The idea that having a good cry do you (3) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (4) _____ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (5) _____. Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (6) _____ activity. Because some people still regard it as a (7) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically. Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable – (9) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (10) _____ ―weepies‖. It seems that people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together. 11. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display 12. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter 13. A. better B. fine C. good D. well 14. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep 15. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce 16. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving 17. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign 18. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel 19. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard 20. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. Travel Insurance When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something goes (1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (2)_______ will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way of earning money (4) ______ making false claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______, some people pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £50 million per year. But the cheats‘ luck is about to run (8)_____. (9) ______ to a new computer system,
companies will be able to tell at a glance (10) _____ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose for other people‘s dishonesty. Exercise 3. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. The symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose. People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the independent nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing substances. The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during the summer and autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well as mold, come into contact with the victim‘s membranes, they can cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not been successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy. (Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D) 1. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to________. A. fodder for cattle B. a seasonal discomfort C. viral bacteria D. a lung disease 2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly________. A. abdominal B. intestinal C. respiratory D. chronic 3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph? A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death. B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined. C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions. D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions. 4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience________. A. hunger pains B. mood swings
C. nervous blockages D. sensory perceptions 5. The word “resentment‖ is closest in meaning to________. A. reprieve B. reprisal C. irritation D. grief 6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by________. A. wind B. food C. travelers D. air passages 7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to________. A. obstruction B. bleeding C. enlargement D. dryness 8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to________. A. avoid interactions with other patients B. avoid exposure to pollen C. increase their self-confidence D. take doses of prescribed medicine. 9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies? A. pollen B. mold C. flowers D. injections 10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss________. A. how the nervous system alerts patients. B. how the immune system reacts to allergens. C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines. D. what flowers are harmless to hay fever patients. IV. WRITING Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. 1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaint about it. Should ______________________________________________________________________ 2. It‘s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine. cancelled I ___________________________________________________________________ 3. Her success went beyond her expectation. Never _______________________________________________________________________ 4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency. more The left ____________________________________________________________________ 5. Simon hadn‘t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation. The operation ______________________________________________________________ 6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.
He must _____________________________________________________________________ The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the avenue. Not until _____________________________________________________________________ 7. ―Why can‘t you do your work more carefully?‖ Helen‘s boss said to her. Helen‘s boss criticized __________________________________________________________ 8. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city. It ___________________________________________________________________________ 9. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one. is The blue dress three__________________________________________________________ Exercise 2. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic: Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………… -------------Hết-----------
Keys – practice 18 I – PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions 1. A. period B. consider C. advocate D. cultural 2. A. exclude B. expire C. expert D. exceed 3. A. industrial B. infallible C. intimacy D. intensity 4. A. engineering B. comprehension C. maturity D. architectural 5. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D. historical 6. A. enough B. aware C. support D. swallow 7. A. period B. consider C. advocate D. cultural 8. A. exclude B. expire C. expert D. exceed 9. A. industrial B. infallible C. intimacy D. intensity 10. A. engineering B. comprehension C. maturity D. architectural II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 pts) Exercise 1. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer) 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. C Exercise 2. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct finding + 0.5 pt/each correction) 1. the second (Line 2)→ a second 6. signature (Line 8)→ signing 2. and (intricate) (Line 4)→ an (intricate) 7. to investigate (Line 10)→ investigating 3. is functioned (Line 4)→ functions 8. for (Line 10)→ in 4. presenter (Line 5)→ representative 9. reciprocates (Line 11)→ reciprocate 5. promised (Line 7)→ promising 10. personnel (Line 13)→ personal Exercise 3. (5 pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
1. beneficial 2. presentation 3. noticeable 4. speech 5. orally 6. professional 7. impression 8. responses 9. revisit 10. unease III. READING (30pts) 4. A 5. D Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer) 9. A 10. D 1. B 2. C 3. C 6. C 7. D 8. B Exercise 2. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer) 1. wrong 2. which 3. others/ some 4. by 5. example/ instance 9. Thanks 10. whether/ if 6. fact 7. of 8. out Exercise 3. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer) 4. B 5. C 1.B 2.C 3. B 9. D 10. B 6. A 7. A 8. B IV. WRITING (25 pts) Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer) 11. Should you have any complaint about the product, return it to the shop. 12. I cancelled my subscription/ subscibing to that magazine nine months ago. 13. Never had she expected she was so successful/ she got so much/ such success. 14. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it. 15. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected. 16. He must have recognized us at the airport. 17. Not until the journalists arrived at the avenue did they hear about the changes to the wedding plans. 18. Helen‘s boss criticized her for not doing her work more carefully. 19. It has been suggested that the parking fees in the city (should) be raised. 20. The blue dress is three times as much/ expensive as that one.
Exercise 2. (15 pts) Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem. Marking scheme The mark given is based on the following scheme: Task achievement (25 % of total mark) Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark) Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark) Lexical resource (25 % of total mark) -------------Hết----------- ENGLISH PRACTICE 19 I – PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions 1. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D. historical 2. A. emergency B. geothermal C. alternative D. expensively 3. A. technology B. variety C. centenarian D. Compulsory 4. a. reindeer b. engineer c. pioneer d. referee 5. a. dangerous b. marvelous c. conspicuous d. numerous 6. a. establish b. illustrate c. intimidate d. inheritance 7. a. expansion b. conversion c. precision d. explosion 8. a. eradicate b. character c. malaria d. spectacular 9. A.encourage B.financial C.departure D.average 10. A.career B.request C.ancient D.machine PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D).
