30 - Day Reading Challenge

Day 4 Answer Keys Part of the passage: As a part of its new philosophy of providing the customers with a new shopping experience, Shopper’s Stop came up with several initiatives. One plan was to increase the area of each store from around 40,000-45,000 square feet to 75,000-85,000 square feet. It also started a new concept in the retail industry by set- ting up trial rooms with day and night lighting options, so that consumers could check how garments would look during the day and in the night. Answer: E broadcasting music throughout the stores. Part of the passage: The other initiatives included a new dress code of black and white for the employees, and training sessions to help employees tackle demanding customers with varied tastes. Shopper’s Stop also introduced a company anthem for the staff, penned by renowned lyricist Gulzar, and sung by popular Indian singer Sonu Nigam. It was played every morning across all outlets in the country as a song of celebration. Questions 25 – 26 Answer: C The rebranding did not save consumers money. Part of the passage: Shopper’s Stop planned to invest around 15 billion rupees to increase the number of outlets to 48 by 2011. It had earmarked 200 million rupees for the rebranding and repositioning exercise. But not everyone favoured the changes. Customers said that from their point of view, there was no major change in terms of price or special offers. Answer: E The rebranding was unnecessary at that time. Part of the passage: Some analysts were of the view that the new logo had nothing unique to offer except for a change in shape. Some even wondered why the retailer had decided to rebrand itself, considering that it was doing reasonably well and had just completed a successful year. IELTS ZONE +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

30 - Day Reading Challenge DAY 6 READING PASSAGE 3IELTS ZONE Questions 27 – 31 Q 27. Examples of maps showing features that cannot be seen on the ground. Answer: Paragraph E Part of the passage [Par E]: Often maps will show things that are invisible in the real world, such as relative financial affluence, as in Charles Booth’s maps of London in the nineteenth century, or the geology far below the surface of the planet, as in an 1823 map of the land around Bath. Q 28. A list of media that have been used in the creation of maps. Answer: Paragraph A Part of the passage [Par A]: The materials on which maps are to be found, similarly range from scraps of paper to plaster walls, by way of parchment, copper coins, mo- saics, marble, woollen tapestries, silk, gold and more. Attitudes towards maps also vary greatly, and are subject to modification over time. Q 29. Examples of the main function of maps in various periods and places. Answer: Paragraph G Part of the passage [Par G]: In ancient Greece and Babylon, and in eighteenth- and twentieth-century Europe, the preoccupation with precision and the scientific indeed predominated. In early modern China and nineteenth-century Europe the adminis- trative use of mapping came to the fore. By contrast, for long periods of time and in many civilizations, the major preoccupation was to define and to depict man’s place in relationship to a religious view of the universe. This was particularly evident in medieval Europe and Aztec Mexico. Clearly, maps can only be fully understood in their social context. Q 30. A contrast between different types of maps with regard to a requirement for accuracy. Answer: Paragraph C Part of the passage [Par C]: All have contributed to a re-evaluation of the subject. It is accepted that for some purposes, such as administration and terrestrial and maritime navigation, mathematical accuracy still plays a major and even sometimes a par- amount role in cartography. In other contexts, such as maps of underground railway 151

IELTS ZONEDay 6 Answer Keys systems, or maps used for propaganda purposes, such accuracy is irrelevant, and at times even undesirable. Q 31. Speculation about reasons for a change in attitudes towards maps. Answer: Paragraph B Part of the passage [Par B]: In recent decades, the view that maps should be as- sessed primarily in terms of their geometrical accuracy has radically changed. At the same time, they have become available to a range of disciplines. Questions 32 – 39 Q 32. maps of Utopia Part of the passage [Par F]: Sometimes, as in depictions of the imaginary land of Utopia, physical reality is totally absent or so distorted as to be geographically meaning- less. Instead the map serves as a commentary on the gap between the aspirations and the feeble achievements of mankind. Answer: H to contrast ideal and actual human development Q 33. Charles Booth’s maps of London Part of the passage [Par E]: Often maps will show things that are invisible in the real world, such as relative financial affluence, as in Charles Booth’s maps of London in the nineteenth century… Answer: D to show variations in wealth Q 34. map commissioned by Nicholas Philpot Leader Part of the passage [Par D]: …unless these are in conflict with his own value systems, as was the case with Nicholas Philpot Leader in 1827. The map of Ireland (then part of the UK) that Leader commissioned was intended as a strong attack on the then British government. Answer: C to express political criticism Q 35. map of Bath area Part of the passage [Par E]: Often maps will show things that are invisible in the real world, ...., or the geology far below the surface of the planet, as in an 1823 map of the land around Bath. Answer: E to show differences below ground level 152

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Q 36. early modern Chinese maps Part of the passage [Par G]: In early modern China and nineteenth-century Europe the administrative use of mapping came to the fore. Answer: I to assist in the management of the country Q 37. map of the Antarctic Part of the passage [Par A]: Maps vary enormously, from imposing images of the world and its parts to private jottings intended to give an approximate idea of the twentieth-century Antarctic. Answer: A to portray an area very roughly Q 38. plan of Ostia harbour Part of the passage [Par F]: …The plan of Ostia harbour of AD 64 primarily serves as a demonstration of the Emperor Nero’s benevolence… Answer: G to glorify the ruler of the country Q 39. Hereford World Map Part of the passage [Par F]: Sometimes the purpose of the map is even simpler and has nothing to do with geography. The Hereford World Map proclaims the insignificance of man in the face of the divine and the eternal. Answer: F to show the unimportance of human beings Question 40 What is the best title for Reading Passage 3? Answer: C Re-evaluating the role of maps Explanation: This a global multiple-choice question and requires a full understanding of the whole passage. If you have difficulty finding the correct answer, you can always eliminate the wrong ones. 153

Day 7 Answer Keys DAY 7 READING PASSAGE 1IELTS ZONE Questions 1 – 4 Q 1. ‘decompression zone’ for ..............., not sales Answer: promotion Part of the passage: When you enter a supermarket, it takes some time for the mind to get into a shopping mode. This is why the area immediately inside the entrance of a supermarket is known as the ‘decompression zone’. People need to slow down and take stock of the surroundings, even if they are regulars. Supermarkets do not expect to sell much here, so it tends to be used more for promotion. Q 2. ‘chill zone’ for ..............., such as magazines, books, DVDs Answer: unplanned purchases Part of the passage: Immediately to the left in many supermarkets is a ‘chill zone’, where customers can enjoy browsing magazines, books and DVDs. This is intended to tempt unplanned purchases and slow customers down. Q 3. counters selling ............... situated opposite entrance Answer: fruit and vegetables Part of the passage: But people who just want to do their shopping quickly will keep walking ahead, and the first thing they come to is the fresh fruit and vegetables section. However, for shoppers, this makes no sense. Q 4. ............... often placed in central areas of aisles Answer: popular items Part of the passage: Shoppers already know that everyday items, like milk, are invari- ably placed towards the back of a store to provide more opportunity to tempt customers to buy things which are not on their shopping list. This is why pharmacies are also gener- ally at the back. But supermarkets know shoppers know this, so they use other tricks, like placing popular items halfway along a section so that people have to walk all along the aisle looking for them. The idea is to boost ‘dwell time’: the length of time people spend in a store. Explanation: central areas of aisles = halfway along a section 154

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Questions 5 – 10 Q 5. The ‘greeters’ at Walmart increase sales. Meaning: Does sales increase because of the ‘greeters’ Walmart? Can they help to increase sales? Part of the passage: Walmart, the world’s biggest retailer, famously employs ‘greeters’ at the entrance to its stores. A friendly welcome is said to cut shoplifting. It is harder to steal from nice people.  Answer: Not Given Explanation: The text says it cuts (decreases) shoplifting, but there is no enough infor- mation to conclude that having ‘greeters’ increases sales. Maybe it does, maybe it does not. We don’t know it for sure. Q 6. People feel better about their shopping if they buy fruit and vegetables be- fore they buy other food. Meaning: Does it feel better to buy fruit and vegetables before buying other food while shopping at a supermarket? Part of the passage: Fruit and vegetables can be easily damaged, so they should be bought at the end, not the beginning, of a shopping trip. But psychology is at work here: selecting these items makes people feel good, so they feel less guilty about reaching for less healthy food later on.  Answer: True Explanation: Let’s say you want to buy ice-cream (less healthy), so according to the text, if you buy fruit and vegetables first, you are more likely to feel better and less guilty about reaching for this ice cream. Q 7. In-store bakeries produce a wider range of products than central bakeries. Meaning: In-store bakeries are compared to central bakeries, and according to the statement, they produce a greater range of products (such as bread, pies, cakes etc). Let’s see if this is true, false or not given. Part of the passage: Even small supermarkets now use in-store bakeries. Mostly these bake pre-prepared items and frozen ingredients which have been delivered to the super- market previously, and their numbers have increased, even though central bakeries that deliver to a number of stores are much more efficient. They do it for the smell of freshly baked bread, which arouses people’s appetites and thus encourages them to purchase not just bread but also other food, including ready meals. Answer: Not Given +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

