been tried; it was a model that was efficient to operate but at the same time was very difficult to institute. Smith achieved efficiency in his model by designing a system that was separate from the passenger system and could, therefore, focus on how to deliver packages most efficiently. His strategy was to own his own planes so that he could create his own schedules and to ship all packages through the hug city of Memphis, a set – up which resembles the spokes on the wheel of a bicycle. With this combination of his own planes and hub set – up, he could get packages anywhere in the United States overnight. What made Smith‘s idea difficult to institute was the fact that the entire system had to be created before the company could begin operations. He needed a fleet of aircraft to collect packages from airports every night and deliver them to Memphis, where they were immediately sorted and flown out to their new destinations; he needed a fleet of trucks to deliver packages to and from the various airport; he needed facilities and trained staff all in place to handle the operation. Smith had a $4 million inheritance from his father, and he managed to raise an additional $91 million dollars from venture capitalists to get the company operating. When Federal Express began service in 1973 in 25 cities, the company was not an immediate success, but success did come within a relatively short period of time. The company lost $29 million in the first 26 months of operations. However, the tide was to turn relatively quickly. By late 1976, Federal Express was carrying an average of 19,000 packages per night and had made a profit of $36 million. 1. The word developed in paragraph 1 could be replaced by A. come up with B. come about C. come across D. come into 2. What was a key idea of Smith‘s? A. That he should focus on passenger service. B. That package delivery should be separate from passenger service. C. That packages could be delivered on other companies‘ planes. D. That passenger service had to be efficient. 3. A hug city in paragraph 2 is A. a large city with small cities as destinations. B. a city that is the final destination for many routes.
C. a city where many bicycle routes begin. D. a centralized city with destinations emanating from it. 4. It can be inferred from the passage that Smith selected Memphis as his hub city because it A. was near the middle of the country. B. had a large number of passenger aircraft C. already had a large package delivery service. D. was a favorite passenger airport. 5. Which paragraph explains what made Smith‘s model effective? A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The last paragraph III. Complete the following passage by filling one word for each blank. If there is just one single thing more astonishing than the ability of the adult human being to talk, it is the process by which someone learns to do this. Some parts of the process are still (1)________ much a closed book, but it is for the (2)_________ part possible to describe what the child is doing at various stages in its development, even if we cannot account (3)________ how exactly it learns to do these things. In fact, research carried out by various linguists has (4)_________ rise to as many theories as there are differences in the rate of development. A baby actually makes sounds from the moment it is born, but for some time these are rather far removed (5)_________ articulate speech. In something like a year, a baby will probably be at a stage where one or two syllables represent the peak of its achievement as a speaker; one more year and it will be (6)_______ out with short phrases, and after this it seems (7)________ time at all before the child is capable of uttering complete sentences. Despite being a truly remarkable feat of learning, this is one that is performed by the vast (8)_________ of human beings. Complex operations are brought (9)________ play in these dealing with speech and language; the key (10)_______ in brain work, though tongue – work and ear – work play a part in the whole process. PART D. WRITING
I. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word/phrase in capitals, and so that the meaning stays the same. 1. Please excuse Jane‘s poor typing; she‘s only been learning for a month. ALLOWANCES ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. 2. This is the procedure. FOLLOWS ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. 3. I just didn‘t know what to say. LOST ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. 4. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel. VIEW ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. 5. We decided to spend the afternoon exploring the shop LOOKING ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. II. With 250-300 words, write about the following topic: Increasing the price of petrol is the best way to solve growing traffic and pollution problems. To what extent do you agree or disagree? What other measures do you think might be effective? Give reasons for your answer with relevant examples from your knowledge and experience. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………. ------------THE END-------------
Keys – practice 26 PART A: PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following question 1. A. argument B. enquiry C. medicine D. justify C. preference D. official 2. A. convenience B. mechanic C. octopus D. proposal C. peninsula D. economics 3. A. recently B. attitude C. contributor D. assassinate C. potentially D. preservation 4. A. economy B. advisory C. horizon D. imagine C. mineral D. luxury 5. A. arithmetic B. agriculture C. dramatically D. alphabetical C. apprenticeship D. personality 6. A. magnificent B. appliances 7. A. computer B. property 8. A. architect B. electric 9. A. photochemical B. trigonometry 10. A. popularity B. conscientious PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 PT) I. 10 points (1 point/item) 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. A II. 10 points (1 point/item) 1. infancy 2. institutions 3. exclusively 4. insight 5. disappearing 6. commitment 7. inaccessible 8. loneliness 9. immersion 10. undeniable III. 10 points (1 point/item) 1. out 2. away 3. to 4. on 5. up 6. down 7. on 8. across 9. down 10. with PART C. READING (30 POINTS) I. 10 points (1 point/item) 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B
II. 10 points (2 point/item) 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B III. 10 points (1 point/item) 1. very/pretty 2. most 3. for 4. given 5.. from 8. majority 9. into 10. lies 6. coming 7. no PART D. WRITING (2.5 PT) I. 5 points (1 point/item) 1. Please make allowances for Jane‘s poor typing; she‘s only been learning for a month. 2. The procedure is as follows. 3. I was lost for words. 4. Alison bought a big house with a view to opening a hotel. 5. We decided to spend the afternoon looking around the shop. XI. 2.0 pt. - The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the passage: 0.25 pt - The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 1 pt - The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 0.75 pt ---------------THE END----------------- ENGLISH TEST NO. 27 I. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. (15 points) 1. These figures give you some idea of the cost of ….. your car for one year. A. controlling B. handling C. managing D. maintaining
2. It can take up to three months to ….. a man to do this specialist work. A. guide B. raise C. train D. learn 3. In today‘s paper it ….. that we shall have an election this year. A. says B. admits C. expresses D. proposes 4. I had to pay ….. on a carpet I bought in through the Customs today. A. taxes B. rates C. fines D. duty 5. Tropical diseases are comparatively ….. in Europe. A. scarce B. rare C. slight D. few 6. The ….. charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high. A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum 7. It takes a great deal of ….. for the class to make a trip abroad. A. arrangement B. organisation C. expense D. business 8. You shouldn‘t eat so many sweets. They‘re ….. for you. A. bad B. unhealthy C. unsuitable D. disagreeable 9. I wondered whether you would like to ….. to the theatre tomorrow. A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out 10. Do you think he is ….. of doing the job? A. capable B. competent C. able D. suited 11. I bought these shoes in the sale. They were a real ………. A. cheap B. economy C. bargain D. purchase 12. If you put your money in the bank, it will earn ten per cent ………. A. investment B. profit C. deposit D. interest 13. Edward was named after one of his father ‗s distant ………. A. family B. brothers C. members D. relations 14. Jane and Brian got married a year after they got ………. A. divorced B. proposed C. engaged D. separated 15. Julie had a terrible ………. with her parents last night. A. row B. discussion C. argue D. dispute Part 2: Read the text and use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. (10 points) Margaret started English Literature this term, and I‘m afraid that her (1) INTRODUCE …………… to the subject has not bee entirely (2) SUCCESS …………….. She has not show much enthusiasm and does not always pay (3) ATTEND ……......… in class. Her assignments are often (4) READ…......… , because she is so untidy, and because of her (5) FAIL.....… to check her work thoroughly. She failed to do any (6) REVISE ...…...… before the end of term test, and had poor results. She seems to have the (7) MISTAKE ……....… idea that she can succeed without studying. She has also had many (8) ABSENT..…......… and has frequently arrived late for class. This has resulted in several (9) PUNISH…...... . Although Margaret is a (10) GIFT ...…..… student in some respects, she has not had a satisfactory term.
