (addition and condensation), copolymerization. Some important polymers: natural and synthetic like polythene, nylon, polyesters, bakelite, rubber. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable polymers. Unit XVI: Chemistry in Everyday Life 1. Chemicals in medicines – analgesics, tranquilizers, antiseptics, disinfectants, antimicrobials, antifertility drugs, antibiotics, antacids, antihistamines. 2. Chemicals in food – preservatives, artificial sweetening agents, elementary idea of antioxidants. 3. Cleansing agents – soaps and detergents, cleansing action.

1. THE SOLID STATE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Choose the correct answer from the alternatives 9. What is the coordination number in a hexagonal given in each of the following questions : close packed structure in three dimensions? 1. The existence of a substance in more than one (a) 12 (b) 9 solid modifications is known as (c) 4 (d) 6 (a) isomorphism (b) polymorphism 10. In the cubic close packing, the unit cell has ...... (c) amorphism (d) allotropy (a) 4 tetrahedral voids each of which is shared 2. Which of the following is an amorphous solid? by four adjacent unit cells. (a) Graphite (C) (b) 8 tetrahedral voids within the unit cell. (b) Quartz glass (SiO2) (c) 8 tetrahedral voids each of the which is (c) Potash alum [K2SO4 . Al2(SO4)3 . 24H2O] (d) Diamond (C) shared by four adjacent unit cells. (d) 4 tetrahedral voids within the unit cell. 3. CO2 molecules are held in the crystals of dry 11. Radius of an octahedral void relative to the ice by ........ radius of the spheres in a close packing is (a) london forces (a) 1.414 (b) 0.225 (b) dipole-dipole interactions (c) 1.225 (d) 0.414 (c) covalent bonds 12. Among the following types of voids, which is (d) coulombic forces the largest? 4. Which of the following oxides shows electrical (a) triangular (b) cubic properties like metals? (c) tetrahedral (d) octahedral (a) SiO2 (b) TiO2 13. In a compound, oxide ions have CCP (c) MgO (d) CrO2 arrangement. Cations A are present in one- 5. To get n-type semiconductor, impurity to be eighth of the tetrahedral holes and cations B added to silicon should have the following occupy half the octahedral holes. The simplest number of valence electrons: formula of the compound is ...... . (a) 2 (b) 3 (a) AB2O4 (b) A2BO4 (c) 1 (d) 5 (c) ABO2 (d) ABO4 14. In a metal M having BCC arrangement, edge 6. Which of the following statements is not true? length of the unit cell is 400 pm. The atomic (a) Conductivity of semiconductor increases radius of ‘M’ is ...... . with increase in temperature (a) 200 pm (b) 100 pm (b) Pure ionic solids are insulators (c) 173 pm (d) 141 pm (c) NaCl is a diamagnetic compound 15. The edge length of the unit cell in terms of the (d) TiO2 is a paramagnetic substance. radius of spheres constituting face centred cubic 7. Which of the following oxides behaves as unit cell is ...... . conductor or insulator depending upon (a) a = 4r 4 temperature? (b) a = r 3 (a) Ti2O3 (b) SiO2 (c) a = 2r (d) a = 2 2 r (c) TiO2 (d) CaO 16. Which of the following is a network solid? 8. The material used in the solar cells contains (a) Dry ice (Solid CO2) (b) I2 ...... (c) Silicon carbide (SiC) (a) Cs (b) Si (c) Sn (d) Ti (d) H2O (Ice) 1

2 CHEMISTRY 17. The total number of octahedral voids in the face 26. Which of the following statements are true? centred cubic unit cell is ...... (a) Pairing of electrons cancels their magnetic moment in the diamagnetic substances. (a) 8 (b) 4 (b) Paramagnetic substances are weakly attracted by magnetic field. (c) 10 (d) 12 (c) Ferromagnetic substances can be magnetised permanently. 18. The percentage of empty space in a face centred (d) The domains in ferromagnetic substances cubic arrangement is ...... are oppositely oriented with respect to each other. (a) 74 (b) 26 27. Which of the following statements is not correct (c) 68 (d) 32 about semiconductors? (a) Silicon doped with electron rich impurity 19. Which of the following is not correct for quartz behaves as an n-type semiconductor. glass? (b) Silicon doped with Al is p-type semiconductor. (a) It is an amorphous soild. (c) Delocalised electrons increase the conductivity of doped silicon. (b) Refractive index is same in all the directions. (d) Conductivity of a semiconductor decreases with increase in temperature. (c) It has definite heat of fusion. 28. Which of the following arrangements show (d) It may be called super-cooled liquid. schematic alignment of magnetic moments of ferromagnetic substances? 20. Which of the following is not the characteristics of a crystalline solid? (a) (a) Definite and characteristic heat of fusion. (b) Isotropic nature. (c) A regular periodically repeated pattern of arrangement of constituent particles in the entire crystal. (d) Anisotropic nature. 21. Which of the following conditions favour the existence of a substance in the solid state? (a) High temperature (b) Low temperature (c) High thermal energy (b) (d) None of these (c) 22. Which of the following statements are true (d) about amorphous solids? (a) They are anisotropic in nature. 29. Which of the following statements is not correct about metals? (b) On heating they may become crystalline at certain temperature. (a) Valence band may overlap with conduction band. (c) Amorhous solids have definite melting point. (d) None of these (b) The gap between valence band and conduction band is negligible. 23. Which of the following unit cells have all their sides equal i.e., a = b = c? (a) Tetragonal (b) Cubic (c) The gap between valence band and conduction band is very large. (c) Orthorhombic (d) None of these 24. Which of the following arrangements contain (d) Valence band may remain partially filled. octahedral voids? 30. Which of the following is a molecular solid ? (a) hcp (b) bcc (a) ZnS (b) MgO (c) Simple cubic (d) All of these (c) Ice (d) Diamond. 25. Which of the following can be regarded as 31. For a primitive cubic unit cell, the radius of molecular solids? atom (R) can be related to the side of the unit cell (a) as: (a) SiC (Silicon carbide) (b) Dry ice (a) R = 2a (b) R = a (c) Diamond a a (c) R = 4 (d) R = 2 . (d) NaCl.

THE SOLID STATE 3 32. When electrons are trapped in the crystal lattice 39. The shortest distance between A– and B+ ions in place of anion vacancy, the defect in the is: crystal is known as: (a) 0.707a (b) 0.433a (a) Frenkel defect (b) Schottky defect (c) 0.866a (d) 0.355a. (c) F-centre (d) Dislocations. 40. The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids per sphere in a cubic close packed arrangement 33. When a cation leaves its normal position in the is respectively. crystal and moves to some interstitial space, the defect in the crystal is known as: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 6 and 4 (a) Schottky defect (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 1. (b) F-centre 41. Lattice site in a pure crystal cannot be occupied by (c) Frenkel defect (d) Non-stoichiometric defect. (a) Molecule (b) electron 34. Which of the following is true about the value (c) ion (d) atom of refrective index of quartz glass? (a) Same in all directions 42. The electrical conductivity of the semiconductors is of the order of (b) Different in different directions (c) Cannot be measured (a) 10– 9 – 102 Ohm– 1 cm– 1 (d) Generally zero. (b) 10– 9 – 106 Ohm– 1 cm– 1 Consider the unit cell for the solid BA as shown (c) 106 – 108 Ohm– 1 cm– 1 and answer the following questions from 35–40. (d) 10– 12 Ohm– 1 cm– 1. + 43. Which of the following statements is not true ? B (a) Conductivity of semiconductors increases with increase in temperature (b) Pure ionic solids are insulators a A– (c) NaCl is a diamagnetic compound a (d) TiO2 is a paramagnetic substance. a 44. In a face centred cubic lattice the number of nearest neighbours for a given lattice point is: (a) 6 (b) 4 35. The arrangement of B+ ions can be described (c) 8 (d) 12. as: (a) Primitive cubic 45. Density of a crystal is given by the formula (b) End centred cubic (a) a3M (b) NAM zN A za3 (c) Body centred cubic zM (d) a3NA . (d) Face centred cubic. (c) a3NA z×M 36. The site occupied by the anion A– in the crystal Answer Q. 46–50 from the figure given lattice is: (a) triangular hole (b) cubical hole Z (c) tetrahedral hole (d) octahedral hole. b 37. The co-ordination number of B+ is: (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 12. a 38. The shortest distance between A– and A– in the cY crystal lattice is: a 3a d (a) 2 (b) X (c) 3a 2 (d) a.

4 CHEMISTRY 46. The shaded plane abcd is referred to as: 56. For a cubic void the radius ratio is equal to (a) rectangular plane of symmetry (a) 0.225 (b) 0.414 (b) diagonal plane of symmetry (c) 0.732 (d) 0.155. (c) unit plane 57. In which of the following arrangements, a metal would have least density ? (d) none of the above. 47. The total number of such planes in a cube is: (a) BCC (b) CCP (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) HCP (c) 4 (d) 6. (d) In all the three arrangements, the density would be same. 48. Line ac is called (a) face diagonal 58. The number of octahedral voids in HCP arrangement of N spheres is (b) body diagonal as well as three fold axis of symmetry (a) 2 N (b) N (c) three-fold axis of symmetry as well as face (c) 3 N (d) 4 N. diagonal (d) four-fold axis of symmetry. 59. Na2O has antifluorite structure. In Na2O, the coordination number of oxide ions is: 49. How many such diagonals as ac can be present in a cube ? (a) 4 (b) 6 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12. (c) 8 (d) 6. 60. Excess of potassium ions make KCl crystals appear violet or lilac in colour because. 50. A crystal may have one or more planes of symmetry as well as one or more than one axis (a) some of anionic sites are occupied by cations. of symmetry but it has only (b) some of anionic sites are occupied by a pair (a) two centres of symmetry of electrons. (b) one centre of symmetry (c) there are vacancies at some anionic sites. (c) four centres of symmetry (d) F-centres are created which impart colour to the crystal. (d) no centre of symmetry. 51. Which of the following is not a property of 61. In a body centred cubic unit cell of a metallic crystalline solid ? substance, the number of atoms per unit cell is: (a) Isotropy (b) Anisotropy (c) Sharp melting point (d) Definite geometry. (a) 4 (b) 1 52. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic (c) 2 (d) 3. compound ? 62. Which of the following is a paramagnetic (a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe3O4 compound ? (c) Cr2O3 (d) CrO2. (a) TiO2 (b) MnO2 (c) NaCl (d) ZnS. 53. Which of the following is a diamagnetic compound ? (a) MnO2 (b) V2O5 63. Which of the following statements are correct ? (c) TiO (d) Fe2O3. I. Ferrimagnetic substances lose ferrimagnetism on heating and become 54. A binary solid AB having radius ratio 0.52 is paramagnetic. most likely to have (a) zinc blende structure II. Ferrimagnetic substances do not lose ferri- magnetism on heating and remain (b) rock-salt-structure ferrimagnetic. (c) fluorite structure III. Antiferromagnetic substances have domain structures similar to ferromagnetic (d) antifluorite structure. substances and their magnetic moments are not cancelled by each other. 55. In CCP arrangement of identical spheres, the coordination number of each sphere is: (a) 4 (b) 8 IV. In ferromagnetic substances all the domains get oriented in the direction of magnetic field (c) 12 (d) 6. and remain as such even after removing magnetic field.

THE SOLID STATE 5 (a) only IV (b) III and IV 73. A match box represents an example of : (d) I and IV (d) II and III (a) cubic geometry 64. In CsCl structure, the number of anions per (b) rectangular geometry unit cell is: (c) orthorhombic geometry (a) One (b) Two (d) monoclinic geometry. (c) Three (d) Four. 74. If we mix pentavalent impurity in a crystal lattice of germanium, the type of semi-conductor 65. Which of the following substance also adopts formed is: fluorite type structure ? (a) SrF2 (b) AlF3 (a) n-type (b) p-type (c) NaF (d) SiF4. (c) both n and p type (d) none of the two. 66. Which of the following is a ferrite ? 75. Which of the following groups contain species (a) Na2Fe2O4 (b) MgFe2O4 which are solid at 283 K and one bar pressure? (c) Zn3FeO4 (d) AlFe3O4. (a) NH3, H2O, C2H6 (b) Br2, I2, Cl2 (c) SO3, I2, KCl (d) Si, HCl, Hg. 67. Which of the following is known as spinel ? (a) MgAl2O4 (b) K4Fe(CN)6 Consider the figure given for solid XY. Answer the following questions from 76–80. (c) CaO (d) Na2Fe2O4. 68. Magnetite (Fe3O4) adopts (a) spinel structure (b) antifluorite structure (c) fluorite type structure X Y (d) inverse spinel structure. 69. What is not true about amorphous solids ? I. They undergo clean cleavage II. They do not have sharp melting points III. They have high degree of rigidity IV. They exhibit isotropy. (a) I (b) II, III (c) III, IV (d) I, IV. 76. The site Y represents 70. In which of the following pair of species the (a) tetrahedral void (b) octahedral void cation occupy tetrahedral hole ? (c) triangular void (d) cubical void. (a) Zinc blende, Na2O (b) Na2O, CaF2 77. The number of XY units per unit cell is: (c) NaCl, CaF2 (d) CsBr, NaCl. (a) 4 (b) 3 71. What is true about solids ? (c) 1 (d) 8. I. Interparticle distance is minimum 78. Co-ordination number of Y is: II. K.E. of particles is high (a) 3 (b) 4 III. Interparticle attraction is large (c) 6 (d) 8. IV. All solids have sharp mp and bp. 79. Which of the following type of solid adopts above crystal structure ? (a) I, II, III (b) Only II (c) I, III (d) IV, II. (a) CaCl (b) CaF2 (c) ZnS (d) NaCl. 72. A solid XY adopts CsCl type crystal structure. Pick up the true statements. 80. A compound formed by elements A and B I. Co-ordination number of X+ and Y– are 8 crystallises in the cubic structure where B II. Y– ions adopt fcc arrangement atoms are at the corners of the cube and A atoms are at the centre of alternate faces. The III. X+ adopt hcp arrangement formula of the compound would be IV. There is one XY unit is unit cell. (a) I, IV (b) II, III (a) A2B (b) A3B2 (c) AB (d) AB2. (c) III (d) IV only.