IELTS ZONEDay 7 Answer Keys Explanation: The text says central bakeries are much more efficient, but does not mention the range of products. Efficiency is about performance in relation to resources and time, but the range of products is different. Q 8. Supermarkets find right-handed people easier to persuade than left-handed people. Meaning: Are right-handed people are easily persuaded (manipulated) than the lefties?  Part of the passage: To be on the right-hand side of an eye-level selection is often considered the very best place, because most people are right-handed and most people’s eyes drift rightwards. Answer: Not Given Explanation: Whenever you have a comparison of two things (in this case, right-hand- ed vs left-handed people), you should always make sure both are mentioned in the passage. If not, then the statement is most likely not given. So in the part of the passage given above, there is nothing about left-handed people. Moreover, it does not say any- thing about right-handed people being easily persuaded. The only claim the text has made is that most people are right-handed. Q 9. The most frequent reason for leaving shops without buying something is price. Meaning: Is price the most common reason for leaving shops without buying something? In other words, is price the most important factor in deciding whether or not to buy? Part of the passage: People say they leave shops empty-handed more often because they are ‘unable to decide’ than because prices are too high, says Mr Bearse. Answer: False Explanation: According to the passage, the number one reason why people leave empty-handed is that they are ‘unable to decide’ what to buy (they have too many choices), not because of the price. So the statement is clearly contradicted. Q 10. ‘Decoy’ items are products which the store expects customers to choose Meaning: Do stores expect customers to buy ‘decoy’ items? Part of the passage: Often a customer struggling to decide which of two items is best ends up not buying either. In order to avoid a situation where a customer decides not to buy either product, a third ‘decoy’ item, which is not quite as good as the other two, is placed beside them to make the choice easier and more pleasurable. Happier customers are more likely to buy. Answer: False 156

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Explanation: ‘decoy’ items are placed to make the choice easier; it means they are not desirable products and stores do NOT expect customers to buy these items. It is, in fact, exactly the opposite: stores want customers to buy other items with the help of ‘decoy’ products. Questions 11 – 13 Comment: Answers to these three questions can be found in the paragraph shown below. Flow-chart completion questions usually (not always) follow the order as in the passage.  Part of the passage: Even small supermarkets now use in-store bakeries. Mostly these bake pre-prepared items and frozen ingredients which have been delivered to the supermarket previously, and their numbers have increased, even though central bakeries that deliver to a number of stores are much more efficient. They do it for the smell of freshly baked bread, which arouses people’s appetites and thus encourages them to purchase not just bread but also other food, including ready meals. Q 11. The supermarket is sent …………… and other items which have been prepared earlier. Answer: frozen ingredients Explanation: The supermarket is sent = ...which have been delivered to the super- market;  other items which have been prepared earlier = pre-prepared items; Q 12. Shoppers’ …………… are stimulated. Answer: appetites Explanation: to stimulate = to arouse; Q 13. They are then keener to buy food, including bread and …………… . Answer: ready meals Explanation: keener to buy food, including bread and ready meals = encourages them to purchase not bread, but also other food, including ready meals 157

Day 8 Answer Keys DAY 8 READING PASSAGE 2IELTS ZONE Questions 14 – 19 Q 14. Paragraph A Part of the passage: According to Patterson, the great apes were capable of holding meaningful conversations, and could even reflect upon profound topics, such as love and death. During the project, their trainers believe they uncovered instances where the two gorillas’ linguistic skills seemed to provide reliable evidence of intentional deceit. In one example, Koko broke a toy cat, and then signed to indicate that the breakage had been caused by one of her trainers. Main idea in paragraph A: Animals are also capable of intentional deceit (lie). Answer: VI do only humans lie? Q 15. Paragraph B Part of the passage: By the time the children have reached the age of five, all of them peek and all of them lie. The results provide compelling evidence that lying starts to emerge the moment we learn to speak. Main idea in paragraph B: The time when we start to lie Answer: II when do we begin to lie? Q 16. Paragraph C Paragraph: So what are the tell-tale signs that give away a lie? In 1994, the psychologist Richard Wiseman devised a large-scale experiment on a TV programme called Tomor- row’s World. As part of the experiment, viewers watched two interviews in which Wise- man asked a presenter in front of the cameras to describe his favourite film. In one inter- view, the presenter picked Some Like It Hot and he told the truth; in the other interview, he picked Gone with the Wind and lied. The viewers were then invited to make a choice – to telephone in to say which film he was lying about. More than 30,000 calls were re- ceived, but viewers were unable to tell the difference and the vote was a 50/50 split. In similar experiments, the results have been remarkably consistent – when it comes to lie detection, people might as well simply toss a coin. It doesn’t matter if you are male or female, young or old; very few people are able to detect deception. Main idea in paragraph C: The whole paragraph describes a TV experiment to see if viewers can tell the difference between a lie and truth. 158

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Answer: VIII a public test of our ability to spot a lie Q 17. Paragraph D Part of the passage: The results are clear. Liars do not necessarily look away from you; they do not appear nervous and move their hands around or shift about in their seats. People fail to detect lies because they are basing their opinions on behaviours that are not actually associated with deception. Main idea in paragraph D: Common misconceptions about what liars do Answer: IV exposing some false beliefs Q 18. Paragraph E Paragraph: So what are we missing? It is obvious that the more information you give away, the greater the chances of some of it coming back to haunt you. As a result, liars tend to say less and provide fewer details than truth-tellers. Looking back at the tran- scripts of the interviews with the presenter, his lie about Gone with the Wind contained about 40 words, whereas the truth about Some Like It Hot was nearly twice as long. People who lie also try psychologically to keep a distance from their falsehoods, and so tend to include fewer references to themselves in their stories. In his entire interview about Gone with the Wind, the presenter only once mentioned how the film made him feel, compared with the several references to his feelings when he talked about Some Like It Hot. Main idea in paragraph E: What really sets liars apart from truth-tellers? Answer: i some of the things liars really do Q 19. Paragraph F Part of the passage: The simple fact is that the real clues to deceit are in the words that people use, not the body language. So do people become better lie de- tectors when they listen to a liar, or even just read a transcript of their comments? Main idea in paragraph F: You can tell from the words, not the body language Answer: V which forum of communication best exposes a lie Questions 20 – 23 Q 20. Someone who was innocent was blamed for something. Part of the passage [Par A]: In another episode, Michael ripped a jacket belonging to a trainer and, when asked who was responsible for the incident, signed ‘Koko’. When the 159

IELTS ZONEDay 8 Answer Keys trainer expressed some scepticism, Michael appeared to change his mind, and indicated that Dr Patterson was actually responsible, before finally confessing. Answer: A The Gorilla experiment Q 21. Those involved knew they were being filmed. Part of the passage [Par C]: As part of the experiment, viewers watched two interviews in which Wiseman asked a presenter in front of the cameras to describe his favourite film. Answer: C The TV experiment Q 22. Some objects were damaged. Part of the passage [Par A]: In one example, Koko broke a toy cat, and then signed to indicate that the breakage had been caused by one of her trainers. In another episode, Michael ripped a jacket belonging to a trainer and, when asked who was responsible for the incident, signed ‘Koko’.  Answer: A The Gorilla experiment Q 23. Some instructions were ignored. Part of the passage [Par B]: After setting up the toy, the experimenter says that he has to leave the laboratory, and asks the child not to turn around and peek at the toy. The child is secretly filmed by hidden cameras for a few minutes, and then the experimenter returns and asks them whether they peeked. Almost all three-year-olds do, and then half of them lie about it to the experimenter. Answer: B the experiment with children Questions 24 – 26 Q 24. Filming liars has shown that they do not display …………… behaviour. Part of the passage [Par D]: Researchers have spent hour upon hour carefully com- paring films of liars and truth-tellers. The results are clear. Liars do not necessarily look away from you; they do not appear nervous and move their hands around or shift about in their seats. Answer: nervous Explanation: looking away, moving their hands around, shifting about in their seats are all examples of nervous behaviour. But it is hard to find because the word behaviour is not clearly given in this context. +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Q 25. Liars tend to avoid talking about their own …………… .  Part of the passage [Par E]: People who lie also try psychologically to keep a distance from their falsehoods, and so tend to include fewer references to themselves in their stories. In his entire interview about Gone with the Wind, the presenter only once mentioned how the film made him feel, compared with the several references to his feelings when he talked about Some Like It Hot. Answer: feelings  Explanation: possible wrong answers are falsehoods or references, but neither collocates with the word ‘own’.  Q 26. Signs of lying are exposed in people’s …………… rather than their movements. Part of the passage [Par F]: The simple fact is that the real clues to deceit are in the words that people use, not the body language. Answer: words Explanation: their movements = body language; rather than = not Bonus Band 7+ questions: Q 18, Q 24 and Q 25 161

Day 9 Answer Keys DAY 9 IELTS ZONEREADING PASSAGE 3 Questions 27 – 32 Q 27. What do you learn about Ellen Terry in the first paragraph? Part of the passage: But she didn’t achieve this devotion through her acting ability alone. She knew the power of presentation and carefully cultivated her image. That first night was no exception. When she walked on stage for the famous banqueting scene, her ap- pearance drew a collective gasp from the audience. Answer: C She tried hard to look good on stage. Q 28.  What is the writer’s purpose in paragraph 2? Part of the passage: She was dressed in the most extraordinary clothes ever to have graced a British stage: a long, emerald and sea-green gown with tapering sleeves, sur- mounted by a velvet cloak, which glistened and sparkled eerily in the limelight. Yet this was no mere stage trickery. The effect had been achieved using hundreds of wings from beetles. The gown – later named the ‘Beetlewing dress’ – became one of the most iconic and celebrated costumes of the age. Answer: B to explain why the Beetlewing dress had such a big impact. Q 29. According to the writer, the main effect of the Lyceum productions was to Part of the passage: Terry was every bit as remarkable as her costumes. At 31, she became a leading lady at the Lyceum Theatre and for two decades, she set about bringing culture to the masses. The productions she worked on were extravagant and daring. Shakespeare’s plays were staged alongside blood-and-thunder melodramas and their texts were ruthlessly cut. Some people were critical, but they missed the point. The innovations sold tickets and brought new audiences to see masterpieces that they would never otherwise have seen. Answer: A expose more people to Shakespeare’s plays. Q 30. In the fourth paragraph, what comparison does the writer make between Sargent’s portrait and the Beetlewing dress? Part of the passage: But while the painting remains almost as fresh as the day it was painted, the years have not been so kind to the dress. Its delicate structure, combined with the cumulative effects of time, has meant it is now in an extremely fragile condition. Answer: D The painting looks newer. 162

