CUET Geography

Cuet (Common University Entrance Test) For Undergraduate Courses Geography (Code: 313) J.P. Singhal Formerly Deputy Education Officer Directorate of Education Delhi   LAXMI PUBLICATIONS (P) LTD (An ISO 9001:2015 Company) BEngalURU  • Chennai • Guwahati • Hyderabad • Jalandhar Kochi  • Kolkata • lucknow • mumbai • Ranchi New Delhi

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Introduction National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the Undergraduate entrance tests for all the Central Universities (CUs) for the academic session 2022–2023. CUET will provide a single window opportunity to students to seek admission in any of the Central Universities (CUs) across the country. The CUET (UG)–2022 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) Mode. Examination Structure for CUET (UG)–2022: CUET (UG)–2022 will consist of the following four sections:  Section IA – 13 Languages  Section IB – 19 Languages  Section II – 27 Domain Specific Subjects  Section III – General Test Choosing options from each section is not mandatory. Choices should match the requirements of the desired University. Broad features of CUET (UG)–2022: Some features of CUET (UG)–2022 are as follows: Section Subjects/Tests Questions to Question Type Duration be Attempted Section IA– There are 13* different 40 questions to Language to be tested through 45 minutes Languages languages. Any of these be attempted for each languages may be chosen. out of 50 in each Reading Comprehension language language (based on different types of passages–Factual, Literary and Narrative, [Literary Aptitude and Vocabulary] Section IB– There are 19** languages. Languages Any other language apart from those offered in Section I A may be chosen. Section II– There are 27*** Domain 40 questions to • Input text can be used for 45 minutes Domain specific subjects being be attempted for each offered under this section. out of 50 MCQ Based Questions Domain Section III– A candidate may choose specific General a maximum of Six (06) 60 questions to • MCQs based on NCERT subjects Test Domains as desired by be attempted the applicable University/ out of 75 Class XII syllabus only 60 minutes Universities. For any such under- • Input text can be used for graduate programme/ programmes being offered MCQ Based Questions by Universities where a General Test is being used • General Knowledge, Current for admission. Affairs, General Mental Ability, Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple application of basic mathematical concepts arithmetic/algebra geometry/ mensuration/stat taught till Grade 8), Logical and Analytical Reasoning

* Languages (13): Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Gujarati, Odia, Bengali, Assamese, Punjabi, English, Hindi and Urdu ** Languages (19): French, Spanish, German, Nepali, Persian, Italian, Arabic, Sindhi, Kashmiri, Konkani, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Manipuri, Santhali, Tibetan, Japanese, Russian and Chinese. *** DomainSpecificSubjects(27):1.Accountancy/BookKeeping;2.Biology/BiologicalStudies/Biotechnology/ Biochemistry; 3. Business Studies; 4. Chemistry; 5. Computer Science/Informatics Practices; 6. Economics/ Business Economics; 7. Engineering Graphics; 8. Entrepreneurship; 9. Geography/Geology; 10. History; 11. Home Science; 12. Knowledge Tradition and Practices of India; 13. Legal Studies; 14. Environmental Science; 15. Mathematics; 16. Physical Education/NCC/Yoga; 17. Physics; 18. Political Science; 19. Psychology; 20. Sociology; 21. Teaching Aptitude; 22. Agriculture; 23. Mass Media/Mass Communication; 24. Anthropology; 25. Fine Arts/Visual Arts (Sculpture/Painting)/Commercial Arts; 26. Performing Arts– (i) Dance (Kathak/Bharatnatyam/Oddisi/Kathakali/Kuchipudi/Manipuri (ii) Drama-Theatre (iii) Music General (Hindustani/Carnatic/Rabindra Sangeet/Percussion/Non-Percussion); 27. Sanskrit [For all Shastri (Shastri 3 years/4 years Honours) Equivalent to B.A./B.A. Honours courses i.e. Shastri in Veda, Paurohitya (Karmakand), Dharamshastra, Prachin Vyakarana, Navya Vyakarana, Phalit Jyotish, Siddhant Jyotish, Vastushastra, Sahitya, Puranetihas, Prakrit Bhasha,Prachin Nyaya Vaisheshik, Sankhya Yoga, Jain Darshan, Mimansa, AdvaitaVedanta, Vishihstadvaita Vedanta, Sarva Darshan, a candidate may choose Sanskrit as the Domain]. • A candidate can choose a maximum of any 3 languages from Section IA and Section IB taken together. (One of the languages chosen needs to be in lieu of Domain specific subjects). • Section II offers 27 subjects, out of which a candidate may choose a maximum of 6 subjects. • Section III comprises General Test. • For choosing Languages (up to 3) from Section IA and IB and a maximum of 6 subjects from Section II and General Test under Section III, the candidate must refer to the requirements of his/her intended University. Level of questions for CUET (UG)–2022: All questions in various testing areas will be benchmarked at the level of Class XII only. Marking Scheme of Examination For Multiple Choice Questions: To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one option corresponding to the correct answer or the most appropriate answer. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner: (i) Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+ 5) (ii) Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (– 1). (iii) Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0). (iv) If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options. (v) If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+ 5) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. (vi) If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then all candidates who have appeared will be given five marks (+ 5). Note: C andidates are advised to visit the NTA CUET (UG)–2022 official website https://cuet.samarth.ac.in/, for latest updates regarding the Examination.

Contents Part A: Fundamentals of Human Geography ... 3 Unit I ... 9 1. Human Geography: Nature and Scope ... 16 ... 21 Unit II 2. The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth ... 27 3. Population Composition ... 32 4. Human Development ... 38 Unit III ... 43 5. Primary Activities ... 47 6. Secondary Activities 7. Tertiary and Quaternary Activities ... 52 Unit IV 8. Transport and Communication 9. International Trade Unit V 10. Human Settlements Part B: India: People and Economy ... 59 ... 63 Unit I ... 67 1. Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition 2. Migration : Types, Causes and Consequences ... 71 3. Human Development ... 74 Unit II ... 78 4. Human Settlements ... 82 Unit III 5. Land Resources and Agriculture 6. Water Resources 7. Mineral and Energy Resources

8. Manufacturing Industries ... 85 9. Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context ... 89 Unit IV ... 93 10. Transport and Communication ... 97 11. International Trade ... 101 Unit V ... 105 12. Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems ... M-1–M-26 Answers Mock Test Papers

Syllabus Geography/Geology-313 Note: There will be one Question Paper which will have 50 questions out of which 40 questions need to be attempted. Fundamentals of Human Geography Unit I:  Human Geography: Nature and Scope Unit II:  People Population of the world–distribution, density and growth; Population change-spatial patterns and structure; determinants of population change; Age-sex ratio; rural-urban composition; Human development–concept; selected indicators, international comparisons. Unit III:  Human Activities Primary activities–concept and changing trends; gathering, pastoral, mining, subsistence agriculture, modern agriculture; people engaged in agriculture and allied activities–some examples from selected countries; Secondary activities–concept; manufacturing: agro-processing, household, small scale, large scale; people engaged in secondary activities–some examples from selected countries; Tertiary activities–concept; trade, transport and communication; services; people engaged in tertiary activities–some examples from selected countries; Quaternary activities–concept; knowledge based industries; people engaged in quaternary activities–some examples from selected countries. Unit IV:  Transport, Communication and Trade Land transport–roads, railways–rail network; trans-continental railways; Water transport-inland waterways; major ocean routes; Air transport–Intercontinental air routes; Oil and gas pipelines; Satellite communication and cyber space; International trade–Basis and changing patterns; ports as gateways of international trade, role of WTO in International trade. Unit V:  Human Settlements Settlement types–rural and urban; morphology of cities (case study); distribution of mega cities; problems of human settlements in developing countries.

India: People and Economy Unit I:  People Migration: international, national–causes and consequences; Human development–selected indicators and regional patterns; Population, environment and development. Unit II: Human Settlements Rural settlements–types and distribution; Urban settlements–types, distribution and functional classification. Unit III: Resources and Development Land resources–general land use; agricultural land use–major crops; agricultural development and problems, common property resources; Water resources–availability and utilization–irrigation, domestic, industrial and other uses; scarcity of water and conservation methods–rain water harvesting and watershed management (one case study related with participatory watershed management to be introduced); Mineral and energy resources–metallic and non-metallic minerals and their distribution; conventional and non-conventional energy sources; Industries–types and distribution; industrial location and clustering; changing pattern of selected industries–iron and steel, cotton textiles, sugar, petrochemicals, and knowledge based industries; impact of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation on industrial location; Planning in India–target area planning (case study); idea of sustainable development (case study). Unit IV:  Transport, Communication and International Trade Transport and communication—roads, railways, waterways and airways; oil and gas pipelines; national electric grids; communication networkings–radio, television, satellite and internet; International trade—changing pattern of India’s foreign trade; sea ports and their hinterland and airports. Unit V:  Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems Environmental pollution; urban-waste disposal; Urbanisation-rural-urban migration; problem of slums; Land Degradation.