6 CHEMISTRY 81. The cation occupies a cubic void if the radius 91. Which of the following is 12-16 compound ? ratio r+/r– lies in the range (a) CdCl2 (b) CdS (a) 0.225—0.414 (b) 0.414—0.732 (c) ACP (d) SeO2. (c) 0.732—1.00 (d) 0.155—0.225. 92. The crystals in which electrical dipoles align 82. In general, a crystal shows cleavage in a pattern themselves in such a way that lead to some which is specific for that type of crystal. This is because the atoms and molecules or ions in a resultant dipole moment, are called crystal are: (a) Dipolar substances (b) Antiferromagnetic substances (a) arranged in planes (c) Piezoelectric substances (b) spherically symmetrical (d) Antiferroelectrics. (c) bonded together strongly 93. Two semiconductors A and B are prepared by doping process. A is Si doped with arsenic and (d) bonded together weakly. B is Si doped with gallium. What is correct 83. In a close packing, the radius of the octahedral (a) Both A and B will act as insulators void relative to the radius of the spheres constituting it, is: (b) A is p-type semiconductor (a) 0.732 (b) 0.225 (c) B is p-type semiconductor (c) 0.414 (d) 0.155. (d) Both A and B are super conductors. 84. In rock salt structure coordination numbers of 94. The radius of Na+ is 95 pm and that of Cl– is cation and anion are respectively 181 pm. The edge length of unit cell in NaCl would be (a) 4, 6 (b) 6, 6 (c) 8, 6 (d) 12, 6. (a) 181 pm (b) 95 pm 85. Which of the following is not true for antifluorite (c) 276 pm (d) 552 pm. structure ? 95. Radius ratio of cation A+ to anion B– is 0.356. (a) Co-ordination number of cation is 4 The compound AB is likely to have (b) Co-ordination number of anion is 8 (a) Zinc blende structure (c) Anions are arranged in cubic close packing (b) Rock-salt structure (d) Number of formula units per unit cell is 8. (c) Caesium chloride structure 86. The ratio of close packed atoms to tetrahedral (d) Structure cannot be predicted. holes in cubic close packing 96. A cubic unit cell of a compound has X atoms at (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 the corners of the cube and the body centre, and Y atoms at the face centres. The formula (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1. of the compound would be 87. The co-ordination number of metal crystallising (a) XY (b) X2Y in hexagonal close packed structure is: (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) X3Y2 (d) X2Y3. (c) 8 (d) 6. 97. A simple cubic lattice consists of eight identical 88. The existence of a substance in more than one spheres of Radius ‘R’ in contact, placed at the solid modification is known as: corners of the cube, what fraction of the total (a) isomorphism (b) polymorphism volume of cube is actually occupied by the cube? (c) amorphism (d) allotropy. (a) 74% (b) 68% 89. A unit cell having dimensions a ≠ b ≠ c ; α ≠ β ≠ γ (c) 52.4% (d) 66%. ≠ 90° is known as 98. In a compound, oxide ions have fcc arrangement (a) Monoclinic (b) Triclinic and the cations M occupy two-third octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is: (c) Rhombohedral (d) Orthorhombic. (a) M2O (b) M3O2 90. The percentage of space occupied by spheres in (c) M2O3 (d) M3O4. a cubic close packing of spheres in three dimensions is 99. In rock salt structure what percentage of the (a) 24% (b) 52.4% octahedral voids are occupied by cations ? (c) 76% (d) 74%. (a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 25% (d) 33%.

THE SOLID STATE 7 100. In antifluorite structure what percentage of the (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 tetrahedral voids is occupied by cations ? (c) 1/6 (d) 1/8. (a) 0% (b) 50% 110. X-rays of wavelength equal to 0.134 nm give a first order diffraction from the surface of a (c) 100% (d) 25%. crystal when the value of θ is 10.5°. The distance between the planes in the crystal parallel to 101. In a unit cell of NaCl, the number of Na+ ions the surface is present at the edge centres is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 12. (Given : sin 10.5° = 0.1822) 102. In zinc blende structure, the number of formula (a) 0.184 nm (b) 0.92 nm units present in the unit cell is: (c) 0.726 nm (d) 0.368 nm. (a) 4 (b) 6 111. In normal spinel structure there is a closed packed array of O2– ions. The trivalent cations (c) 1 (d) 8. are present in 103. In antifluorite structure, the percentage of octahedral voids occupied is: (a) 75% of octahedral voids (a) 100% (b) 0% (b) 50% of octahedral voids (c) 50% (d) 25%. (c) 12.5% of tetrahedral voids 104. If the positions of Na+ and Cl– ions are (d) 25% of octahedral voids. interchanged in NaCl, the crystal lattice with 112. In Bragg’s equation d represents respect to Na+ and Cl– is: (a) distance between the source of X-rays and (a) both fcc (b) both bcc crystal (c) fcc and bcc (d) bcc and fcc. (b) interplanar distance 105. In crystal structure of diamond the number of (c) wavelength of incident X-rays tetrahedral holes occupied are: (d) wavelength of reflected X-rays. (a) 50% (b) 25% 113. An element with crystal radius 500 pm crystallises in a face centred cubic lattice. The (c) 75% (d) 100%. edge length of unit cell is: 106. A compound alloy of gold and copper crystallises (a) 1000 pm (b) 1414 pm in a cubic lattice in which gold atoms occupy the lattice points at the corner of the cube and (c) 1212 pm (d) 1174.2 pm. copper atoms occupy centres of each of the cube faces. The probable empirical formula of the 114. What wavelength of X-rays will give a compound alloy is: diffraction angle, (2θ), equal to 16.80° for the first order diffraction, for a crystal with (a) Au3Cu (b) AuCu3 interplanar distance of 0.200 nm, (Given : sin 8.4° = 0.146) (c) Au2Cu3 (d) AuCu2. 107. If ‘a’ is edge length of a face centred cubic unit (a) 0.0584 nm (b) 0.1168 nm cell, then the distance of closest approach of two (c) 0.0292 nm (d) 0.2336 nm. particles is: 115. Which of the following pairs of species are likely to show Schottky type defects ? (a) 0.866a (b) 1.732a (c) 1.414a (d) 0.707a. (a) NaCl, ZnS (b) CsCl, NaCl 108. Potassium hexachloroplatinate (K2PtCl6) (c) ZnS, AgBr (d) AgBr, NaCl. adopts antifluorite crystal structure. The 116. In NaCl crystal, which statements are true corners and face centres of the cube unit cell is I. Co-ordination number of Na+ and Cl– ions is same occupied by (a) Cl– ions (b) K+ (c) Pt4+ (d) (PtCl6)2–. II. It is fcc type of crystal. 109. In a compound XY2O4, oxide ions are arranged III. It is a simple cubic type crystal. in CCP and cations X are present in octahedral IV. Cl– ions occupy the corners of the cube and also its body centre. voids. Cations Y are equally distributed between octahe-dral and tetrahedral voids. (a) I, IV (b) I, II What fraction of the total voids is occupied by X and Y ? (c) II, III (d) IV.

8 CHEMISTRY 117. Which of the following of pair of species are 126. Body diagonal of a cube is 866 pm. Its edge likely to exhibit Frenkel type defect ? length would be (a) NaBr, AgBr (b) ZnS, CaCl (a) 408 pm (b) 1000 pm (c) AgBr, ZnS (d) CsCl, NaCl. (c) 500 pm (d) 600 pm. 118. The number of atoms in 100 g of fcc crystal with 127. Certain intermetallic compound of lithium and density (d) = 10 g cm–3 and edge length 200 pm silver crystallises in cubic structure in which both Li and Ag atoms have co-ordination is equal to number of 8. To what crystal class does the unit cell belong ? (a) 3 × 1025 (b) 5 × 1024 (c) 1 × 1025 (d) 2 × 1025. 119. An element (at mass = 100) having bcc structure (a) Primitive cubic (b) bcc has unit cell edge 400 pm. The density of the element is: (c) fcc (d) End centred. (a) 10.376 g/cm3 (b) 5.1888 g/cm3 128. In fluorite structure, (c) 7.289 g/cm3 (d) 2.144 g/cm3. (a) Ca2+ ions are ccp and F– ions are in octahedral voids 120. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are (b) Ca2+ ions are ccp and F– ions are in all located at the corners of the cube, O atoms are tetrahedral voids at the centre of the edges and Na atoms are at (c) Ca2+ ions are in bcc and F– ions are in the centre of the cube. The formula of the cubical voids compound is: (a) NaWO2 (b) NaWO3 (d) F– ions are ccp and Ca2+ ions are in 50% tetrahedral voids. (c) NaWO4 (d) Na2WO3. 129. A solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms 121. The edge length of face centred cubic unit cell P are in ccp arrangement and atoms Q occupy all octahedral voids and half of tetrahedral is 508 pm. If the radius of cation is 110 pm, the voids. The simplest formula of the compound is: radius of anion is: (a) 110 pm (b) 144 pm (c) 618 pm (d) 398 pm. (a) PQ (b) P2Q 122. In a cubic crystal anions are arranged in FCC (c) PQ4 (d) PQ2. and the cations occupy half the tetrahedral 130. In the crystal lattice of diamond, carbon atoms voids and all the octahedral voids. The ratio of cations and anions in the crystal is: adopt (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (a) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of 50% tetrahedral holes (c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 2. 123. The fraction of total volume occupied by the (b) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of atoms in a simple cube is: 25% tetrahedral holes (a) π (b) 2 π (c) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of 4 8 25% octahedral holes (c) 2 π (d) π . (d) bcc arrangement. 6 6 131. What is not true about 13-15 compounds ? 124. In an ionic solid MX the radius of M+ is 0.95 Å (a) They are binary compounds of elements of group 13 and 15 respectively and that of X– is 1.81 Å. The solid MX is likely to have (b) They act as semiconductors (a) Zinc blende structure (c) They are electrically neutrals (b) Fluorite structure (d) They are oxides of elements 13 and 15 respectively. (c) Cesium chloride structure (d) Rock-salt structure. 132. Which arrangement of magnetic momenta refer to ferromagnetic substance. 125. Edge length of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm. Its face diagonal would be (a) ↑ ↓ ↑ ↓ ↑ ↓ (b) ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ (a) 600 pm (b) 200 pm (c) 566 pm (d) 692 pm. (c) ↑ ↓ ↑ ↑ ↓ ↑ (d) ↓ ↓ ↑ ↑ ↓ ↓.

THE SOLID STATE 9 133. Which of the following matching is correct 141. In a compound, oxide ions have ccp arrangement. Cations A are present in one- (a) Spinel — Se2(Si2O7) eight of the tetrahedral holes and cations B occupy half the octahedral holes. The simplest (b) Ferroelectric — BaTiO3 formula of the compound is: (c) Antiferroelectric — MgAl2O4 (d) Antifluorite structure— CaF2. (a) AB2O4 (b) A2BO4 134. The ionic radii of X+ and Y– ions are 146 and (c) ABO2 (d) ABO4. 216 pm respectively. The probable type of 142. In a solid, oxide ions are arranged in CCP. structure exhibited by it is: Cations A occupy one-sixth of the tetrahedral (a) CsCl type (b) Rock salt type voids and cations B occupy one-third of the (c) Zinc blende type (d) CaF2 type. octahedral voids. The formula of the compound 135. What is the co-ordination number of Rb+ in is: RbBr unit cell ? The ionic radii of Rb+ and Br– (a) ABO3 (b) AB2O3 ions being 148 and 195 respectively. (c) A2BO3 (d) A2B2O3. (a) 6 (b) 4 143. A mineral having the formula AB2 crystallises (c) 8 (d) 12. in a cubic close packed lattice, with A atoms 136. Barium titanate crystallises in perovskite occupying the lattice points. The co-ordination structure which is a cubic lattice, with barium number of A atoms, that of B atoms and fraction ions occupying the corners of the unit cell, oxide of tetrahedral voids occupied by B atoms are ions occupying the face centres and titanium respectively ion occupying centres of the unit cell. If Ti4+ (a) 8, 4, 100% (b) 2, 6, 75% ion is described as occupying the holes in Ba-O (c) 3, 1, 25% (d) 6, 6, 50%. lattice, the type of hole and fraction of these holes occupied by these ions are : 144. An element A crystallises by adopting AB AB AB ..... pattern of close packing, the number of (a) 100 % of octahedral holes atoms in the unit cell is: (b) 25% of tetrahedral holes (a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 25% of octahedral holes (c) 4 (d) 8. (d) 25% of cubic holes. 145. In zinc blende structure, the distance of closest approach between two anions is equal to 137. In a binary compound having cubic unit cell, the anions B are located at the corners of the (a) half the edge length cube and face centres whereas cations A occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The formula of the (b) half the face diagonal compound would be 3 (a) AB (b) AB2 (c) 4 th of body diagonal (c) AB3 (d) A2B. (d) body diagonal. 138. A solid AB has rock salt structure. If the edge 146. A crystalline compound AB adopts sodium chloride type structure with edge length of the length is 520 pm and radius of A+ is 80 pm, the unit cell as 745 pm and formula mass 74.5 u. radius of anion B– would be (a) 440 pm (b) 220 pm The density of the crystalline compound is: (c) 360 pm (d) 180 pm. (a) 2.16 g cm– 3 (b) 0.99 g cm– 3 139. Sodium crystallises in body centred cubic (c) 1.99 g cm– 3 (d) 1.197 g cm– 3. lattice, the edge length of unit cell being 424 147. Density of certain solid AB (formula mass = pm. The density will be 119) is 2.75 g cm–2. Edge length of unit cell is (a) 0.97 g cm– 3 (b) 1.24 g cm– 3 654 pm. What is/are about the solid ? (c) 0.86 g cm– 3 (d) 1.00 g cm– 3. (a) Structure is similar to zinc sulphide (b) There are four constituent per unit cell 140. How many four fold axes and three fold axes are there in a cube respectively? (a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3 (c) Unit cell constituted by anions is fcc (c) 3, 4 (d) 4, 3. (d) both b, c.