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Q 31. Zenzie says the Beetlewing project is particularly special because Part of the passage: Zenzie loves historical dress because of the link with the past. ‘Working on costumes like the Beetlewing dress gives you a real sense of the people who wore them; you can see the sweat stains and wear marks. Answer: B people know who wore the dress. Q 32. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage? Answer: B A challenging task. Explanation: “Best title” questions should be approached after reading the whole passage, but in this particular passage, a student can easily guess the correct answer by carefully reading the subtitle and the last paragraph. Questions 33 – 36 Q 33. The National Trust conducted useful research to assist Zenzie’s plans for the dress. Meaning: Was the research conducted by the National Trust to assist Zenzie’s plan useful? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: ...Thus, two years ago, a fundraising project was launched by Britain’s National Trust to pay for its conservation….Before any of Zenzie’s conservation work can begin, she and her team will conduct a thorough investigation to help determine what changes have been made to the dress and when. ...Then Zenzie and the National Trust will decide how far back to take the reconstruction, as some members feel that even the most recent changes are now part of the history of the dress.  Explanation: National Trust was mentioned twice, but there is no information on any kind of research they conducted. But the text mentions about Zenzie’s investigation, so some students might think this is false because the research was conducted by Zenzie’s team, not National Trust. It is a wrong approach, both sides could have conducted their own research and just because the text does not talk about National Trust’s research, it does not mean it was not conducted, let alone useful or not. Q 34. There will be some discussion over the changes that Zenzie’s team should make to the dress. Meaning: Will there be a discussion about the changes that Zenzie’s team should make? 163

IELTS ZONEDay 9 Answer Keys Answer: Yes Part of the passage: Then Zenzie and the National Trust will decide how far back to take the reconstruction, as some members feel that even the most recent changes are now part of the history of the dress.  Explanation: They will decide about the extent of the change they should make to the dress. Q 35.  Zenzie’s estimate for the timing of the project is realistic. Meaning: is Zenzie’s estimate for the timing of the project realistic? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: Zenzie has estimated that the project, costing about £30,000, will require more than 700 hours’ work. ‘It will be a huge undertaking and I don’t think the Trust has ever spent quite as much on a costume before,’ she says. Explanation: The text mentions the amount of time expected to be spent: 700 hours, but does not offer any opinion whether it is realistic or not. Q 36. Ellen Terry’s attitude towards her dresses was typical of her time.  Meaning: Did actresses in her time had the same attitude towards their dresses? Answer: No Part of the passage: Unlike many other actresses, she valued her costumes because she kept and reused them time and time again. ‘I’d like to think she’d see our contribution as part of the ongoing history of the dress,’ says Zenzie. Explanation: Unlike is the key word here, so her attitude was different to that of many actresses at the time. Questions 37 – 40 Q 37. Pictures will be used Part of the passage: This will involve close examination of the dress for signs of dam- age and wear, and will be aided by comparing it with John Singer Sargent’s painting and contemporary photographs. Answer: F to help show where the dress needs repair work. Q 38. A special machine will be used 164

30 - Day Reading Challenge Part of the passage: The first stages in the actual restoration will involve delicate surface cleaning, using a small vacuum suction device. Answer: C to remove the dirt from the top layer of the dress. Q 39. A net material has been selected Part of the passage: because the original cloth is quite stretchy, so we’ve deliberately chosen net because that has a certain amount of flexibility in it too,’ says Zenzie. Answer: E to match a quality of the original fabric used in the dress. Q 40. Work will be visible on one side Part of the passage: When the dress is displayed, none of our work will be noticeable, but we’ll retain all the evidence on the reverse so that future experts will be able to see exactly what we’ve done – and I’ll produce a detailed report.’  Answer: A to show how the team did the repairs on the dress. IELTS ZONE +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

Day 10 Answer Keys DAY 10 READING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 – 3 Q 1. changing rooms (1 oversized enough space for ………….. ) Answer: buggies Part of the passage: one oversized fitting room … to enable mothers to bring their buggies while they change. Q 2. …………… for children Answer: colouring books Part of the passage: ...and staff will come along with colouring books to entertain children... Q 3. background music (................ on Saturdays) Answer: faster (tempo) Part of the passage: Even the background music is carefully considered. On Saturdays it has a faster tempo. IELTS ZONE Questions 4 – 8 Q 4. Sally Bailey intends to find locations for White Stuff in shopping centres. Meaning: She wants to find locations for her store in shopping centers. Answer: False Part of the passage: White Stuff has eschewed the shop design of a traditional fashion retailer, preferring to model its interiors on a Victorian house where Ms Bailey believes her customers aspire to live. Since her arrival, White Stuff has sought locations away from the beaten track and shopping centres are viewed as anathema. ‘To be honest, we do have some stores that are very hard to find,’ says Ms Bailey. ‘In Exeter, for example, there’s the High Street and the shopping centre, but you have to turn left down an alley to find White Stuff, right by an organic butcher and coffee shop.’ 166

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Q 5. Sally Bailey started White Stuff. Meaning: Did she found/start White Stuff? Answer: False Part of the passage: Yet White Stuff’s customers, whom Ms Bailey describes as ‘ex- tremely loyal’, are not deterred by these intrepid expeditions. When she took over five years ago, White Stuff had 15 stores and an annual turnover of £14m. Today, turnover is in excess of £55m, with stores generating annual revenues between £500,000 and £2.5m from an average customer spend of £35. Explanation: take over = take control from someone (so it is clear that she’s not the founder) Q 6. The buyer at Tesco initially rejected Oven Pride. Meaning: Did the buyer at Tesco said no to Oven Pride at the beginning? Answer: True Part of the passage: Matt Stockdale, managing director of HomePride, which this year will turn over more than £4m, has the mother of former Tesco buyer Fraser McDonald to thank for his success. Desperate to get the supermarket chain to stock his oven cleaning product, Oven Pride, Mr Stockdale bombarded the buyer with calls. But it was to no avail: ‘The response was always “Thanks but no thanks”,’ he recalls. Explanation: Mr Stockdale wanted to sell his product, Oven Pride, so he bombarded the buyer at Tesco with class, but to no avail (without success). Q 7. The buyer’s mother often gives him advice on products. Meaning: Does the buyer’s mother often give his son advice on products? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: I think to make me go away, he gave me his mother’s address.’ Two weeks later, Mr Stockdale was in the buyer’s office signing a deal to supply his product to 30 stores. ‘He told me that his mother wanted him to give me a chance but that he didn’t give me much hope,’ says Mr Stockdale. Q 8. Matt Stockdale discovered important information about Tesco after contacting the company.  Meaning: Did he discover important information about Tesco after contacting the company? 167

IELTS ZONEDay 10 Answer Keys Answer: True Part of the passage: A year later he was supplying 130 Tesco stores. ‘I didn’t realise when I first approached Tesco that it was the UK’s biggest supermarket chain,’ says Mr Stockdale. ‘I just knew that I shopped there.’ Explanation: He found out that it was the biggest supermarket chain after approaching (contacting) the company. Before that he just knew he shopped there and nothing else. Questions 9 – 13 Q 9. Thought of starting a catalogue business (experience in ……………) Answer: direct sales Part of the passage: Mr Stockdale decided to fulfil a lifelong ambition to run his own company. ‘I looked at a catalogue business first because direct sales was what I knew,’ he says. Q 10. Observed that the biggest problem was how to get …………… clean Answer: (the) racks Part of the passage: ‘I found the hardest thing was to clean the racks,’ says Mr Stockdale.  Q 11. Made …………… to solve this problem Answer: kits Part of the passage: He decided to create kits to make cleaning racks easy Q 12. First order came after …………… Answer: 15 months Part of the passage: Dejected, Mr Stockdale found another sales job but, 15 months later, a fax arrived with a purchase order from Kleeneze.  Q 13. A question asked by a …………… gave him the idea of approaching shops Answer: (satisfied) customer Part of the passage: It took a letter from a satisfied customer, asking when the clean- er would be available in shops, to prompt Mr Stockdale to change his strategy and ap- proach high street retailers. Enter Tesco. 168