Part A: Fundamentals of Human Geography UNIT I Chapter 1 Human Geography: Nature and Scope UNIT II Chapter 2 The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth Chapter 3 Population Composition Chapter 4 Human Development UNIT III Chapter 5 Primary Activities Chapter 6 Secondary Activities Chapter 7 Tertiary and Quaternary Activities UNIT IV Chapter 8 Transport and Communication Chapter 9 International Trade UNIT V Chapter 10 Human Settlements

Unit I Human Geography: Nature and Scope 1 Chapter Multiple Choice Questions In each of the following questions only one option is correct. Select the correct option. 1. Which subject is known as mother discipline? (a) Geography (b) Economics (c) Sociology (d) Psychology 2. Which of these is not a characteristic of the study of Geography? (a) Integrative (b) Practical (c) Idealistic (d) Empirical 3. Who first used the term Geography? (a) Herodotus (b) Hecataeus (c) Hipparchus (d) Eratosthenes 4. Which one of the following statements does not describe geography? (a) An integrative discipline (b) Study of the inter-relationship between humans and environment (c) Subjected to dualism (d) Not relevant in the present time due to the development of technology 5. Who was the father of modern human geography? (a) Humboldt (b) Ritter (c) Ratzel (d) Huntington 6. Which of these scholars defined Human Geography as “the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth’s surface.”? (a) Paul Vidal de la Blache (b) Ellen C. Semple (c) Ratzel (d) Karl Marx 7. Who said that “Human geography is the study of mutually changeable relations of active human and unstable earth.”? (a) Ellen Semple (b) La Blache (c) Carl Sauer (d) Ratzel 8. Which of the following is the name of the book written by Ratzel? (a) Human Geography (b) Anthropogeography (c) Influences of Geographic Environment (d) Determinist Approach to Human Geography 3

4 Geography 9. Which approach was supported by Vidal de la Blache? (a) Determinism (b) Possibilism (c) Humanism (d) Welfare approach 10. Which element is not a part of the physical environment? (a) Climate (b) Relief (c) Agriculture (d) Water 11. Which one of the following is most important factor in the interaction between people and environment? (a) Human intelligence (b) People’s perception (c) Technology (d) Human brotherhood 12. Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of (a) Communication (b) Technology (c) Arts (d) Animals 13. Which concepts helped us to discover fire? (b) Friction and heat (a) Gravity and friction (c) DNA and genetics (d) Dynamics and aero dynamics 14. The understanding of the secrets of ­_­ ___________ and ____________ enabled us to conquer many diseases. (a) Gravity, Friction (b) Friction, Heat (c) DNA , Genetics (d) Dynamics, Aerodynamics 15. The interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature was termed as (a) Possibilism (b) Neodeterminism (c) Biodeterminism (d) Environmental determinism 16. Which element is called ‘Mother Nature’? (b) Cultural environment (a) Physical environment (c) Political environment (d) Industrial environment 17. Who gave the concept of “Possibilism”? (a) La Blache (b) Griffith Taylor (c) Huntington (d) Carl Sauer 18. Neo-determinism was introduced by (a) Griffith Taylor (b) Vidal de la Blache (c) Huntington (d) Herbertson 19. Which one of the following is not a source of geographical information? (a) Traveller’s accounts (b) Old maps (c) Samples of rock materials from the moon (d) Ancient epics 20. Which school of thought of Human Geography employed the Marxian theory? (a) Humanistic school of thought (b) Radical school of thought (c) Deterministic school of thought (d) Behavioural school of thought 21. Behavioural school of thought laid great emphasis on (a) Past experience (b) Present experience (c) Live experience (d) All of these 22. Welfare or humanistic school of thought in human geography was mainly concerned with: (a) the different aspects of social well-being of the people (b) the basic cause of poverty, deprivation and social inequality

Human Geography: Nature and Scope 5 (c) the perception of space by social categories based on ethnicity, race, religion, etc. (d) All of these 23. Which is the fundamental branch of geography? (a) Resource geography (b) Political geography (c) Human geography (d) Urban geography 24. The emergence and development of Human Geography is related to which century? (a) 15th (b) 16th (c) 17th (d) 18th 25. Which one of the following is not an approach in Human Geography? (a) Areal differentiation (b) Quantitative revolution (c) Spatial organisation (d) Exploration and description 26. Which branch of geography does not belong to Human Geography? (a) Social Geography (b) Physical Geography (c) Economic Geography (d) PopulationGeography 27. Main feature of Early Colonial period is (a) Phase of the quantitative revolution (b) Identifying the uniqueness of any region (c) Discovery and exploration of new areas (d) Grand generalisations and the applicability of universal theories 28. Who is not a French geographer out of the following? (a) Blache (b) Bruches (c) Damanzia (d) Ritter 29. Which of the following is not a major centre of ancient civilisation? (a) Mohenjodaro (b) Babylon (c) Russia (d) Egypt 30. Which of the following is not a sub-field of Social Geography? (a) Medical Geography (b) Historical Geography (c) Electoral Geography (d) Cultural Geography 31. Which sub-field of geography is called Demography? (a) Rural Geography (b) Urban Geography (c) Political Geography (d) Population Geography 32. The two main branches of geography are (b) Physical and Human (a) Physical and Urban (c) Economic and Social (d) Political and Historical Case Study Based MCQs Case Study–1 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important ‘with the help of what tools and techniques do they produce and create’.

6 Geography Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws. For example, the understanding of concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire. Similarly, understanding of the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled us to conquer many diseases. We use the laws of aerodynamics to develop faster planes. You can see that knowledge about Nature is extremely important to develop technology and technology loosens the shackles of environment on human beings. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment humans were greatly influenced by it. They adapted to the dictates of Nature. This is so because the level of technology was very low and the stage of human social development was also primitive. This type of interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature was termed as environmental determinism. At that stage of very low technological development we can imagine the presence of a naturalised human, who listened to Nature, was afraid of its fury and worshipped it. 1. Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of (a) Worships (b) Workers (c) Technology (d) Communication 2. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of (a) Technological tools (b) Natural laws (c) Human societies (d) Natural resources 3. Which of the following laws are used to develop faster planes? (a) Laws of gravity (b) Laws of friction (c) Laws of thermodynamics (d) Laws of aerodynamics 4. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment, humans adapted to the dictates of Nature because (a) Level of technology was very low. (b) Stage of human social development was also primitive. (c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Neither (a) nor (b) 5. Which one of the following concepts is related to Naturalisation of Humans? (a) Humanism (b) Possibilism (c) Neodeterminism (d) Environmental Determinism Case Study–2 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Benda lives in the wilds of the Abujh Maad area of central India. His village consists of three huts deep in the wilds. Not even birds or stray dogs that usually crowd villages can be seen in these areas. Wearing a small loin cloth and armed with his axe he slowly surveys the penda (forest) where his tribe practices a primitive form of agriculture called shifting cultivation. Benda and his friends burn small patches of forest to clear them for cultivation. The ash is used for making the soil fertile. Benda is happy that the Mahua trees around him are in bloom. How lucky I am to be a part of this beautiful universe, he thinks as he looks up to see the Mahua, Palash and Sal trees that have sheltered him since childhood. Crossing the penda in a gliding motion, Benda makes his way to a stream. As he bends down to scoop up a palmful of water, he remembers to thank Loi-Lugi, the spirit of the forest for allowing him to quench his thirst. Moving on with his friends, Benda chews