10 CHEMISTRY 148. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest (a) 269 pm (b) 13.5 pm neighbour distance 4.52 Å. If atomic mass of potassium is 39, its density is: (c) 136 pm (d) 3 pm. (a) 454 kg m– 3 (b) 804 kg m– 3 157. In certain binary compound XY, the ionic radius of X+ and Y– ions are respectively 88 pm and (c) 852 kg m– 3 (d) 900 kg m– 3. 200 pm. The co-ordination number of X+ in the 149. A given sample of an element having bcc crystal is: structure has 12.08 × 1023 unit cells. The (a) 4 (b) 3 number of atoms in the sample is: (c) 6 (d) 8. (a) 12.08. × 1023 (b) 24.16 × 1023 158. A sample of crystalline Cu2O is found to be non stoichiometric with Cu : O ratio less than 2 : 1. (c) 48.38 × 1023 (d) 12.08 × 1022. Pick up correct statement about the substance 150. A sample of wustite is Fe0.93O. The percentage (a) It is n-type semiconductor of iron present in the form of Fe(III) is (b) It is p-type of semiconductor (a) 15.05% (b) 25% (c) Suice Cu+ ions are less than required the substance is not electrically neutral (c) 7% (d) 20%. 151. In ccp arrangement of A and B atoms, A atoms (d) The crystal structure has metal-excess are at the corners of unit cell while B atoms defect. are at the face centres. In each unit cell, two atoms are missing from the two corners. The 159. Calcium crystallises in a face centred cubic simplest formula of the compound is: lattice and is reported to have 0.2% Schottky defects. If edge length of the unit cell is 5.7 × (a) A3B (b) AB4 10–8 cm, the density of the crystal is: (c) A7B24 (d) A6B7. (a) 1.54 g cm–3 (b) 1.02 g cm–3 152. Certain metal crystallizes in bcc lattice. The (c) 0.92 g cm–3 (d) 1.432 g cm3. distance between the nearest neighbours is 433 160. In a face centred cubic unit cell of element M identify the crystallographic plane which looks pm. The distance between the next nearest as given below: neighbours is: (a) 400 pm (b) 500 pm (c) 600 pm (d) 650 pm. 153. At what value of angle θ, the distance between two consective planes in a crystal is equal to the wavelength of the X-ray used. (Assume 1st order reflection) (a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 90°. 154. Ice crystallizes in hexagonal lattice. At certain (a)Face plane (b) Diagonal plane temperature, the density of ice was 0.94 g cm– (c) A plane parallel to the face and passing 3. The volume of the unit cell is 1.3 × 10–22 cm3. through face centres (d)A plane formed by three adjacent face The number of H2O molecules per unit cell is: diagonals. (a) 3 (b) 6 In n-type semiconductor formed by doping process, the dopant forms (c) 4 (d) 2. (a) acceptor band near the valence band 155. A certain oxide of metal M crystallizes in such 161. a way that O2– ions adopts HCP arrangement 162. (b) donor band near the valence band following ABAB ...... pattern. The metal ions, however occupy two third of the octahedral (c) acceptor band almost in the middle voids. The formula of the compound is: (d) donor band near the conduction band. (a) M2O3 (b) M3O Silver iodide crystalises and adopts sphalerite (c) M8/3O3 (d) MO2. structure with iodide ions occupying the fcc lattice points. The fraction of tetrahedral and 156. If the radius of K+ and F– are 133 pm and 136 pm respectively, the distance between K+ and F– in KF crystal is

THE SOLID STATE 11 octahedral voids occupied by Ag+ ions are (ii) Ca2+ ions form fcc lattice and F– ions occupy respectively all the eight tetrahedral voids of the unit cell. (a) 25%, 25% (b) 50%, 0 (c) 0, 50% (d) 50%, 25%. (iii) O2– ions form fcc lattice and Na+ ions occupy all the eight tetrahedral voids of the unit 163. Sapphire, a precions blue gem stone is an oxide cell. mineral of aluminium. It crystallises with aluminium atoms occupying 66.6% of the (iv) S2– ions form fcc lattice and Zn2+ ions go into octahedral voids in the closed packed array of alternate tetrahedral voids of the unit cell. oxygen atoms. The formula of (a) only in (i) (b) (i) and (iv) (a) Al2O3 (b) Al3O4 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) only in (iv) (c) AlO2 (d) Al3O2. Removing of right square pyramids from each corner of regular octahedron result in the 164. The crystals of cryolite mineral were found formation truncated octahedron as shown in diagram. Answer the Q 167–168 about truncated consist of closed packed array of (AlF6)3– units octahedron. and sodium ions occupying all the octahedral and tetrahedral voids. The formula of mineral is (a) NaAlF6 (b) Na3AlF6 (c) Na2AlF6 (d) Na4AlF6. 165. A perfect crystal of silicon is doped with some elements as shown in the following options. Which of these represent n-type semiconductors? I. II. As B Octahedron Truncated octahedron 167. How many hexagonal faces are present in 168. truncated octahedron ? (a) Four (b) Six III. IV. (c) Eight (d) Ten P Al The total number of faces and total number of vertices in truncated octahedron are respectively (a) 10, 20 (b) 14, 24 (a) (I) and (III) (b) (I) and (IV) (c) 8, 32 (d) 14, 36 (c) only (I) (d) (II) and (IV). 169. Which of the following is true about the charge acquired by p-type conductor ? 166. In which of the following structures co- ordination number for cations and anions in the (a) positive (b) negative packed structure will be same ? (c) no charge (d) depends on concentration of p-type impurity. (i) Cl– ion form fcc lattice and Na+ ions occupy all octahedral voids of the unit cell.

12 CHEMISTRY CASE BASED QUESTIONS Case Study 1 Case Study 2 Read the passage given below and answer the Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: following questions: In zinc blende structures anions are arranged An element occurs in the body centred cubic in ccp and cations are present in the tetrahedral voids and only half the tetrahedral voids are occupied. lattice with cell edge of 300 pm. The density of the element is 8.0 g cm3 . 1. The formula of the compounds having zinc 1. The number of atoms per unit cell is blende structure corresponds to (a) 6 (b) 4 (a) AB2 (b) A2B (c) 8 (d) 2 (c) AB (d) AB3 2. The coordination number of the element in the 2. The co-ordination numbers of cation and anion lattice is are respectively (a) 4 (b) 6 (a) 4 and 8 (b) 4 and 4 (c) 8 (d) 12 (c) 8 and 4 (d) 8 and 6 3. The number of nearest neighbours and the next 3. For this type of structure, radius ratio r+/r– nearest neighbours are respectively should be in the range (a) 4 and 6 (b) 4 and 8 (a) 0.225–0.414 (b) 0.155–0.225 (c) 8 and 8 (d) 8 and 6 (c) 0.414–0.732 (d) 0.732–1 4. The distance of closest approach between the 4. In this type of lattice, the number of cations two atoms of the element in the per unit cell is lattice is (a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 260 pm (b) 300 pm (c) 4 (d) 8 (c) 600 pm (d) 150 pm 5. If ‘a’ is the edge length of the unit cell then for 5. The atomic mass of the element is zinc blende structure the distance of closest (a) 65 (b) 60 approach between cation and anion is (c) 52 (d) 80 2a 3a (a) (b) 2 2 2a 3a (c) (d) 4 4

5. SURFACE CHEMISTRY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Choose the correct answer from the alternatives 8. Hydrophillic sols are stable due to given in each of the following questions : (a) Small size of the particle 1. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to (b) Large size of the particle (a) Scattering of light (c) Charge on the particle (b) Reflection of light (d) Attractive interaction between colloidal particles and the dispersion medium. (c) Absorption of light (d) Presence of electrically charged particles. 9. For the process of adsorption, ΔH is (a) Positive 2. Butter is a colloid containing (a) Fat dispersed in water (b) Negative (b) Fat dispersed in oil (c) Zero (c) Water dispersed in fat (d) May be positive or negative. (d) None of these. 10. Gold number is minimum for 3. Which of the following is not true for (a) Starch (b) Gelatin physisorption ? (c) Gum arabic (d) Albumin. (a) It is reversible 11. Fog is an example of (b) It occurs in the form of multimolecular (a) Foam (b) Aerosol layers (c) Gel (d) Emulsion. (c) It needs activation energy 12. Lyophilic sols have ...... between disperse phase and dispersion. (d) It increases with increase in pressure. 4. Colloidal particles in soap sol carry (a) strong attractive interaction (a) Negative charge (b) little attractive interaction (b) Positive charge (c) repulsive interaction (c) No charge (d) None of these. (d) Either positive or negative charge. 13. In which of the following respects the lyophilic sols do not differ from lyophobic sols ? 5. Which of the following is not used for purification of colloidal solutions? (a) Stability (a) Dialysis (b) Reversibility (b) Ultra-centrifugation (c) Particle size (c) Filteration (d) Behaviour towards dispersion medium. (d) Electrodialysis. 14. During electrophoresis of a colloidal solution, colloidal particles move towards 6. A colloidal solution of a solid as dispersed phase and liquid as dispersion medium is known as (a) Anode (a) Gel (b) Sol (b) Cathode (c) Solid foam (d) Emulsion. (c) Both cathode as well as anode 7. Protecting power of a lyophilic sol is expressed (d) Either cathode or anode. in terms of 15. Which of the following metallic sols cannot be (a) Coagulation value (b) Gold number prepared by Bredig’s arc method ? (c) Both of the above (d) None of these. (a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Platinum (d) Sodium. 52

SURFACE CHEMISTRY 53 16. A graph of extent of adsorption versus pressure 22. Which of the following statements is true for at constant temperature is called chemisorption ? (a) Adsorption isobar (a) It is reversible in nature (b) Adsorption isotherm (b) It is not specific in nature (c) Adsorption isostere (c) It exists in the form of monomolecular layer (d) None of these. (d) It occurs at low temperature. 17. Activated charcoal is good adsorbent for 23. A colloidal solution may be coagulated by (a) O2 (b) N2 (a) Adding electrolyte (c) H2 (d) CH4. (b) Heating 18. For physisorption, heat of adsorption is (c) Adding oppositely charged sol generally in the range (a) 20–40 kJ (b) 40–60 kJ (d) All of the above. (c) 100–150 kJ (d) 300–400 kJ. 24. Which of the following statements is not true for physisorption ? 19. Which of the following statements is not true for lyophilic sols ? (a) Extent of adsorption increases with increase in temperature (a) It is stable (b) Heat of adsorption is generally between (b) It can be prepared in high concentration 20–40 kJ/mole (c) Its colloidal particles are highly solvated (c) It is not specific (d) It is irreversible. (d) It undergoes desorption easily. 20. Arrange the following diagrams in correct 25. The average molecular mass of colloidal sequence of steps involved in the mechanism particles can be determined by study of of catalysis, in accordance with modern adsorption theory. (a) Elevation in boiling point (b) Osmotic pressure A A (c) Tyndall effect B B (d) Lowering of vapour pressure. (i) (ii) 26. Palladium is a good adsorbent for (a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) CO (d) H2. A 27. Surface tension of a lyophilic sol is generally B A ...... to/than that of the medium. B (a) equal (b) less (iii) (iv) (c) more (d) twice. A 28. Which adsorption does not take place at very + low temperature ? B (a) Physisorption (b) Chemisorption (v) (c) Both of the above (d) None of these. (a) (i) ⎯→ (ii) ⎯→ (iii) ⎯→ (iv) ⎯→ (v) 29. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of (b) (i) ⎯→ (iii) ⎯→ (ii) ⎯→ (iv) ⎯→ (v) (a) Charge (b) Particle size (c) (i) ⎯→ (iii) ⎯→ (ii) ⎯→ (v) ⎯→ (iv) (c) Shape of the particle (d) Solubility. (d) (i) ⎯→ (ii) ⎯→ (iii) ⎯→ (v) ⎯→ (iv) 30. Silver iodide is used for producing artificial rain because AgI 21. Brownian movement is a ...... property of colloidal solutions. (a) is easy to spray at high altitudes (a) Optical (b) Mechanical (b) is insoluble in water (c) Colligative (d) Electrical. (c) is a cheap chemical (d) has crystal structure similar to ice.

54 CHEMISTRY 31. When a colloidal solution is observed under an 41. Point out the false statement ultramicroscope, we can see (a) Colloidal sols are homogeneous (a) Light scattered by colloidal particles (b) Colloids carry + ve or – ve charge (b) Size of the particle (c) Colloids show Tyndall effect (c) Shape of the particle (d) The size range of colloidal particles is 10 – 1000 Å. (d) Relative size. 32. Which of the following colloidal solutions do 42. Which of the following is hydrophobic sol ? not contain negatively charged colloidal particles ? (a) Starch solution (b) Gum solution (a) Fe(OH)3 sol (b) As2S3 sol (c) Protein solution (c) Blood (d) Gold sol. (d) Arsenious sulphide solution. 33. Which of the following are macromolecular 43. Which one of the following is not a colloid ? colloids ? (a) Milk (b) Blood (a) Soap sol (b) Starch sol (c) Ice-cream (d) Urea solution. (c) Sulphide sol (d) Gold sol. 44. Smoke is an example of 34. Colloidal solutions can be purified by (a) Gas dispersed in liquid (a) Filteration (b) Dialysis (b) Gas dispersed in solid (c) Electrophoresis (d) Peptisation (c) Solid dispersed in gas 35. Lyophilic sols among the following are (d) Solid dispersed in solid. (a) Ferric hydroxide sol. (b) Blood 45. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in liquid is known as (c) Starch (d) Sulphur. (a) Foam (b) Sol 36. Which of the following statements are true for physisorption ? (c) Aerosol (d) Emulsion. (a) Extent of adsorption increases with increase 46. In adsorption of acetic acid on charcoal, the in pressure. acetic acid is (b) It needs activation energy. (a) Absorbent (b) Adsorbent (c) Absorbate (d) Adsorbate. (c) It is an endothermic process. 47. The size of the colloidal particles ranges between (d) It occurs at high temperature. 37. Which of the following will not cause the pre- (a) 10–2 to 10–3 cm (b) 10–3 to 10–5 cm cipitation of a lyophobic colloidal solution ? (c) 10–5 to 10–7 cm (d) 10–7 to 10–9 cm. (a) adding lyophilic colloid 48. When beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution ? (b) heating (c) adding electrolyte (a) It passes through as such (d) adding oppositely charged colloid. (b) It is reflected 38. For adsorption of a gas on solid adsorbent (c) It is scattered (a) ΔH is positive (b) ΔS is positive (d) It is completely absorbed. (c) ΔG is negative (d) ΔU is positive. 49. Colloidal solutions are classified on the basis of 39. Which of the following is a hydrophobic sols ? (a) Molecular size (a) Protein sol (b) Starch sol (b) Size of colloidal particles (c) Gum sol (d) Fe(OH)3 sol. (c) Organic or inorganic 40. The colloidal sols are not purified by (d) Surface tension. (a) peptisation 50. The best coagulant for the precipitation of (b) Electro dialysis Fe(OH)3 is (c) dialysis (a) Na3PO4 (b) NaNO3 (d) Ultra centrifugation. (c) Na2SO4 (d) NaCl.