30 - Day Reading Challenge DAY 11 READING PASSAGE 2IELTS ZONE Questions 14 – 19 Q 14. Paragraph A Answer: VII A typical example of birth-order behaviour in practice Part of the passage: A visiting friend, with an older, more successful sister, declared it ‘classic first child behaviour of dominance and supposed authority’. Dolly’s objection to her brother’s self-appointed role as leader was justified, he announced, while Jimmy Joe’s superiority was characteristic of the forceful personality of firstborns. Birth order, he said, wasn’t something they could just shrug off. Q 15. Paragraph B Answer: V A theory that is still supported Part of the passage: It’s a view reiterated by Professor Frank Sulloway’s influential work, Born to Rebel. Sulloway, a leading proponent of the birth order idea, argued it has a definitive effect on the ‘Big Five’ personality traits of openness, conscientiousness, ex- troversion, agreeableness and neuroticism. Q 16. Paragraph C Answer: IX A detailed description of each child in families in general Part of the passage: According to the birth-order theory, first children are usually well-or- ganised high achievers. However, they can have an overdeveloped sense of entitlement and be unyielding. Second children are sometimes very competitive through rivalry with the older sibling. They’re also good mediators and negotiators, keen to keep everyone happy. Middle children, tagged the ‘easy’ ones, have good diplomacy skills. They suffer from a tendency to feel insignificant beside other siblings and often complain of feeling invisible to their parents. Youngest children are often the most likely to rebel, feeling the need to ‘prove’ themselves. They’re often extroverts and are sometimes accused of be- ing selfish. Twins inevitably find it harder to see themselves as individuals, unless their parents have worked hard to identify them as such. It’s not unusual for one twin to have a slightly dominant role over the other and take the lead role. Q 17. Paragraph D Answer: IV Doubts about birth-order theory but personal experience supporting it Part of the passage: But slapping generalised labels on a child is dangerous; they 169

IELTS ZONEDay 11 Answer Keys change all the time, often taking turns at being the ‘naughty one’ or the ‘diligent one’. However, as one of five children, I know how hard it is to transcend the tags you earn according to when you were born. It is unsurprising then that my eldest sister is the successful entrepreneur, and that, despite covering all the big bases of adult life like marriage, kids and property, my siblings will probably always regard me as their spoilt younger sister. Q 18. Paragraph E Answer: VI Birth-order characteristics continuing as children get older Part of the passage: ‘As the oldest of three, I’ve found it hard not to think of my own three children as having the same personality types that the three of us had when I was growing up,’ says Lisa Cannan, a teacher. ‘I identify with my eldest son… Q 19. Paragraph F Answer: II Solutions are more important than causes Part of the passage: He says that if a parent is worried about having encouraged, for example, an overdeveloped sense of dominance in an older sibling or spoiled a younger child, then it’s more useful to look at ways this can be addressed than over-analysing why it happened. Questions 20 – 23 Q 20. Experience as a child can affect behaviour as a parent. Answer: C Lisa Cannan Part of the passage [Par E]: ‘As the oldest of three, I’ve found it hard not to think of my own three children as having the same personality types that the three of us had when I was growing up,’ says Lisa Cannan, a teacher. ‘I identify with my eldest son, who con- stantly takes the lead in terms of organisation and responsibility. Q 21. Birth order may not be the main reason why children have the personalities they have. Answer: D Stephen Bayliss Part of the passage [Par F]: these characteristics might be better attributed to parenting styles, rather than a child’s character. Q 22. There is a link between birth and a group of important characteristics. Answer: B Professor Frank Sulloway +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Part of the passage [Par B]: Sulloway, a leading proponent of the birth order idea, argued it has a definitive effect on the ‘Big Five’ personality traits of openness, consci- entiousness, extroversion, agreeableness and neuroticism. Q 23. It is possible for people to stop feeling bad about how family members behave with them.  Answer: D Stephen Bayliss Part of the passage [Par F]: Bayliss is optimistic that as adults we can overcome any negative connotations around birth order. ‘Look at the way you react to certain situations with your siblings. If you’re unhappy about being treated as a certain type of personality, try to work out if it’s a role that you’ve willingly accepted. If you’re unhappy with the role, being dynamic about focusing on your own reactions, rather than blaming theirs, will help you overcome it. Change isn’t easy but nobody need be the victim of their biography.’ Questions 24 – 26 Q 24. First-born children have expectations that are too high with regard to……… . Answer: entitlement Part of the passage [Par C]: According to the birth-order theory, first children are usually well-organised high achievers. However, they can have an overdeveloped sense of entitlement and be unyielding. Q 25. Middle children are often considered …………… by their parents. Answer: easy Part of the passage [Par C]: Middle children, tagged the ‘easy’ ones, have good diplomacy skills. Q 26. Youngest children may be described as …………… by other people. Answer: selfish Part of the passage [Par C]: Youngest children are often the most likely to rebel, feeling the need to ‘prove’ themselves. They’re often extroverts and are sometimes accused of being selfish. 171

Day 12 Answer Keys DAY 12 IELTS ZONEREADING PASSAGE 3 Questions 27 – 31 Q 27. What is the main topic of the first paragraph? Answer: C the losses made on haute couture. Part of the passage: Given that a good year in the haute couture business is one where you lose even more money than usual, the prevailing mood in Paris last week was of buoyancy. The big-name designers were falling over themselves to boast of how many outfits they had sold at below cost price, and how this proved that the fashion business was healthier than ever. Jean-Paul Gaultier reported record sales, “but we don’t make any money out of it,” the designer assured journalists backstage. “No matter how successful you are, you can’t make a profit from couture,” explained Jean-Jacques Picart, a veteran fashion PR man, and co-founder of the now-bankrupt Lacroix house. Q 28. The writer says that Jean-Louis Scherrer Answer: A upset other couturiers. Part of the passage: Almost 20 years have passed since the bizarre economics of the couture business were first exposed. Outraged that he was losing money on evening dresses costing tens of thousands of pounds, the couturier Jean-Louis Scherrer – to howls of “treason” from his colleagues – published a detailed summary of his costs. Q 29. The writer says that the outfit Jean-Louis Scherrer described Answer: D should have cost more to buy than it did. Part of the passage: One outfit he described contained over half a mile of gold thread, 18,000 sequins, and had required hundreds of hours of hand-stitching in an atelier. A fair price would have been £50,000, but the couturier could only get £35,000 for it. Rather than riding high on the follies of the super-rich, he and his team could barely feed their hungry families. Q 30. In the third paragraph, the writer states that haute couture makers Answer: A think that the term ‘value for money’ has a particular meaning for them. Part of the passage: The result was an outcry and the first of a series of government and industry-sponsored inquiries into the surreal world of ultimate fashion. The trade continues to insist that – relatively speaking – couture offers you more than you pay for, but it’s not as simple as that. When such a temple of old wealth starts talking about 172

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge value for money, it isn’t to convince anyone that dresses costing as much as houses are a bargain. Rather, it is to preserve the peculiar mystique, lucrative associations and threatened interests that couture represents. Q 31. The writer says in the fourth paragraph that there is disagreement over Answer: B the future of haute couture. Part of the passage: Essentially, the arguments couldn’t be simpler. On one side are those who say that the business will die if it doesn’t change. On the other are those who say it will die if it does. What’s not in doubt is that haute couture – the term translates as “high sewing” – is a spectacular anachronism. Questions 32 – 36 Q 32. The way that companies use haute couture as a marketing device is clear. Meaning: Is it clear that the way companies use haute couture as a marketing device? Answer: Yes Part of the passage: So far, so traditional, but the Big Four operators – Chanel, Dior, Givenchy and Gaultier – increasingly use couture as a marketing device for their far more profitable ready-to-wear, fragrance and accessory lines. It isn’t hard to see how this works in practice. Q 33. Only wealthy people are attracted by the idea of ‘name association’. Meaning: Are ONLY wealthy people attracted by the idea of ‘name association’? Answer: No Part of the passage: The big idea being the one known in the trade as “name associa- tion”. Couture outfits may be unaffordable, even unwearable, but the whiff of glamour and exclusivity is hard to resist. The time-starved modern woman who doesn’t make enough in a year to afford a single piece of couture can still buy a share of the dream for the price of a Chanel lipstick or a Givenchy scarf. Q 34. Pierre Cardin is likely to return to producing haute couture. Meaning: Is he likely to return to business of haute couture? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: For all this, couture has been in decline – the optimists would say readjusting to changed conditions – for years. The number of houses registered to the 173

IELTS ZONEDay 12 Answer Keys Syndicale has halved in the last two decades. Pierre Cardin once had almost 500 people working full time on couture, but by the 1980s the number had fallen to 50, and today the house is no longer registered. Q 35. Some women who can afford haute couture clothes buy other clothes instead. Meaning: Do some women who can afford haute couture clothes buy other clothes instead? Answer: Yes Part of the passage: Modern life tells the story. Younger women, even the seriously wealthy ones, find ready-to-wear clothes invariably more practical and usually more fun. Couture’s market has dwindled. “Haute couture is a joke,” scoffs Pierre Bergé, the former head of Yves St Laurent – another house that no longer creates it. Q 36. It is hard to understand why some haute couture companies are doing well. Meaning: Is it hard to understand why some haute couture companies are doing well? Answer: No Part of the passage: Why, then, are the surviving couture houses smiling? Because they trade in fantasy, and, in these times, more people want to fantasise. “We’ve received so many orders we may not be able to deliver them all,” says Sidney Toledano, head of Dior. So, the clothes are rolled out and the couture losses roll in, and everyone agrees that it’s good business. Questions 37 – 40 Q 37. In his book, Nicholas Coleridge claims that Answer: D haute couture is dependent on a very small number of customers. Part of the passage: In his book, The Fashion Conspiracy, Nicholas Coleridge esti- mates that the entire couture industry rests on the whims of less than 30 immensely wealthy women, and although the number may have grown in recent years with the new prosperity of Asia, the number of couture customers worldwide is no more than 4,000. Q 38. The head of LVMH believes that Answer: F it is important to continue with haute couture. Part of the passage: “Haute couture is what gives our business its essential essence of luxury,” says Bernard Arnault, the head of LVMH, which owns both Dior and Givenchy. “The cash it soaks up is largely irrelevant. Set against the money we lose has to be the 174