Part 3: Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Circle your answers. (5 points) 1. We sent a present for the children living next door. (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. Penny took three exams and managed to succeed them all. (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. Items of luggage whose weight exceed 50 kilograms will not be allowed on the ferry. (A) (B) (C) (D) 4. The unemployment rate has increased considerably since last year. Another two millions are jobless. (A) (B) (C) (D) 5. The President often contradicts himself. He often says something which doesn‘t agree with what he says earlier. (A) (B) (C) (D) Part 4: The following sentences are badly constructed. Rewrite them in better style and correct any grammatical errors. (5 points) 1. All students must pay their fees, except foreigners, to the university bursar. ........................................................................................................................................................... 2. Swimming is a sport to any healthy person I would recommend. ........................................................................................................................................................... 3. The president said that the new education programme was essential addressing a large audience in the provincial capital yesterday. ........................................................................................................................................................... 4. Talks have begun to plan a railway linking the provincial capitals between the representatives of the provincial assemblies. ........................................................................................................................................................... 5. The advertisement said that they wished to employ a secretary for an expanding company with good shorthand and typing speeds at their head office. ........................................................................................................................................................... II. READING Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the following questions: All at once Hazel was coming in through the French windows, pulling off gardening gloves, and Bill was entering through the door, both at once. So I only had time to take one quick look at her before I turned to face him. All very confusing. What that first glimpse showed me was that time had thickened her figure but didn‘t seem to have made much difference to her face. It still had good skin and youthful outlines. She was holding a bunch of roses – must have been cutting
them in the garden while waiting for me. The gardening gloves lent a delightfully informal touch. It was quite an entrance, though Bill spoilt it a bit by making his at the same time. Bill seemed longer and thinner. His tightly massed hair had a tinge of grey. Apart from that, twenty years had done nothing to him, except deepen the lines of thoughtfulness that had already, when I knew him, begun to spread across his face. Or was that all? I looked at him again, more carefully, as he looked away from me at Hazel. Weren‘t his eyes different somehow? More inward looking than ever? Gazing in not merely at his thoughts, but at something else, something he was keeping hidden or perhaps protecting. Then we were chattering and taking glasses in our hands, and I came back to earth. For the first ten minutes we were all so defensive, so carefully probing, that nobody learnt anything. Bill had forgotten me altogether, that much was clear. He was engaged in getting to know me from scratch, very cautiously so as not to hit a wrong note, with the object of getting me to contribute a big subscription to his African project. I kept trying to absorb details about Hazel, but Bill was talking earnestly about African education, and the strain of appearing to concentrate while actually thinking about his wife proved so great that I decided it would be easier just to concentrate. So I did. I let him hammer away for about ten more minutes, and then the daughter, who seemed to be acting as parlourmaid, showed in another visitor. Evidently we were to be four at lunch. 1. What effect had time had on Hazel and Bill? A. They had both lost weight. B. They were more withdrawn. C. They hadn‘t changed at all. D. They had changed in subtle ways. 2. When they all started talking, the writer A. relaxed at last. B. stopped dreaming. C. spoke most to Hazel. D. began to remember things. 3. The writer found the first part of their conversation A. sentimental. B. irritating. C. uninformative. D. trivial. 4. Why did Bill speak seriously? A. He wanted some money from the writer. B. He did not remember the writer. C. His wife was present. D. He was talking about the past. 5. In the end the writer found Bill‘s conversation A. monotonous B. convincing C. thought-provoking D. instructive Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the most suitable word for each space. According to a magazine article I read recently, we (1) ......... live in an age of increasing leisure. Not only are more and more people reaching (2) ......... age with their taste for enjoyment and even adventure relatively (3) ......... but the working week is becoming shorter and the
opportunities for (4) ......... are becoming greater and greater all the time. Not to mention the fact that people (5) .........to spend less time travelling to work or may even be working from home. What I can't understand, however, is who these people are. As far as I can (6) ......... the whole thing is another one of (7) ......... journalistic fictions. I admit that there are a lot of retired people (8) ......... but I am not sure that all of them are dashing about learning hang-gliding or sailing single-handed (9) ......... the world. My own parents seem to (10) ......... most of their time gazing at the television. And as for the shorter working week, I wish someone (11) .........remind my company about it. I seem to be working longer and longer hours (12) ......... the time. The little leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in the traffic jams or waiting for trains to (13) ......... up at rain-swept platforms. I haven't noticed any dramatic improvements in my (14) ......... either, but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my (15) ......... 1. A. presently B. at the moment C. now D. at this time 2. A. retirement B. their C. later D. third 3. A. present B. survived C. free D. intact 4. A. this B. longer C. leisure D. people 5. A. use B. tend C. have D. demand 6. A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell 7. A. the B. those C. these D. some 8. A. in our days B. in these times C. nowadays D. now and again 9. A. round B. over C. through D. into 10. A. have B. use C. the D. spend 11. A. would B. to C. had D. might 12. A. at B. for C. take D. all 13. A. keep B. line C. show D. set 14. A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood 15. A. pension B. retirement C. insurance D. salary Part 3: Read the text and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The maximum class size is twelve (1) .................... the average is ten. We use modern methods of (2) .................... and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving (3) .................... English, however, if you work hard and (4) .................. speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (5)