SURFACE CHEMISTRY 55 51. Colloidal solutions are purified by all except 60. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating power for arsenious (a) Crystallisation (b) Ultra filteration sulphide sol ? (c) Ultra centrifugation (d) Dialysis. 52. The colloidal solution of a solid as dispersed (a) NaCl (b) CaCl2 phase and a gas as the dispersion medium is known as (c) MgSO4 (d) AlCl3. 61. In the preparation of AgI sol, the excess of (a) Sol (b) Gel AgNO3 is added to potassium iodide solution. The particles of the sol will acquire (c) Aerosol (d) Solid foam. 53. Gel is a system of (a) negative charge (b) positive charge (a) Solid disperse phase—liquid dispersion (c) no charge (d) unpredictable. medium 62. Which of the following electrolytes has (b) Solid disperse phase—solid dispersion maximum coagulating power for ferric medium hydroxide sol ? (c) Liquid disperse phase—solid dispersion (a) Na3PO4 (b) Na2SO4 medium (c) MgCl2 (d) AlCl3. (d) Liquid disperse phase—liquid dispersion medium. 63. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid 54. The difference between lyophilic and lyophobic adsorbent and a gas adsorbate is termed as colloids is in their (a) Aerosol (b) Liquid aerosol (a) Particle size (c) Foam (d) Gel. (b) Filterability 64. Which of the following statements is not true for a lyophobic sol ? (c) Behaviour towards dispersion medium (a) It is irreversible (b) It is less stable (d) None of the above is correct. (c) It carries charges 55. Alum purifies muddy water by (d) Its colloidal particles are highly solvated. (a) Dialysis (b) Coagulation 65. Migration of colloidal particles under the (c) Electrophoresis (d) Emulsification. influence of an electric field is known as 56. Detergent action of soaps is due to (a) Electro-dialysis (b) Electro-osmosis (a) Coagulation (c) Electrophoresis (d) None of these. (b) Emulsification properties 66. Colloidal solution of metals like gold, platinum, etc. can be obtained by (c) Ionisation (d) High molecular mass. (a) Bredig’s arc method (b) Peptisation 57. The hydrophobic colloid among the following (c) Hydrolysis of their salts is (d) Oxidation of their salts. (a) Gelatin (b) Starch 67. Which of the following is homogeneous ? (c) Sulphur (d) Albumin. (a) an emulsion (b) a sol 58. The electrical charge on colloidal particles is (c) a suspension (d) none of these. indicated by 68. In physical adsorption the gas molecules are (a) Brownian movement (b) Electrophoresis bound on the solid surface by (c) Ultramicroscope (d) Tyndall effect. (a) Chemical forces 59. Lyophobic colloids have (b) Electrostatic forces (a) Little interaction with the dispersion (c) Graphical forces medium (d) van der Waal’s forces. (b) Strong interaction with the dispersion 69. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium medium is a solid, the colloid is known as (c) Medium interaction with the dispersion (a) A sol (b) A gel medium (c) An emulsion (d) A foam. (d) None of the above statements is true.

56 CHEMISTRY 70. Which of the following can form colloidal 80. Which of the following is the most effective in solution with water ? the coagulation of gold sol ? (a) NaCl (b) Glucose (a) NaNO3 (b) MgCl2 (c) Starch (d) Barium nitrate. (c) Na3PO4 (d) K4[Fe(CN)6]. 71. Freundlich adsorption isotherm is applicable 81. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease ? to adsorptions involving (a) Colloidal sulphur (a) Unimolecular layers (b) Colloidal antimony (b) Multimolecular layers (c) Colloidal gold (c) Both of the above (d) Colloidal silver. (d) None of these. 82. Cod liver oil is 72. Butter is an example of a/an (a) Fat dispersed in water (a) Emulsion (b) Gel (b) Water dispersed in fat (c) Solid foam (d) Sol. (c) Water dispersed in oil 73. Fe(OH)3 sol is prepared in the presence of a (d) Fat dispersed in fat. little excess of FeCl3, the charge on the colloidal particles would be 83. The ability of an ion to bring about coagulation of a given colloid depends on (a) Negative (b) Positive (a) its size (c) Neutral (d) None of these. (b) the magnitude of its charge 74. Metallic sols are generally prepared by Bredig’s (c) the sign of the charge alone arc method. The method involves (d) both magnitude and sign of its charge. (a) Dispersion (b) Condensation 84. At CMC the surfactant molecules (c) Dispersion followed by condensation (a) decompose (d) Condensation followed by dispersion. (b) become completely soluble 75. Coagulation value of an electrolyte is expressed (c) associate in units of (d) dissociate. (a) moles per litre 85. Which of the following kinds of catalysis can (b) millimoles/litre be explained by the adsorption theory ? (c) milligrams per litre (a) Homogeneous catalysis (d) millimoles per millilitre. (b) Acid-base catalysis 76. Which of the following is less than zero during (c) Heterogeneous catalysis adsorption ? (d) Enzyme catalysis. (a) ΔG (b) ΔS 86. Which of the following will have the least coagulating power for arsenious sulphide sol ? (c) ΔH (d) All of the above. 77. Which is adsorbed in maximum amount by (a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ activated charcoal ? (c) Al3+ (d) Ca2+. (a) N2 (b) CO2 87. Which of the following electrolytes will have (c) Cl2 (d) O2. maximum flocculation value for Fe(OH)3 sol ? 78. Which of the following constitute irreversible (a) NaCl (b) Na2S colloidal system in water as dispersion medium (c) (NH4)3PO4 (d) K2SO4. (a) Clay (b) Platinum 88. Bredig’s arc method for the preparation of (c) Fe(OH)3 (d) All of the above. metallic sols involves 79. The stability of lyophilic colloid is due to which (a) Dispersion of the following ? (b) Condensation (a) Charge on their particles (c) Dispersion as well as condensation (b) Large size of their particles (d) Neither dispersion nor condensation. (c) Small size of their particles (d) A layer of dispersion medium.

SURFACE CHEMISTRY 57 89. When a river enters the sea, a delta is formed. 99. An arsenious sulphide sol carries a negative Formation of delta is due to charge. The maximum precipitating power for this sol is possessed by (a) Peptization (b) Coagulation (c) Emulsification (d) Dialysis. (a) K2SO4 (b) CaCl2 (c) Na3PO4 (d) Al2(SO4)3. 90. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-cream in 100. Which of the following are examples of order to aerosols? (a) prevent forming the colloidal sol (b) enrich the fragrance (a) Whipped cream (b) Tooth paste (c) prevent crystallisation and stabilise the mix (c) Fog (d) Soap lather. (d) modify the taste. 101. Which of the following is a hydrophilic colloidal sol ? 91. Which of the following is an example of associated colloid ? (a) Barium sulphate sol (a) Polyethylene sol (b) Rubber sol (b) Arsenious sulphide sol (c) PVC sol (d) Soap sol. (c) Gum sol 92. Which of the following is true for a Gel ? (d) Silver iodide sol. (a) Solid as disperse phase 102. Surface tension of hydrophilic sols is (b) Liquid as dispersion medium (a) Lower than water (b) More than water (c) Both of the above (c) Equal to water (d) None of these. (d) None of these. 103. The colour of the colloidal particles of gold obtained by different methods differ because 93. Migration of colloidal particles under the effect of of an electric field is known as (a) Electro-osmosis (b) Electro-phoresis (a) variable valency of gold (c) Electro-dialysis (d) Dialysis. (b) different concentration of gold particles 94. The colour of standard gold sol is (c) different type of impurities (a) blue (b) red (d) different diameters of colloidal particles. (c) purple (d) green. 104. Which of the following statements is not correct? 95. The emulsifying agent in milk is (a) Casein (b) Lactic acid (a) Physical adsorption is due to van der Waal’s forces (c) Lactose (d) Citric acid. 96. Gold number gives (b) Chemical adsorption decreases at high temperature and low pressure (a) The amount of gold present in the colloid (b) The amount of gold required to break the (c) Physical adsorption is reversible colloid (d) Adsorption energy for a phyical adsorption (c) The amount of gold required to protect the is generally greater than that of chemical colloid adsorption. (d) None of these. 105. Soap is a sodium salt of higher fatty acids. When soap is added to water, the colloidal 97. The Brownian movement is due to solution obtained contains ...... colloidal particles. (a) Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase (b) Attraction and repulsion between charges (a) Positively charged on the colloidal particles (b) Negatively charged (c) Impact of molecules of the dispersion (c) Neutral in nature medium on the colloidal particles (d) Not ionized. (d) Convective currents. 106. Cottrell precipitator works on the principle of 98. Which one of the following substances gives a (a) Distribution law positively charged sol ? (b) Addition of electrolytes (a) Gold (b) A metal sulphide (c) Le-Chatelier’s principle (c) Ferric hydroxide (d) An acidic dye. (d) Neutralization of charge on colloids.

58 CHEMISTRY 107. Which of the following statements is true for (a) High concentration of dispersed phase can physical adsorption ? be easily attained (a) It is also known as Langmuir adsorption (b) These are irreversible in nature (b) Heat of adsorption is about 100 kJ mol–1 (c) Viscosity and surface tension are about the same as for water (c) Extent of adsorption increases with increase in temperature (d) The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium ; it may be positive, (d) It is not specific. negative or even zero. 108. Which of the following statements is not true ? 117. In the preparation of AgI sol, excess of KI (a) Milk is an example of an emulsion solution is added to AgNO3 solution. The charge on the colloidal particles would be (b) Boot-polish is an example of a gel (c) Clouds are an example of liquid aerosol (a) Positive (b) Negative (d) Cheese is an example of solid sol. (c) No charge (d) Unpredictable. 109. For adsorption of a gas on the solid adsorbent 118. A negatively charged suspension of clay in water will need for precipitation the minimum (a) ΔH is positive amount of (b) ΔS is positive (c) ΔH is negative and ΔS is positive (a) Aluminium chloride (d) Both ΔH as well as ΔS are negative. (b) Potassium sulphate 110. Gels on standing exude small amount of liquid. (c) Sodium hydroxide This phenomenon is known as (a) Efflorescence (b) Synerisis (d) Hydrochloric acid. (c) Thixotropy (d) Adsorption. 119. Flocculation value is expressed in terms of 111. The ability of an ion to bring about coagulation (a) millimoles of electrolyte per litre of solution of a given colloid depends upon (b) moles of electrolyte per litre of solution (a) Its size (c) grams of electrolyte per litre of solution (b) The magnitude of its charge only (d) millimoles of electrolyte per millilitre of solution. (c) The sign of its charge alone (d) Both magnitude and sign of its charge. 120. On adding one ml solution of 10% NaCl to 10 ml gold sol in the presence of 0.25 gm of starch, 112. Some gels are semi-solid when at rest but the coagulation is just prevented. Starch has change to liquid sol on agitation. This the gold number reversible sol-gel transformation is known as (a) Synerisis (b) Swelling (a) 0.025 (b) 0.25 (c) Thixotropy (d) Flocculation. (c) 2.5 (d) 250. 113. In which of the following, Tyndall effect is not 121. Which of the following statements are true ? observed ? (a) Soap solution contains ionic micelles as the (a) Suspensions (b) Emulsions colloidal particles (c) Sugar solution (d) Gold sol. (b) A water in oil emulsion easily spreads over surface of water 114. Which of the following will have the highest (c) Chemisorption is non-specific coagulating power for As2S3 colloid ? (d) Chemisorption occurs in the form of (a) PO43– (b) SO42– multimolecular layers. (c) Al3+ (d) Na+. 122. Which of the following is most effective in coagulating a ferric hydroxide sol ? 115. Which of the following is most favourable for van der Waal’s adsorption ? (a) High pressure and high temperature (a) KCl (b) KNO3 (b) Low pressure and low temperature (c) Low pressure and high temperature (c) K2SO4 (d) K3[Fe(CN)6]. (d) High pressure and low temperature. 123. The coagulating power of an electrolyte for arsenius sulphide sol decreases in the order 116. Which one of the following is not a property of (a) Na+, Al3+, Ba2+ (b) PO43–, SO42–, Cl– hydrophilic sols ? (c) Al3+, Ba2+, Na+ (d) Cl–, SO42–, PO43–.

SURFACE CHEMISTRY 59 124. Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding 130. The STEM (Scanning Transmission Electron because Microscope) is used to determine (a) Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a (a) Charge of the colloid negatively charged sol (b) Size of the colloid (b) Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a (c) Colour of the colloid positively charged sol (d) Nature of the colloid. (c) Cl– ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol 131. Which of the following statements is not correct for lyophobic sols ? (d) Cl– ions coagulate blood which is a positively charged sol. (a) They have surface tension and viscosity similar to that of medium 125. Which of the following electrolytes will have minimum coagulation value for aluminium (b) Their particles are easily detected under hydroxide sol ? ultra-microscope (a) KCl (b) KNO3 (c) The particles migrate in one direction in an electric field (c) K2CrO4 (d) K4[Fe(CN)6]. (d) Electrolytes cannot cause their coagulation. 126. Which of the following processes forms the 132. Which of the following statements is not correct basis of purification of muddy water by addition for lyophilic sols ? of alum ? (a) Flocculation (b) Emulsification (a) Surface tension of a lyophilic sol is often lower than that of the medium (c) Peptisation (d) Dispersion. (b) Viscosity is much higher than that of 127. Which of the following statements is not true ? medium (a) Blood is a positively charged sol (c) The particles may migrate in either direction or not at all in an electric field (b) Soap solution contains ionic micelles as the colloidal particles (d) Their particles can be easily detected under ultra-microscope. (c) An oil in water emulsion easily spreads over surface of water 133. Which of the following statements is not correct? (d) Colloidal particles have dimensions in the range 10–7 to 10–5 cm. (a) Foam consists of gas as dispersed phase liquid as dispersion medium 128. Which of the following is the correct expression for Freundlich adsorption isotherm ? (b) Smoke, dust, fog, mist and cloud are examples of aerosols (a) x = log k + 1 log p (c) Sols of metals, metal sulphides, sulphur, mn acidic dyes are negatively charged. (b) log p = log k + log x (d) Among gelatin, gum arabic and potato m starch, gelatin has the highest gold number. (c) x = kpn 134. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of m log x/m vs log p is linear with slope equal to (n being whole number) (d) x = kp1/n. m (a) k (b) log k 129. Which of the following statements is not true (d) 1 . for chemisorption ? n (c) n (a) It is highly specific 135. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical (b) Involves strong interactions between field. The particles move towards anode. The adsorbent and adsorbate coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, (c) Extent of adsorption always decreases with increase in temperature BaCl2 and AlCl3 solutions. Their co-agulating power should be (d) Adsorption is restricted to monomolecular layers.