30 - Day Reading Challenge value of the image couture gives us. Look at the attention the collections attract. It is where you get noticed. You have to be there. It’s where we set our ideas in motion.” Q 39. The former head of Yves St Laurent feels that Answer: B people who defend haute couture are wrong. Part of the passage: Couture’s market has dwindled. “Haute couture is a joke,” scoffs Pierre Bergé, the former head of Yves St Laurent – another house that no longer creates it. “Anyone who tells you it still matters is fantasising. You can see it dropping dead all around you. Nobody buys it any more. The prices are ridiculous. The rules for making it are nonsensical. It belongs to another age. Where are today’s couturiers? A real couturier is someone who founds and runs their own house. No one does that anymore.” Q 40. The head of Dior states that Answer: A there is great demand for haute couture. Part of the passage: “We’ve received so many orders we may not be able to deliver them all,” says Sidney Toledano, head of Dior. So, the clothes are rolled out and the couture losses roll in, and everyone agrees that it’s good business. IELTS ZONE +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

Day 13 Answer Keys DAY 13 IELTS ZONEREADING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 – 9 Q 1. The significance of establishing the relationship between different species.  Answer: B Part of the passage: As one of the most primitive mammals on the planet, the hedge- hog has been helping geneticists understand evolutionary relationships among mam- mals and even uncover secrets of the human genome. Q 2. The different habitats where hedgehogs can be found.  Answer: C Part of the passage: The 14 known species are native to Africa and parts of Asia as well as Europe. Some hibernate through cold winters in the north. Others tolerate desert heat near the equator. Some live in urban areas, adapting well to living in close proximity to humans. Others live in areas that rank among the most remote places on the planet. Q 3. The reason why standard forms of measurement cannot be used for the hedgehog.  Answer: F Part of the passage: Any perceived threat can make them roll up, including the ap- proach of a biologist, so researchers have invented a new measurement for the animals: ball length. Q 4. A problem associated with hedgehogs kept as pets.  Answer: E Part of the passage: Veterinarians trying to understand gum disease in domesticated hedgehogs have concluded that the varied diet of wild hedgehogs gives them more than nutrition-the hard bodies of insects also scrape the hedgehogs’ teeth clean. Q 5. Two reasons why hedgehogs are popular with people in the UK.  Answer: A Part of the passage: As for the developers, they have reason to think the animals will help make home sales fantastic, too. Part of the attraction is that many people simply 176

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge love hedgehogs, particularly in Britain, where children’s book writer Beatrix Potter in- troduced Mrs. Tiggy-Winkle, a hedgehog character, over a century ago. But part of the attraction is also rooted in science. Studies have helped make clear that hedgehogs are good for gardens, eating vast numbers of slugs and other pests as they forage in the vegetation at night.  Explanation: Two reasons: 1. British people simply love hedgehogs; 2. These animals are also good for gardens. Q 6. Four findings from the latest research into hedgehogs.  Answer: B Part of the passage: Recent scientific studies about hedgehogs have helped explain mysteries as varied as why hedgehogs apply saliva to their entire bodies, how they have survived on the planet for 30 million years, why they chew toxic toad skins and what secrets they may hold about evolution. Q 7. The social habits of the hedgehog.  Answer: D Part of the passage: Hedgehogs spend much of their time alone, but Reeve says it would be a mistake to think of them as solitary. Hedgehogs do approach each other and can detect the presence of others by their scent,’ he says. It is true that they usually do not interact at close quarters, but that does not mean they are unaware of their neigh- bours They may occasionally scrap over food items and rival males attracted to a female may also have aggressive interactions. Q 8. The number of hedgehog species already identified.  Answer: C Part of the passage: For one thing, scientists think they haven’t even discovered all the hedgehog species. We know of at least 14,’ says hedgehog researcher Nigel Reeve of Britain’s University of Surrey Roehampton. Q 9. The name given to baby hedgehogs.  Answer: D Part of the passage: Still, it’s fair to say that, in adulthood, hedgehogs meet primarily to mate, producing litters of four or five hoglets as often as twice yearly. 177

IELTS ZONEDay 13 Answer Keys Questions 10 – 13  Q 10. The study conducted in 1977 revealed a possible reason why Answer: B hedgehogs chew poisonous animal skins. Part of the passage [Par F]: Evidence suggests that hedgehogs may also add un- pleasant chemicals to their quills to make them even less appealing. In behaviour that may be unique for a vertebrate, they chew substances laden with toxins and then apply frothy saliva to their entire bodies….volunteers pricked themselves with quills from hedgehogs that had coated themselves after chewing on venomous toad skins. The volunteers found those quills much more imitating and painful than clean ones. Q 11. In Britain, which of the following has NOT been done to protect hedge- hogs? Answer: B Imposing fines for littering in areas where hedgehogs live. Explanation: This is a slightly more challenging question as you have to find the option which is NOT given in the passage. For this, you need to find all three which are true according to the passage. This can be time-consuming, but that’s the only way. Luckily, the main idea of Par G is about how the British went about protecting these hedgehogs.  A The opening of hospitals just for hedgehogs. - [Par G] To help combat the decline, the British have established special clinics for injured hedgehogs C The alteration of a container produced by a fast-food chain. - [Par G] Recently, they even persuaded McDonald’s to alter the packaging of its McFlurry ice-cream container, which had been trapping foraging hedgehogs. D Alerting people to the potential dangers faced by hedgehogs - [Par G] ...urged that anyone making a bonfire check for the animals underneath first, and ensured that hedgehogs can cope with cattle grids. Q 12. What are the ‘conclusions’ that scientists on the Hebrides Islands have reached again? Answer: B Hedgehogs pose a threat to other wildlife. Part of the passage [Par H]: In some places today, scientists are coming to the same conclusions... hedgehogs were introduced to the Hebrides Islands... Wildlife researchers have watched the hedgehogs reduce the numbers of rare ground - nesting wading birds by feasting on their eggs. Q 13. What would conservationists prefer to do on the Hebrides Islands? Answer: D Move the hedgehogs elsewhere. 178

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Part of the passage [Par H]: Efforts to cull the animals in the past two years have upset Britain’s conservationists who have countered with strategies to relocate the animals. DAY 14 READING PASSAGE 2 Questions 14 – 18 Q 14. Section A      Answer: VI Mixed success for visions of the future  Part of the passage: In the 1920s, there were three competing conceptions of the home of the future. ...These first two failed to capture the imagination and the dollars of industrialists or of the public, but the third image of the home of the future did. Explanation: Visions = conceptions; mixed success = two failed, one succeeded. Q 15. Section B     Answer: V Housework declines in the house of the future  Part of the passage: In the 1950s, the home of the future was represented in and by one room: the kitchen. Appliance manufacturers, advertisers and women’s magazines teamed up to surround women with images of the technology of tomorrow that would ‘automate’ their lives, and automation became a synonym for reduced domestic labor. Q 16. Section C  Answer: II The house of the future helps with the battle of the sexes  Part of the passage: The Whirlpool two-speed dishwasher stopped all that. Thus, a household appliance can preserve a man’s masculinity by ensuring that he does not have to do ‘women’s work’ in the home.  Q 17. Section D    Answer: VII The future lies in the past  Part of the passage: The broader social context continued to be reflected in the 1970s home of the future, but now the trend was to look backwards for the future, back to a 179

IELTS ZONEDay 14 Answer Keys proud pioneer heritage. Q 18. Section E     Answer: IV The multipurpose home of tomorrow  Part of the passage: Thus, in addition to turning exercise into work, we see that nature is being brought into the home for breaks. One never has to leave the home, but the imperative is still clearly productive. Questions 19 – 26  Q 19. There was a loss of faith in automation.  Answer: D 1970s Part of the passage [Par D]: Over the 1970s, North America experienced a certain erosion of trust in science and technology and there was less utopian speculation about the technologically produced future. The previous unproblematic link between technology, the future and progress was being questioned. Q 20. Advertisers believed that houses would be made in a factory. Answer: A 1920s Part of the passage [Par A]: In the 1920s, there were three competing conceptions of the home of the future. The first, indebted to modernist architecture, depicted the home of tomorrow as a futuristic architectural structure. The second conception was that of the mass-produced, prefabricated house, a dwelling potentially available to every North American. Q 21. There were fewer housewives.  Answer: E 1980s Part of the passage [Par E]: By the 1980s, the environmental and social movements of the 1970s were starting to ebb, significantly more women were working outside of the home. Q 22. One writer envisaged furniture being made from fully washable materials. Answer: C 1950s Part of the passage [Par B]: The postwar faith in and fascination with science is very apparent in future predictions made in the 1950s. The magazine Popular Mechanics did a special feature in February 1950 entitled, ‘Miracles You’ll See in the Next Fifty +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Years’. ‘Housewives in 50 years may wash dirty dishes-right down the drain! Cheap plas- tic would melt in hot water’. They also predicted that the housewife of the future would clean her house by simply turning the hose on everything. Furnishings, rugs, draperies and unscratchable floors would all be made of synthetic fabric or waterproof plastic.After the water had run down a drain in the middle of the floor (later concealed by a rug of synthetic fibre) you would turn on a blast of hot air and dry everything. Q 23. There was an increased awareness of the environment.  Answer: D 1970s Part of the passage [Par D]: We also see the influence of the Green movement, such as in the deployment of technology for solar-heated homes. The energy crisis was making itself felt, reflecting fears about a future not quite as rosy as that predicted by Popular Mechanics in 1950. Whereas in the 1960s the General Electric Company was exhorting consumers to ‘Live Electrically’, in the 1970s, the Edison Electric Company found it necessary to address the energy crisis directly in their advertisements. Q 24. There was a link between our interest in the future and increased consumerism.  Answer: C 1950s  Part of the passage [Par B]: The overriding message of the 1950s vision of the house of the future is that one can access the wonders of the future through the purchase of domestic technology today.  ‘by focusing on improving technology … the future becomes strictly a matter of things, their invention, improvement, and acquisition’.  Q 25. One magazine predicted that disposable plates would be used.  Answer: C 1950s Part of the passage [Par B]: The magazine Popular Mechanics did a special feature in February 1950 entitled, ‘Miracles You’ll See in the Next Fifty Years’. ‘Housewives in 50 years may wash dirty dishes-right down the drain! Cheap plastic would melt in hot water’. Q 26. A new expression for ‘the perfect home’ was introduced.  Answer: A 1920s Part of the passage [Par A]: The term ‘home of tomorrow’ first came into usage in the 1920s to describe the ‘ideal house for future living. 181