1. She looked very______ when I told her the good news. A. happily B. happiness C. happy D. was happy 2. I don't want much sugar in my coffee. Just_______, please. A. few B. a few C. little D. a little 3. He's left his book at home; he's always so______. A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting 4. 'I'm very ______ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said. A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful 5. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless steel. A. is combined B. that is combined C. combining D. when combined 6. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us. A. yet B. so C. for D. and 7. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning. A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However 8. ―Who has brothers and sisters?‖ ―Everyone ________Virginia who‘s an only child.‖ A. except to B. with C. from D. but 9. He is the manager of the factory. He‘s ________it. A. charged with B. charged C. in charge D. in charge of 10. He was new on the job, but he quickly fit himself into the ________ routine of the office. A. establishing B. established C. establishes D. establish 11. Florida, ________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year. A. is B. is known as C. known as D. that is known as
12. ________becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists. A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are C. Are giant pandas D. Giant panda is 13. Her parents gave her everything she asked for. She's a completed _______ child. A. wounded B. spoilt C. damaged D. destroyed 14. _______ my experience, very few people really understand the problem. A. To B. In C. With D. From 15. When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats. A. away B. out C. on D. off II. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each blank. The increase in city crime is a global phenomenon. Some people say that a lot of crime in this country is because of (1 - migrate) ______ and the new people arriving from other countries bring different (2 - culture) ______ values and attitudes to the law. I don‘t agree with this idea because the most common crimes are (3 - local) ______ produced and not imported from other countries. (4 - Vandal) ______ is one of the biggest crimes in my city with bus shelters and shop windows being popular targets. Another popular crime is (5 - pay) ______ parking fines, which is unlikely to be because of immigrants because most of them do not own cars. The (6 - oppose) ______ point of view is that young local people feel angry when they can‘t get a job and in order to (7 - hand) ______ the change in their environment, they strike out at easy targets. This would explain why bicycle (8 - thief) ______ is more common than car crime these days, especially in rich (9 - neighbors) ______ where most cars are protected with electronic alarms. Another reason, though, for so many bicycles getting stolen might be that the (10 - punish) ______ is not very severe compared to car stealing which can land you in prison for a number of years. III. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition. 1. Most American men earn _______ average about $110 a week. 2. He was walking through the park when a strange dog suddenly went _______ him. 3. My car is not worth much _______ most $ 50.
4. I‘d better not drink that milk, Joe. It‘s gone _______. 5. Clive was really cut _______ when he failed his proficiency exam. IV. Identify the error in each sentence. Write the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet. 1. The children forgot picking up the note from the office and now they are worried. AB CD 2. Helen has never met such good person who is ready to help others. A B CD 3. If only I have done the test better than other students did. A BC D 4. If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful. AB C D 5. Rumors began circulating that the Prime Minister was seriously illness. AB CD 6. Everybody in class has to choose a topic of your own to write an essay of 500 words. A BC D 7. Neither of the boys had ever been out of town before, so they were really exciting. A BC D 8. I hope that I can help you with the historic questions. AB CD 9. My son learned to talk the time before he was 5 years old. AB CD 10. Jim offered us presents as if it had been Xmas. A B CD
PART III: READING I. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions. Million of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the issues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High – tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone of you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often. 1. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because ______. A. they are indispensable in everyday communication B. they make them look more stylish C. they keep the users alert all the time D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones 2. The changes possible caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with______. A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory 3. The word \"means\" in the passage most closely means _______. A. meanings B. expression C. method D. transmission 4. The word \"potentially\" in the passage most closely means _______. A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately 5. \"Negative publicity\" in the passage most likely means _______. A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones C. the negative public use of cell phones D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones 6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _______. A. damage their users' emotions B. cause some mental malfunction C. change their users' temperament D. change their users' social behavior 7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often _______. A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory 8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______. A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays 9. According to the writer, people should _______. A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. never used mobile phones in all cases 10.The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. \"The reasons why mobile phones are regular\" B. \"Technological Innovation and their price\" C. \"They way mobile phones work\" D. \"Mobile phones – a must of our time\" II. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. Stamp collecting! What a wonderful hobby! I began when I was only five. I used to (1) ______ for the postman's arrival, always (2) ______ to seize unwanted envelopes and tear off the corner with the stamp stuck on it. Once – I remember it was too clearly – my mother and father were sunning themselves in the garden when the post (3) _____ on the doormat. I heard the clatter of the letter flap and hurriedly went to (4) ______. There were four or five envelops, all with very exciting stamps. Even at the (5) ______ age of five I knew one doesn't open mail addressed to other people. However, tearing just the corners off the envelops (6) ______ me as perfectly fair and allowable, and just what I did. I carefully tore as (7) ______ to the stamps as (8) _______, feeling that even the envelopes, which were addressed to my parents and not to be, should be treated with (9) _______. There were nothing furtive in what I did. I knew my parents would see what I'd done, and I didn't think there was any (10) ______ in it. They always let me (11) ______ the corners after they'd opened them. Why should I think there was any harm in doing it first, (12) ______ in mind that they weren't on hand to be (13) ______. Wouldn't they rather be left to doze in their summer deckchairs? (14) ______, though, my father solemnly showed me his letters. They looked distinctly moth-eaten, with bites taken out of the corners and sites. I began to (15) ______ what I've done. 1. A. stare B. watch C. look D. peer 2. A. glad B. pleased C. eager D. excited 3. A. came B. was C. lay D. arrived 4. A. investigate B. observe C. see D. notice 5. A. junior B. tender C. small D. little 6. A. struck B. seemed C. appeared D. felt
7. A. nearby B. close C. next D. round 8. A. able B. possibly C. possible D. could 9. A. gentleness B. caution C. honor D. respect 10. A. trouble B. wrong C. bad D. harm 11. A. take B. tear C. cut D. remove 12. A. having B. holding C. bearing D. keeping 13. A. consulted B. advised C. queried D. requested 14. A. After B. Then C. Later D. Soon 15. A. accept B. realize C. admit D. confess III. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Write A, B, C or D to indicate your answers on the answer sheet. Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep. The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
1. What is the main point of the first paragraph? A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large. B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water. C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water. D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water. 2. The words \"In reality\" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly 3. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density 4. The word \"configuration\" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement 5. Neap tides occur when A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction B. the Moon is full C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction PART IV. WRITING I. Write the new sentences using the word give. Do not change the word given in any way. 1. We are afraid that the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled. REGRET We ________________________ the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled.