60 CHEMISTRY (a) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 140. Which of the following curves is in accordance (b) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl with Freundlich adsorption isotherm? (c) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl (a) (b) (d) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3. 136. Colloidal silver is obtained by reduction of log x/m log x/m silver nitrate solution with (a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Sucrose (d) Hydrogen (H2). p p 137. The Rubin number which was proposed by (c) (d) Ostwald as an alternative to the Gold number in order to measure the protective efficiency of a lyophilic colloid may be defined as the log x/m log x/m (a) mass in milligrams of a colloid per 100 c.c. log p log p of solution which just prevents the colour change of standard sol of dye Congo-Rubin 141. The term ‘sorption’ is generally used for ...... . from red to violet when 0.16 g eq. KCl is (a) absorption added to it. (b) desorption (c) both absorption and adsorption (b) mass in grams of a colloid per 100 c.c. of (d) both adsorption and desorption. solution which just prevents the colour change of standard sol of dye Congo-Rubin 142. Which of the following curves correctly from red to violet when 0.1 M KCl is added represents Freundlich adsorption isotherm? to it. (c) mass in grams of a colloid per 100 c.c. of (a) (b) log x/m ® solution which just prevents the colour log x/m ® change of standard sol of dye Congo-Rubin from red to violet when 0.2 M KCl is added to it (d) mass in grams of a colloid per 100 c.c. of log p ® p® solution which just prevents the colour change of standard sol of dye Congo-Rubin (c) (d) from red to violet when 1 M KCl is added to log x/m ® log x/m ® it. 138. Point out the false statement (a) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect is log p ® p® shown by colloidal systems (b) Gold number is a measure of the protective 143. In which of the following binary systems, the power of a lyophilic colloid interface can never be formed? (c) The colloidal solution of a liquid in liquid is (a) liquid-liquid (b) solid-liquid called gel (d) Hardy-Schulze rule is related with (c) liquid-gas (d) gas-gas. coagulation. 144. Which process among the following does not 139. On the basis of data given below predict which occur at the interface of phases? of the following gases shows least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal? (a) rusting of iron (b) heterogenous catalysis Gas CO2 SO2 CH4 H2 (c) homogeneous catalysis Critical temp./K 304 630 190 33 (d) crystallisation of salt. (a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) CH4 (d) H2

SURFACE CHEMISTRY 61 145. Delta is a place where rivers meet the sea. The 149. Which of the following electrolytes has highest formation of delta occurs as a result of coagulating value for AgI/Ag+ sol? (a) Co-agulation (b) Colloid formation (a) NaCl (b) Na3PO4 (c) Emulsification (d) Syneresis (c) Na2SO4 (d) Na2S. 146. The process shown in the diagram is based on 150. At high concentration of soap in water, soap (a) peptisation (b) filtration behaves as: (c) absorption (d) adsorption. (a) macromolecular colloid (b) molecular colloid (c) associated colloid Solution of raw sugar (d) lyophilic colloid. (yellowish brown) 151. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect? Column of animal (a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical charcoal micelle concentration Colourless (b) Aqueous solution of soap above critical solution of micelle concentration. sugar (c) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride (d) Aqueous solution of sugar. 152. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected. (a) By addition of oppositely charged sol 147. Which arrangement of diagrams A–E (b) By addition of an electrolyte represent, the correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of heterogeneous catalysis? (c) By addition of lyophilic sol XX (d) By boiling. Y 153. Which of the following gases shows lowest adsorption per gram of charcoal? The critical temperatures are given in parenthesis. Y B (a) H2 (33 K) A (b) CH4 (190 K) (c) SO2 (630 K) X X (d) CO2 (304 K). Y + 154. Extent of adsorption of adsorbate from solution C Y phase increases with D (a) increase in amount of adsorbate in solution X (b) decrease in surface area of adsorbent Y (c) increase in temperature of solution E (d) decrease in amount of adsorbate in solution. (a) A → C → D → E → B 155. Which one of the following does not apply to the phenomenon of adsorption? (b) A → C → E → B → D (a) ΔH < 0 (b) ΔG < 0 (c) A → B → C → D → E (c) ΔS < 0 (d) ΔS > 0. (d) A → E → D → C → B. 156. Which condition as given below is not favourable for physical adsorption? 148. What is the generalised name given to colloidal system having solid as dispersed phase and a (a) low pressure liquid as dispersion medium? (b) negative ΔH (a) Sol (b) Emulsion (c) higher critical temperature of adsorbate (c) Gel (d) Solid sol. (d) low temperature.

62 CHEMISTRY 157. Which of the following condition may change 159. The values of colligative properties of colloidal physisorption of a gas to chemisorption? solution are of small order in comparison to (a) decrease in temperature those shown by true solutions of same (b) increase in temperature concentration because the colloidal particles (c) increase in surface area of adsorbent ..... . (d) decrease in surface area of adsorbent. (a) exhibit enormous surface area 158. In physisorption, adsorbent does not show specificity for any particular gas because (b) remain suspended in the dispersion medium (a) van der Waals forces involved are universal (b) gases involved behave like ideal gases (c) form lyophilic colloids (c) enthalpy of adsorption is low (d) it is a reversible process. (d) are comparatively less in number. 160. Which of the following process can convert the freshly prepared precipitate into colloidal solution? (a) Electrolysis (b) Peptisation (c) Co-agulation (d) Diffusion. CASE BASED QUESTIONS Case Study 1 4. Which of the following is known as Langmuir adsorption isotherm? Read the passage given below and answer the (a) x/m = kP1/n following questions: 1 Adsorption is spontaneous process and involves (b) log x/m = log k + n log P unequal distribution of the molecules of the gaseous substance on the surface and the bulk of solid or liquid. (c) x/m = aP Adsorption is exothermic process. The attractive forces 1 + bP between adsorbate and adsorbent are either van der Waal forces or chemical bonds. Adsorption of gases (d) x/m = kP. on solids is generally controlled by the factors like 5. Which of the following graph represents the temperature, pressure and nature of adsorbate and adsorbent. variation of physical adsorption with temperature? 1. Which of the following gases undergoes x x maximum adsorption on 1 g of charcoal at room temperature (288 K). The critical temperature (a) m (b) m of the gases is given in parenthesis. t t (a) CO2 (304 K) (b) NH3 (406 K) (c) N2(126 K) (d) HCl (324 K). x x 2. In physisorption process the attractive forces (c) m (d) m between adsorbate and adsorbent are t t (a) Covalent bonds (b) Ionic bonds Case Study 2 (c) van der Waal forces Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (d) H-bonds. Colloidal sol is a heterogeneous solution in which the 3. What is not true about chemisorption? dispersed phase exhibits a particle size between 1 nm – 103 nm. Surfactant molecules form true (a) It is also called Langmuir adsorption solutions at low concentration but they get associated at high concentration to form clusters having the (b) The extent of adsorption is generally related dimensions of colloids. Lyophobic sols are generally to ease of liquefaction of gases unstable and are stabilised by addition of protective (c) It is irreversible (d) It is highly specific.

SURFACE CHEMISTRY 63 colloids. The protecting power of the protective colloids 3. Which of the following are lyophobic sol among is expressed in terms of gold number. Smaller the the following value of gold number of the protective colloid higher will be its protecting power. I. Gelatin II. As2S3 sol III. Starch IV. Gold sol. 1. In a heterogeneous liquid mixture, the particle size greater than 103 nm refer to (a) I and II (b) II and IV (a) Macromolecule colloids (b) Associate colloids (c) III and IV (d) II, III. (c) True solutions (d) Suspension. 4. Which of the following colloides has highest protecting power? The respective gold numbers 2. The cluster of surfactant molecules formed at are given in parenthesis higher concentration to attain colloidal dimensions is generally called (a) Potato starch (25) (a) Cage (b) Micelle (b) Dextrin (15) (c) Gel (d) Multimolecular colloid. (c) Gum Arabic (0.25) (d) Sodium oleate (0.4) 5. In order to prevent precipitation of 80 mL of standard gold sol by adding 1 ml of 10% NaCl solution, 0.2 g of a protective colloid is required. The gold number of the protective colloid is (a) 0.2 (b) 200 (c) 20 (d) 25

8. d- AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Choose the correct answer from the alternatives 10. In the first transition series, the element which given in each of the following questions : shows highest oxidation state has the electronic configuration 1. The general outer electronic configuration of transition elements is (a) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (b) [Ar] 3d5 4s2 (c) [Ar] 3d6 4s2 (d) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 (a) (n – 1)d1–10 ns1 (b) (n – 1)d10 ns2 (c) (n – 1)d1–10 ns1–2 (d) (n – 1)d5 ns1. 11. Which of the following transition metals does not occur in nature ? 2. Which one of the following does not show different oxidation states in its compounds? (a) Tc (b) Zr (a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Mo (d) Hf. (c) Zinc (d) Manganese. 12. Oxidation number of chromium is + 6 in 3. In the first transition series, the element with (a) Cr2O3 (b) CrO5 the highest melting point is (c) CrOCl2 (d) K2CrO4. (a) Mn (b) Fe (c) Cr (d) Cu. 13. Which of the following sulphides is black in colour ? 4. The most common oxidation state of (a) NiS (b) ZnS lanthanoids is (c) MnS (d) CdS. (a) + 4 (b) + 3 14. Which one of the following does not show different oxidation states ? (c) + 6 (d) + 2. 5. The most abundant transition element is (a) Chromium (b) Copper (a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Cadmium (d) Manganese. (c) Aluminium (d) Zinc. 15. Which of the following metals is used in incandescent lamps ? 6. Among transition elements the element with lowest melting point belongs to group (a) Chromium (b) Tungsten (a) 3 (b) 11 (c) Zirconium (d) Molybdenum. 16. Which ion gives coloured solution ? (c) 6 (d) 12. (a) Cu+ (b) Zn2+ (c) Ag+ (d) Fe2+. 7. Which of the following oxides is acidic in nature? 17. Paramagnetism is a property of (a) CrO (b) Cr2O3 (a) completely filled electronic subshells (c) CrO3 (d) CrO2. (b) unpaired electrons 8. Which of the following is likely to form white (c) non-transition elements salts ? (d) elements with noble gas configuration. (a) Cu2+ (b) Sc3+ 18. Which one of the following metals is used as a (c) Ti3+ (d) Fe3+. catalyst in the Haber’s process ? 9. Which of the following has the maximum (a) Tungsten number of unpaired electrons ? (b) Molybdenum (a) Fe2+ (b) Cr3+ (c) Chromium (c) Fe3+ (d) Co2+. (d) Iron containing molybdenum. 81

82 CHEMISTRY 19. Which of the following transition metals has 29. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid the highest density ? solution, the decolourisation is slow in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after (a) Pt (b) Hg some time because _________ . (c) Pd (d) Os. (a) CO2 is formed as the product. (b) Reaction is exothermic. 20. Which transition metal shows lowest oxidation (c) Mn2+ acts as autocatalyst. state in its compounds with chlorine ? (d) MnO4– catalyses the reaction. 30. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in acidic (a) Fe (b) Ti medium. The number of moles of KMnO4 required to oxidize one mole of sulphide ions (c) Cu (d) Zn. in acidic medium is _________ . 21. Pyrolusite is an ore of (a) Scandium (b) Titanium (c) Manganese (d) Chromium. 22. The maximum magnetic moment is shown by (a) 1 (b) 2 the ion with electronic configuration of 5 5 (a) 3d5 (b) 3d6 3 4 (c) 3d7 (d) 3d8. 5 (d) 5 23. The first man-made element belongs to ...... (c) transition series 31. Which of the following is not the characteristic (a) 3d (b) 4d property of interstitial compounds ? (c) 5d (d) 6d. (a)They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals. 24. Which of the following ions contains maximum number of unpaired electrons ? (b)They are very hard. (a) Zn2+ (b) Fe2+ (c) They retain metallic conductivity. (c) Fe3+ (d) Cr3+. (d)They are chemically very reactive. 25. The electronic configuration of Cu2+ ion is 32. Which of the following sulphides is yellow in colour ? (a) [Ar] 3d7 4s2 (b) [Ar] 3d8 4s1 (c) [Ar] 3d9 4s0 (d) [Ar] 3d10. (a) ZnS (b) NiS 26. The oxidation number of manganese is (c) CdS (d) MgS. maximum in 33. The metal present in vitamin B-12 is (a) MnSO4 (b) MnO2 (a) Copper (b) Iron (c) K2MnO4 (d) KMnO4. (c) Cobalt (d) Zinc. 27. Highest oxidation state of manganese in 34. Which transition metal is known as ‘Wonder fluoride is +4 [MnF4] but highest oxidation metal’ ? state in oxides is +7 [Mn2O7]. Oxygen can bring out higher oxidation state because ________. (a) Tungsten (b) Platinum (a)fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen. (c) Iron (d) Titanium. (b)fluorine stabilises lower oxidation states. 35. The spin only magnetic moment of a species is related to the number of unpaired electrons by (c) fluorine does not possess d-orbitals. the equation (d)in covalent compounds fluorine can form (a) μ = n(n + 2) (b) μ = n(n + 1) single bond only while oxygen can form double bond. (c) μ = n(n + 2) (d) μ = n(n + 1). 28. On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to 36. Which of the following metals ions is colourless concentrated H2SO4, a green oily compound is in aqueous solution ? obtained which is highly explosive in nature. The compound is _________ . (a) V2+ (b) Cr3+ (a) Mn2O7 (b) Mn2O3 (c) Zn2+ (d) Fe3+. (c) MnSO4 (d) MnO2 37. Chromite ore has the formula (a) FeCr2O4 (b) Cr2O3 (c) MnO2 (d) FeCr2O7.

d- AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS 83 38. In + 3 state, the electronic configuration of a 48. When MnO2 is fused with KOH in air, it gives transition metal is [Ar]3d4. The electronic (a) KMnO4 (b) Mn3O4 configuration of the metal is (c) K2MnO4 (d) Mn(OH)2. (a) [Ar] 3d5 4s2 (b) [Ar] 3d1 (c) [Ar] 4s1 4p3 (d) [Ar] 3d1 4p1. 49. Which of the following ions is expected to have the highest magnetic moment ? 39. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (a) Mn2+ (b) Cr3+ (At. No. 64) is (c) Zn2+ (d) Cu2+ (a) [Xe] 4f8 5d9 6s2 (b) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 50. Which of the following is the weakest base ? (c) [Xe] 4f3 5d5 6s2 (d) [Xe] 4f6 5d2 6s2. (a) NaOH (b) Ca(OH)2 40. The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for (c) KOH (d) Zn(OH)2. the fact that 51. AgNO3 solution is kept in brown bottles because (a) Zr and Y have almost the same radius (b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state (a) It reacts with ordinary bottles (c) Zr and Hf have almost the same radius (b) Ordinary bottles catalyse the decomposition of AgNO3 (d) Zr and Zn have same oxidation state. (c) Brown bottles cut the passage of light 41. In permangnate ion MnO4–, manganese has an through it oxidation number of + 7. Therefore it is (a) sp3 d3 hybridised (b) sp3 hybridised (d) None of the above answers is correct. (c) dsp2 hybridised (d) d3 sp3 hybridised. 52. Colour in transition metal compounds is due to 42. On heating ammonium dichromate, the gas evolved is (a) small size metal ions (a) Oxygen (b) Ammonia (b) absorption of light in UV region (c) Nitrous oxide (d) Nitrogen. (c) complete (n s) subshell (d) incomplete (n – 1) d subshell. 43. The correct formula of permanganic acid is 53. The 3d elements show variable oxidation states. What is the maximum oxidation state (a) HMnO4 (b) HMnO5 shown by the element Mn ? (c) H2MnO4 (d) H2MnO3. (a) + 6 (b) + 7 44. The partial ionic equation Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e– ⎯→ 2Cr3+ + 7H2O (c) + 4 (d) + 5. suggests that the equivalent mass of Cr2O72– 54. The 3d metals ions are generally paramagnetic will be equal to its formula mass divided by in nature because (a) 3 (b) 6 (a) They form coloured salts (c) 1 (d) 14. (b) They have one or more unpaired d-electrons 45. Identify the species with an atom in + 6 (c) They have one or more paired s-electrons oxidation state. (d) They are reducing agents. (a) MnO4– (b) Cr(CN)63– 55. Which element among the lanthanoids has the smallest atomic radius ? (c) NiF62– (d) CrO2Cl2. (a) Cerium (b) Lutetium 46. Which of the following will not give coloured (c) Europium (d) Gadolinium. complex ion ? 56. Which of the following oxides of chromium is (a) Sc+3 (b) Ti+3 amphoteric in nature ? (c) V3+ (d) Cr3+. (a) CrO (b) Cr2O3 47. Which one of the following is not a condition (c) CrO3 (d) CrO5. for complex salt formation ? (a) Small atomic size 57. Ammonium dichromate is used in some (b) High nuclear charge fireworks. The green coloured powder blown (c) Variable oxidation states in air is (d) Availability of vacant d-orbitals. (a) CrO3 (b) Cr2O3 (c) Cr (d) CrO(O2).

84 CHEMISTRY 58. The highest oxidation state is exhibited by the 69. Which of the following complexes is expected to be diamagnetic ? transition metal with electronic configuration (a) (n – 1) d5 ns1 (b) (n – 1) d5 ns2 (a) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ (b) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Sc(H2O)6]3+. (c) (n – 1) d8 ns2 (d) (n – 1) d6 ns2. 59. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic 70. Which of the following species has O—O radii because bond ? (a) of diagonal relationship (a) Cr2O3 (b) CrO5 (c) Cr2O72– (d) CrO42–. (b) both are in the same group (c) of lanthanide contraction 71. Which of the following oxides is acidic in (d) they have same outermost shell. nature? 60. Paramagnetism is a property of (a) Mn2O3 (b) Mn3O4 (a) completely filled electronic subshells (c) MnO2 (d) Mn2O7. (b) unpaired electrons 72. In alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodides to (c) non transition elements (d) completely filled energy shells. (a) Iodic acid (b) Iodates 61. When KMnO4 acts as oxidising agent in acidic (c) Iodine (d) Periodic acid. medium, the oxidation number of Mn decreases by 73. Which of the following oxides are acidic in nature ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5. (a) V2O5 (b) MnO 62. Ag+ ion is isoelectronic with (c) Cr2O3 (d) MnO2. (a) Cu+ (b) Cd2+ 74. When manganese dioxide is fused with KOH (c) Zn2+ (d) Pd2+. in air, it gives 63. Which of the following would be diamagnetic ? (a) potassium permanganate (a) Cu2+ (b) Ni2+ (b) potassium manganate (c) Cd2+ (d) Ti3+. (c) manganese hydroxide 64. Which of the following would be paramagnetic? (d) Mn3O4. (a) Zn2+ (b) Cu+ 75. Boiling CuCl2 with Cu in conc. HCl gives (c) Sc3+ (d) Mn2+. (a) CuCl (b) CuCl3 65. An acidified solution of KMnO4 oxidises (c) Cu2Cl (d) None of these. (a) sulphates (b) oxalates 76. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one mole of iodide ions is (c) iodine (d) ferric salts. 66. Oxidation state of chromium in chromic acid (a) 3 (b) 1/3 is (c) 6 (d) 1/6. (a) 0 (b) + 7 77. Chromyl chloride when dissolved in NaOH solution gives yellow solution. The yellow (c) + 3 (d) + 6. solution contains 67. Which of the following species has 5 unpaired (a) Cr2O72– (b) CrO42– ions electrons ? (a) Mn2+ (b) Cr2+ (c) CrO5 (d) Cr2O3. (c) Cr3+ (d) Fe2+. 78. Chromic acid reacts with hydrogen chloride to 68. Which of the following ions is likely to form form white complexes ? (a) Cr2O3 (b) CrO5 (a) Cd2+ (b) Pd+2 (c) HCrO4– (d) CrO2Cl2. (c) Ti3+ (d) Cr3+. 79. Among the following, the compound that is paramagnetic and coloured is (a) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (b) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (c) K3[Cu(CN)4] (d) KMnO4.

d- AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS 85 80. In alkaline medium, the equivalent mass of (c) They can form ionic or covalent compounds (d) They do not exhibit variable valency. KMnO4 (Molecular mass = M) is (a) M/2 (b) M/4 91. Acidified potassium dichromate is treated with hydrogen sulphide. In the reaction the (c) M/5 (d) M/3. oxidation number of chromium 81. When chromite ore is fused with NaOH in the presence of air, the product formed is (a) increases from + 3 to + 6 (a) Na2Cr2O7 (b) Cr2O3 (b) decreases from + 6 to + 3 (c) Na2CrO4 (d) K2Cr2O7. (c) remains unchanged 82. Which of the following can act as oxidising agent ? (d) decreases from + 6 to + 2. (a) Ce4+ (b) Sm2+ 92. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of oxalate ions (c) Gd3+ (d) Lu3+. in acidic solution is 83. Which of the following species has maximum tendency to form complexes ? (a) 2/5 (b) 3/5 (a) La3+ (b) Lu3+ (c) 4/5 (d) 1. (c) Gd3+ (d) Ce3+. 93. Which of the following compounds is expected to be coloured ? 84. The number of unpaired electrons in [Fe(CN)6]3– is (a) Ag2SO4 (b) CuF2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) MgF2 (d) CuCl. (c) 5 (d) 6. 94. CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give 85. Oxidation number of chromium in chromyl (a) CrO42– (b) Cr(OH)3 (c) Cr2O72– (d) Cr(OH)2. chloride is (a) + 3 (b) + 6 95. The metal ion which does not form coloured (c) + 2 (d) 0. compound is 86. When ammonia is added to a cupric salt (a) Chromium (b) Iron solution, the deep blue colour so observed is due to the formation of (c) Zinc (d) Manganese. (a) [Cu(OH)4]2– (b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ 96. To an acid solution of an anion, a few drops of (c) [Cu(OH)2(NH3)2] (d) [Cu(H2O)4]2+. KMnO4 solution are added. Which of the following, if present, will not decolourise the 87. For the redox reaction KMnO4 solution ? MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ ⎯→ Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O (b) NO2– the correct coefficients of the reactants for the (a) CO32– (d) Cl–. (c) S2– balanced reaction are MnO4– C2O42– H+ 97. Identify the incorrect statement among the (a) 2 5 16 following. (b) 16 5 2 (a) Shielding power of 4f-electrons is quite weak (c) 5 16 2 (b) There is a decrease in radii of atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu (d) 2 16 5. (c) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation 88. Among the following which one is ionic in of successive shrinkages nature ? (d) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the (a) CuF2 (b) CuCl2 properties of 4d series of transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of (c) CuBr2 (d) CuI2. elements. 89. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one 98. The d-electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, mole of Sn2+ ions is Fe2+ and Ni2+ are 3d4, 3d5, 3d6 and 3d8 respectively. Which one of the following aqua (a) 1/3 (b) 3 complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour ? (c) 1/6 (d) 6. 90. Which of the following is not correct about transition metals ? (a) Their melting and boiling points are high (a) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (c) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Ni(H2O)6]2+. (b) Their compounds are generally coloured

86 CHEMISTRY 99. Which of the following cannot reduce the 108. The equivalent mass of K2Cr2O7, when it acts 100. as oxidising agent in acidic medium, is equal acidified solution of KMnO4 ? to (a) FeSO4 (b) FeC2O4 (a) M/3 (b) M/2 (c) Fe2(C2O4)3 (d) Fe2(SO4)3. Potassium permanganate acts as an oxidant (c) M/6 (d) M/5. in neutral, alkaline as well as acidic media. 109. Which of the following statements is not true ? The final products obtained from it in the three (a)An acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from iodides conditions are, respectively (a) MnO42–, Mn3+ and Mn2+ (b)In acidic solution dichromate ions are (b) MnO2, MnO2 and Mn2+ converted to chromate ions (c) MnO2, MnO2+ and Mn3+ 101. (d) MnO, MnO2 and Mn2+. (c) (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating undergo exothermic decomposition to give Cr2O3 The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion (d)Potassium dichromate is used as a titrant in acidic solution is for estimation of Fe2+ ions. (a) 2/5 (b) 3/5 110. When a small quantity of KMnO4 is added to concentrated H2SO4, a green solution is (c) 4/5 (d) 1. obtained. The green colour is due to 102. Arrange the following metals in the increasing (a) K2MnO4 (b) MnO2 order of their densities : (c) MnO3+ (d) MnO4+. K, Sc, Ti and Ca 111. When a large amount of KMnO4 is added to (a) K < Ca < Sc < Ti (b) Ti < Sc < Ca < K concentrated H2SO4, an explosive compound is formed. The formula of the compound is (c) Sc < Ti < K < Ca (d) Sc < Ti < Ca < K. 103. Number of Cr—O bonds in dichromate ion (Cr2O72–) (a) Mn2O7 (b) Mn3O4 is (c) MnO3 (d) MnO3+. (a) 6 (b) 7 112. Among the following ions which one has the (c) 8 (d) 4. highest paramagnetism ? 104. Which of the following statements concerning (a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ transition elements is not true ? (a) They are all metals (c) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Zn(H2O)6]2+. (b) They easily form complexes 113. Copper sulphate solution reacts with excess (c) Compounds containing their ions are KCN to give coloured (a) Cu(CN)2 (b) CuCN (d) They show multiple oxidation states always (c) K2[Cu(CN)4] (d) K3[Cu(CN)4]. differing by two units. 114. Amongst TiF62+, CoF63–, Cu2Cl2 and 105. The blue colour produced on adding H2O2 to N iCl 2 – (At. No: Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 106. acidified K2Cr2O7 is due to the formation of 4 28) the colourless species are (a) CrO5 (b) Cr2O3 (a) TiF62– and Cu2Cl2 (b) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42– (c) CrO42– (d) Cr2O72–. (c) TiF62– and CoF63– (d) CoF63– and NiCl42–. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be (a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (b) Ni(CO)4 115. needed to react completely with one mole of (c) TiCl4 (d) [Co(NH3)6]3+. ferrous oxalate in acidic solution is 107. The stability of particular oxidation state of a metal in aqueous solution is determined by (a) Enthalpy of sublimation of the metal (a) 3/5 (b) 2/5 (b) Ionization enthalpy (c) Enthalpy of hydration of the metal ion (c) 4/5 (d) 1. (d) All of the above.

d- AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS 87 116. Amongst the following, the compound that is 125. Electronic configuration of a transition element both paramagnetic and coloured is X in +2 oxidation state is [Ar]3d10. The atomic number of the element is ....... (a) K2Cr2O7 (b) (NH4)2 [FeCl6] (a) 28 (b) 27 (c) VOSO4 (d) K3 [Cu (CN)6]. (c) 29 (d) 30. 117. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the ferrous and ferric ions ? 126. Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows the highest magnetic moment. (a) Fe3+ gives green colour with potassium ferricyanide (a) 3d7 (b) 3d5 (b) Fe2+ gives blue precipitate with potassium (c) 3d8 (d) 3d2. ferricyanide 127. The “spin-only” magnetic moment [in units of (c) Fe3+ gives red colour with potassium thiocyanate Bohr magneton, (μB)] of Fe2+ in aqueous solution would be (At. No. Fe = 26) (d) Fe2+ gives brown colour with ammonium (a) 2.84 (b) 4.90 thiocyanate. (c) 0 (d) 1.73. 118. In dichromate ion 128. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds? (a) 4 Cr–O bonds are equivalent (a) They are very hard. (b) 6 Cr–O bonds are equivalent (b) They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals. (c) all Cr–O bonds are equivalent (d) all Cr–O bonds are non-equivalent. (c) They retain metallic conductivity. 119. The general outer electronic configuration of (d) They are chemically very reactive. transition elements is (a) (n – 1) d1 – 10 ns1 (b) (n – 1) d10 ns2 129. Paramagnetism is a property of (c) (n – 1) d1 – 10 ns1 – 2 (d) (n – 1) d5 ns1. (a) completely filled electronic sub-shells (b) unpaired electrons (c) non-transition elements 120. Which one of the following does not show (d) melting and boiling points of elements. variable oxidation states? 130. Which one of the following metals is used as a (a) Iron (b) Copper catalyst is the Haber’s process? (c) Zinc (d) Manganese. (a) Tungsten (b) Molybdenum 121. Which of the following is not a condition for (c) Chromium (d) Iron containing Mo. complex salt formation? 131. When manganese dioxide is fused with KOH (a) Small size in air, it gives (b) Higher nuclear charge (a) potassium permanganate (c) Availability of vacant d-orbitals (b) potassium manganate (d) Variable oxidation states. (c) manganese hydroxide 122. Which of the following metals is used in (d) Mn3O4. incandescent lamps? 132. When KMnO4 acts as oxidising agent in weakly (a) Chromium (b) Tungsten alkaline medium, the oxidation number of (c) Zirconium (d) Molybdenum. manganese decreases by 123. The outer electronic configuration of chromium (a) 1 (b) 2 is (c) 3 (d) 5. (a) 4s1 3d5 (b) 4s2 3d4 133. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature? (c) 4s0 3d6 (d) 4s2 3d5. 124. Which ion gives coloured solution? (a) NiO (b) ZnO (a) Cu+ (b) Zn2+ (c) CoO (d) FeO. (c) Ag+ (d) Fe2+.