Day 15 Answer Keys DAY 15 READING PASSAGE 3IELTS ZONE Questions 27 – 31 Q 27. In paragraph 1, the writer uses the term ‘idle speculation’ to refer to the study of Answer: C when people began to talk. Part of the passage: Pinpointing the origin of language might seem like idle speculation, because sound does not fossilise. Q 28. What does the writer tell us about FOXP2? Answer: D It could have first occurred 200,000 years ago. Part of the passage: FOXP2 in humans differs only slightly from the gene in chimpan- zees, and may be about 200,000 years old, slightly older than the earliest modern hu- mans. Q 29. In paragraph 2, what notion does the writer refer to as being ‘rather silly’? Answer: B That man could travel around the world unable to talk. Part of the passage: How could our speechless Homo sapiens ancestors colonize the ancient world, spreading from Africa to Asia, and perhaps making a short sea-crossing to Indonesia, without language? Q 30. Why does the writer refer to ‘lions’ in paragraph 3? Answer: A To illustrate the type of communication needs faced by early man. Part of the passage: Nevertheless, the complexity of human expression may have start- ed off as simple stages in animal ‘thinking’ or problem-solving. For example, number processing (how many lions are we up against?)... Q 31. Gelada baboons are mentioned in order to show that Answer: A using grooming to form social bonds limits the size of a social group. Part of the passage: Apes are reliant on grooming to stick together, and that basically constrains their social complexity to groups of 50. 182

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Questions 32 – 40 Q 32. There is physical evidence of increased human intelligence up to 400,000 years ago. Answer: B Noble and Davidson Part of the passage: Davidson and Noble, who reject Dunbar’s gossip theory, suggest that there was a significant increase in brain size from about 400,000 years ago, and this may correlate with increasing infant dependence. Q 33. In the modern world, gossiping is seen in a negative way.  Answer: D Bastion Part of the passage: Giselle Bastion, who recently completed her PhD at Flinders University, argues that gossip has acquired a bad name, being particularly associated with women and opposed by men who are defending their supposedly objective world. Q 34. Language must have developed before art and travel.  Answer: B Noble and Davidson Part of the passage: William Noble and lain Davidson … conclude that language is a feature of anatomically modern humans, and an essential precursor of the earliest symbolic pictures in rock art, ritual burial, major sea-crossings, structured shelters and hearths-all dating, they argue, to the last 100,000 years. Q 35. The development of human language can be gauged by studying other species.  Answer: A Hauser Part of the passage: Marc Hauser (Harvard University) and colleagues argue that the study of animal behavior and communication can teach us how the faculty of language in the narrow human sense evolved. Other animals don’t come close to understanding our sophisticated thought processes. Nevertheless, the complexity of human expression may have started off as simple stages in animal ‘thinking’ or problem-solving. For ex- ample, number processing (how many lions are we up against?), navigation (time to fly south for the winter), or social relations (we need teamwork to build this shelter). In other words, we can potentially track language by looking at the behavior of other animals. Q 36. Gossiping makes humans feel good.   Answer: C Dunbar Part of the passage: Dunbar notes that just as grooming releases opiates that create a 183

IELTS ZONEDay 15 Answer Keys feeling of wellbeing in monkeys and apes, so do the smiles and laughter associated with human banter. Q 37. The actions of early humans could have evolved into a form of communication.  Answer: B Noble and Davidson Part of the passage: William Noble and lain Davidson (University of New England) look for the origin of language in early symbolic behavior and the evolutionary selection in fine motor control. For example, throwing and making stone tools could have developed into simple gestures like pointing that eventually entailed a sense of self-awareness. They argue that language is a form of symbolic communication that has its roots in behavioral evolution. Q 38. The first language emerged through a parent talking to an infant. Answer: E Falk Part of the passage: Dean Falk (Florida State University) suggests that, before the first smattering of language there was motherese, that musical gurgling between a mother and her baby, along with a lot of eye contact and touching. Q 39. Gossip was the first purpose of human communication.  Answer: C Dunbar Part of the passage: Robin Dunbar (University of Liverpool) believes they were proba- bly talking about each other-in other words, gossiping. Q 40. Early humans used language to help them live together.  Answer: C Dunbar Part of the passage: Dunbar argues that gossip provides the social glue permitting hu- mans to live in cohesive groups up to the size of about 150, found in population studies among hunter-gatherers, personal networks and corporate organizations. 184

30 - Day Reading Challenge DAY 16 IELTS ZONEREADING PASSAGE 1 Questions 1 – 6 Q 1. City transport developed slower than other means of communication. Meaning: Did city transport develop slower in comparison with other means of communication? Answer: True Part of the passage: THIS is ludicrous! We can talk to people anywhere in the world or fly to meet them in a few hours. We can even send probes to other planets. But when it comes to getting around our cities, we depend on systems that have scarcely changed since the days of Gottlieb Daimler. Explanation: Talking to people, sending probes to other planets are two means of communication which are faster than getting around in cities. Q 2. The pollution caused by city transport has been largely ignored. Meaning: Has the issue of pollution from city transport been largely ignored? Answer: False Part of the passage: In recent years, the pollution belched out by millions of vehicles has dominated the debate about transport. The problem has even persuaded Califor- nia—that home of car culture—to curb traffic growth.  Explanation: It has NOT been ignored, in fact the opposite is true: it dominated the debate, even persuaded California to curb (limit) traffic growth. Q 3. Most states in America have taken actions to reduce vehicle growth. Meaning: Have the majority of states in America taken action to reduce vehicle growth? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: The problem has even persuaded California—that home of car culture—to curb traffic growth. But no matter how green they become, cars are unlikely to get us around crowded cities any faster. Explanation: This part of the passage mentions only California, but no any other state. +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

IELTS ZONEDay 16 Answer Keys Q 4. Public transport is particularly difficult to use on steep hills. Meaning: Is it difficult to use public transport on steep hills? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: And persuading people to use trains and buses will always be an uphill struggle. Cars, after all, are popular for very good reasons, as anyone with small children or heavy shopping knows. Explanation: an uphill struggle/battle/fight (idiom) - needing a large amount of effort (it is not related to steep hills at all) Q 5. Private cars are much more convenient for those who tend to buy a lot of things during shopping. Meaning: Are private cars much more convenient for those with heavy shopping? Answer: True Part of the passage:Cars, after all, are popular for very good reasons, as anyone with small children or heavy shopping knows. Q 6. Government should impose compulsory restrictions on car use. Meaning: Should governments introduce compulsory (must) restrictions on car use? Answer: False Part of the passage: So politicians should be trying to lure people out of their cars, not forcing them out. Explanation: NOT force them out = opposite of compulsory restrictions Questions 7 – 12  Q 7. It is likely to be resisted by both individuals and manufacturers. Answer: A PRT only Part of the passage: With PRT, the infrastructure would have to come first—and that would cost megabucks. What’s more, any transport system that threatened the car’s dominance would be up against all those with a stake in maintaining the status quo, from private car owners to manufacturers and oil multinationals. ....Unlike PRT, such a system (RUF) could grow organically, as each network would serve a large area around it and people nearby could buy into it. And a dual-mode system might even win the support of 186

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge car manufacturers, who could easily switch to producing dual-mode vehicles. Q 8. It can run at high speed in cities. Answer: C both PRT and RUF Part of the passage: with no traffic lights, pedestrians or parked cars to slow things down, PRT guideways can carry far more traffic, nonstop, than any inner city road.... the RUF vehicle—the term comes from a Danish saying meaning to “go fast”—would become an electric car. Q 9. It is not necessary to share with the general public. Answer: C both PRT and RUF Part of the passage: You wouldn’t have to share your space with strangers, and with no traffic lights, pedestrians or parked cars to slow things down, PRT guideways can carry far more traffic, nonstop, than any inner city road. Explanation: there is nothing about sharing with regard to RUF (dual-mode driving) system.  Q 10. It is always controlled by a computer. Answer: A PRT only Part of the passage: The Danish RUF system envisaged by Palle Jensen, for example, resembles PRT but with one key difference: vehicles have wheels as well as a slot allow- ing them to travel on a monorail, so they can drive off the rail onto a normal road.  Explanation: with PRT, you hop into a computer-controlled car, but what makes RUF different from PRT is that it can also be converted into a usual human-drive car mode. Q 11. It can run on existing roads. Answer: B RUF only Part of the passage: The Danish RUF system envisaged by Palle Jensen, for exam- ple, resembles PRT but with one key difference: vehicles have wheels as well as a slot allowing them to travel on a monorail, so they can drive off the rail onto a normal road. Explanation: See Q10 explanation. Q 12. It can be bought by private buyers. Answer: B RUF only 187