2. 'I was going to phone Sarah but I had too much homework to do', said John MEANT John said that ___________________ but he'd had too much homework to do. 3. Many people think that Gone with the Wind is one of the greatest films ever made. BE Gone with the Wind _________________ one of the greatest films ever made. 4. If you hold your breath for a few seconds it might get rid of your hiccups. HOLDING You might be able to get rid of your hiccups if you _____________ for a few seconds. 5. Anna didn't like it at all when one of her colleagues got the promotion instead of her. RESENTED Anna _____________________ the promotion instead of her. 6. I have a good relationship with my neighbors. ON My neighbors __________________well together. 7. It wasn't a good idea for me to spend all my money on beer and cigarettes, but I did. UP I wish ________________________ my money on beer and cigarettes. 8. The police left and then all the journalists arrived. ALREADY The police ____________________all the journalists arrived. 9. Although Sarah wasn't wearing a helmet, she wasn't injured in the accident. OF Sarah wasn't injured in the accident, ______________ a helmet. 10. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background. SENSE Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt _______________ about her life. II. Write a complete letter using the given word/phrases as cues. You should change the form of words if necessary.
1. Thank/ much/French/ cookery book/ you/ give/ me. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 2. recipes/ look/ wonderful/, and/ I/ certainly/ enjoy/ use/ it. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 3. I/ hope/ you/ and/ Auntie Susan/ have/ good/ Christmas. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 4. we/ stay/ at/ home/, but/ have/ couple/ day/ trips/ out/ nearby. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 5. our/ local/ theatre/ put/ on/ production/ \"A Christmas Carol\"/, which/ fun. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 6. I/ go/ back/ University/ next/ week/, and/ this/ year/ I/have/ to/ study/ hard/ final/ exams. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 7. I/ really/ enjoy/ the/ course/ so/ far/, but/ I/ not/ sure/ what/ do/ once/ I/ get/degree. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 8. university/ arrange/ career/ interviews/, but/ I/ not/really/ have/clear/ idea/what/ I/ want/ do. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 9. hopefully/ it/ all/ become/ clearer/ during/ course/ the/ year. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………….. 10. Thank/ again/ lovely/ present/, and/ Happy/ New/ Year/ …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………..
Keys – practice 19 I – PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions 1. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D. historical B. geothermal C. alternative D. 2. A. emergency expensively B. variety C. centenarian D. 3. A. technology b. engineer c. pioneer d. referee Compulsory b. marvelous b. illustrate c. conspicuous d. numerous 4. a. reindeer b. conversion 5. a. dangerous b. character c. intimidate d. inheritance 6. a. establish B.financial 7. a. expansion B.request c. precision d. explosion 8. a. eradicate 9. A.encourage c. malaria d. spectacular 10. A.career C.departure D.average C.ancient D.machine PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts) I. (15pts: 1/item) 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 10. B 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. D 15. A 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. B 9. neighborhoods 10. punishment II. (10pts: 1/item) 5. up 1. immigration 3. locally 5. unpaid 7. handle 9. B 2. cultural 4. vandalism 6. opposing 8. theft III. (5pts: 1pt/item) 1. on 2. for 3. at 4. off IV. (5pts: 0.5 pt/ item) 1. A 3. A 5. D 7. D
2. B 4. D 6. C 8. D 10. D PART III. READING (30 pts) 3. C 4. B 5. B I. (10pts: 1/item) 8. A 9. A 10. B 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 8. C 9. D 10. D 6. B 7. D 13. A 14. C 15. B II. (15pts: 1/item) 3. B 4. D 5. A 1. B 2. C 6. A 7. B 11. D 12. C III. (5pts: 1pt/item) 1. D 2. B PART IV. WRITING (20pts) I. (10pts: 1/item) 1. regret to inform/to tell you/announce that 2. he had meant to phone Sarah 3. is considered/thought to be 4. try holding your breath 5. resented one of her colleagues getting 6. and I get on 7. I hadn't used up 8. had already left when/before 9. in spite of not wearing 10. a sense of achievement II. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. Thank you very much for the French cookery book you gave me. 2. The recipes look wonderful, and I'll certainly enjoy using it. 3. I hope you and Auntie Susan had a good Christmas. 4. We stayed at home, but had a couple of day trips out nearby. 5. Our local theatre put on a production of \"A Christmas Carol\", which was fun. 6. I am going back to University next week, and this year I'm going to have to study hard for the final exams. 7. I've really enjoyed the course so far, but I'm not sure what to do once I get my degree. 8. The University arranges career interviews, but I don't really have a clear idea of what I want to do. 9. Hopefully it will all become clearer during the course of the year. 10. Thank you again for the lovely present, and Happy New Year! ENGLISH PRACTICE 20 PART I. PHONETICS I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. 1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude 2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar 3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase 4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead 5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. 1. A. amphibian B. champagne C. cathedral D. creature 2. A. accommodation B. antibiotic C. counterclockwise D. deforestation 3. A. consciousness B. ecotourism C. biosphere D. confirm 4. A. architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D. archeologist 5. A. consolidate B. context C. conference D. confidence
PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. 1. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O‘keeffe made New Mexico _______. A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence 2. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _______ employed to investigate the deep sea. A. can be robots B. robots can be C. can robots D. can robots that are 3. _______ is not clear to researchers. A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct. B. Why dinosaurs became extinct C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct 4. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956. A. while B. until C. on D. when 5. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth. A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. that contain 6. In the 1820‘s physical education became _______ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale Universities. A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part 7. If you can win his attention ___________ for you. A. the so much better B. the better so much C. so much the better D. so the much better 8. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________. A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