................... in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (6) .................... at the most suitable level. There are two classes at the Elementary level; one is for complete (7) ..................... and the other is for students who know only a little English, in both classes you will practise simple conversations. In the class (8) ..................... the intermediate level you will have a lot of practice in communication in real-life situation because we help you to use the English you have previously (9) ................... in your own country, You will also have the chance to improve your (10) ................... of English grammar and to build up your vocabulary... III. PRONUNCIATION Part 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (05 points) 1. a. technical b. change c. much d. exchange 2. a. weapon b. increase c. threat d. spread 3. a. requirements b. subject c. secondary d. levels 4. a. prohibit b. exhibit c. habit d. hunting 5. a. elephants b. decades c. poachers d. actions Part 2: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. 1. a. continent b. however c. elephant d. tropical 2. a. represent b. intensive c. domestic d. employment 3. a. social b. proportion c. industry d. easily 4. a. habitat b. century c. difficult d. prohibit 5. a. generally b. secondary c. education d. specialize III. WRITING Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. 1. It's a long time since we spoke to your sister. We ............................................................................................................................. . 2. \"Why don't you leave now. That's what I'd do.\" If ............................................................................................................................... . 3. Jill was the only person who came late. Everyone ................................................................................................................... . 4. This matter is so complicated that we don't know how to deal with it. So ..................................................................................................................................................... ......................................... . 5. It's a pity you didn't ask us to spend the time with you.
If only ..................................................................................................................................................... ............................... . Part 2: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. 1. I'm afraid that we haven't got any eggs left. (run) ................................................................................................................... . 2. Let me tell you what I think you should do. (advice) ................................................................................................................... . 3. The numbers of cars on the roads must be reduced. (down) ................................................................................................................... . 4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It' s all the same to me. (difference) ................................................................................................................... . 5. Amanda has improved a lot this term. (progress) ................................................................................................................... . Part 3: --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -------------
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KEYS – PRACTICE 27 I/ GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY Part 1. Q # 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 A Key D C A D B C B A C A C D DC Part 2 1. introduction 2. successful 3. attention 4. unreadable 5. failure 6. revision 7. mistaken 8. absences 9. punishments 10. gifted Part 3: Q# 1 2 3 4 5 Key B C C D D Part 4 1. All students, except foreigners, must pay their fees to the university bursar. 2. Swimming is a sport I would recommend to any healthy person. 3. Addressing a large audience in the provincial capital yesterday, the president said that the new education programme was essential. 4. Talks have begun between the representatives of the provincial assemblies to plan a railway linking the provincial capitals. 5. The advertisement said that an expanding company wished to employ a secretary with good shorthand and typing speeds at their head office. II/ READING Part 1: Q# 1 2 3 4 5 Key D B C A A Part 2. one point for each correct answer Q # 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 Key C A D C B D B C A D A D C B A Part 3. 3. your 5. test 7. beginners 9. learnt 1. and 4. practise 6. class 8. at 10. knowledge 2. teaching III/ PRONOUNCIATION Q# 1 2 3 4 5 Part 1 Key A B D B A Part 2 Q# 1 2 3 4 5
Key B A B D C IV WRITING Part 1: 1. We haven't spoken to your sister for a long time. 2. If I were you, I'd leave now. 3. Everyone was on time except for Jill. 4. So complicated is this matter that we don't know how to deal with it. 5. If only you had asked us to spend the time with you. Part 2: 1. I'm afraid we have run out of eggs. 2. Let me give you some advice on what you should do. 3. We must cut down on the numbers of cars on the roads. The numbers of cars must be cut down on the roads. 4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It makes no difference to me. 5. Amanda has made good/great progress/ made a lot of progress this term. ENGLISH TEST 28 PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2 pts) 1. A. genuine B. guy C. generate D. geneticist 2. A. breath B. spread C. break D. headline Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3 pts) 3. A. briefcase B. journalism C. calculate D. apply 4. A. redundant B. terrorism C. unique D. officer 5. A. bigoted B. perpetrate C. relativism D. picturesquely Part B : LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR ( 45 pts ) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts) 6. They came to inspect the house _________ buying it.
A. in the event of B. with reference to C. with a view to D. on account of 7. The boy who failed the exam has to take another one, ? D. doesn‘t he A. did he B. hasn‘t he C. didn‘t he 8. It is _______ knowledge in the village that Mr. and Mrs. Thorne quarrel violently several time a week. A. common B. complete C. normal D. usual 9. _________ passenger pigeon, one of several species of extinct birds, was hunted to extinction over _________ few decades. A. The / Ø B. Ø / the C. The / a D. A / the 10. Don‘t be angry with Sue. All that she did in good______ A. hope B. belief C. idea D. faith 11. Mrs. Brown always ______ in a crowd because she wore large hats. A. found against B. looked up C. stood out D. showed up 12. Mary bought______ hat yesterday. A. a red big plastic hat B. a big red plastic hat C. a plastic big red hat D. a bit plastic red hat 13. ______ the two sisters, Mary is _______. A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier 14. Helen: ―I love your gardens. The plants are well taken care of!‖ Ingrid: ―Thanks. Yes, I suppose I‘ve always __________.‖ A. had green fingers B. let nature take its course C. made it down on my luck D. drawn the short straw 15. My old riding boots served me well for eleven years before they finally ________. A. wore off B. broke downC. wore out D. broke up 16. _______ of birds over a city usually predict cold weather.