88 CHEMISTRY 134. Which of the following oxides is acidic in nature? 137. Which of the following is likely to form white salts? (a) CrO (b) Cr2O3 (c) CrO3 (d) CrO2. (a) Cu2+ (b) Sc3+ 135. Amount of oxalic acid present in solution can (c) Ti3+ (d) Fe3+. be determined by its titration with KMnO4 138. Which of the following has the maximum solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration number of unpaired electrons? gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in (a) Fe2+ (b) Cr3+ the presence of HCl because HCl (c) Fe3+ (d) Co2+. (a) reduces permanganate to Mn2+ 139. Which element among the lanthanoids has the smallest atomic radius? (b) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water (a) Cerium (b) Lutetium (c) gets oxidized by oxalic acid to chlorine (c) Europium (d) Gadolinium. (d) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from 140. Which of the following oxides of chromium is oxalic acid. basic in nature? 136. Rutile is an ore of (a) CrO (b) Cr2O3 (c) CrO3 (d) CrO5. (a) Scandium (b) titanium (c) manganese (d) chromium. CASE BASED QUESTIONS Case Study 1 Case Study 2 Read the passage given below and answer the Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: following questions: Copper sulphate pentahydrate (CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O) is The complexes of transition metals are generally commonly known as blue vitriol. It is fairly soluble in coloured and are paramagnetic in nature due to the water. When potassium iodide solution is added to an presence of unpaired electrons in their ions. The aqueous solution of copper sulphate, a white magnetic moment is related to the number of unpaired precipitate is obtained and colour of the solution electrons and the spin only magnetic moment can be becomes brown due to liberation of iodine. When calculated with the help of a formula. sodium thiosulphate solution is added to this brown solution, the brown colour disappears. 1. Which of the following metal ions would form colourless complexes? 1. In the above sequence of reactions, the white (a) Cu2+ (b) Sc3+ ppt is (c) Ti3+ (d) none of these (a) Potassium sulphate 2. Formula for calculation of spin only magnetic moment is (b) Cupric iodide (c) Cuprous iodide (a) μ = n(n + 1) BM (d) Cuprous sulphate. 2. During reaction of iodine with sodium (b) μ = n(n + 2) BM thiosulphate, oxidation number of sulphur changes from (c) μ = n(n − 1) BM (a) 2 to 3 (b) 3 to 2 (c) 2 to 2.5 (d) 2.5 to 2. (d) μ = n(n − 2) BM 3. In the sequence of reactions, oxidation number 3. Which of the following transition metal ions of copper would have highest magnetic moment? (a) Increases by 1 (b) Decreases by 1 (a) Mn2+ (b) Fe2+ (c) Decreases by 2 (d) Remains unchanged. (c) Co2+ (d) Ni2+

d- AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS 89 Case Study 3 1. What is the nature of Cr2O3? Read the passage given below and answer the (a) acidic (b) basic following questions: (c) amphoteric (d) none of these The oxides of transition metals may be basic, amphoteric or acidic. Oxides are basic when the metal 2. Which of the following is amphoteric in nature? is in lower oxidation state and acidic when the metal is in higher oxidation state. The oxides are generally (a) CoO (b) NiO amphoteric if the metal is in intermediate oxidation state. (c) ZnO (d) none of these 3. Which of the following is an acidic oxide? (a) V2O3 (b) VO2 (c) V2O5 (d) none of these

12. ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Choose the correct answer from the alternatives 8. In Stephen’s reduction which of the following given in each of the following questions : group is converted to —CHO group. 1. Etard’s reaction involves the preparation of (a) —CH2OH (b) —COCl benzaldehyde from (c) —CN (d) —NC. (a) Toluene (b) Ethyl benzene 9. The compound having least solubility in water (c) Benzoyl chloride (d) Sodium benzoate. is 2. Ethylidene chloride is hydrolysed with aqueous (a) Methanal (b) Acetaldehyde NaOH. The product formed is (c) Acetone (d) Acetophenone. (a) Ethanol (b) Ethylchloride 10. Which of the following reagent can distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde ? (c) Ethanal (d) Ethane. 3. For obtaining ethyl methyl ketone from acetyl (a) NH2OH (b) Benedict’s solution chloride which of the following reagent can be (c) DNP (d) None of these. employed ? 11. Benzaldehyde and malonic acid react to give (a) Grignard reagent (b) reaction with HI (a) Ethanal (b) Crotonic acid (c) H2, Pd/BaSO4 (d) reaction with (C2H5)2Cd in the presence of (c) Cinnamaldehyde (d) Cinnamic acid. dry ether. 12. Ethanal is treated with ammonia and adduct formed is warmed. The final product is 4. The main point of similarity between Etard’s reaction and Vilsmeyer reaction is (a) Acetaldehyde ammonia (a) Starting reagent is benzene (b) Acetaldimine (b) Final product in both is benzaldehyde (c) Oxidising agent in both is chromyl chloride (c) Tetramethylene hexamine (d) Both form ketone as product. (d) Ethyl amine. 13. Which of the following ketone will not give yellow precipitate with NaOH/I2 (a) Pentan-2-one (b) Acetone 5. Which of the following can be used as (c) Benzophenone (d) Hexan-2-one. formylating agent in the presence of AlCl3 ? 14. The adduct of ethyl magnesium iodide and methanal is hydrolysed. The final product is (a) HCOOH + HCl (b) CO + HCl (c) CO + Cl2 (d) HCl + O2. (a) 1-Propanol 6. Which of the following will not form when the (b) 2-Propanol mixture of calcium acetate and calcium formate (c) Ethanol is distilled ? (d) 2-Chloro-1-propanol. (a) Acetone (b) Propanal 15. Which of the following reagent will not react (c) Ethanal (d) Methanal. with Ethanal ? 7. Which of the following reaction is used to (a) HCl (b) Cl2 prepare β-Hydroxyesters from aldehydes ? (c) PCl5 (d) NaHSO3(aq). (a) Wittig reaction 16. The product formed by the reaction of (b) Claisen condensation acetaldehyde with excess of ethanol in the (c) Reformatsky reaction presence of sulphuric acid is (d) Michael reaction. 125

126 CHEMISTRY (a) C2H5OCH2CH2OC2H5 (a) Cannizzaro’s reaction (b) a ketal (b) Wurtz reaction (c) CH3CH(OC2H5)2 (c) Friedel Craft’s reaction (d) CH3CH(OH)2. 17. The reaction of acetaldehyde and acetone in the (d) Rosenmund’s reaction. presence of dilute alkali is called 26. Nitric acid oxidises diphenyl methane to form (a) Crossed aldol condensation (a) Acetophenone (b) Perkin’s condensation (b) Benzophenone (c) aldol condensation (c) Benzaldehyde (d) benzoin condensation. (d) CO2 and H2O. 27. Which of the following will produce dypnone 18. Which of the following aldehyde will undergo Cannizzaro’s reaction ? on undergoing aldol type condensation ? (a) Ethanal (a) Acetophenone (b) 2-Methylpropanal (b) Benzophenone (c) 2, 2-Dimethylpropanal (c) Acetone (d) Phenylacetaldehyde. (d) Ethyl phenyl ketone. 19. Which of the following name is associated with 28. Which of the following reagent will be able to the reduction of aldehyde/ketone by using the provide distinction between acetophenone and reagent aluminium isopropoxide ? benzophenone ? (a) Wolff Kishner (a) Aqueous NaHSO3 (b) I2/aqueous Na2CO3 (b) Meerwein Ponndroff-Verley (c) Brady’s reagent (c) Wagner-Meerwein (d) Michael. (d) Benedict solution. 20. Which of the following does not undergo benzoin 29. Which of the following will produce benzhydrol condensation ? on treatment with Zn/alc. KOH ? (a) Benzene carbaldehyde (a) Benzaldehyde (b) Acetyl benzene (b) p-Toluene carbaldehyde (c) Diphenyl ketone (d) Diphenyl ether. (c) Phenylethanal 30. The oxime of which of the following species will exist in syn and anti geometrical forms ? (d) 4-Methoxybenzaldehyde. 21. Bimolecular reduction of acetone gives (a) Benzophenone (b) Benzaldehyde (a) Diacetone amine (b) Pinacol (c) Acetone (d) Diethyl ketone. (c) Chloretone (d) Propane. 31. Which of the following combination is employed in Reformatsky reaction ? 22. Which of the following compounds will react with ethanolic KCN ? (a) Zn/ether (b) Mg/ether (a) Ethane (b) Acetone (c) Li/alcohol (d) Zn/alcohol. (c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzaldehyde. 32. Nitration of acetophenone using nitrating mixture produces mainly 23. Aromatic aldehydes react with primary amines to form (a) o-nitro acetophenone (a) Amino acids (b) Schiff’s base (b) p-nitro acetophenone (c) Pyrosole (d) Pyridine. (c) m-nitro acetophenone 24. Certain carboxyl compound A on reaction with (d) m-nitrobenzoic acid. Zn-Hg/HCl give Methylcyclopentane. The compound A could be 33. Reaction of CH3CHO and aluminium ethoxide is called (a) cyclopentane carbaldehyde (a) Tischenko, reaction (b) Cyclohexanone (b) Clemensen’s reaction (c) 2-Methylcyclopentan-1-one (c) Perkin’s reaction (d) Both (a) and (c). (d) Etard’s reaction. 25. Which of the following process is helpful in synthesizing acetophenone ?

ALDEHYDE, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS 127 34. The compound (CH3)2CCH2COCH3 is 42. Which of the following aldehyde contains α—C ⏐ atom but does not have any α-H atom. NH2 (a) Propionaldehyde (b) Benzaldehyde (a) Dimer of acetone (b) Acetone amine (c) Isobutyraldehyde (d) Formaldehyde. (c) Amino acid (d) Diacetonamine. 43. Hydrobenzamide is produced by the action of 35. Which of the following is more reactive than (a) Benzaldehyde and ammonia acetone towards reaction with CH3MgBr ? (a) Benzophenone (b) Hydrolysis of Benzamide (c) Hydrogen on Benzamide (b) Ethyl methyl ketone (d) HNO2 on Benzamide. 44. Which of the following is capable of acting as (c) Benzaldehyde hypnotic ? (d) Formaldehyde. (a) Acetaldehyde (b) Metaldehyde 36. Which of the following is produced when formaldehyde and ammonia react (c) Paraldehyde (d) Formaldehyde. (a) Formaline 45. In which of the following process acetone is one of the final product ? (b) Formaldimine (a) Ozonolysis of ethyne (c) Urotropine (b) Oxidation of 2-butene with KMnO4/H2SO4 (c) Oxidation followed by hydrolysis of cumene (d) Hexamethylene triamine. 37. What is formed when methanal reacts with (d) Dehydrogenation of 1-propanal. ethanal in the presence of dilute caustic soda solution ? 46. Which of the following will show dispropor- tionation when treated with 50% aqueous (a) β-Hydroxy propionaldehyde NaOH ? (b) 2-Hydroxy ethanal (a) Benzyl alcohol (c) Methanoic acid and CO2 (b) Ethanal (d) Propanone. (c) Phenyl ethanal 38. Which process will give benzaldehyde ? (d) m-nitro benzaldehyde. 47. Which of the following can provide distinction (a) Ethyl formate and phenyl magnesium between two functional isomers of C3H6O. bromide (a) NaHSO3 (b) HCN (b) Toluene and chromyl chloride (c) AgNO3 (d) [Ag(NH3)2]OH. (c) Benzene and HCN in ZnCl2 followed by 48. 2-Pentanone and 3-Methylbutan-2-one are hydrolysis (a) optical isomers (d) Benzene and ethanoyl chloride. (b) geometrical isomers 39. Which of the following compound will give (c) metamers yellow precipitate with I2/Na2CO3 (aq) but does (d) tautomers. not respond to Cannizarro’s reaction 49. An alkene, C7H14 on reductive ozonolysis gave (a) (C2H5)2CO (b) CH3CHO propanal and a ketone. The probable formula (c) CH2O (d) C2H5CH2OH. of ketone is 40. Vinyl alcohol and ethanal are (a) Acetone (b) Ethyl methylketone (a) Metamers (b) Tautomers (c) 2-Pentanone (c) Position isomers (d) Chain isomers. (d) 3-Pentanone. 41. Cannizzaro reaction involves 50. Which ketone will form 3-ethylpentan-3-ol on (a) Oxidation of aldehydes treatment with ethyl magnesium bromide. (b) Oxidation as well reduction of aldehyde (a) Acetone molecule (b) Ethylmethyl ketone (c) Reduction of aldehyde molecule (c) Acetophenone (d) Rearrangement in aldehyde molecule. (d) Diethyl ketone.