Human Geography: Nature and Scope 7 on succulent leaves and roots. The boys have been trying to collect Gajjhara and Kuchla, from the forest. These are special plants that Benda and his people use. He hopes the spirits of the forest will be kind and lead him to these herbs. These are needed to barter in the madhai or tribal fair coming up the next full moon. He closes his eyes and tries hard to recall what the elders had taught him about these herbs and the places they are found in. He wishes he had listened more carefully. Suddenly there is a rustling of leaves. Benda and his friends know it is the outsiders who have come searching for them in the wilds. In a single fluid motion Benda and his friends disappear behind the thick canopy of trees and become one with the spirit of the forest. 1. Which type of agriculture is practiced by the tribal people lived in Abujh Maad? (a) Traditional agriculture (b) Intensive agriculture (c) Slash and burn agriculture (d) Plantation agriculture 2. Which trees dominate the forest area of central India mentioned above? (a) Mahua and Sal (b) Palash and Mangrove (c) Sal and Mangrove (d) Mahua and Mangrove 3. The clan of Benda is entirely dependent on nature. It is represented which of the following idea? (a) Humanism (b) Possibilism / Humanisation of Nature (c) Determinism / Naturalisation of Humans (d) Neodeterminism / Stop and go determinism 4. As mentioned in the above paragraph, “Gajjhara” and “Kuchla” are ___________. (a) Tribal dresses (b) Special plants (c) Special flowers (d) Spirit of the forest 5. Which act is not associated with Benda? (a) He chews the pulpy leaves and the roots in the forest. (b) He is very sad to see the Mahua trees that bloom around him. (c) He thanks the soul of the forest, Loi-Lugi, for quenching the thirst. (d) He collects the special herbs for the tribal fair coming up the next full moon. Case Study–3 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Winters in the town of Trondheim mean fierce winds and heavy snow. The skies are dark for months. Kari drives to work in the dark at 8 am. She has special tyres for the winter and keeps the headlights of her powerful car switched on. Her office is artificially heated at a comfortable 23 degrees Celsius. The campus of the university she works in is built under a huge glass dome. This dome keeps the snow out in winter and lets in the sunshine in the summer. The temperature is controlled carefully and there is adequate lighting. Even though fresh vegetables and plants don’t grow in such harsh weather, Kari keeps an orchid on her desk and enjoys eating tropical fruits like banana and kiwi. These are flown in from warmer areas regularly. With a click of the mouse, Kari can network with colleagues in New Delhi. She frequently takes a morning flight to London and returns in the evening in time to watch her favourite television serial. Though Kari is fifty-eight years old, she is fitter and looks younger than many thirty-year-olds in other parts of the world. 1. How human beings are controlling climatic conditions? (a) By making glass house (b) By using air conditions (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)

8 Geography 2. Which one of the following things makes possible to change nature by the human beings? (a) By rule (b) By organization (c) By using technology (d) None of these 3. What is the shape of the university campus? (a) Bell shaped (b) Dome shaped (c) Cone shaped (d) Pyramid shaped 4. Why Kari looks younger than many thirty-year-olds in other parts of the world though she is fifty-eight years old? (a) Because of Medicine (b) Because of surgery (c) Because of better living standard (d) None of these 5. What do mean by Humanisation of Nature? (a) Changing climate as per requirements (b) Making full control over environment (c) Modifying nature as per requirements (d) Making full control over nature

Unit II Human Development 4 Chapter Multiple Choice Questions In each of the following questions only one option is correct. Select the correct option. 1. Human development is (a) Always negative (b) Always positive (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) 2. Which one of the following best describes development? (a) An increase in size (b) A decrease in size (c) A positive change in quality (d) A simple change in the quality 3. Which criterion was used in the early period to measure the level of development? (a) Industrial growth (b) Economic growth (c) Population growth (d) Agricultural growth 4. Which one of the following scholars introduced the concept of Human Development? (a) Prof. Amartya Sen (b) Ellen C. Semple (c) Dr. Mahabub-ul-Haq (d) Ratzel 5. When was the Human Development Index created? (a) 1980 (b) 1990 (c) 2000 (d) 2010 6. Which is not a part of the Human development of people? (a) Health (b) Freedom (c) Opportunities (d) Number of people 7. Which is not a key area of human development? (a) Education (b) Good health (c) Access to resources (d) Industrial development 8. Which of the following indicators is not used to calculate Human Development Index (HDI)? (a) Education (b) Life expectancy (c) Social Inequality (d) Per capita income 9. “A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose.” This means that (a) People must be free to achieve their goals. (b) People must be rich to live a long successful life. (c) People must be free to use natural resources of a nation. (d) People must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals. 21

22 Geography 10. Which three are the pillars of human development? I. Equity II. Education III. Productivity IV. Sustainability (a) I, II and IV (b) II, III, and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III 11. Which one of the following is not a pillar of human development? (a) Welfare (b) Sustainability (c) Productivity (d) Empowerment 12. Which is not a hindrance to Equity? (a) Race (b) Caste (c) Gender (d) Freedom 13. Which statement depicts the best definition of sustainable development? (a) It means optimal utilization of natural resources. (b) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation. (c) Present generation fulfills its needs while considers the needs of the future generation as well. (d) None of these 14. Empowerment means (a) To have the power to make choices (b) Continuity in the availability of opportunities (c) To making equal access to opportunities available to everybody (d) Human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work 15. “Basic Needs Approach” was initially proposed by (a) International Labour Organisation (ILO) (b) United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)  (c) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) (d) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) 16. “Capability Approach” is associated with (a) Ratzel (b) Ellen C. Semple (c) Prof. Amartya Sen (d) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq  17. The most significant aspect of human development is (a) Health Approach (b) Income Approach (c) Welfare Approach (d) Capability Approach 18. Which one is the oldest approach to human development? (a) Welfare Approach (b) Income Approach (c) Minimum Need Approach (d) Capability Approach 19. What is the range of measuring Human Development Index? (a) 0 to 1 (b) 0 to 10 (c) 0 to 100 (d) 0 to 200 20. Access to resources is measured in terms of (b) Purchasing power (a) Medical facilities (d) Availability of opportunities (c) Good governance 21. Which of the following steps can be taken to improve the level of human development? (a) Increasing literacy levels (b) Providing health facilities (c) Having more gross enrolment ratio (d) All of these

Human Development 23 22. Gross National Happiness (GNH) encourages us to think about the following aspects of development: (a) Spiritual (b) Non-material (c) Qualitative (d) All of these 23. Which is the only country in the world that officially proclaims the Gross National Happiness (GNH) as the measure of the country’s progress? (a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh 24. Which agency is responsible for preparation and publishing the list of human development of the world’s countries? (a) ILO (b) WHO (c) UNDP (d) UNESCO 25. On the basis of the human development scores, countries can be classified into (a) 2 groups (b) 3 groups (c) 4 groups (d) 5 groups 26. Which state in India has the highest HDI? (a) Punjab (b) Kerala (c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu 27. Countries with very high human development index are those which have a score of over (a) 0.700 (b) 0.800 (c) 0.899 (d) 0.900 28. Countries with high human development index are those which have a score between (a) 0.550 up to 0.699 (b) 0.600 up to 0.699 (c) 0.700 up to 0.799 (d) 0.800 up to 0.899 29. How many countries have a high level of human development? (According to Human Development Report, 2020) (a) 38 (b) 47 (c) 53 (d) 65 30. How many countries have a low level of human development? (According to Human Development Report, 2020) (a) 44 (b) 33 (c) 22 (d) 11 31. Which country ranks first in the world in Human Development Index? (a) Norway (b) Ireland (c) Australia (d) Switzerland 32. What was the rank of India in Human Development Index (HDI) 2006? (a) 116 (b) 126 (c) 136 (d) 146 33. What is the rank of India in the Human Development Index 2020? (a) 123 (b) 126 (c) 128 (d) 131 Case Study Based MCQs Case Study–1 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Both growth and development refer to changes over a period of time. The difference is that growth is quantitative and value neutral. It may have a positive or a negative sign. This means that the change may be either positive (showing an increase) or negative (indicating a decrease). Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive. This means that development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions. Development occurs when

24 Geography positive growth takes place. Yet, positive growth does not always lead to development. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality. The idea that the quality of life people enjoy in a country, the opportunities they have and freedoms they enjoy, are important aspects of development, is not new. These ideas were clearly spelt out for the first time in the late eighties and early nineties. The works of two South Asian economists, Mahbub-ul-Haq and Amartya Sen are important in this regard. The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr Haq has described human development as development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development under this concept. These choices are not fixed but keep on changing. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives. A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. This means that people must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals. 1. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Growth is qualitative. (b) Development is quantitative. (c) Growth is always value positive. (d) Development is always value positive. 2. Which of the following statements define development? I. Development means qualitative change. II. Development means quantitative change. III. Development is always value positive. IV. Development occurs when positive growth takes place. (a) I and II and III only (b) II, III and IV only (c) I, III and IV only (d) All of these 3. According to Dr Mehbub-Ul-Haq which of the following is central to all development? (a) Safety and security (b) People (c) Resources (d) Government policies 4. In which of the following cases growth of a city is not accompanied by development? (a) Provision of better housing facilities (b) Provision of standard educational facilities (c) Provision of better health facilities (d) Provision of better irrigation facilities 5. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where (a) People can live long lives. (b) People can live healthy lives. (c) People can live meaningful lives. (d) People can live in cultural societies. Case Study–2 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: The human development index measures attainments in human development. It reflects what has been achieved in the key areas of human development. Yet it is not the most reliable measure. This is because it does not say anything about the distribution. “Since 1990, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has been publishing the Human Development Report every year. This report provides a rank-wise list of all member countries according to the level of human development. The Human Development index and the Human Poverty index are two important indices to measure human development used by the UNDP.”