A. Herds B. Packs C. Flocks D. Groups 17. We might have to change our plans for the weekend and, _______ we‘ll let you know as soon as possible. A. in case B. if so C. providing D. supposing 18. It‘s one of the worst books I‘ve ever read. Its only redeeming ___________ is that it‘s quite short. A. aspect B. element C. feature D. factor 19. - Well, I‘m sorry, that‘s all I can offer you. - ____________. A. Take it or forget it B. Get it or forget it C. Take it or leave it D. Leave it or take it 20. He has been unable to find a job _______ with his ability as an accountant. A. appropriate B. suitable C. requisite D. commensurate Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts) Too many parents have a tough time get clear and accessible 21 information about the public schools at their communities. That is why 22 President Clinton had announced an initiative requiring all states to 23 produce annual reports cards that are easily understood by and widely 24 distributing to parents and the public, for each school, school district 25 and the state as a whole. The report cards will include information to 26 student achievement, teacher professionally qualifications, class size, 27 school safety and other factors that will help parents judging the 28 overall performance of the schools. President Clinton‘s proposal will help ensure which parents in every state have access to the information they need to determine the quality of their schools and identity areas in which improvement is needed. 29 30 Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. It is essential that the plan (inform) ________to everyone in advance. 32-33. I realized that someone (steal) ___ my wallet when I (feel) ____ their hand in my jacket pocket. 34-35. At school I (dislike) _______ the Chemistry teacher because she (always pick) _______ on me. 36. Fortunately, the hospital's new air-conditioning system (install) _________ when the first heat wave of the summer arrived. 37. The cake (make) _______________ by my mom tastes really delicious. 38. She was breathing fast and deep, as if she (run) _______. 39. I can't find my book anywhere. I (leave) ______ it on the train. I am not sure. 40. No wonder he was sacked! He seems (fiddle) ________ the accounts for years. Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) LIVE 41. Many people make their living on theater. In essence the theater is not only for entertainment, it is a _____ . ATTEND 42. They never dare to leave their only child ________ for even a moment. INDIVIDUAL 43. What I don‘t like about school uniform is that it completely destroys all_______. IMPRESS 44. The main reason I believe children shouldn‘t be exposed to violence on TV is that they are so__________ at that age. ESTIMATE 45. His ________ of his opponent led to his biggest failure. SYSTEM 46. The curriculum is ________developed; therefore, students benefit a great deal. BREAD 47. The mother is usually the homemaker and the father is the _______. BENEFIT 48. There was a donation of $100,000 made by an anonymous _________. DESTROY 49. Being the hardest natural substance, diamond is practically_________. COMPROMISE 50. The government‘s ________ approach has brought criticism. PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) The money that some professional sportsmen earn shouldn‘t impress anyone when you take into (51)__ __the fact that only a few of them manage to attain immortality and everlasting fame. And once they reach their (52) __and display their talent at their best, they are fully conscious that their brilliant careers won‘t last forever. They live under a constant pressure of being (53) and subsequently replaced by someone who is younger, faster and more accomplished. For that reason, objectives like retirement benefits and pensions are (54)_______great concern to all professional athletes. Some of the retired competitors go as far as to organize strikes and rallies to voice their protest against any policy unresponsive to their demand (55)_____the younger professionals seek more upgrading solutions to the problem as more and more of them attach a proper significance to (56)___a solid education, even at university level. Such an approach should help them find interesting and well-paid jobs (57)____their sports career is over. A completely new strategy has been devised by the schools priding themselves (58)_____supporting their own teams. Their authorities insist that the sports clubs members achieve high academic standards or else they are debarred from partaking in certain sports events, which may lead to further disruption in their professional careers. By these practical and most effective (59)___, combining education with sports activity, the (60)___of the professional athlete as being brainless and unintelligent may eventually be changing to the sportsmen‘s benefit. 51. A. reflection B. attention C. examination D. consideration 52. A. prime B. shape C. best D. capacity 53. A. outcast B. outshone C. outstayed D. outgrown 54. A. with B. in C. at D. of 55. A. whereby B. whereas C. whereupon D. wherein 56. A. mastering B. learning C. receiving D. attending 57. A. right away B. promptly C. barely D. once 58. A. with B. on C. for D. in 59. A. grounds B. results C. factors D. means
60. A. vision B. outlook C. image D. judgment Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts) In the 21st century food will (61)______ more than just you feed you. A new range of products appearing on shelves in shops and supermarkets (62) ______ designed to give you specific health benefits. The demands of modern life make these foods very attractive. Not only do they provide proven ways to improve health, but they are also very attractive (63) ______ a quick and convenient way of making sure we enjoy a healthy diet. In some countries it is already possible to buy crisps that make you feel (64) ______ depressed, chewing gum that increases your brain power and tea that helps you (65) ______ over the tiredness associated (66) ______ long-distance air travel. In the future, experts promise biscuits that will keep you healthy, and hot chocolate drink to give you strong bones. Despite the fact that these ―functional‖ foods cannot replace a balanced diet and regular exercise, they can help the body perform at (67) ______ best a lot of the time. At (68) ______, these foods are more expensive than other foods, but that is due to the ingredients they (69) ______ of and the way they are made. All the foods contain probiotics (70) ______ increase the number of ―good‖ bacteria in your stomach, helping to keep your digestive system healthy. Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts) The Digital Divide Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace. Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the world‟s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications necessity – the telephone – does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.
Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are connected. Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949. Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high concentrations of low- income students. Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can benefit from its power. 71. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2? A. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all B. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet C. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage
D. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet 72. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement ―Although the number ............. or the Internet.‖ in the paragraph 2? A. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has been increasing every year. B. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but most people in the world still do not have connections. C. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the world is not increasing fast enough. D. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't have their own computer terminals. 73. The word ―eliminate‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to A. accept B. dispute C. define D. remove 74. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term \"digital divide?\" A. The number of Internet users in developing nations B. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet C. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users D. Segments of the population with Internet access 75. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3? A. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups B. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society C. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now 76. According to paragraph 3, which of the following households would be least likely to have access to the Internet? A. A household with one parent B. A black household C. A Hispanic household D. A household with both parents
77. The word ―those‖ in the passage refers to A. classrooms B. students C. schools D. concentrations 78. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field of computer technology? A. They are not admitted to the degree programs. B. They do not possess the educational qualifications. C. They do not have an interest in technology. D. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries. 79. The word ―concentrations‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to A. protections B. numbers C. confidence D. support 80. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access? A. Better computers need to be designed. B. Schools should provide newer computers for students. C. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem. D. Technology will be more helpful in three years. PART D: WRITING (20 pts) Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts) 81. There were not nearly as many people there as I had expected. There were far ______________________________________________________. 82. People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains. The plane of Germanwings ____________________________________________.
83. It's nobody's fault that the meeting was cancelled. Nobody ___________________________________________________________. 84. The President is the statesman I admire most of all. There is ___________________________________________________________. 85. It was his lack of confidence that surprised me. What ______________________________________________________________. Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts) 86. The manager should think about experience when hiring new staff. CONSIDERATION __________________________________________________________________. 87. He is determined to become a doctor. HEART __________________________________________________________________. 88. I expect the book to be far better because it had been written by such a good novelist. SHORT __________________________________________________________________. 89. He never felt so emotional when he looked at a picture. TIME __________________________________________________________________. 90. I‘m not very keen on gold, I much prefer silver. RATHER __________________________________________________________________. Question III. Essay writing (10 pts): Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: “Children should begin learning a foreign language as soon as they start school.”?
Write an essay ( about 250 to 300 words) to express your personal point of view. ---------- THE END ---------
KEYS – PRACTICE 28 A- ĐÁP ÁN: PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 1.B 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.D PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm) ( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm, riêng bài sửa lỗi, nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm) Question I. 6.C 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.D 11.C 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.C 16.C 17.B 18.C 19.C 20.D Question II. MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS 21. get getting 26. to on/about 22. at in 27. professionally professional 23. had has 28. judging judge 24. reports report 29. which that 25. distributing distributed 30. identity identify Question III 31. (should) be 32. was stealing 33. felt 34. disliked 35. was always informed picking 38. had been 39. might have 36. had been 37. made running left 40. to have been installed fiddling Question IV 41. livelihood. 42. unattended 43. individuality 44. 45.underestimation impressionable
46. 47. breadwiner 48. benefactor 49. indestructible 50.uncompromising systematically PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) ( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) Question I 51. D 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. B 56. C 57. D 58. B 59. D 60. C Question II. 52. is 53. as 54. less 55. get 51. do 57. its 58. present 59. consist 70. which/that 56. with Question III. 71.A 72.B 73.D 74.B 75.A 76.B 77.C 78.B 79.B 80.C PART D: WRITING (20 pts) Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 81. There were far fewer people than I had expected 82. The plane of Germanwings is said to have crashed into the mountains. 83. Nobody is to blame for the fact that the meeting was cancelled. 84. There is no statesman (that/who/whom) I admire more than the President. 85. What surprised me was his lack of confidence. Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 86. The manager should take experience into consideration when hiring new staff. 87. His heart is set on becoming a doctor/ He has set his heart on becoming a doctor. 88. The book fell short of my expectation even though it had been written by such a good
novelist. 89. At no time did he feel so emotional when he looked at a picture. 90. I‘d rather have silver than gold. Question III. Essay: (10 điểm) Marking criteria: + Task completion (4 điểm) Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm. + Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm). - Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm: Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm. B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM: Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20 Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25 Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng Điểm bài thi = --------------------------------------- 5 ENGLISH PRACTICE 29 PART 1: PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions 31. A. contributed B. eradicated C. developed D. needed 32. A. approached B. unwrapped C. obliged D. sacrificed 33. A. brush B. crush C. rush D. push 34. A. breathe B. threaten C. healthy D. earth 35. A. said B. play C. lemonade D. plate 36. A. bother B. breakthrough C. thoughtful D. geothermal 37. A. leaves B. practices C. wishes D. introduces 38. A. dough B. doubt C. county D. blouse 39. A. fracture B. signature C. culture D. mature
40. A. pride B. life C. combine D. machine PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D). 1. I'm addicted ______ these sweets. I loved them! A. on B. at C. to D. for 2. You are being thoroughly _________in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place. A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable 3. Nylon, a synthetic _______ from a combination of water, air, and a by-product of coal, was first introduced in 1938. A. to make B. make C. made D. making 4. He ______ book the tickets, but he had no time to call at the Cinema. A. would B. might C. could D. was going to 5. It is necessary that an employee _________ his work on time. A. finish B. finished C. finishing D. finishes 6. This dress is eye-catching, and many people________ me on it. A. complain B. complement C. complimentD. complementary 7. Bill is jealous ________ your promotion. A. with B. of C. at D. about 8. _______ are sought by an elementary school. A. Mentally retarded teachers B. Teachers retarded for mental cases C. Teachers for the mentally retardedD. Mental retarded case teachers 9. Since I came in half an hour late this morning, I have to stay until 5:30 to _______ for it. A. make up B. save up C. keep up D. hold up 10. Earthquake can damage a tree ______violently, and it can take several years for the tree to heal. A. to cause to shake it B. when shaking it causes