9. Which __________ agency do you work for? A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement 10. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health. A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. put through II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS. 1. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have realized that the second was superior than the first: 2. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have been impeded by recurrent drought. 3. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a party. 4. John‘s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having them pull. 5. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive 6. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth pull. 7. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at his office. 8. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time. 9. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it. 10. I‘d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous. III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. 1. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning. 2. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still remember their prepositions next morning. 3. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack? 4. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
5. ―How can I discourage my boyfriend _______ trying to kiss me all the time?‖ ―Eat plenty of garlic.‖ 6. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone. 7. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully. 8. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat? 9. He‘ll inherit the money when he comes ______________ age. 10.The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty. IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. 1. (ADAPT)__________ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people. 2. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen. 3. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute of the day. 4. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders. 5. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the streets. 6. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE) 7. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE) 8. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job. 9. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7? 10. If you weren‘t so (ACT)_______________, you wouldn‘t be so fat! PART III. READING I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. Action scenes in films Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes, which are (1) __________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially trained to do dangerous things safely. (2) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a film, you have to be extremely (3) __________ sometimes stopping right in front of the camera and film crew. At an early (4) ___________ in the production, an expert stuntman is (5) __________ in to
work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can go (6) __________ the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the (7) __________ of safety. Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots, since stuntmen don‘t have to (8) _________ in for the actors. Actors like to become (9) _________ in all the important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the recent progress in safety equipment, insurance companies would never let them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and know their (10) ___________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt. 1. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named 2. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one 3. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise 4. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage 5. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called 6. A. over B. against C. through D. across 7. A. interests B. needs C. purposes D. regards 8. A. work B. get C. put D. stand 9. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected 10. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When Tennessee William's play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a young actor (1) ____________ Marlon Brando went (2) __________ stage wearing a (3) _________ of blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-shirt. It was the first time the T- shirt had been seen publicly as anything (4) ____________ an item of underwear and it set a fashion trend that was to last through (5) _____________ the end of the century. The idea for the T-shirt came (6) __________ Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director was so impressed by the look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself. Brando may have seen the shirt being advertised by the American company Sears Roebuck. They had decided to market the shirt (7) ___________ a fashionable garment in its (8)
____________ right, rather than just something to be worn (9) __________ warmth beneath a denim workshirt (10) ___________ an army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized it, especially with the release of the film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket completed the look that was to be adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades afterwards. III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world‘s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the survival of our planet. Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed. 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization 2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world ―alarming‖ in the first paragraph? A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing 3. The word ―poachers‖ as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following? A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters
4. The word ―callousness‖ in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following? A. indirectnessB. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity 5. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast. A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information 6. What does the word ―this‖ in the first paragraph refer to in the passage? A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population 7. Which of the following could best replace the word ―allocated‖ in the second paragraph? A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off 8. The word ―defray‖ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. lower B. raise C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward 9. What does the term ―international boycott‖ in the second paragraph refer to? A. buying and selling of animal products overseas B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide C. a global increase in animal survival D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks 10. Which of the following best describes the author‘s attitude? A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised PART IV. WRITING I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
Hard _____________________________________________________. 2. Do all the washing, please! Let ______________________________________________________. 3. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him. I wish ___________________________________________________. 4. Mick thought that we were married. Mick was under _________________________________________. 5. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect. But for his command ____________________________________. II. Write an essay ( about 250 words) about the following topic: Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others blame for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………..