Human Development 25 The human poverty index is related to the human development index. This index measures the shortfall in human development. It is a non-income measure. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40, the adult illiteracy rate, the number of people who do not have access to clean water, and the number of small children who are underweight are all taken into account to show the shortfall in human development in any region. Often the human poverty index is more revealing than the human development index. Looking at both these measures of human development together gives an accurate picture of the human development situation in a country. 1. Which is not a key area of human development? (d) Access to Education (a) Access to Resource (b) Access to Health (c) Access to Food 2. The shortfall of human development includes (a) Adult literacy (b) Underweight children (c) Access to clean water (d) High life expectancy 3. The first Human Development Report was published in ___________. (a) 1989 (b) 1990 (c) 1991 (d) 1992 4. The human development report is published by (a) UNESCO (b) ILO (c) UNDP (d) WHO 5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about human poverty index? (a) It is a non-income generated measure. (b) It measures the shortfall of human development. (c) It is often more revealing than the human development index. (d) All of these Case Study–3 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: As many as 33 countries record low levels of human development. A large proportion of these are small countries which have been going through political turmoil and social instability in the form of civil war, famine or a high incidence of diseases. There is an urgent need to address the human development requirements of this group through well thought out policies. International comparisons of human development can show some very interesting results. Often people tend to blame low levels of human development on the culture of the people. For example, X country has lower human development because its people follow Y religion, or belong to Z community. Such statements are misleading. To understand why a particular region keeps reporting low or high levels of human development it is important to look at the pattern of government expenditure on the social sector. The political environment of the country and the amount of freedom people have is also important. Countries with high levels of human development invest more in the social sectors and are generally free from political turmoil and instability. Distribution of the country’s resources is also far more equitable. On the other hand, places with low levels of human development tend to spend more on defence rather than social sectors. This shows that these countries tend to be located in areas of political instability and have not been able to initiate accelerated economic development.

26 Geography 1. How many countries are lying in the low ranking HDI group? (a) 44 (b) 33 (c) 42 (d) 36 2. Which of the following reasons are responsible for a large portion of small counties having low HDI rankings? I. Political turmoil II. Famine or a high incidence of diseases III. Social instability in the form of civil war IV. High governmental expenditure on social sector (a) I, II and III only (b) I, II and IV only (c) II, III and IV only (d) All of these 3. How does the political environment determine the country’s high HDI ranking? (a) Incompetency of the government schemes. (b) The government is not accountable to its people. (c) The high level of corruption and poor governance. (d) The government formulates policies for public welfare. 4. The countries with high level of human development invest more on which of the following sector? (a) Defence sector (b) Agricultural sector (c) Social sector (d) Private sector 5. What is experienced by the countries which have high level of human development? (a) Food insecurity and famines (b) High incidences of epidemics (c) Political instability and social turmoil (d) Accelerated economic development

Unit III Tertiary and Quaternary Activities 7 Chapter Multiple Choice Questions In each of the following questions only one option is correct. Select the correct option. 1. Which service does not require professional skill? (a) Doctor (b) Teacher (c) Lawyer (d) Shopkeeper 2. Tertiary activities include both (b) Trade and commerce (a) Sale and purchase (c) Production and exchange (d) Transport and communication 3. Which one of the following is a tertiary activity? (a) Farming (b) Trading (c) Weaving (d) Hunting 4. Tertiary activities depend on (a) Skill (b) Factory (c) Machinery (d) Production 5. Periodic markets are found in (a) Urban areas (b) Rural areas (c) Commercial areas (d) None of these 6. Buying and selling of items (or things) is termed as (a) Trade (b) Import (c) Export (d) Commerce 7. What are quasi-urban centres? (b) Rural marketing centres (a) Retail marketing centres (c) Urban marketing centres (d) Wholesale marketing centres 8. Which of the following provide ordinary goods and services as well as many of the specialised goods and services required by people? (a) Retail trading centres (b) Rural marketing centres (c) Urban marketing centres (d) Wholesale marketing centres 9. ____________ is the business activity engaged in selling goods or services directly to consumers. (a) Assessing (b) Local trading (c) Retail trading (d) Wholesale trading 38

Tertiary and Quaternary Activities 39 10. Which of the following are the features of rural marketing centres? I. They serve as trading centres of the most rudimentary type. II. They cater to nearby settlements. III. Personal and profession services are well-developed. IV. These form local collecting and distributing centres. Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets) and also retailing areas. (a) I, II and III only (b) II, III and IV only (c) I, III and IV only (d) I, II and IV only 11. Door-to-door service is an example of (b) Wholesale trading (a) Retail trading (c) Rural trading (d) Urban trading 12. Which was the first to handle large scale retailing? (a) Chain stores (b) Departmental stores (c) Consumer co-operatives (d) Wholesale Stores 13. A line drawn on a map to join places equal in terms of the time taken to reach them are called (a) Isochasm (b) Isohyet (c) Isotherm (d) Isochrone 14. Every road that joins two nodes is called a (a) Link (b) Node (c) Vertex (d) Network 15. Which is the fastest means of communication? (a) Telex (b) Telegraph (c) Morse code (d) Mobile Telephone 16. Which of the following are examples of mass media? I. Radio II. Television III. Telephone IV. Newspaper (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I, II and IV only (d) II, III and IV only 17. Insurance and finance are examples of (b) High order services (a) Low order services (c) Medium order services (d) Urgent order services 18. Which one of the following sectors provides most of the employment in Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata? (a) Primary (b) Quaternary (c) Secondary (d) Service 19. The full form of CBD is (b) Central Board of Development (a) Central Business District (c) Computer-based Business District (d) Community Board of Development 20. Assertion (A): Services occur at many different levels. Reason (R): Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false and R is true.

40 Geography 21. ____________ has become the world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered jobs (250 million) and total revenue (40 per cent of the total GDP). (a) Tourism (b) Teaching (c) Transportation (d) Medical Tourism 22. Jobs that involve high degrees and level of innovations are known as: (a) Secondary activities (b) Quaternary activities (c) Quinary activities (d) Primary activities 23. Activities which involve the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information are known as (a) Tertiary activities (b) Quinary activities (c) Secondary activities (d) Quaternary activities 24. Which one of the following activities is related to quaternary sector? (a) Manufacturing computers (b) Paper and Raw pulp production (c) University teaching (d) Printing books 25. The quaternary sector along with the tertiary sector has replaced all primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth. Over half of the workers in the developed economies are in the ____________ . (a) Medical sector (b) Quinary sector (c) Quaternary sector (d) Knowledge sector 26. To which group of activity does a tax consultant belong? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Quaternary 27. The highest level of decision makers or policy makers perform (a) Outsourcing (b) Secondary activities (c) Quinary activities (d) Quaternary activities 28. Which of the following are not quinary activities? (a) Finance (b) Consultants (c) Decision makers (d) Policy formulators 29. The ‘gold collar’ professions are (b) Daily wages workers (a) Hardly paid workers (c) Highly paid executives (d) Contract based workers 30. Which one out of the following statements is not true? (a) Outsourcing reduces costs and increases efficiency. (b) At times engineering and manufacturing jobs can also be outsourced. (c) BPOs have better business opportunities as compared to KPOs. (d) There may be dissatisfaction among job seekers in the countries that outsource the job. 31. KPO is a type of ____________ service. (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Quinary (d) Quaternary 32. The Knowledge processing Outsourcing (KPO) industry is distinct from Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) as it involves (a) Unskilled workers (b) Skilled workers (c) Regular workers (d) Highly skilled workers 33. Which of the following is not an example of Knowledge Processing Outsourcing (KPO)? (a) E-learning (b) Outsourcing (c) Legal profession (d) Business research

