XAM IDEA Social Science

26. The number of scheduled languages in India is (a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 28 27. What is the third tier of the government known as? (a) Village panchayat (b) State government (c) Local-self government (d) Zila Parishad 28. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system? (a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue. (b) States are dependent for revenue or funds on the central government. (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy. (d) States have no financial autonomy. 29. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government? (a) There is either only one level of government or sub-units are subordinate to the Central Government. (b) The Central Government can pass on orders to the Provincial Government (c) A State Government is conservable to the Central Government. (d) The powers of State Governments are guaranteed by the Constitution. 30. What are the kinds of routes through which federations have been formed? (a) One route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit. (b) The second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers between the states and the national government. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 31. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country? (a) Period after 1990 (b) Period after 2000 (c) Period after 1980 (d) Period after 1970 32. Which of the following languages is recognized as national language by the constitution of India? (a) Hindi (b) English (c) Tamil (d) None of these 33. Which level of government in India has the power to legislate on the residuary subjects? (a) Union government (b) State government (c) Local-self government (d) Both (a) and (b) 34. ________ is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. (a) Dictatorship (b) Unitary system (c) Monarchy (d) Federalism 35. In a federal system the central government ____________ order the state government to do something. (a) can (b) cannot (c) may (d) both (a) and (c) 36. On which of the given subjects can both the Union as well as the State Governments make laws? (a) Currency (b) Defence (c) Trade unions (d) Agriculture 37. What is meant by Residuary powers? (a) Subjects under Union List (b) Subjects under State List (c) Subjects under both State and Union List (d) Subjects which are not under any list 98 Social Science–X: Term–1

38. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain provisions of the constitution of India (Article 371). Under which context do they get these provisions? (a) Trade and commerce (b) Protection of land rights of indigenous people (c) Special provisions for agriculture (d) For defence purposes 39. The creation of ________ was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country. (a) states according to religion (b) states according to culture (c) linguistic states (d) states according to topography 40. On which basis were states like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created? (a) On the basis of language (b) On the basis of culture and ethnicity (c) On the basis of religion (d) On the basis of commerce and trade 41. Hindi is the mother tongue of only about ___________ percent of Indians? (a) 60% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50% 42. When did the era of coalition governments at the Centre begin which led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for autonomy of State Governments? (a) 1980s (b) 1990s (c) 1870s (d) 2000 onward 43. Census of India held in 2011, recorded more than _______ distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues? (a) 200 (b) 500 (c) 1200 (d) 1300 44. In the data for scheduled languages of India, which is the second highest in proportion of speakers (%) after Hindi? (a) Telegu (b) Tamil (c) Bengali (d) Urdu 45. When was the constitution amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective? (a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1989 (d) 1993 46. What is the percentage of seats reserved for women in the elections of local government? (a) One-third (b) Two-third (c) 50% (d) 25% 47. How many levels of government does a federation usually have? (a) Single (b) Two (c) Three (d) Multiple 48. State government has powers of its own which __________. (a) is answerable to central government (b) is not answerable to central government (c) is answerable to the people (d) both (b) and (c) 49. Which among the following is the feature of Union Territories? (a) They have powers of a state. (b) They enjoy independent powers. (c) The Central Government has special powers in running these areas. (d) These are areas which are too small to become an independent state but which can be merged with any of the existing states. Political Science: Federalism 99

50. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those which hold true for decentralization after 1992. A. Local governments did not have any power to resources of their own. B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies. C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes. (a) B and C (b) A and C (c) A and D (d) B and D 51. The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to the (a) clearly laid out constitutional provisions (b) democratic politics in our country (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 52. The creation of linguistic states was the first and major test for (a) federal government of India. (b) peace in India. (c) democratic politics in our country. (d) none of the above 53. New states were created in India to (a) ensure that people who spoke the same language lived in the same state. (b) ensure proper safety of the people. (c) ensure proper rule. (d) none of the above 54. Some states were created not on the basis of language but to recognize differences based on (a) Culture (b) Ethnicity (c) Geography (d) All the above 55. According to the constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in (a) 1948 (b) 1955 (c) 1965 (d) 1975 56. Restructuring the centre-state relations is one more way in which (a) democracy is strengthened. (b) socialism is strengthened. (c) federalism is strengthened. (d) none of the above 57. When power is taken away from the central and state governments and given to local governments, it is called- (a) Centralization (b) Decentralization (c) Take over government (d) None of the above 58. An independent institution to conduct panchayat and municipal elections, in each state is called (a) State Election Commission (b) Central Election Commission (c) Local Election Commission (d) None of the above 59. Rural local government is popularly known by the name (a) Rural Raj (b) Local Raj (c) Panchayati Raj (d) None of the above 60. The head of the Gram Panchayat is called (a) Panch (b) Sarpanch (c) Mukhia (d) President 61. The political head of the Zila Parishad is the (a) Sarpanch (b) President (c) Chairperson (d) All the above 62. After 1993, Belgium shifted from a unitary to ___________ . (a) Central Government (b) State Government (c) Federal form of government (d) None of the above 100 Social Science–X: Term–1

63. Federalism is a system in which power is divided between (a) Central authority and various constituent units of the country (b) State Authority and various constituent units of the country (c) State Government and local government (d) None of the above 64. In a federal system, the central government (a) can order the state government to take relevant action. (b) cannot order the state governments to take relevant action. (c) can order the state to take relevant action on certain occasions. (d) none of the above 65. The jurisdiction of the respective levels of tiers of government (a) are not specified in the constitution (b) are specified in the constitution (c) are written in the constitution (d) all the above 66. Why Hindi was not given the status of national language? (a) Because there were only 40% people speaking Hindi language (b) To protect other languages (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 67. The subjects of National importance such as defence, currency is handled by- (a) Central Government (b) State Government (c) Local government bodies (d) None of the above 68. Which type of government rule the union territories? (a) These have their own governments (b) These are looked after by the center (c) These are ruled by the governments of neighbouring bigger states (d) None of these 69. Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form (a) Gram Sabha (b) Panchayat Samiti (c) Zila Parishad (d) None of the above 70. What is the role of judiciary in federal system of government? (a) Judiciary plays an important role in implementing constitutional rules and procedures (b) High courts and supreme court make decisions in case of disputes (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 71. All panchayat samitis in the district forms (b) Block committee (a) Gram Sabha (d) None of the above (c) Zila Parishad 72. What is meant by ‘coming together’ federations? (a) All independent states come together to form bigger unit that have equal power and strong relation to federal government. (b) Large country divides its power between states and national government. (c) Different social groups in a country come together to form government. (d) None of the above Political Science: Federalism 101

73. An ideal federal system must have (a) mutual trust between different levels of government (b) agreement to live together (c) both of (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 74. When a large country divides its power between the constituent states and national government this is (a) Coming together federation (b) Holding together federation (c) Both are same (d) None of the above 75. How is federalism practiced in India? (b) By the creation of state based on religion (a) By the creation of linguistic states (d) None of the above (c) By the creation of states based on caste 76. What is federalism? (a) The form of government in which power is in the hands of Central Government. (b) The form of government in which power is shared between central and individual states or provinces. (c) The form of government in which the ultimate power is given to State Government or provinces. (d) None of the above 77. Transfer of powers from Central or State Governments to local governments is called (a) Distribution (b) Segregation (c) Decentralization (d) None of the above 78. What is the advantage of forming linguistic states in India? (a) Formation of Unity (b) Easy administration (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 79. What is a coalition government? (a) The government formed at the centre is called coalition government. (b) The government formed by two or more political parties together is called coalition government. (c) The government formed by minority community people is called coalition government. (d) None of the above 80. Why there is need of local governments in India? (a) People have better knowledge of problems in their localities thus these problems could be best solved at local levels. (b) People also know where to spend money and manage things efficiently. (c) People directly participate in decision making. (d) All of the above 81. The sharing of power between the union government and the state governments is __________ to the structure of the constitution. (a) basic (b) important (c) significant (d) none of the above 82. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take examinations in any one of- (a) 24 languages (b) 22 languages (c) 27 languages (d) 23 languages 83. Which among the following states demanded the use of English along with Hindi as official language? (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh 102 Social Science–X: Term–1