C. to cause shaking it D. by causing it to shake II. In the following text, some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√). If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word. There are two examples at the beginning. We can tend to think of poverty as the main cause of violent 0____ can ____ crime. However, research from both sides of the Atlantic shows that 00___√_______ fathers may be the most important factor in preventing to children from 1. ___________ turning over to crime. In the United States, children from better-off 2. ___________ family were compared with ones who from families with lower 3. ___________ incomes. Children from both groups that lived with their fathers also 4. ___________ committed the same number of crimes. In the United Kingdom, a study 5. ___________ was carried out of comparing a group of boys who had never been 6. ___________ accused of not any crimes such as assault and stealing vehicles. All the 7. ___________ boys had difficulties at the school and came from large families that 8. ___________ didn't earn a lot of money. The biggest difference between from the 9. ___________ groups was that fifty-five percent of the \"good boys\" lived with their 10. __________ fathers, while only four per cent of the \"bad boys\" did it. Eighty per cent 11. __________ of the well – behaved boys said how they felt close to their fathers even 12. __________ if they didn't live in the same house. It seems that by having a father 13. __________ who takes an interest in his children encourages youngsters not to break 14. __________ the law. 15. __________ III. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each blank. There is a saying that first impressions are generally correct and I would say that (1) _______ throughout my entire life, I have found this to be true apart from one ALL notable exception of a good friend and neighbor with whom my first (2) ______ was CHANGE decidedly unfriendly. At the time of our first meeting I was living in a (3) __________ area of London, DEPRIVE not far from the exit of a dual carriageway and this meant that although it was a (4) RESIDENCE ____________ street, even with the (5) _______ will in the world, drivers would often GOOD travel dangerously fast within inches of my front door. This used to really annoy me BOARD and I have to admit I did often go a bit (6) ________ in expressing my anger even REASON though (or perhaps because) I knew I didn't stand a (7) ________ chance of being taken notice of or even noticed at all. So when one day, I shouted my usual string of swear words at a rapidly passing car and it immediately screamed to a halt, my first ACHIEVE reaction was an enormous sense of (8) ______. But then the driver of the car opened his window and shouted a stream of swear words back at me. FAR CONSULT So the next morning, I was more than a little surprised to find an apology note
from the same motorist in my mail box explaining that in an attempt to (9) _______ his career as an up and coming IT (10) ______, he had been driving too fast the previous evening and inviting me to have dinner with him and his wife. PART III. READING I. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions. The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science have made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made any foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps 80 percent of all human illness are related to diet and 40 percent of cancer is related to diet as well, especially cancer of colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because of the characteristics food they consume. That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers showed that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful. The additives we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue. A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes, well – meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge. 1. How has science done a disservice to people? A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated. B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food. C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food.
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables. 2. The word \"prone\" is nearest in meaning to ______. A. supine B. unlikely C. healthy D. predisposed 3. What are nitrates used for? A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods. B. They preserve the color of meats. C. They are the objects of research. D. They caused to animals to become fatter. 4. The word \"these\" refers to_______. A. meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites 5. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT_______. A. drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons. B. some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals. C. researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than 60 years. D. food may cause 40 percent of cancer in the world II. Read the passage and fill in the blank a suitable word. PEER PRESSURE One of the strongest influences on children today (1) ______ that of their peers. What their classmates think, how they dress and how they act in class and out of it (2) ________ the behavior of nearly every child at school. In their efforts not to be different, some children go so far as to hide their intelligence and ability in case they are made ( 3)_________ of. Generally, children do not want to stand (4) _______ from the crowd. They want to fit in, to be accepted. In psychological terms, the importance of (5)_________ pressure cannot be over emphasized. There is a lot of evidence that it has great bearing on all aspects of children's lives, (6) ________ the clothes they wear, the music they listen to and their attitude to study to their ambitions in life, their relationships and their sense. (7) _________, as children grow up into adolescents, individuality becomes more acceptable, desirable even, and in their search for their (8) _______ personal style, the teenager and young adult will begin to experiment and be more
willing to run the (9) _______ of rejection by the group. Concern about intellectual prowess and achieving good exam results can dominate as the atmosphere of competition develops and worries (10) ______ the future override any fears of appearing too brainy. III. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. Last year Gladys Kalema became the Ugandan Wildlife Service's chief and only vet after (1) _____ for the Royal Veterinary College in London. She was the first person to fill the post for 30 years and at the age of 26, easily the youngest. If Gladys did nothing else, caring for the world's (2) ______ population of 650 gorillas would alone justify her wages. Since the 1970s, gorillas have (3) ______ severely from war and poaching. Now for $150 each, tourists can be led through the forest and come within five meters of gorilla – no closer, for (4) ______ of transmitting diseases such as measles and flu. The gorillas here make a small but viable population. (5) ______ in the national parts the usual animals, elephants, rhinos, giraffes, are either not there or present in insignificant numbers which are dangerously out of (6) ______ with the creatures around them. If Uganda stays calm, wildlife may, in (7) _______, return by itself. But Gladys believes the country cannot wait. Animals must be brought in to swell tourism and provide (8) ______to expand her work. Despite her difficulties, Gladys feels more useful and fulfilled than she would be anywhere else. \"At this moment, my friends from vet school are reading the best way to (9) ______ a cat or dog, and here am I planning to translocate elephants. In my small (10) _______ I am part of the reconstruction and rehabilitation of my country.\" 1. A. leaving B. qualifying C. graduating D. passing 2. A. living B. surviving C. continuing D. lasting 3. A. endured B. harmed C. died D. suffered 4. A. risk B. fear C. fright D. danger 5. A. Somewhere B. Anywhere C. Elsewhere D. Nowhere 6. A. balance B. relation C. comparison D. equality 7. A. terms B. years C. ages D. time 8. A. figures B. funds C. accounts D. savings 9. A. treat B. prescribe C. heal D. operate 10. A. means B. manner C. method D. way PART IV. WRITING I. Write the new sentences using the word give. Do not change the word given in any way. 1. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background (SENSE)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… 2. I think you should try to be optimistic as you can. (SIDE) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… 3. In the end, it was quite a good sunny day after all. (OUT) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… 4. I hate watching late night films on TV. (STAND) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… 5. The principal was the first person who arrived at the meeting. (ARRIVE) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… II. Writing a topic. Computers can translate all kinds of languages well, so our children needn‟t learn more languages in the future. What is your opinion about this idea? Within 200-250 words, use evidence and examples to write a passage to clarify your idea. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………