Tertiary and Quaternary Activities 41 34. Arrange the following colours of collars in sequence as per their importance of work. I. Grey collar II. Black collar III. Blue collar IV. Gold collar (a) I, II, III, IV (b) IV, I, III, II (c) I, IV, II, III (d) II, I, IV, III 35. ICT stands for (b) Information Communication Technologies (a) Intelligent Communication Technologies (c) International Communication Technologies (d) Infrastructural Communication Technologies 36. Assertion (A): Opportunities emerging from the Information and Communication Technology based development is unevenly distributed across the globe. Reason (R): There are wide ranging economic, political and social differences among countries. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false and R is true. Case Study Based MCQs Case Study–1 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed’. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. Exchange, involves trade, transport and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance. Tertiary activities, therefore, involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods. They are not directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials. Common examples are the work of a plumber, electrician, technician, launderer, barber, shopkeeper, driver, cashier, teacher, doctor, lawyer and publisher etc. The main difference between secondary activities and tertiary activities is that the expertise provided by services relies more heavily on specialised skills, experience and knowledge of the workers rather than on the production techniques, machinery and factory processes. 1. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employed in ____________ . (a) Quinary (b) Tertiary (c) Secondary (d) Quaternary 2. Which one of the following is a feature of tertiary sector? (a) It is a labour intensive sector. (b) It involves unskilled labour. (c) It provides support to primary and secondary sectors. (d) All of these 3. How is tertiary sector different from primary and secondary sectors? (a) Provides international services (b) Provides labours for extracting natural resources

42 Geography (c) Provides laws and regulations to maintain services (d) Provides services for production of goods but does not produce goods 4. What is the importance of the tertiary sector in the economy? (a) It improves social understanding. (b) It strengthens the foreign relations. (c) It creates the vast majority of employment opportunities. (d) It creates favourable conditions to participate in government policies. 5. Two elements involved in tertiary activities are (a) Sale and purchase (b) Production and exchange (c) Wages and salaries (d) Transport and communication Case Study–2 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Trading centres may be divided into rural and urban marketing centres. Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements. These are quasi-urban centres. They serve as trading centres of the most rudimentary type. Here personal and professional services are not well-developed. These form local collecting and distributing centres. Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets) and also retailing areas. They are not urban centres per se but are significant centres for making available goods and services which are most frequently demanded by rural folk. Periodic markets in rural areas are found where there are no regular markets and local periodic markets are organised at different temporal intervals. These may be weekly, biweekly markets from where people from the surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand. These markets are held on specified dates and move from one place to another. The shopkeepers thus, remain busy on all the days while a large area is served by them. Urban marketing centres have more widely specialised urban services. They provide ordinary goods and services as well as many of the specialised goods and services required by people. Urban centres, therefore, offer manufactured goods as well as many specialised markets develop, e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi or finished products. Services of educational institutions and professionals such as teachers, lawyers, consultants, physicians, dentists and veterinary doctors are available. 1. Which type of activity is trading? (a) Primary activity (b) Secondary activity (c) Tertiary activity (d) Both (b) and (c) 2. Periodic markets are found in (a) Urban areas (b) Rural areas (c) Commercial areas (d) Highly planned areas 3. In which type of market, an authorized public gathering of buyers and sellers of commodities at a particular place at regular intervals takes place? (a) Retail market (b) Special market (c) Periodic market (d) Wholesale market 4. Which one of the following statements is not correct about rural marketing centres? (a) These centres are not organized. (b) These form local collecting and distributing centers. (c) They serve as trading centers of the most rudimentary type. (d) They have well-defined personal and professional services. 5. Which of the centers offer manufactured goods, specialised markets and services required by people? (a) Retail trading centres (b) Rural marketing centres (c) Urban marketing centres (d) Wholesale marketing centres

Unit IV International Trade 9 Chapter Multiple Choice Questions In each of the following questions only one option is correct. Select the correct option. 1. What was the initial form of trade in the primitive society? (a) Barter system (b) Free trade (c) Bilateral trade (d) Multilateral trade 2. ‘Jon Beel Mela’ is associated with (a) Free trade (b) Barter system (c) Bilateral trade (d) Multilateral trade 3. Every January after the harvest season, ‘Jon Beel Mela’ takes place in Jagiroad, 35 km away from ____________ . (a) Silchar (b) Tinsukia (c) Guwahati (d) Dibrugarh 4. The word ‘salary’ comes from the Latin word ‘salarium’ which means (a) Payment by silk (b) Payment by salt (c) Trade in Salt by Sea (d) Barter of Salt for Silk 5. In ancient time, the Silk Route connected (c) Rome and China (d) Kabul and China (a) Berlin and India (b) Rome and India 6. The total length of the Silk Route is (a) 6000 km (b) 7000 km (c) 8000 km (d) 9000 km 7. Which new form of trade emerged due to European colonization in 15th century? (a) Silk trade (b) Goods trade (c) Slave trade (d) Animal trade 8. Who started Slave Trade from Africa in the 17th and 18th century? (a) British (b) Portuguese (c) Dutch and Spanish (d) All of these 9. Slave trade was abolished in Denmark in (a) 1792 (b) 1794 (c) 1796 (d) 1798 10. Slave trade was abolished in Great Britain in (a) 1799 (b) 1803 (c) 1807 (d) 1811 11. Slave trade was abolished in the United States in (a) 1802 (b) 1804 (c) 1806 (d) 1808 47

48 Geography 12. Which one of the following continents has the maximum flow of global trade? (a) Asia (b) North America (c) Europe (d) Africa 13. Which of the following forms the basis of international trade? (a) Population factors (b) Difference in national resources (c) Extent of foreign investment (d) All of these 14. Which of the following is an aspect of international trade? (a) Volume of trade (b) Direction of trade (c) Composition of trade (d) All of these 15. ____________ records the volume of goods and services imported as well as exported by a country to other countries. (a) Volume of trade (b) Composition of trade (c) Balance of trade (d) Balance of business 16. If the value of imports is more than the value of exports, the trade is (a) Balance (b) Unfavourable (c) Favourable (d) None of these 17. If the value of exports is more than the value of imports, then the trade is (a) Balance (b) Opposite (c) Favourable (d) Unfavourable 18. India’ balance of trade is negative due to (b) High price of crude oil (a) Overpopulation (c) Liberal policies of government (d) All of these 19. How many types of international trade are there? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four 20. The act of opening up economies for trading is known as (a) Privatization (b) Globalization (c) Commercialization (d) Trade liberalization 21. General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was formed in (a) 1964 (b) 1968 (c) 1954 (d) 1948 22. When did the World Trade Organization come into effect? (d) 1 January, 1996 (a) 1 January, 1993 (b) 1 January, 1994 (c) 1 January, 1995 23. World Trade Organisation (WTO) headquarters is located in (a) Vienna, Austria (b) Brussels, Belgium (c) Washington DC, USA (d) Geneva, Switzerland 24. How many countries were members of WTO as on December 2016? (a) 126 (b) 150 (c) 164 (d) 195 25. ____________ is the only international organisation dealing with the global rules of trade between nations. (a) WTO (b) OPEC (c) ASEAN (d) NAFTA 26. Which of the following country is not a part of ASEAN trade bloc? (a) Cambodia (b) Sri Lanka (c) Malaysia (d) Indonesia 27. In which of the following trade blocs, is India an associate member? (a) SAFTA (b) OECD (c) ASEAN (d) OPEC