IELTS ZONEDay 16 Answer Keys Part of the passage: Build a fast network of guideways in a busy city centre and people would have a strong incentive not just to use public RUF vehicles, but also to buy their own dual-mode vehicle.  Explanation: the text does not mention that PRT can be owned by individuals, but makes it clear that this idea is not accepted by private car owners, so one can make the inference that PRT vehicles cannot be bought. Question 13 Answer: C low pollution Part of the passage: In recent years, the pollution belched out by millions of vehicles has dominated the debate about transport. The problem has even persuaded Califor- nia—that home of car culture—to curb traffic growth. But no matter how green they be- come, cars are unlikely to get us around crowded cities any faster. And persuading peo- ple to use trains and buses will always be an uphill struggle. Cars, after all, are popular for very good reasons, as anyone with small children or heavy shopping knows. So politicians should be trying to lure people out of their cars, not forcing them out. There’s certainly no shortage of alternatives. Perhaps the most attractive is the concept known as personal rapid transit (PRT), independently invented in the US and Europe in the 1950s. Answer: E speed Part of the passage: and with no traffic lights, pedestrians or parked cars to slow things down, PRT guideways can carry far more traffic, nonstop, than any inner city road. Answer: F safety Part of the passage: Of course, creating a new transport system will not be cheap or easy. But unlike adding a dedicated bus lane here or extending the underground railway there, an innovative system such as Jensen’s could transform cities. And it’s not just a matter of saving a few minutes a day. According to the Red Cross, more than 30 million people have died in road accidents in the past century—three times the number killed in the First World War—and the annual death toll is rising. And what’s more, the Red Cross believes road accidents will become the third biggest cause of death and disability by 2020, ahead of diseases such as AIDS and tuberculosis. Surely we can find a better way to get around? 188

30 - Day Reading Challenge DAY 17 READING PASSAGE 2IELTS ZONE Questions 14 – 20  Q 14. Paragraph A Answer: IV Physical characteristics that allow birds to migrate Part of the passage: Birds have many unique design features that enable them to perform such amazing feats of endurance. They are equipped with lightweight, hollow bones, intricately designed feathers providing both lift and thrust for rapid flight, naviga- tion systems superior to any that man has developed, and an ingenious heat conserv- ing design that, among other things, concentrates all blood circulation beneath layers of warm, waterproof plumage, leaving them fit to face life in the harshest of climates. Their respiratory systems have to perform efficiently during sustained flights at altitude, so they have a system of extracting oxygen from their lungs that far exceeds that of any other an- imal. During the later stages of the summer breeding season, when food is plentiful, their bodies are able to accumulate considerable layers of fat, in order to provide sufficient energy for their long migratory flights. Q 15. Paragraph B Answer: V The main reason why birds migrate Part of the passage: The fundamental reason that birds migrate is to find adequate food during the winter months when it is in short supply. This particularly applies to birds that breed in the temperate and Arctic regions of the Northern Hemisphere, where food is abundant during the short growing season. Many species can tolerate cold temperatures if food is plentiful, but when food is not available they must migrate. However, intriguing questions remain. Q 16. Paragraph C Answer: II The unexplained rejection of closer feeding ground Part of the passage: One puzzling fact is that many birds journey much further than would be necessary just to find food and good weather. Nobody knows, for instance, why British swallows, which could presumably survive equally well if they spent the winter in equatorial Africa, instead fly several thousands of miles further to their preferred winter home in South Africa’s Cape Province. Another mystery involves the huge migrations performed by arctic terns and mudflat-feeding shorebirds that breed close to Polar Re- gions. In general, the further north a migrant species breeds, the further south it spends the winter. For arctic terns this necessitates an annual round trip of 25,000 miles. Yet, en route to their final destination in far-flung southern latitudes, all these individuals overfly 189

IELTS ZONEDay 17 Answer Keys other areas of seemingly suitable habitat spanning two hemispheres. While we may not fully understand birds’ reasons for going to particular places, we can marvel at their feats. Q 17. Paragraph D Answer: X Mysterious migration despite lack of teaching Part of the passage: One of the greatest mysteries is how young birds know how to find the traditional wintering areas without parental guidance. Very few adults migrate with juveniles in tow, and youngsters may even have little or no inkling of their parents’ appearance. A familiar example is that of the cuckoo, which lays its eggs in another species’ nest and never encounters its young again. It is mind boggling to consider that, once raised by its host species, the young cuckoo makes it own way to ancestral winter- ing grounds in the tropics before returning single-handedly to northern Europe the next season to seek out a mate among its own kind. The obvious implication is that it inherits from its parents an inbuilt route map and direction-finding capability, as well as a mental image of what another cuckoo looks like. Yet nobody has the slightest idea as to how this is possible. Q 18. Paragraph E Answer: VII Research findings on how birds migrate Part of the passage: Mounting evidence has confirmed that birds use the positions of the sun and stars to obtain compass directions. They seem also to be able to detect the earth’s magnetic field, probably due to having minute crystals of magnetite in the region of their brains. However, true navigation also requires an awareness of position and time, especially when lost. Experiments have shown that after being taken thousands of miles over an unfamiliar landmass, birds are still capable of returning rapidly to nest sites. Such phenomenal powers are the product of computing a number of sophisticated cues, including an inborn map of the night sky and the pull of the earth’s magnetic field. How the birds use their ‘instruments’ remains unknown, but one thing is clear: they see the world with a superior sensory perception to ours. Most small birds migrate at night and take their direction from the position of the setting sun. However, as well as seeing the sun go down, they also seem to see the plane of polarized light caused by it, which calibrates their compass. Traveling at night provides other benefits. Daytime predators are avoided and the danger of dehydration due to flying for long periods in warm, sunlit skies is reduced. Furthermore, at night the air is generally cool and less turbulent and so conducive to sustained, stable flight. Explanation: At first, I thought the correct heading was I The best moment to migrate, and I disregarded the heading VII Research findings on how birds migrate because I focused on the word “findings”, rather than more important part “how birds migrate”. Now I highlighted this part in blue as well the part of the passage which paraphrases this idea in the same color. I hope you can learn from my mistake. +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Q 19. Paragraph F Answer: I The best moment to migrate Part of the passage: Nevertheless, all journeys involve considerable risk, and part of the skill in arriving safely is setting off at the right time. This means accurate weather forecasting, and utilizing favorable winds. Birds are adept at both, and, in laboratory tests, some have been shown to detect the minute difference in barometric pressure between the floor and ceiling of a room. Often birds react to weather changes before there is any visible sign of them. Lapwings, which feed on grassland, flee west from the Netherlands to the British Isles, France and Spain at the onset of a cold snap. When the ground surface freezes the birds could starve. Yet they return to Holland ahead of a thaw, their arrival linked to a pressure change presaging an improvement in the weather. Q 20. Paragraph G Answer: VIII Successful migration despite trouble of wind Part of the passage: In one instance a Welsh Manx shearwater carried to America and released was back in its burrow on Skokholm Island, off the Pembrokeshire coast, one day before a letter announcing its release! Conversely, each autumn a small number of North American birds are blown across the Atlantic by fast-moving westerly tail winds. Not only do they arrive safely in Europe, but, based on ringing evidence, some make it back to North America the following spring, after probably spending the winter with European migrants in sunny African climes. Questions 21 – 22 Answer: A Birds often fly further than they need to. Part of the passage [Par C]: that many birds journey much further than would be necessary just to find food and good weather. Answer: C Birds flying at night need less water. Part of the passage [Par E]: Traveling at night provides other benefits. Daytime pred- ators are avoided and the danger of dehydration due to flying for long periods in warm, sunlit skies is reduced. Furthermore, at night the air is generally cool and less turbulent and so conducive to sustained, stable flight. Comment: B is incorrect because Par C mentions how young birds can find their way while migrating without parental guidance (no family, but still safe); D is very close, but still not 100% correct because even though Par E mentions birds see the world with a superior sensory perception to ours, it does not specifically say birds have sharper eye-sight than humans. Sensory perception is not only about vision, but 191

IELTS ZONEDay 17 Answer Keys also includes other senses such as taste, smell, touch and etc.  E is incorrect because of the limiting word ‘only’. Questions 23 – 26  Q 23. It is a great mystery that young birds like cuckoos can find their wintering grounds without …………… . Answer: guidance  Part of the passage [Par D]: One of the greatest mysteries is how young birds know how to find the traditional wintering areas without parental guidance. Q 24. Evidence shows birds can tell directions like a ……………. by observing the sun and the stars. Answer: compass Part of the passage [Par E]: Mounting evidence has confirmed that birds use the positions of the sun and stars to obtain compass directions.  Q 25. One advantage for birds flying at night is that they can avoid contact with …………… . Answer: predators Part of the passage [Par E]: Traveling at night provides other benefits. Daytime predators are avoided... Q 26. Laboratory tests show that birds can detect weather without …………… signs. Answer: visible Part of the passage [Par F]: Often birds react to weather changes before there is any visible sign of them. 192