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Keys – practice 20 PART II. PHONETICS I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. (5pts) 1. B 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.D II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts) 1.D 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.D PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts) 1. D 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.A 6.D 7.C 8.D 9.C 10.A II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS. (10pts) 1. to the first 2. has 3. diligently 4. them pulled 5. Time passes 6. pulled 7. had the plane 8. waste of time 9. am trying 10. by myself III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10pts) 1. from 2. at/by 3.against 4. about 5. from 6.at 7.over 8. for 9.of 10.off IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts) 1. Adaptation 2. passers-by 3.worrisome 4.respectful 5.immobilize 6.disapproval 7.determination 8.reasonably 9.rearrange 10.inactive PART IV. READING I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts) 1.B 2.C 3.D 4.D 5.D 6.B 7.A 8.D 9.C 10.A
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts) 1.named/called 2.on 3.pair 4.but/ except 5.to/until 6.from 7.as 8.own 9.for 10.or III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts) 1.C 2.D 3.A 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.B PART V. WRITING I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10pts) 1. Hard as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed. 2. Let all the washing be done. 3. I wish I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him. 4. Mick was under the impression that we were married 5. But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison / jail. II. Write an essay (of about 250 words) about the following topic (20pts) Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others blame for man‘s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences. Marking scheme The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. ------The end ------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 21 I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (10.8 pts) a. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. 1. She swam strongly and_______ cross the river easily, even though it was swollen by the heavy rain. A. used to B. was able to C. could D. was supposed to 2. The government has spent one million pounds on an advertising ______ to encourage energy conservation. A. campaign B. promotion C. operation D. competition 3. Toxic chemicals are one of the factors that lead wildlife to the ______ of extinction. A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge 4. ______ the best of my knowledge, this system cannot work automatically. A. For B. To C. Within D. In 5. The aim of ASEAN is to promote closer economic_______. A. delegation B. integration C. reputation D. migration 6. The International Committee of the Red Cross is a private _______ institution founded in 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland. A. human B. humanity C. humanization D. humanitarian 7. Affected by the Western cultures, Vietnamese young people's attitudes _______ love and marriage have dramatically changed. A. for B. with C. through D. towards 8. How do you speak the fraction 2/5? A. two-five B. two-fifths C. second-fifths D. two-fifth 9. Don‘t be late for the interview, _______ people will think you are a disorganized person. A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so 10. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ______ at the desk. A. whoever B. who C. whom D. which 11. It is essential that your luggage _______ thoroughly before delivery. A. to be checked B. being checked C. be checked D. should be checking
12. The reason why this game attracts so many youngsters is that ___________ other video games, this one is far more interesting. A. comparing to B. in compared with C. on comparison to D. in comparison with 13. Take the shortcut round the church _______ late for school. A. in order not be B. in order that we won't be C. so that not to be D. so that we couldn't 14. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city, into a(n) _______ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year. A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly 15. Doctor Pike ______ the hospital after he ______an uneventful evening on duty. He ______ of his day of rest. A. was leaving / has had / thought B. left / had had / was thinking C. will leave / had / will think D. is leaving / will have / thinks 16. Something _____ immediately to prevent teenagers from _____ in factories and mines. A. should be done /being exploited B. we should do /exploiting C. should do / be exploited D. should have done /exploited 17. John: ―Have you decided on a present yet?‖ Ben: ―Almost, I need to choose one of _______.‖ A. new two exciting spy novels B. two spy exciting new novels C. two exciting new spy novels D. exciting new two spy novels b. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 1. I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money. A. making me impatient B. praising me too much
C. making me feel worse D. elevating me 2. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment. A. all day long B. all long day C. the long day D. day after day 3. He testified that he had seen the man leaving the building around the time of the murder. A. said B. provided evidence C. disapproved D. denied 4. She has a deep aversion to getting up in the morning so she usually goes to work late. A. intense dislike B. feeling C. provocation D. trouble 5. Those who transgress the laws of society will be punished. A. disagree with B. disperse C. violate D. interfere with c. Fill a suitable preposition/ particle into each gap to complete the sentences. 1. She felt a bit dizzy and had to lean _________ the wall before walking on. 2. Next year, we intend to bring __________ several new products. But at the moment, we are still testing them. 3. I‘m not sure if this is a suitable topic for a research paper. I need to talk it ______ with my teacher before I start writing. 4. The store had to lay _______ a number of clerks because sales were down. 5. ―Have you ever heard _________ William Carlos Williams?‖ ―I believe so. He was a poet, wasn‘t he?‖ 6. ―Mitchell looked pale and tired.‖ ― He told me he was feeling a little _______ the weather. 7. ―Are you going to take that job?‖ ―No, I decided to pass it _________ because I don‘t want to relocate.‖ d. Choose and give correct form of the verbs in column A with particles in column B to make phrasal verbs to complete the sentences. There are some extra.