International Trade 49 28. The headquarters of Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) is located in (a) Minsk, Belarus (b) Vienna, Austria (c) Jakarta, Indonesia (d) Brussels, Belgium 29. Where is the headquarters of European Union (EU)? (a) Rome, Italy (b) Vienna, Austria (c) London, England (d) Brussels, Belgium 30. When was European Union formed? (a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1994 (d) 1998 31. The headquarters of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is located in (a) Doha, Qatar (b) Tehran, Iran (c) Vienna, Austria (d) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia 32. Which one of the following South American nation, is a part of OPEC? (a) Brazil (b) Chile (c) Venezuela (d) Peru 33. India is a member of which of which regional trade group? (a) ASEAN (b) NAFTA (c) SAFTA (d) OPEC 34. How many countries are there in OPEC? (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 17 35. Which association is the largest single market in the world? (a) EU (b) OPEC (c) SAFTA (d) ASEAN 36. The chief gateways of the world of international trade are (a) Ports (b) Harbours (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 37. Most of the world’s great ports are classified as (a) Naval Ports (b) Oil Ports (c) Comprehensive Ports (d) Industrial Ports 38. Which of the following is/are tanker ports? (b) Esskhira in Tunisia (a) Tripoli in Lebanon (c) Maracaibo in Venezuela (d) All of these 39. Which one of the following is a Port of Call? (a) Aden in Yemen (b) Karachi in Pakistan (c) Abadan on the Gulf of Persia (d) Mumbai in India 40. Ferry ports are also known as (a) Ports of call (b) Pocket stations (c) Naval ports (d) Entrepot ports 41. Which of the following is an oil port? (a) Tripoli (b) Mumbai (c) London (d) New York 42. Kolkata is a type of (b) Oil port (c) Inland port (d) Entrepot port (a) Out port

50 Geography (d) Chittagong 43. Which one of the following is an important entrepot port for Asia? (d) Entrepot port (a) Kolkata (b) Singapore (c) Bangkok 44. Kochi and Karwar are examples of which type of ports in India? (a) Naval ports (b) Inland ports (c) Ports of call Case Study Based MCQs Case Study–1 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: In ancient times, transporting goods over long distances was risky, hence trade was restricted to local markets. People then spent most of their resources on basic necessities – food and clothes. Only the rich people bought jewellery, costly dresses and this resulted in trade of luxury items. The Silk Route is an early example of long distance trade connecting Rome to China – along the 6,000 km route. The traders transported Chinese silk, Roman wool and precious metals and many other high value commodities from intermediate points in India, Persia and Central Asia. After the disintegration of the Roman Empire, European commerce grew during twelfth and thirteenth century with the development of ocean going warships trade between Europe and Asia grew and the Americas were discovered. Fifteenth century onwards, the European colonialism began and along with trade of exotic commodities, a new form of trade emerged which was called slave trade. The Portuguese, Dutch, Spaniards, and British captured African natives and forcefully transported them to the newly discovered Americas for their labour in the plantations. Slave trade was a lucrative business for more than two hundred years till it was abolished in Denmark in 1792, Great Britain in 1807 and United States in 1808. 1. Which region was not the intermediate point of the Silk Route? (a) India (b) Persia (c) Rome (d) Central Asia 2. Who first traded slaves in Africa? (a) Dutch (b) Portuguese (c) Spaniards (d) British 3. Why was slave trade a lucrative business in European countries? (a) Helped to build warships (b) Helped to generate long distance journey (c) Helped to discover sea routes (d) Helped to develop industries 4. Which was the first European country to abolish slavery? (a) Britain (b) Portugal (c) Denmark (d) Spain 5. Which country abolished the slave trade in 1808? (a) Britain (b) Denmark (c) Canada (d) USA Case Study–2 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: In 1948, to liberalise the world from high customs tariffs and various other types of restrictions, General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was formed by some countries. In 1994, it was decided by the member countries to set up a permanent institution for looking after the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nation and the GATT was transformed into the World Trade Organisation from 1st January 1995.

International Trade 51 WTO is the only international organization dealing with the global rules of trade between nations. It sets the rules for the global trading system and resolves disputes between its member nations. WTO also covers trade in services, such as telecommunication and banking, and others issues such as intellectual rights. The WTO has however been criticised and opposed by those who are worried about the effects of free trade and economic globalisation. It is argued that free trade does not make ordinary people’s lives more prosperous. It is actually widening the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries more rich. This is because the influential nations in the WTO focus on their own commercial interests. Moreover, many developed countries have not fully opened their markets to products from developing countries. It is also argued that issues of health, worker’s rights, child labour and environment are ignored. 1. General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was formed (a) To promote free trade (b) To abolish illegal trade (c) To remove the high customs tariffs (d) To reduce the high customs tariffs 2. When did the GATT come into effect? (a) 1945 (b) 1948 (c) 1954 (d) 1994 3. When was GATT transformed into WTO? (a) 1 September, 1995 (b) 1 October, 1995 (c) 1 January, 1995 (d) 1 December, 1995 4. The WTO has been criticised and opposed by those who are worried about the effects of (a) Free trade (b) Economic globalization (c) Global competition (d) Both (a) and (b) 5 Which of the following statement is not true about WHO? (a) WTO resolves disputes between its member nations. (b) WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. (c) WTO does not cover trade in services, such as telecommunication and banking. (d) WTO looks after the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nations.

Part B: India: People and Economy UNIT I Chapter 1 Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Chapter 2 Migration : Types, Causes and Consequences Chapter 3 Human Development UNIT II Chapter 4 Human Settlements UNIT III Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture Chapter 6 Water Resources Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context UNIT IV Chapter 10 Transport and Communication Chapter 11 International Trade UNIT V Chapter 12 Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems

Unit I Human Development 3 Chapter Multiple Choice Questions In each of the following questions only one option is correct. Select the correct option. 1. When was the first Human Development Report published by the UNDP? (a) 1970 (b) 1980 (c) 1990 (d) 1995 2. What is the average HDI value of India? (a) 0.802 (b) 0.702 (c) 0.554 (d) 0.502 3. India has per capita income on prevailing prices: (a)  15,813 (b)  17,813 (c)  18,813 (d)  20,813 4. Which state has the highest percentage of people below the poverty line? (a) Bihar (b) Odisha (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Assam 5. The infant mortality rate in India per thousand is: (a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 47 (d) 80 6. In India, the death rate per thousand is: (a) 6.55 (b) 8.10 (c) 7.48 (d) 9.11 7. Which state has the highest literacy rate? (a) Goa (b) Kerala (c) Mizoram (d) Maharashtra 8. Which state has the lowest HDI value? (a) Rajasthan (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) Madhya Pradesh 9. Who is the author of the book ‘Small is beautiful’? (a) Maithus (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Schumacher (d) Brundtlan 10. Which one of the following is India’s rank in terms of Human Development Index among the countries of the world in 2005? (a) 126 (b) 127 (c) 128 (d) 129 11. Which one of the following states of India has the highest rank in the Human Development Index? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab (c) Kerala (d) Haryana 67

68 Geography 12. Which one of the following states of India has the lowest female literacy? (a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Jharkhand (d) Bihar 13. Which one of the following states of India has the lowest female child sex ratio 0-6 years? (a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Punjab (d) Himachal Pradesh. 14. Which one of the following Union Territories of India has the highest literacy rate? (a) Lakshadweep (b) Chandigarh (c) Daman and Diu (d) Andaman and the Nicobar Islands 15. Which criterion was used in the early period to measure development? (a) Industrial growth (b) Agricultural growth (c) Economic growth (d) Population growth 16. Which is not a part of the Human development of people? (a) Opportunities (b) Freedom (c) Health (d) Number of people 17. Who first published Human development index report in India? (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (c) Planning Commission (d) Ministry of Finance 18. Which is not a key area of human development? (a) Access to Resources (b) Good health (c) Education (d) Industrial development 19. Which one of the following scholars introduced the concept of Human Development? (a) Prof. Amartya Sen (b) Ellen C. Sein pie (c) Dr. Mahabub-Ul-Haq (d) Ratzel. 20. Where does India rank in the world Human Development Index in 2016? (a) 107 (b) 117 (c) 131 (d) 137 21. Which one of the following best describes development? (a) An increase in size (b) A constant in size (c) A positive change in quality (d) A simple change in the quality 22. Which of the following are the pillars of human development? (a) Equity (b) Sustainability (c) Productivity (d) All of these 23. Which of these is the most significant aspect of human development? (a) Income approach (b) Welfare approach (c) Capability approach (d) Health approach 24. Which of the following two South Asian economists put forward the idea of human development? (a) Mahbub-ul-Haq and Amartya Sen (b) Dr Manmohan Singh and Amartya Sen (c) Dr Arun Jaitley and Mahbub-ul-Haq (d) None of these 25. Which one of the following states of India has the highest rank in the Human Development Index? (a) Gujarat (b) Kerala (c) Delhi (d) Haryana