Keys – practice 29 PART 1: PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions 1. A. contributed B. eradicated C. developed D. needed B. unwrapped C. obliged D. 2. A. approached sacrificed B. crush C. rush D. push B. threaten C. healthy D. earth 3. A. brush B. play C. lemonade D. plate 4. A. breathe B. breakthrough C. thoughtful D. 5. A. said 6. A. bother B. practices C. wishes D. geothermal B. doubt C. county D. 7. A. leaves B. signature C. culture D. introduces 8. A. dough B. life C. combine D. blouse 9. A. fracture mature 10. A. pride machine PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. (10 pts: 1pt/item) 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 10. D 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 5. also II. (15 pts: 1/item) 10. from 15. √ 1. to 2. over 3. who 4. √ 8. the 9. √ 6. of 7. not 13. how 11. √ 12. it 14. by III. (10pts: 1pt/item) 1. overall 6. overboard
2. interchange/ exchange 7. reasonable 3. deprived 8. achievement 4. residential 9. further 5. best 10. consultant PART III. READING I. (5 pts: 1/item) 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A II. (10pts: 1pt/item) 3. fun 4. out 5. peer 8. own 9. risk 10. about 1. is 2. affect 6. from 7. However III. (10 pts: 1pt/item) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. D PART IV. WRITING I. (5pts: 1pt/item) 1. Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt a sense of achievement about her life 2. I think you should look on the bright side. 3. The day turned out to be quite sunny after all/ It turned out to be quite a good sunny day after all. 4. I can't stand watching late night films on TV. 5. The principal was the first person to arrive at the meeting II. 20 pts
- The student‘s paper has logical structure, with opening, development and closing parts, using right linking words: 5 pts - The paper has less than 5 mistakes (both grammar and spelling mistakes): 5 pts - The paper has interesting, creative content: 10 pts ENGLISH PRACTICE 30 PART A: PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions 1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D. Valentine C. amuses D. Pleases 2. A. purses B. blouses C. society D. pie C. packed D. punched 3. A. lie B. goalie C. shape D. date C. secrets D. Sounds 4. A. finished B. jagged C. suitcase D. chase C. business D. ignite 5. A. accurate B. tale C. missed D. watched C. eliminate D. educate 6. A. situations B. obstacles 7. A. chasm B. phrase 8. A. vineyard B. Finland 9. A. touched B. crooked 10. A. dedicate B. private PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 1. I‘m really sorry. We _____ stop at a service station and phone you, but we didn‘t want to waste any more time. A. were due to B. were going to C. were to D. were about to 2. It is not until December 25th _________the exam results will be announced. A. which B. what C. that D. when 3. I saw a ___________ scarf in a shop near my house. A. sweet little green silk B. little green silk sweet
C. sweet green little silk D. green little sweet silk 4. There has been a recommendation that Peter ______ the president of the country. A. will be elected B. be elected C. is elected D. was elected 5. He kept his marriage for years, but eventually the truth ________. A. came out B. went out C. came through D. fell out 6. It was in this house ______. A. I was born in B. in which I was born C. where I was born D. that I was born 7. ______of half- starving wolves were roaming the snow- covered countryside. A. Herds B. Flocks C. Packs D. Swarms 8. When ______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously. A. asking B. to be asked C. to be askingD. being asked 9. ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely. A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy 10. According to the _______of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend to leave. A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details 11. It is difficult for museums to find funds to protect the nation‘s_______. A. inheritance B. heritage C. possessions D. legacy 12. A part-time job gives me the freedom to_______ my own interests. A pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch 13. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for_______15 minutes. A. other B. others C. another D. the others 14. ____ I‘ve told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn‘t listen. Just let him face the music now. A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. For a time
15. _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years. A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers 16. _______ every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers. A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually 17. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked _______ and now it's fine. A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over 18. When the electricity failed, he _______a match to find the candles. A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started 19. I usually buy my clothes _______. It‘s cheaper than going to the dressmaker. A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf 20. She tried to _______. A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan. II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning. Transfer your answers to your answer sheet. Talent scouts are looking for the next generation of supermodels have realized Africa‘s 0 ……are… potential. Lyndsey Mclntyre, a former model herself, recently opened one agency‘s first African office. ―African women are being graceful and serene‖ she says. ―These qualities 00 could to make them do very well in this business.‖ However, spotting supermodels is rarely …√……… easy, as well Mclntyre discovered when she visited the Orma tribe of remote north- eastern 1 Kenya, whose women are reported to be especially striking. ―The tribal leaders were a bit ……….…… suspicious and I wasn‘t allowed to be meet many of their girls,‖ she explains. Another problem is that the reports aren‘t always reliable. Mclntyre discovered this when one of 2 village‘s ―most beautiful girls‖ turned out to be its heaviest ones. She had to explain that ………..… Western advertisers prefer far slimmer women. The Orma are not alone in believing fat it is 3 ………….… beautiful. In a recent Africa-wide beauty contest, all the Uganda contestants were disqualified for being a little too large around the hips. ―I don‘t understand the fashion 4 industry‘s obsession with small hips,‖ said one judge for the contest. ―But because we want
the girls to succeed and to see African models working internationally, we give the industry ……..…… what it wants‖ 5 ……….…… 6 ………….… 7 ………….… 8 ……………. 9 …….……. … 10……….. …… III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet. UK companies have received criticism from a business forum for what their report refers to as a rather narrow-minded attitude towards the dress code for office workers. This follows a case in which a male (1. EMPLOY) __________working in the post room of a large (2. ORGANISE) __________in the United Kingdom received a (3. SUSPEND) __________ for wearing jeans to work. Whilst the report accepts that there is a need for people dealing with (4. CUSTOM) __________to look well dressed, it questions whether employees who work behind the scenes necessarily need to dress formally. The authors of the report made a (5. COMPARE) ___________ between the UK and other European nations where employers seem (6. CONCERN)___________about the need for their workers to wear smart clothes in the office. Their (7. ARGUE) ___________is based on research that claims workers are far more (8. PRODUCT) _________ when they have the (9. FREE) _________to dress in a way that they feel most (10. COMFORT) _______in. IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 1. Kate fell _______ with her boyfriend and they stopped seeing each other. 2. I‘ve taken this watch _______ pieces, and now I can‘t put it together again.