30 - Day Reading Challenge DAY 18 READING PASSAGE 3IELTS ZONE Questions 27 – 31 Q 27. Video game use amongst preschool children is higher in the US than in other countries. Meaning: Is it higher in the US than in other countries? Is there comparison with other countries? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: Although video games were first developed for adults, they are no longer exclusively reserved for the grown ups in the home. In 2006, Rideout and Hamel reported that as many as 29 percent of preschool children (children between two and six years old) in the United States had played console video games, and 18 percent had played hand-held ones. Explanation: We do not know whether this figure is higher than in other countries; because the text only mentions the US. Q 28. The proportion of preschool children using video games is likely to rise. Meaning: Is it going to increase in the future? Answer: Yes Part of the passage: Given young children’s insatiable eagerness to learn, coupled with the fact that they are clearly surrounded by these media, we predict that preschoolers will both continue and increasingly begin to adopt video games for personal enjoyment. Q 29. Parents in the US who own gaming equipment generally allow their children to play with it. Meaning: Are children allowed to use their parents’ gaming equipment in the US? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: once a game system enters the household it is potentially available for all family members, including the youngest. Explanation: It does not necessarily mean that parents are explicitly giving their permission for children to use the game. 193

IELTS ZONEDay 18 Answer Keys Q 30. The type of research which manufacturers usually do is aimed at improving game design. Meaning: Is research usually aimed at improving the design? Answer: No Part of the passage: Research in the video game market is typically done at two stag- es: some time close to the end of the product cycle, in order to get feedback from con- sumers, so that a marketing strategy can be developed; and at the very end of the product cycle to ‘fix bugs’ in the game. While both of those types of research are im- portant, and may be appropriate for dealing with adult consumers, neither of them aids in designing better games, especially when it comes to designing for an audience that may have particular needs, such as preschoolers or senior citizens. Q 31. Both old and young games consumers require research which is specifically targeted. Meaning: Do they need to conduct specific research to meet the needs of both old and young customers? Answer: Yes Part of the passage: ...especially when it comes to designing for an audience that may have particular needs, such as preschoolers or senior citizens. Instead, exploratory and formative research has to be undertaken in order to truly understand those audiences, their abilities, their perspective, and their needs. Questions 32 – 36  Q 32. Preschool children find many electronic games difficult, because neither their motor skills nor their …………… are sufficiently developed. Answer: C cognitive skills Part of the passage: In addition to their still developing motor skills (which make manip- ulating a controller with small buttons difficult), many of the major stumbling blocks are cognitive. Q 33. Certain types of control are hard for these children to manipulate: for exam- ple, …………… can be more effective than styluses. Answer: E fingers Part of the passage: One of the very interesting aspects of the DS is that the interface, which is designed to respond to stylus interactions, can also effectively be used with the tip of the finger. This is particularly noteworthy in the context of preschoolers for two 194

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge reasons. Firstly, as they have trouble with fine motor skills and their hand-eye coordina- tion is still in development, they are less exact with their stylus movements; and secondly, their fingers are so small that they mimic the stylus very effectively, and therefore by using their fingers they can often be more accurate in their game interactions. Q 34 – 35. Also, although they already have the ability to relate 34 …………… to real-world objects... preschool children are largely unable to understand the con- nection between their own 35 …………… and the movements they can see on the screen. 34 Answer: F pictures Part of the passage: Though preschoolers are learning to think symbolically, and under- stand that pictures can stand for real-life objects. 35 Answer: A actions Part of the passage: Mapping is yet another obstacle since preschoolers may be unable to understand that there is a direct link between how the controller is used and the activ- ities that appear before them on screen. Q 36. Finally, very few preschool children can understand …………… .  Answer: I written menus Part of the passage: the vast majority are still unable to read and write. Thus, using text-based menu selections is not viable. Questions 37 – 40  Q 37. In 2007, what conclusion did games producers at Nickelodeon come to? Answer: B One of their hardware products would probably be suitable for preschoolers. Part of the passage: In the spring of 2007, our preschool-game production team at Nickelodeon had a hunch that the Nintendo DS* — with its new features, such as the microphone, small size and portability, and its relatively low price point — was a ripe gaming platform for preschoolers. Q 38. The study carried out by Nickelodeon Answer: C investigated the specific characteristics of the target market. Part of the passage: What exactly preschoolers could do with the system, however, was a bit of a mystery. So we set about doing a study to answer the query: What could +97 130 68 22 @ieltszone_uz

IELTS ZONEDay 18 Answer Keys we expect preschoolers to be capable of in the context of hand-held game play, and how might the child development literature inform us as we proceeded with the creation of a new outlet for this age group? Explanation: It shows that the aim of the study was to find out what preschoolers might be able to do with a hand-held game and what the literature could tell them about child development. Q 39. Which problem do the writers highlight concerning games instructions for young children? Answer: A Spoken instructions take up a lot of the available memory. Part of the passage: Over the course of our study, we gained many insights into how preschoolers interact with various platforms, including the DS. For instance, all instruc- tions for preschoolers need to be in voiceover, and include visual representations, and this has been one of the most difficult areas for us to negotiate with respect to game design on the DS. Because the game cartridges have very limited memory capacity, particularly in comparison to console or computer games, the ability to capture large amounts of voiceover data via sound files or visual representations of instructions be- comes limited. Text instructions take up minimal memory, so they are preferable from a technological perspective. Q 40. Which is the best title for Reading Passage 3? Answer: B Researching and designing video games for preschool children Explanation: The passage deals with a piece of research which helped to design video games for preschool children; the passage does not deal with the issues. 196

30 - Day Reading Challenge DAY 19 READING PASSAGE 1IELTS ZONE Questions 1 – 5 Q 1. The activities going on at the MIT campus are like those at any other university. Meaning: Is MIT similar to other universities in terms of activities on campus? Answer: False Part of the passage: But, as you quickly realise when you step inside the Massachu- setts Institute of Technology, there’s precious little going on that you would normally see on a university campus.  Explanation: little – negative; a little – positive Q 2. Harvard and MIT shared a similar approach to education when they were founded. Meaning: Do Harvard and MIT share a similar approach to education right from the start? Answer: False Part of the passage: While Harvard stuck to the English model of a classical education, with its emphasis on Latin and Greek, MIT looked to the German system of learning based on research and hands-on experimentation.  Q 3. The school motto was suggested by a former MIT student. Meaning: Did former MIT student come up with the school motto? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: This down-to-earth quality is enshrined in the school motto, Mens et manus – Mind and hand – as well as its logo, which shows a gowned scholar standing beside an ironmonger bearing a hammer and anvil. That symbiosis of intellect and crafts- manship still suffuses the institute’s classrooms, where students are not so much taught as engaged and inspired.  Explanation: There is information in the text about who suggested this motto Q 4. MIT’s logo reflects the belief that intellect and craftsmanship go together. Meaning: Does MIT’s logo show intellect and craftsmanship together? Answer: True 197

IELTS ZONEDay 19 Answer Keys Part of the passage: as well as its logo, which shows a gowned scholar standing beside an ironmonger bearing a hammer and anvil. That symbiosis of intellect and craftsman- ship still suffuses the institute’s classrooms, where students are not so much taught as engaged and inspired.  Q 5. Silicon Valley companies pay higher salaries to graduates from MIT. Meaning: Do MIT graduates receive higher salaries from Silicon Valley? Answer: Not Given Part of the passage: As such, he might become one of many MIT graduates who go on to form companies that fail. Alternatively, he might become one of those who go on to succeed in spectacular fashion. And there are many of them. A survey of living MIT alumni* found that they have formed 25,800 companies, employing more than three million people, including about a quarter of the workforce of Silicon Valley.  Explanation: The text does not mention salaries, let alone comparing MIT graduates with other employees. Questions 6 – 9 Part of the passage: Take Christopher Merrill, 21, a third-year undergraduate in com- puter science. He is spending most of his time on a competition set in his robotics class. The contest is to see which student can most effectively program a robot to build a house out of blocks in under ten minutes. Merrill says he could have gone for the easiest route – designing a simple robot that would build the house quickly. But he wanted to try to master an area of robotics that remains unconquered – adaptability, the ability of the robot to rethink its plans as the environment around it changes, as would a human. ‘I like to take on things that have never been done before rather than to work in an iterative way just making small steps forward,’ he explains. Merrill is already planning the start-up he wants to set up when he graduates in a year’s time. He has an idea for an original version of a contact lens that would augment reality by allowing consumers to see additional visual information. Q 6. Degree subject: Answer: computer science Key words: 3rd year undergraduate Q 7. Competition: to ……………… the automated construction of a house Answer: program Key words: a competition to see which student can most effectively program a robot to build a house... Q 8. Special focus on: the ……………… of robots 198

IELTS ZONE 30 - Day Reading Challenge Answer: adaptability Key words: wanted to master an area of robotics that remain unconquered  Q 9. Future plans: to develop new type of ……………… Answer: contact lens Key words: he has an idea for an original version of a contact lens Questions 10 – 13 Q 10. What proportion of workers at Silicon Valley are employed in companies set up by MIT graduates? Answer: a quarter Part of the passage: A survey of living MIT alumni* found that they have formed 25,800 companies, employing more than three million people, including about a quarter of the workforce of Silicon Valley Q 11. What problem does MIT’s Energy Initiative aim to solve? Answer: global warming Part of the passage: Or in its Energy Initiative, which acts as a bridge for MIT’s com- bined work across all its five schools, channeling huge resources into the search for a solution to global warming. Q 12. Which ‘green’ innovation might MIT’s work with viruses help improve? Answer: electric cars Part of the passage: It is also forging ahead with alternative energies from solar to wind and geothermal, and has recently developed the use of viruses to synthesise batteries that could prove crucial in the advancement of electric cars. Q 13. In which part of the university does Tim Berners-Lee enjoy stimulating conversations with other MIT staff? Answer: (the) corridors Part of the passage:  Even though I spend my time with my head buried in the details of web technology, the nice thing is that when I do walk the corridors, I bump into people who are working in other fields with their students that are fascinating, and that keeps me intellectually alive.’  199