Migration : Types, Causes and Consequences 69 Case Study Based MCQs Case Study–1 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: “Human development is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choices, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment and covering the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom.” Thus, enlarging the range of people’s choices is the most significant aspect of human development. People’s choices may involve a host of other issues, but, living a long and healthy life, to be educated and have access to resources needed for a decent standard of living including political freedom, guaranteed human rights and personal self-respect, etc. are considered some of the non-negotiable aspects of the human development. 1. Access to __________, health and education are the key areas in human development. (a) resources (b) transport (c) politics (d) ministers 2. The human poverty index is related to the: (b) human development index (a) GDP (d) human immigration index (c) human growth index 3. According to Dr. Haq’s concept of human development, who is central to all development? (a) Countries (b) Continents (c) People (d) Policies 4. Why is Human Development information important? (a) Measure’s development of a country (b) Measure’s the progress made in terms of government policies (c) Measure death rate (d) Measure countries import and export 5. __________ an important means to development rather than an end in itself. (a) Income growth (b) Emigration (c) Migration (d) Birth rate Case Study–2 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: The release of toxic and non-biodegradable wastes from industries and urban sewerages,and open defecation, etc, have created many health hazards. The Government of India has initiated many steps to address these problems and the Swachh Bharat Mission is one of these. A healthy mind lives in a healthy body and for ahealthy body, clean environment, particularly, clean air, water, noise-free ambience and hygienic surrounding are pre-requisites. Municipal waste, industrial effluents and pollutants generated by transport, etc., are major sources of pollution in urban India. Open defecation in rural areas and in urban slumsare a major source of pollution. The Government of India with its flagship programme Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) aims at a pollution-free environment. 1. Which of the following programme is going to re-launch as Swachh Bharat Mission? (a) Total Sanitation Campaign (b) Ek kadam swachta Ki Aur (c) Nirmal Bharat Mission (d) None

70 Geography 2. Which ministry initiated the Swachh Bharat Mission? (a) Ministry of Environment and forest (b) Ministry of Urban Development Housing (c) Ministry of Urban development (d) Ministry of Drinking water and Sanitation 3. Who is the inspiration behind the concept of SBM? (d) Morarji Desai (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Sardar Patel 4. What is the full form of SBM? (b) Swastha Baharat Mission (a) Swachh Bharat Mission (c) Safal Baharat Mission (d) Sashakta Baharat Mission 5. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched on the occasion the birth anniversary of __________. (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Sardar Patel

Unit III Mineral and Energy Resources 7 Chapter Multiple Choice Questions In each of the following questions only one option is correct. Select the correct option. 1. Which is the hardest mineral? (a) Diamond (b) Granite (c) Basalt (d) Gabbro 2. Which one of the following is a ferrous mineral? (a) Bauxite (b) Iron ore (c) Mica (d) Coal 3. The iron content in Hematite is: (a) 20 – 30% (b) 30 – 40% (c) 40 – 50% (d) 60 – 70% 4. Which one of the following is a famous Copper mine? (a) Bastar (b) Khetri (c) Nellore (d) Jharia 5. Lignite coal is found in: (a) Jharia (b) Neyveli (c) Bokaro (d) Raniganj 6. Where is the largest solar plant located? (a) Nasik (b) Madhopur (c) Kaiga (d) Chandrapur 7. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral? (a) Iron (b) Limestone (c) Manganese (d) Copper 8. For which mineral, is Hazaribagh Plateau famous? (a) Iron ore (b) Copper (c) Mica (d) Coal 9. Where is the largest coalfield of India? (a) Jharia (b) Raniganj (c) Neyveli (d) Singareni 10. In which state is Kalpakkazn located? (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh 11. Which out of the following states has major oil fields? (a) Assam (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu 12. Out of the following, which mineral is called ‘Brown diamond’? (a) Iron ore (b) Lignite (c) Manganese (d) Mica 82

Mineral and Energy Resources 83 13. Which one of the following is non-renewable source of energy? (a) Hydel (b) Solar (c) Thermal (d) Wind power 14. Which of the following is not a ferrous mineral? (a) Iron (b) Manganese (c) Chromite (d) Zinc 15. Which one of these is not a renewable energy resource? (a) Wind energy (b) Geothermal energy (c) Solar energy (d) Natural gas 16. Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy? (a) Natural gas (b) Petroleum (c) Coal (d) Wind 17. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is situated in: (a) Mathura (b) Bengaluru (c) Tarapur (d) Kota 18. Which of the following non-metallic minerals is used in the electrical and electronic industries? (a) Bauxite (b) Copper (c) Mica (d) Manganese 19. When was the Atomic Energy Commission established? (a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1950 (d) 1952 20. Where is Digboi oil field located? (b) Rajasthan (a) Assam (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu 21. When was the Gas Authority of India Limited set up? (a) 1983 (b) 1984 (c) 1985 (d) 1986 22. Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh) is popular for production of (a) Solar energy (b) Wind energy (c) Geothermal energy (d) Tidal energy 23. Which fossil fuel is called liquid gold? (a) Petroleum (b) Coal (c) Natural gas (d) All of these 24. Which of the following is an ore of aluminium? (a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Bauxite (d) Mica Case Study Based MCQs Case Study–1 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Singareni collieries, the country’s premier coal production company, still uses canaries to detect the presence of deadly carbon monoxide in underground mines. Miners collapse and often die even if small quantities of the highly poisonous CO are present in the air. Though, miners speak lovingly of the canaries, the underground experience is not at all pleasant for the birds. When lowered into mines with CO presence, the birds show distress symptoms such as ruffling of feathers, pronounced chirping and loss of life. These reactions occur even

84 Geography if 0.15 per cent of CO is present in the air. If the content is 0.3 per cent the bird shows immediate distress and falls off its perch in two to three minutes. A cage of birds is a good indicator in air containing more than 0.15 per cent CO, said a coalminer. The sophisticated hand held CO detectors introduced by the company can detect CO concentrations from as low as 10 ppm to as high as 1,000 ppm. But despite this, the miners trust the birds, who have saved the lives of several of their predecessors. 1. Singareni mines belong to which mineral? (a) Iron (b) Petrol (c) Copper (d) Coal 2. Correct percentage of carbon monoxide present in the atmosphere is: (a) 0.00001% (b) 0.3% (c) 1% (d) 1.1% 3. The chemical symbol for carbon monoxide is __________. (a) CO (b) C2O (c) CO2 (d) C2O2 4. Carbon monoxide unites with the __________ of the blood. (a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells (c) Hemoglobin (d) Platelets 5. What percentage of carbon monoxide will produce discomfort in 2 or 3 hours? (a) 400 ppm (.04%) (b) 600 ppm (.06%) (c) 800 ppm (.08%) (d) 1000 ppm (.1%) Case Study–2 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources due to its varied geological structure. Bulk of the valuable minerals are products of pre-palaezoic age “Fundamentals of Physical Geography” and are mainly associated with metamorphic and igneous rocks of the peninsular India. The vast alluvial plain tract of north India is devoid of minerals of economic use. The mineral resources provide the country with the necessary base for industrial development. In this chapter, we shall discuss the availability of various types of mineral and energy resources in the country. 1. Which is the best quality of iron ore? (a) Hematite (b) Siderite (c) Magnetite (d) Limonit 2. At which one of the following places was the first atomic power station started? (a) Kalpakkam (b) Narora (c) Rana Pratap Sagar (d) Tarapur 3. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks? (a) Sedimentary rocks (b) Igneous rocks (c) Metamorphic rocks (d) None of these 4. Large occurrences of minerals in cracks, crevices, faults in igneous and metamorphic rocks are called: (a) Layers (b) Veins (c) Lodes (d) Chamber 5. Mineral deposits that occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors are called: (a) Placer deposits (b) Lodes (c) Reserve (d) Layers