A B get hold off down in up through on give fall step go come 1. Let‘s hope the rain will ___________ long enough for them to finish the cricket match. 2. He twisted my arm to make me tell what I knew, but I refused to ___________. 3. Some people think that the Queen should ___________ and allow the Prince to become King. 4. Whenever the subject of holidays _______________, Ruth and her husband have an argument. 5. They were planning to hold a Pop Concert in one of the parks but it ___________ owing to opposition from the local residents. e. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. 1. One is left with the ______________ problem of larger populations requiring more and more food. (solve) 2. The ______________ of the trains and buses causes frustration and annoyance. (frequent) 3. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of ______________ their diet. (organize) 4. They frequently ______________ the traffic as they march through the streets. (mobile) 5. There will sometimes be silences and pauses in a TV commentary, although these are becoming ______________ rare. (increase) 6. More women than men emphasized ______________ and trust; more men than women emphasized pleasure in a friend‘s company, going out with a friend and having a friend in one‘s home. (confidence) 7. Among the middle-aged men and women, the lack of contact with relatives, even those who lived nearby, was notable, suggesting that friends and relatives are indeed ____________. (change) 8. There is __________ dissatisfaction with the government‘s policies. (wide)
9. Welcome to another edition of the club newsletter. A list of ___________ events for the autumn is being prepared. (come) 10. One of the ____________ of this car is its high petrol consumption. (draw) f. Fill a suitable word in each space to complete the passage. The Countryside Agency began the process of designating the South Downs as a National Park in April last year. We believe that being a National Park is the best way to protect the Downs, build on the achievements of the past to (1) ______________ and enhance the area in its widest sense for future (2) ______________ . The Downs are under huge and increasing pressure. The South East is one of the busiest and most pressurised regions (3) ______________ Europe. This means there is (4) ______________ demand for the development of new homes, roads and industry. There are also more people living and working in the region, which means more need for people to be able to access beautiful and peaceful countryside to get (5) ______________ from it all. The Downs already receives around 35 million visits a year: this number is likely to increase as more and more people live and work in the area. Designation will bring a body with new ideas and resources specifically focused on (6) ______________ and visitor management, working with others across the whole of the Park to encourage co-ordination and joint action, and taking action itself where needed. It will be able to manage the increasing number of visitors so that the Downs themselves are not (7) ______________, but are still a resource everyone can enjoy. It will also be best placed to protect and enhance the Downs, so that the qualities so many people love in this special area remain for future generations. We have two (8) ______________: to identify a boundary for the proposed National Park and to prepare advice to the Government on the arrangements needed for a South Downs National Park Authority. The Agency is launching a widespread public consultation in November 2015 which will last for three months and give all interested organisations and individuals the (9) _________ to comment in detail on our initial proposals for the boundary and the administrative options for the National Park Authority. If you would like to receive a copy of the consultation document once it is published then please contact us (10) _____________ the feedback form. II. READING (5.2 pts) a. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions. Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture, or anything else that is included in one's possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and copyright deals with intangible forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the work of another person means passing it off as one's own. The word plagiarism is derived from the Latin plagiarus, which means \"abductor.\" Piracy may be an act of one person but, in many cases, it is a joint effort of several people who shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance, and all other forms of intellectual or artistic property. Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright establishes the ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or give away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid. Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be played by anyone after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become copyrighted property until they are published in a book, a painting, or a musical work. Almost all artistic work created before the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was passed. reproduce copyrighted material and sell it for profit without paying royalties to the creator. Technological innovations have made piracy easy, and anyone can duplicate a motion picture on videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by practically anyone to copy movies and television programs, and copying software has become almost as easy as copying a book. Large companies zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and brand names, protected by a trademark. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Legal rights of property owners B. Legal ownership of creative work C. Examples of copyright piracy work D. Copying creating work for profit 2. Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright? A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries 3. It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if ___________. A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters 4. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree? A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students. B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission. C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics. D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling. 5. The phrase \"infringing upon\" is closest in meaning to _________. A. impinging upon B. inducting for C. violating D. abhorring 6. The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the following? A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking C. A school policy D. A household rule 7. According to the passage, copyright law is _____________. A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced b. Read the passage and do the tasks followed At any given time, more than a million international students around the world are engaged in the study of the English language in a predominantly English-speaking country. The five most popular destinations, in order of popularity, are the U. S., Britain, Australia, New Zealand, and Canada. The reasons for choosing to study English abroad differ with each individual, as do the reasons for the choice of destination.