128 CHEMISTRY 51. Which of the following is enolisable. 60. Which of the following reagent react differently (a) Benzophenone with HCHO and CH3CHO and CH3COCH3 (b) 2, 4-Pentanedione (a) HCN (b) NH2—NH2 (c) Phenyl-t butyl ketone (c) NH2OH (d) NH3. (d) All of the above. 61. Oxidation of toluene with CrO3 in the presence of (CH3CO)2O gives a product A which on 52. Schiff’s base and Schiff’s reagent are treatment with aq. NaOH produce (a) diastereomers (b) anomers (a) C6H5CHO (b) C6H5COONa (c) structural isomers (c) (C6H5CO)2O (d) (CH3CO)2O. (d) different compounds. 62. Which of the following is Jone’s reagent ? 53. Which of the following reagents produce (a) Acidified KMnO4 diacetone alcohol ? (b) POCl3 (c) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 (a) (CH3)2CO + EtOH (d) Rosaniline hydrochloride. (b) (CH3)2CO + conc. H2SO4 (c) (CH3)2CO + Ba(OH)2 63. When pentan-2-one is oxidised using conc. (d) (CH3)2CO + LiAlH4. HNO3, the major products formed will be 54. The product formed during the reaction of (a) n-Butyric acid and Formic acid CCl3CHO and H2O is (b) Isobutyric acid and Acetic acid (a) Glyoxal (b) Chloral hydrate (c) Ethanoic and Propanoic acid (c) Trichloroacetic acid (d) Ethanoic acid only. (d) HOOC-CHO. 64. The reaction 55. Which of the following reagent can convert NaOH acetone to 1, 3, 5- trimethylbenzene ? C6H5CHO + CH3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C6H5—CH = CH—CHO + H2O (a) dilute Ba(OH)2 (b) conc. H2SO4 is known as (c) conc. NaOH (d) Cl2/CCl4. 56. Treatment of propionaldehyde with dilute (a) Cannizzaro reaction NaOH solution gives (b) Aldol condensation (a) CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH3 (c) Claisen-Schmidt condensation (b) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH(CH3)CHO (c) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH2CHO (d) Benzoin condensation. (d) CH3CH2COCH2CH2CHO. 57. Which of the following conversion can be 65. Which reactive intermediate is formed during brought about under Wolff-Kishner reduction? the condensation reaction between acetaldehyde and formaldehyde ? (a) Benzaldehyde to benzyl alcohol − + (a) : CH2CHO (b) CH2CHO (b) Cyclohexanol to cyclohexane + − (c) CH2OH (d) : CHCHO. (c) Cyclohexanone to cyclohexanol 66. Mesityl oxide is an example of (d) Benzophenone to diphenyl methane. (a) Polymer (b) α, β-unsaturated alcohol 58. C6H5CHO + HCN ⎯⎯→ C6H5CH(CN)OH. (c) α, β-unsaturated ketone The product would be (d) α, β-unsaturated acid. (a) Racemate (b) Optically active 67. What is not true about the oxidation of mixed ketones ? (c) A meso compound (d) Mixture of diastereomers. (a) They are resistant to mild oxidation. 59. When formaldehyde and KOH are heated we (b) Oxidation involves cleavage of bond between get, carbonyl carbon and α-carbon atom. (a) Acetylene (b) Methane (c) During cleavage carbonyl group remains with higher alkyl group. (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl formate (d) Oxidative cleavage is governed by Poppof’s rule.

ALDEHYDE, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS 129 68. Calcium salt of propionic acid is distilled in dry 75. A certain colourless liquid Q does not respond conditions. The product formed will show to Tollen’s test but it reacts with semicarbazide to form crystalline derivative. Q can be (a) Fehling test positive (b) Iodoform test negative (a) CH3(CH2)2CHO (b) CH3CH2COCH3 (c) Victor Meyer test positive (d) Tollen’s test positive. O 69. In order to convert formaldehyde to n-butyl (c) CH3(CH2)2OC2H5 || alcohol which reagent can be used ? (d) CH3CH2 C OC2H5. (a) Change cannot be realised (b) (i) C2H5MgBr (ii) H2O 76. A certain compound Y has a formula C3H6O. It (c) (i) CH3CH2CH2MgBr (ii) H2O combines with hydroxylamine to form two (d) K2Cr2O7/H+, LiAlH4. 70. Ylide is one of the reagent used in compounds which are geometrical isomers of (a) Reformatsky reaction each other. Y is (b) Fittig reaction (c) Wittig reaction (a) CH3CHO (b) CH3CH2CHO (d) Perkin’s reaction. (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH2 = CHCH2OH. 71. Which of the following will produce acetophenone ? (i) Zn/Ether AlCl3 77. CH3COCH3 + BrCH2COOC2H5 ⎯⎯(ii)⎯H⎯3O⎯+ → (a) C6H6 + CH3COCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (CH3)2C(OH)CH2COOC2H5 (b) C6H5COCl + (CH3)2Cd ⎯⎯→ The above reaction is called Mn(CH3COO)2 (a) Perkin’s reaction (c) C6H5—C2H5 + O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (b) HVZ reaction (d) All of the above. 72. Polarisation of acrolein molecule may be (c) Reformatsky reaction correctly written as (d) Cannizzaro’s reaction. d– d– 78. Condensation of acetone in conc. H2SO4 and (a) CH2 ......CH......CH ......O trimerisation of propyne by passing through hot d+ d+ copper tube give some compound A. The (b) CH2 ......CH......CH ......O compound A is d+ d– (a) Phorone (c) CH2 ......CH......C O (b) Mesitylene d+ d– (c) Mesityl oxide (d) CH2 ......CH......CH ......O. (d) Mixture of (a) and (c). 73. Which of the following reagent will be able to 79. A compound X has molecular formula C2Cl3OH. oxidise ethanal It reduces Fehling solution and on oxidation it (a) Collin’s reagent gives monocarboxylic acid B. X can also be (b) AgNO3/NH4OH (c) Aluminium isopropoxide formed by the action of Cl2 on ethanol. X is (d) NH2 NH2/KOH. 74. Phenacyl chloride, which is a lachrymator (tear (a) Chloromethane (b) Chloroform gas) is also called (c) Chloroacetic acid (d) Chloral. (a) α-Chloroacetophenone (b) Allyl chloride 80. What is the correct order of increasing boiling (c) Benzyl chloride points in the following series ? (d) Benzoyl chloride. (a) Acetone > Ethanal > Methanal > Propanal (b) Ethanal > Acetone > Propanal > Methanal (c) Methanal < Ethanal < Propanal < Acetone (d) Ethanal < Acetone < Propanal < Methanal. 81. Enolic form of acetone contains (a) 9 σ bonds, 1π bond, 2 lone pairs (b) 8 σ bonds, 2π bonds, 1 lone pair (c) 10 σ bonds, 1π bond, 2 lone pairs (d) 9 σ bonds, 2π bonds, 1 lone pair.

130 CHEMISTRY SeO2 (c) the abstraction of proton from carboxylic acid 82. 2-Butanone ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Y. The product Y of (d) the deprotonation of PhCH2OH. AcOH 89. What is not true for formaldehyde ? this reaction is (a) Its aqueous solution on heating to dryness gives paraldehyde (a) 2, 3-Butanedione (b) Its 40% aqueous solution is called formaline (b) 2-Butanoic acid (c) Formalin is used as preservative for (c) Ethanoic acid anatomical specimens (d) It is one of the reagent which produces (d) Mixture of propanoic acid and methanoic acid. urotropine. 90. Which of the following reaction can produce 83. When benzyl methyl ketone is allowed to react with ethylene glycol, in benzene the product R—CO—Ar ? formed is (a) 2-Benzyl-2-methyl dimethylene-1, (a) ArCOCl + H—Ar AlCl3 3-dioxolane ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (b) Benzyl glycolone (b) COCl + RMgX ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (c) Benzyl alcohol (c) R + CrO3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (d) 1, 3-Dioxolactic acid. H2O / H2SO4 (d) RCOCl + Ar—H AlCl3 84. —C ≡≡ CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ? ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Hg 2 + O3 50% 91. CH ≡≡ CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Y, The final product in this reaction is Zn / H2O KOH (a) Benzaldehyde (b) Acetophenone In the above sequence of reaction Y is (c) Benzyl alcohol (d) Phenylethanol. (a) Ethanedial (b) Glyoxal CHO (c) Pot. glycolate (d) Pot. oxalate. X The reagent X can 92. In the reaction of NaBH4 with acrylic aldehyde (a) only CHO group is reduced 85. m-Xylene ⎯⎯→ CHO (b) only C = C bond gets saturated be (c) both —CHO and C = C bond get reduced (a) CrO2Cl2 (b) KMnO4/H2SO4 (c) Al(OC2H5)3 (d) All of the above. (d) Neither C = 0, nor C = C bond is reduced. CCl4 93. HgSO4 LiAlH4 Y P4 / Br2 Z 86. C6H5COCH3 + Br2 ⎯⎯→ product. The product CH ≡≡ CH ⎯⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→ of this reaction is mainly H2SO4 In the above sequence Z is (a) p-isomer of Br—C6H4COCH3 (a) Ethanol (b) o-isomer of Br—C6H4COCH3 (c) C6H5COCH2Br (b) Ethyledene dibromide (d) C6H5COBr. (c) Ethylene dibromide dry HCl (d) Ethyl bromide. 87. Acetone ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ X. The main product X in Mild (i) MeMgBr gas 94. Propan-2-ol ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Y this reaction is Oxidation (ii) H2O In the above sequence of steps Y is (a) Mesitylene (b) Acetylene (a) Butan-2-ol (c) Phorone (d) Dypnone. (b) Butan-1-ol 88. In the Cannizzaro’s reaction involving (c) 2-Methylpropene benzaldehyde the slowest step is (d) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol. (a) attack of OH– ion at the carbonyl carbon 95. Which of the following reagent can convert benzaldehyde into a mixture of sodium benzoate (b) the transfer of hydride ion to the carbonyl and benzyl alcohol ? group (a) 50% aq. NaOH (b) H2/Pd, BaSO4

ALDEHYDE, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS 131 (c) HCN followed by hydrolysis conc. H2SO4 (d) All of the above. 101. Propyne ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Product (X). X can 102. 96. Compound A (C5H10O) forms a phenyl 103. polymerisation hydrazone and gives a negative Tollen’s test and negative Iodoform test. On reducing A with Zn- also be obtained by Hg/HCl n-pentane is formed. The compound A is (a) Acetophenone + conc. H2SO4 (b) Acetone + conc. H2SO4 (a) 1° alcohol (b) an aldehyde (c) Acetone + conc. NaOH (c) secondary alcohol (d) a ketone. (d) Ethanal + 50% NaOH. 97. Identify the final product Z in the following In order to get ethanal from calcium carbide reaction sequence which of the following sequence of steps is correct ? H3O+ H2SO4 Me2C = O + HCN ⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯→ Y ⎯⎯⎯→ Z (a) (i) H2O (ii) H2O/HgSO4/H2SO4 (b) (i) NH3 (ii) H2O/H2SO4 Δ (c) (i) H2O (ii) HCN (iii) H2O (d) (i) H2O (ii) H2/Pt (iii) K2Cr2O7/H+. (a) (CH3)2C(OH)COOH (b) CH2 = C(CH3)COOH OO (c) HO—CH2CH(CH3)COOH || || (d) CH3CH = CHCOOH. CH3—C —CH2—CH2— C —CH3 98. Schiff’s reagent is (a) magenta coloured solution of rosaniline dil. Heat hydrochloride decolourised with H2SO3 ⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯→ Y. Here, the final product Y is (b) magenta solution of rosaniline hydrochloride decolourised with Cl2 NaOH (c) magenta solution of cobalt chloride solution (a) 3-Methylcyclopent-2-en-1-one (b) 3-Methylcyclopentanol (d) manganese sulphate solution made (c) 2, 5-Hexanediol ammoniacal. (d) 3-Methylcyclohexanone. 99. m-Chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction with conc. CH3COCl SeO2 KOH at room temperature gives 104. ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Y. In the AlCl3 (a) Potassium meta chlorobenzoate and given sequence of reactions Y is m-Hydroxy benzaldehyde (a) Phenyl glyoxal (b) Glyoxal (b) m-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (c) Benzoic acid (d) Phenyl ethanal. and m-chlorobenzylalcohol 105. Which of the following is not a resonating form of benzaldehyde ? (c) m-Chlorobenzyl alcohol and m-Hydroxy benzylalcohol H—C O + (d) Potassium m-chlorobenzoate H—C—O and m- Chlorobenzyl-alcohol. (a) (b) – 100. Which of the following is formed when – cyclohexanone is heated with conc. NaOH H—C—O OH – OH (b) — (a) H—C—O (c) + (d) O HO + (c) — (d) 106. Which of the following reagent cannot be used O O for converting C—OH ¾¾® C—OCOCH3 ? (a) CH3COOH/H2SO4 (b) CH3OCH3 (c) (CH3CO)2O (d) CH3COCl.

132 CHEMISTRY 107. A substance A containing three carbon atoms OH gives white crystalline precipitate with sodium bisulphite solution but does not give red CHCl3 50% KOH precipitate with Fehling solution. A on 113. ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ...... NaOH treatment with NH2 – NH2/KOH will yield The final products of this reaction is/are (a) Propene (b) Propane (c) Cyclopropan (d) Propionic acid. OH OH CH 950 K (a) 108. Acetone ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ? The products of the above reaction are (a) Ethanal and methane OH OH (b) Methane and ethane (c) Ethane and acetic anhydride CH2OH COOK (d) Methane and ketene. Which of the following reagent can convert (b) + 109. CH2OH COOK (c) + O ¾® O O (a) RMgX/H2O (b) (CH2OH)2 OH O (d) C (c) ROR′ (d) RH/H2O. COOK 110. KOH (aq) Benzaldichloride ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3COONa 114. Mixture of HCHO and (CH3)3 C—CHO on reaction with NaOH give the mixture of B ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C. (CH3CO)2 O In the above sequence, C is (a) Benzoic acid (b) Phenyl acetate (a) CH3OH and (CH3)3C—CH2OH (c) Methyl benzoate (d) Cinnamic acid. −+ 111. (O) (b) HCOONa and (CH3)3C – COONa (c) CH3OH and (CH3)3C—C—OONa C3H8O ⎯K⎯2C⎯r2O⎯7 /⎯H+→ C3H6O 115. (d) HCOONa and (CH3)2C – CH2OH. A diene on reductive ozonolysis gives I2 / NaOH formaldehyde, methyl glyoxal and ethanal as the final products. The diene can be ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CHI3. In this sequence the starting compound is (a) 1-propanol (a) CH3—CH==CH—CH2—CH == CH2 (b) Propanal (c) 2-propanol CH3 (d) Ethyl methyl ether. Which of the following process represent Oxo ⏐ process ? 112. (b) CH3CH== C⎯CH==CH2 (a) CH2==CH2 + H2O2 PdCl2 CH3CHO (c) CH3—CH==CH—CH==CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (d) CH2==CH—CH==CH2. H2O OO − OH (b) R—CH==CH2 + CO + H2 ⏐⏐ ⏐⏐ Co2 (CO)8 116. C6H5C ⎯ C —C6H5 ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ RCH2CH2CHO OH | (i) O3 —C—COOH. (c) R—CH==CH—R ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 2RCHO | (ii) H2O/Zn O (d) R—CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R—COOH.