3. I‘m sure my brother will never get married because he hates the feeling of being tied _____. 4. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to catch up______ what she missed why she was away. 5. I don‘t think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting. I failed to get my point _______. PART C. READING I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best complete the blanks. Write your answers on your answer sheet. Stressful situations that (1)________ almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable. However, we can do little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which may (2)________ us unexpectedly as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the (3)_______, give in to the helplessness of the situation or, ideally, put a brave face on it trying to (4)_________ the burden. Can you (5)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do you light one cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or do you take a different (6)________ and make good use of the time drawing up a schedule for the days to come? To withstand the stressful moment you can also do a crossword puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even compose a menu for your Sunday dinner. In fact, whatever way you (7)________ to the annoying situation, you can exert no impact on it as the traffic jam will only reduce in due (8)_________. Nevertheless, your reaction might considerably influence your mood for the rest of the day. The inability to confront a stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility adds much more strain to your life and in this way puts your well – being in (9)_________. Surprisingly, it is seemingly negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious health disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be. (10)_______that so many of those wretched stresses and inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try to avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles. 1. A. devise B. create C. originate D. emerge 2. A. arise B. happen C. befall D. occur 3. A. post B. roof C. bottom D. wall 4. A. subsist B. remain C. cow D. bear 5. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
6. A. manner B. stance C. practice D. mode 7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challenge 8. A. term B. course C. timing D. period 9. A. risk B. weakness C. insecurity D. jeopardy 10. A. Providing B. Given C. Hence D. As much II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. Students frequently complain (1)___________ studying for hours on (2)________ and then not doing well in their final exams. Many factors can (3) _________ in poor performances: (4) _________illness or a personal problem. Getting high grades can also put a terrible strain on students (5) _________ don‘t want to let their parents down. Can students‘ knowledge be judged by a (6) _________exam? Certainly not! If we want to be fair, students ought to be (7) _________on a regular basic. So does that mean more exams? Yes, but (8) _________many written ones. In many countries, student do not have to take written exams (9) _________ they don‘t want to, they are (10) _________to take oral ones instead. This seems to be fairer way of assessing understanding, not just testing it. III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese expression for ―high water in a harbor.‖ These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity.Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom
quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel. 1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _______. A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves 2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _______. A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community C. they are the same as tsunamis D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves 3. The word “displaced” is closest in meaning to _______. A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased 4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _______. A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean Dare often identified by ships on the ocean 5. Water that is ―shallow” is NOT _____________.
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal 6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to ___________. A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem 7. The possessive “their” refers to ____________. A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii 8. A ―calamitous” tsunami is one that is _____________. A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected 9. From the expression “on record”, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano ____________. A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever C. was filmed as it was happening D. occurred before efficient records were kept 10. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano ___________. A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away B. resulted in little damage C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel PART D. WRITING I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must not be changed in any way. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 1. The reduction in the price of the magazines led to a growth in sales. (RESULT) Sales of the magazines __________________________________________. 2. Georgia hasn‘t written to me recently. (HEARD) I ___________________________________________________________.
3. Dinner will be served immediately upon our arrival at the hotel. (SOON) Dinner will be served ___________________________________________. 4. Barbara couldn‘t sing or dance. (UNABLE) Besides ______________________________________________________. 5. It was careless of you to leave without locking the door. (OUGHT) You _________________________________________________________. II. Write an essay to express your opinion on the following statement. Use specific reasons and details to support your idea. “Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication, such as letters, email, or telephone calls”. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………
Keys – practice 30 PART A: PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions 1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D. Valentine C. amuses D. 2. A. purses B. blouses C. society D. pie C. packed D. Pleases C. shape D. date 3. A. lie B. goalie C. secrets D. 4. A. finished B. jagged C. suitcase D. chase C. business D. ignite punched C. missed D. 5. A. accurate B. tale C. eliminate D. 6. A. situations B. obstacles Sounds 7. A. chasm B. phrase 8. A. vineyard B. Finland 9. A. touched B. crooked watched 10. A. dedicate B. private educate PART B.LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (10pts) 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. (5pts) 1. being 2. to 3. well 4. √ 5. √ 6. be 7. the 8. of 9. √ 10. it III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. (10pts) 1.employee 2. organization/ organisation 3. suspension 4. customers 5. comparison
6. unconcerned 7. argument 8. productive 9. freedom 10. comfortable IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. (5pts) 1. out 2. to 3. down 4. on 5. across PART C. READING I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best complete the blanks. (10pts) 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10pts) 1. about 2. end 3. result 4. an 5. who/that 6. single 7. tested 8. not 9. if 10. allowed III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10pts) 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A PART D.WRITING I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must not be changed in any way. (5pts) 1. Sales of the magazines grew/increased/went up as a result of the reduction in the price. 2. I haven’t heard /have heard nothing from Georgia for/in a while. 3. Dinner will be served as soon as we arrive at the hotel. 4. Besides being unable to sing, Barbara couldn‘t dance either.
5. You ought not to have left without locking the door. II. Write an essay to express your opinion on the following statement. Use specific reasons and details to support your idea. (15pts) “Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication, such as letters, email, or telephone calls”. Marking scheme The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
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