Numerous studies conducted in Britain and the United States show that the country of choice depends to a large extent on economic factors. While this should not provoke much surprise, careful analysis of the data suggests that students and their parents are most influenced by the preconceptions they have of the countries considered for study abroad, which, in turn, influence the amount they or their parents are prepared to outlay for the experience. The strength of international business connections between countries also gives a good indication of where students will seek tuition. In the main, students tend to follow the traditional pattern of study for their national group. The United States attracts the most diverse array of nationalities to its English language classrooms, this heterogeneity being largely due to its immense pulling power as the world's foremost economy and the resulting extensive focus on U.S. culture. Furthermore, throughout the non-European world, in Asia and North and South America especially, the course books used to teach English in most elementary and high schools introduce students to American English and the American accent from a very early age. Canada also benefits from worldwide North American exposure, but has the most homogenous group of students - most with French as their first language. Before furthering their English skills, students in Europe study from predominantly British English material; most Europeans, naturally, opt for neighboring Britain, but many Asian, Middle-Eastern, and African students decide upon the same route too. Australia and New Zealand are often overlooked, but hundreds of thousands of international students have discovered the delights of studying in the Southern Hemisphere. The majority are Asian for reasons that are not difficult to comprehend: the proximity of the two countries to Asia, (Jakarta, the capital of Australia's closest Asian neighbor, Indonesia, is only 5506 kilometers from Sydney), the comparatively inexpensive cost of living and tuition, and, perhaps of most importance to many Asian students whose English study is a prelude to tertiary study, the growing awareness that courses at antipodean universities and colleges are of an exceptionally high standard. In addition, revised entry procedures for overseas students have made it possible for an increasing number to attend classes to improve their English for alternative reasons. Australia and New Zealand have roughly the same mix of students in their language classrooms, but not all students of English who choose these countries are from Asia. The emerging global consciousness of the late twentieth century has meant that students from as far as Sweden and Brazil are choosing to combine a taste for exotic travel with the study of English 'down under' and in 'the land of the long white cloud'. But even the Asian economic downturn in the 1990s has not significantly altered the demographic composition of the majority of English language classrooms within the region. Nor have the economic problems in Asia caused appreciable drops in full-time college and university attendances by Asian students in these two countries. This is partly because there has always been a greater demand for enrolment at Australian and New Zealand tertiary institutions than places available to overseas students. In addition, the economic squeeze seems to have had a compensatory effect. It has clearly caused a reduction in the number of students from affected
countries who are financially able to study overseas. However, there has been a slight but noticeable shift towards Australia and New Zealand by less wealthy Asian students who might otherwise have chosen the United States for English study. The U.S. and Britain will always be the first choice of most students wishing to study the English language abroad, and it is too early to tell whether this trend will continue. However, economic considerations undoubtedly wield great influence upon Asian and non-Asian students alike. If student expectations can be met in less traditional study destinations, and as the world continues to shrink, future international students of English will be advantaged because the choice of viable study destinations will be wider. 1-3. Complete the missing information in the table below U.S Britain Australia New Canada Zealand 5th order of 1st 2nd 3rd popularity (1)……………… (2)……………. 4th type of English in American (3)……………… not given not given course books used in this country student 1 2 equal 3 5 heterogeneity (1 = most heterogenous 5 = least heterogenous) 4-9. Tick (√ ) in the right column if the statement is True, False or Not Given in the text True False Not Given 4. Study destination choices are mostly influenced by proximity to home.
5. Students who wish to study business will probably study English overseas. 6. Students of the same nationality usually make similar study choices. 7. English language classrooms in the U.S. have the widest range of student nationalities. 8. Standards at Australian and New Zealand tertiary institutions are improving. 9. Despite the 1990s Asian economic crisis, Asian students still dominate the English language classrooms of Australia and New Zealand. c. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the numbered blanks. The expression on your face can actually dramatically alter your feelings and perceptions, and it has been proved that (1) ____ smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional responses. The idea was first (2) _______ by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906. He believed that different facial (3) _______ affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that this could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible laughter increased the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad, angry expressions decreased the flow of oxygen- carrying blood, and created a vicious (4) _______ of gloom and depression by effectively (5) _______ the brain of essential fuel. Psychologist Robert Zajonc rediscovered this early research, and (6) ____ that the temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters which definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He argues that an impaired blood flow could not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but create further chemical imbalance by inhibiting these vital hormonal messages. Zajonc goes on to propose that our brains remember that smiling is associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your tears you can (7) ____ your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters – replacing a depressed condition with a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic illness depression and anxiety states could (8) _____ from simply exercising their zygomatic (9) ____ which pull the corners of the mouth (10) ____ to form a smile, several times an hour.
1. A. desperately B. determinedly C. deliberately D. decidedly 2. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward 3. A. aspects B. looks C. expressions D. appearances 4. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. vortex 5. A. cutting B. starving C. removing D. eliminating 6. A. advises B. wants C. demands D. suggests 7. A. make B. persuade C. give D. decide 8. A. recover B. improve C. benefit D. progress 9. A. muscles B. nerves C. veins D. bones 10. A. to and from B. up and back C. now and then D. up and down III. WRITING (4.0 pts) a. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week. If I ______________________________________________________________________________ __________. 2. The hurricane blew the roof off the house. The house ______________________________________________________________________________ __. 3. He was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery. He received a ______________________________________________________________________________ .