Unit IV Transport and Communication 10 Chapter Multiple Choice Questions In each of the following questions only one option is correct. Select the correct option. 1. Which stations are joined by the North-South corridor? (a) Srinagar – Kanniyakumari (b) Delhi – Chennai (c) Jaipur – Salem (d) Patna – Kochi 2. What is the length of inland waterways in India? (a) 14,000 km (b) 14,200 km (c) 14,300 km (d) 14,500 km 3. Which element is not sent through communication? (a) Views (b) Ideas (c) Messages (d) Passengers 4. Which tours are joined by NH-1? (c) Delhi – Mumbai (d) Delhi – Chennai (a) Delhi – Amritsar (b) Delhi – Kolkata 5. What is the share of National Highways in roads of India? (a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 3% (d) 4% 6. What is the length of the Golden Quadrilateral highway? (a) 3,846 km (b) 4,846 km (c) 5,846 km (d) 6,846 km 7. Which state has the highest road density in India? (a) Punjab (b) Kerala (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka 8. How many Rail zones are there in India? (a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 17 9. What is the length of the broad gauge railway? (a) 1.5 metres (b) 1.6 metres (c) 1.7 metres (d) 1.8 metres 10. When was the first pipeline constructed in India? (a) 1957 (b) 1958 (c) 1959 (d) 1960 11. In how many zones has the Indian Railways system been divided? (a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 14 93

94 Geography 12. On which river and between which two places does the National Water Way No. 1 lie? (a) The Brahmaputra, Sadiya-Dhubri (b) The Ganga, Haldia-Allahabad (c) West Coast Canal, Kottapuram to Kollam 13. In which of the following year, the first radio programme was broadcast? (a) 1911 (b) 1936 (c) 1927 (d) 1923 14. Which one of the following is the longest highway of India? (a) N.H.-1 (b) N.H.-6 (c) N.H.-44 (d) N.H.-8 15. India has one of the largest road networks in the world with a total length of : (a) 33.1 lakh km (b) 22.1 lakh km (c) 11.1 lakh km (d) 34.1 lakh km 16. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in __________ . (a) 1996 (b) 1995 (c) 1997 (d) 1998 17. State Highways are constructed and maintained by: (a) Village Government (b) State Government (c) ITBP (d) Central Governments 18. The density of roads is high in most of the: (b) Mountainous terrains (a) Northern states and major southern states (c) Desert area (d) None of these 19. __________ is an important mode of transport for both passenger and heavy cargo traffic in India. (a) Waterways (b) Backwaters (c) Road transport (d) Pipeline 20. Which transport is the fastest means of movement from one place to the other? (a) Air (b) Water (c) Road (d) Pipeline 21. Air transport in India started in : (a) 1911 (b) 1922 (c) 1933 (d) 1944 22. India’s own launching vehicle is called: (b) Polar Satellite Attack Vehicle (a) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (c) Polar Satellite Receiving Vehicle (d) Polar Satellite Reacting Vehicle 23. How many types of waterways are found in India? (a) Marsh (b) Inland water (c) Creek (d) River 24. There are __________ National Waterways in India. (a) 111 (b) 112 (c) 113 (d) 114 25. When did the government adopt the Open Sky Policy for cargo? (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993 26. Which of the following rulers built the Grand Trunk road? (a) Humayun (b) Shah Jahan (c) Sher Shah Suri (d) Akbar 27. When was air transport nationalised in India? (a) 1920 (b) 1940 (c) 1933 (d) 1953

Transport and Communication 95 28. Which of the following metro cities are connected by Golden Quadrilateral? (a) Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata (b) Delhi-Mumbai-Jaipur-Kolkata (c) Delhi-Mumbai-Ahmedabad-Kolkata (d) Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-Hyderabad Case Study Based MCQs Case Study–1 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: Indian Railways, network is one of the longest in the world. It facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contributes to the growth of the economy. Mahatma Gandhi said, the Indian railways “...brought people of diverse cultures together to contribute to India’s freedom struggle”. Indian Railway was introduced in 1853,when a line was constructed from Bombay toThane covering a distance of 34 km. Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country. The length of Indian Railways network was 66,030 km as on 31 March 2015. Its very large size puts a lot of pressure on a centralised railway management system. Thus,in India, the railway system has been divided into 19 zones. Indian Railways has launched extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow gauges to broad gauge. Moreover, steam engines have been replaced by diesel and electric engines. This step has increased the speed, as well as, the haulage capacity. The replacement of steam engines run by coal has also improved the environment of the stations Metro rail has revolution lised the urban transport system in Kolkata and Delhi. Replacement of diesel buses by CNG-runvehicles along with the introduction of metro is a welcome step towards controlling the air pollution in urban centres. Railway continues to remain the main means of transport for the masses. Railway network is relatively less dense in the hill states, north eastern states, central parts of India and Rajasthan. 1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? (a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992 2. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth 3. When was the first train started in India? (a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854 4. The first railway line of India was operationalised in 1853 between (a) Howrah and Delhi (b) Bombay and Thane (c) Howrah and Bombay (d) None of the above 5. Which of the following is the cheapest mode of transport in India ? (a) Pipelines (b) Waterways (c) Railways (d) Airways Case Study–2 Read the given source carefully and answer the following questions: The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central Government are known as the National Highways. These roads are meant for inter-state transport and movement of defence men and material in strategic areas. These also connect the state capitals, major cities, important ports, railway junctions, etc. The length of the National Highways has increased from 19,700 km in1951 to 100475 km in 2015-16. The National Highways constitute only about 2 per cent of the total road length but carry 40 per cent of the road traffic.

96 Geography The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in 1995. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport. It is entrusted with the responsibility of development, maintenance and operation of National Highways. This is also the apex body to improve the quality of the roads designated as National Highways. 1. In which year was the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) operationalised? (a) 1880 (b) 1885 (c) 1990 (d) 1995 2. The National highways system is the responsibility of (a) State Governments (b) Central Government (c) A special Roads Authority (d) State and Central Government 3. Which National Highway connects Delhi and Kolkata via Varanasi? (a) NH 4 (b) NH 10 (c) NH 2 (d) NH 6 4. Which mode provides door-to-door service? (a) Rail (b) Road (c) Airways (d) Pipelines 5. Which National Highway connects Chennai and Visakhapatnam ? (a) NH 4 (b) NH 5 (c) NH 6 (d) NH 8

Answers Part A: Fundamentals of Human Geography 1. Human Geography: Nature and Scope 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 8. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 16. (c) 24. (c) Case Study–1 32. (d) 40. (b) 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) Case Study–2 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) Case Study–3 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 2. The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 43. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 3. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 41. (a) 42. (c) Case Study–1 1. (d) 2. (b) 105

106 Geography Case Study–2 8. (a) 16. (b) 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 24. (b) Case Study–3 8. (c) 16. (c) 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 24. (c) 32. (b) Case Study–4 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 3. Population Composition 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 7. (d) 15. (a) Case Study–1 23. (b) 31. (a) 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) Case Study–2 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) Case Study–3 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 4. Human Development 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 33. (d) Case Study–1 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c)

Answers 107 Case Study–2 8. (d) 16. (d) 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 24. (b) 32. (b) Case Study–3 40. (c) 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 8. (c) 16. (d) 5. Primary Activities 24. (c) 32. (d) 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 40. (a) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 25. (b) 26. (d) 7. (a) 15. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 23. (b) 31. (c) Case Study–1 39. (c) 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) Case Study–2 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. Secondary Activities 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (d) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 41. (c) 42. (d) Case Study–1 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) Case Study–2 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)

108 Geography 8. (c) 7. Tertiary and Quaternary Activities 16. (c) 24. (c) 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 32. (d) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 8. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 35. (b) 36. (a) 24. (a) 7. (c) 32. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 15. (d) 23. (d) 8. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 31. (c) 16. (b) 24. (c) Case Study–1 7. (c) 32. (c) 15. (c) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 23. (d) 31. (c) Case Study–2 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 8. Transport and Communication 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) Case Study–1 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) Case Study–2 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 9. International Trade 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b)

Answers 109 40. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 41. (a) 42. (c) Case Study–1 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) Case Study–2 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 10. Human Settlements 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 25. (d) 26. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) Case Study–1 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) Case Study–2 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) Part B: India: People and Economy 1. Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 25. (c) Case Study–1 1. (b) 2. (a)

110 Geography Case Study–2 8. (c) 16. (c) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 24. (a) 2. Migration: Types, Causes and Consequences 8. (b) 16. (d) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 24. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 8. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) Case Study–1 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) Case Study–2 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 3. Human Development 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 25. (b) Case Study–1 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) Case Study–2 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 4. Human Settlements 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 25. (d)