4. That rumor about the politician and the construction contract is absolutely false. There is ______________________________________________________________________________ ____. 5. I thought about what had happened all those years before. I cast ______________________________________________________________________________ ______. 6. There aren‘t many other books which explain this problem so well. In few other books _________________________________________________________________________. 7. Don‘t you think we should ask the price? Hadn‘t ______________________________________________________________________________ _____? 8. Doris tiptoed up the stairs because she didn‘t want to wake anyone up. To ______________________________________________________________________________ ________. 9. I‘m sure it wasn‘t Mr. Bill you saw because he‘s in New York. It can‘t ______________________________________________________________________________ ____. 10. The collision didn‘t damage my car much. Not a great ______________________________________________________________________________ _. b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given in any way. 1. Most people regard him as the best man for the job. (widely)
______________________________________________________________________________ ___________. 2. The suspect could not explain why he had sand on his boots. (account) ______________________________________________________________________________ ____________ 3. The best solution was thought of by Sally. (came) ______________________________________________________________________________ ____________ 4. You should consider the fact that he hasn‘t spoken French for years. (allowances) ______________________________________________________________________________ ____________ 5. He stood no chance of passing his driving test. (inevitable) ______________________________________________________________________________ ____________ ______The end ______
KEYS – PRACTICE 21 I. Lexico – Grammar ( 54 x 0.2 pt = 10.8 pts) d. Choose and give correct form of the verbs in column A with particles in column B to a. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to make phrasal verbs to complete the sentences. complete the sentences. 1. hold off 1. B. was able to 2. A. campaign 2. give in 3. C. verge 3. step down 4. B. To 4. comes up 5. B. integration 5. fell through 6. D. humanitarian 7. D. towards e. Give the correct form of the words given to 8. B. two-fifths complete the sentences. 9. B. otherwise 1. insoluble/unsolved 10. A. whoever 2. infrequency 11. C. be checked 3. disorganizing 12. D. in comparison with 4. immobilize 13. B. in order that we won't be 5. increasingly 14. B. ecology-friendly 6. confidentiality 15. B. left / had had / was thinking 7. interchangeable 16. A. should be done / being exploited 8. widespread 17. C. two exciting new spy novels 9. forthcoming/ upcoming 10. drawbacks b. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to f. Fill a suitable word in each space to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in complete the passage meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
1. B. praising me too much 1. conserve/ protect 2. A. all day long 2. generations 3. B. provided evidence 3. in 4. A. intense dislike 4. increasing/ greater 5. C. violate 5. away 6. conservation c. Fill a suitable preposition/ particle into 7. damaged each gap to complete the sentences. 8. tasks 1. against 9. opportunity 2. out 10. using 3. over 4. off 5. of 6. under 7. up II. READING ( 26 x 0.2 pts = 5.2 pts) a. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions. 1. B. Legal ownership of creative work 2. D. scientific discoveries 3. B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles 4. A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students. 5. C. violating 6. A. A law against theft
7. B. routinely ignored b. Read the passage and do the tasks followed l. British 2. not given (NG) 3. (equal) 3 4. F 5. NG 6. T 7. T 8. NG 9. T c. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the numbered blanks. 1. C. deliberately 2. D. put forward 3. C. expressions 4. C. circle 5. B. starving 6. D. suggests 7. B. persuade 8. C. benefit 9. A. muscles 10. B. up and back III. WRITING (4.0 pts) a. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 x 0.2 pt = 2.0 pts) 1. If I hadn‘t lost my passport last week, I wouldn‘t be having so much trouble now. 2. The house had its/the roof blown off by/in/during/because of the hurricane. 3. He received a six month sentence (in prison) for his part in the robbery.
4. There is absolutely no truth in that rumor about the politician and the construction contract. 5. I cast my mind back to what had happened all those years before. 6. In few other books is this problem explained so well./ will we see this problem so well explained. 7. Hadn‘t we better ask the price? 8. To avoid waking anyone up, Doris tiptoed up the stairs. 9. It can‘t have been Mr. Bill you saw because he‘s in New York. 10. Not a great deal of damage was done to my car in/by the collision./ Not a great amount of damage was caused to my car in/by the collision. b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not changethewordgiveninanyway.(5 x 0.4pt = 2.0pts) 1. He is widely regarded as the best man for the job. 2. The suspect could not account for the sand on his boots / The suspect could not account for the fact (that) he had sand on his boots. 3. Sally came up with the best solution. 4. You should make allowances for the fact that he hasn't spoken French for years. You should make allowances for his not speaking French for years. 5. It was inevitable that he would fail his driving test. ENGLISH PRACTICE 22 Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts) 1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry 2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin 3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing 4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique 5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts) 6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear 7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate 8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal 9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence 10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (20 pts) 11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products. A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification 12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled. A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner 13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me. A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest 14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory. A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment 15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there. A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came back 16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film. A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce 17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual. A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping 18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts. A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen 19. The jury _____ the defendant ―not guilty‖. A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found 20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived. A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary 21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor. A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance 22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country. A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response 23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions. A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to 24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that. A. must B. would C. should D. might 25. _____ calculations have shown that the earth‘s resources may run out before the end of the next century. A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt 26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave 27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored. A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to 28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected. A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically 29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day. A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses 30. It had been a trying afternoon, _____ at about six o‘clock in the television breaking down. A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts) According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31) scientists _____ (VALUE) for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that 31. ________________ being (32) _____ (FRIGHT) doesn‘t mean that they have to lose control. The 32. ________________ recent fashion for jumping from bridges attached to a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic 33. ________________ rope, known as ―bungee jumping‖, has now been tried by over one million people 34. ________________ (34) _____ (WORLD) and interest in it is continuing to grow. 35. ________________ Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach 36. ________________ speeds of nearly 160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to 37. ________________ open their mouths, and when they are finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the 38. ________________ ground, they walk around with broad smiles on their faces, saying (38) _____ 39. ________________ (REPEAT) how amazing it was. However, for some people, it is only the (39) _____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to jump at the last minute that finally persuades 40. ________________ them to conquer their fear of (40) _____ (HIGH) and push themselves off into space. Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts) 0. traditional → traditionally Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and 41. _____________________ knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness 42. _____________________ taught. The proficiency exams required by few states for high 43. _____________________ school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are 44. _____________________ designed and measure a person‘s ability to acquire new skills 45. _____________________ but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help 46. _____________________ you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or 47. _____________________ musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense 48. _____________________ achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past 49. _____________________ learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or 50. _____________________ situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use. Part 4: Fill in each of the gaps with the correct preposition or particle. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
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