84. Gram Sabha consists of (b) all the voters of a village. (a) executive in villages. (d) none of the above (c) all the members of panchayat. 85. Zila Parishad chairperson is the (b) Political head of Zila Parishad (a) President (d) Member of legislative assembly (c) Member of parliament 86. Prime Minister runs the country, Chief Minister runs the state and _________ runs the district. (a) Collector (b) Chairperson (c) Sarpanch (d) None of the above 87. Which among the following subjects was not included in the three lists of the Indian Union? (a) Adoption (b) Computer software (c) Trade unions (d) Succession 88. The report of States Reorganization Commission (SRC) was implemented on (a) Nov 1, 1950 (b) Nov 1, 1956 (c) Oct 1, 1950 (d) Nov 1, 1953 89. Which among the following governments look after residuary powers? (a) Union Government (b) State Government (c) Local Government (d) None of the above 90. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of (a) Central Government (b) Local Government (c) Different levels of government (d) None of the above 91. Which among the following countries is not federal? (a) Argentina (b) UK (c) Germany (d) Brazil 92. Who sets the power of different levels of government in federal government? (a) Central Government (b) State Government (c) Constitution (d) None of the above 93. A major step towards decentralization was taken in (a) 1991 (b) 1992 (c) 1993 (d) 1994 94. The central government can pass orders to the provincial or- (a) the local government (b) the State Government (c) the Central Government (d) Union Territory 95. What are the demerits of local government? (a) Gram Sabhas are not held regularly. (b) Most State Governments have not transferred significant powers to local governments. (c) Local government lack adequate resources. (d) All of the above 96. A Panchayat Samiti is also called a (b) Gram Panchayat (a) Gram Sabha (d) None of the above (c) Block or mandal 97. Which of the following subjects is not included in the union list? (a) Defense (b) Foreign affairs (c) police (d) banking 98. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure (a) its validity (b) its finances (c) its financial autonomy (d) None of the above Political Science: Federalism 103

Answers 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 1. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 9. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (a) 17. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b) 25. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d) 33. (a) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 41. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b) 49. (c) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (a) 57. (b) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d) 65. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (b) 73. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (c) 81. (a) 98. (c) 89. (a) 97. (c) CASE-BASED QUESTIONS Attempt all sub-parts from each question. Each question carries 1 mark. 1. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: The exact balance of power between the central and the state government varies from one federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed. The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security. This type of ‘coming together’ federations include the USA, Switzerland and Australia. In this first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-à-vis the federal government. The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations. In this second category, the central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Which of the following is not an example of ‘coming together’ federations? (a) India (b) USA (c) Switzerland (d) Australia (ii) In a ‘Holding together federation’: (A) A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government. (B) The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the States. (C) All the constituent states usually have equal powers. (D) Constituent states have unequal powers. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (b) (A) and (D) (c) (B) and (C) (d) (A), (B) and (D) (iii) Which one of the following countries is good example of ‘holding together’ federations? (a) USA (b) Switzerland (c) Australia (d) India 104 Social Science–X: Term–1

(iv) Which are the basic objectives of a federal system? (a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country (b) To accommodate regional diversity (c) To share powers among different communities (d) Both (a) and (b) 2. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non-Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English speaking elite. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which of the following holds true in the case of India? (a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity. (b) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language. (c) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all other languages. (d) All the above (ii) The number of Scheduled Languages in India is (a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 25 (iii) Which language is recognised as the national language by the ©Constitution of India? (a) Hindi (b) English (c) Tamil (d) None of these (iv) When was the use of English for official purpose stopped? (a) 1956 (b) 1958 (c) 1960 (d) 1965 3. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: A third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities. As in any federation, these different tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The Constitution clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments. Thus, it contains three lists: Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List. State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the Political Science: Federalism 105

subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail. According to our constitution, the Union Government has the power to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Subjects like computer software comes in the (a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary List (ii) The Constitution of India (a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists. (b) divided powers between centre and states in two lists. (c) listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state. (d) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre. (iii) What is the third tier of government known as? (a) Village Panchayats (b) State government (c) Local self-government (d) Zila Parishad (iv) Which of the following subjects is not included in the Union list? (a) Defence (b) Foreign affairs (c) Police (d) Banking 4. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is: (a) Power Sharing (b) Central Government (c) Majoritarianism (d) Community Government (ii) Identify the major social group that constituted the largest share in the population of Sri Lanka. (a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils (c) Muslims (d) Sinhalas (iii) Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called the: (a) Indian Tamils (b) Muslim Tamils (c) Sri Lankan Tamils (d) Christian Tamils (iv) What is the state religion of Sri Lanka? (a) Buddhism (b) Hinduism (c) Islam (d) Christianity 106 Social Science–X: Term–1

5. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other. In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary governments. Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub- units are subordinate to the central government. The central government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government. But in a federal system, the central government cannot order the state government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the central government. Both these governments are separately answerable to the people. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system? (a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue. (b) States are dependent on revenue or funds on the central government. (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy. (d) States have no financial autonomy. (ii) Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government? (a) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. (b) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government. (c) A state government is conservable to central government. (d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution. (iii) Identify the Government that consists of two or more levels. (a) Coalition Government (b) Community Government (c) Unitary Government (d) Federal Government (iv) The Constitution of India originally provided for: (a) a two-tier system of government (b) a three-tier system of government (c) a single-tier system of government (d) a four-tier system of government Answers (ii) (d) (iii) (a) (iv) (d) 2. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (d) (iv) (d) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (c) 4. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (a) 1. (i) (a) (ii) (d) (iii) (d) (iv) (a) 3. (i) (d) 5. (i) (c) ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Political Science: Federalism 107

1. Assertion (A) : Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Reason (R) : Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which federalism has been strengthened in practice. 2. Assertion (A) : A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. Reason (R) : The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective. 3. Assertion (A) : The local government structure goes right up to the state level. Reason (R) : A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a panchayat samiti or block or mandal. 4. Assertion (A) : Rural local government is popularly known by the name panchayati raj. Reason (R) : Zilla parishad chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad. 5. Assertion (A) : Third-tier of government is local government. Reason (R) : The fourth tier of Indian democracy is weak. Answers 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 1. (b) zzz 108 Social Science–X: Term–1

7 DEVELOPMENT BASIC CONCEPTS – A FLOW CHART DEVELOPMENT Defined as growth, some of the important goals are, Different people have different development goals. seeking more income, equal treatment, freedom, What way be development for one may not be for the security, respect from others, etc. other. It may even be destructive for the other. INCOME AND OTHER GOALS People desire Also seek equal Money or material Quality of our Before accepting a Hence, for regular work, treatment, things that one life also job, one looks at development, better wages and can buy with it, is facilities for your people look at decent price for freedom, security, one factor on depends on family, working mix of goals. their crops or respect of others which life non-material atmosphere or other products. depends. and resent things. opportunity to learn. discrimination. CRITERION TO COMPARE ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT OF COUNTRIES Is earned per person It is also known as Standard of living of Countries with higher It is calculated by in a given area. per capita income. people in a country per capita income dividing the area’s depends on their per are considered to be total income by its capita income. more developed than total population. with less per capita income. INCOME AND OTHER CRITERION In comparison of per capita In this case Punjab would be But in another comparison This shows besides considered most developed of infant mortality rate income, all other goals are income of states, Punjab and Bihar least developed. has ` 60,746/- and Bihar Punjab - 34 per thousand equally important. has ` 16,715/- per capita Kerala - 13 per thousand Bihar - 48 per thousand. income respectively. Economics: Development 109

PUBLIC FACILITIES Money in your pocket Income is not completely e.g., Money cannot buy a Kerala has low mortality cannot buy all the goods adequate indicator of pollution free environment rate since it has adequate and services that is needed material goods and provision of basic health to live a good healthy life. or ensure that you get and educational facilities. services that citizens are unadulterated medicine able to use. and is not able to protect you from infectious diseases. SUSTAINABILITY OF DEVELOPMENT Development should e.g., Groundwater is Groundwater is an Consequences of Sustainability of take place but under serious threat example of environmental development is a new area of knowledge in without harming of overuse. renewable resource; degradation do not environment. it is replenished by respect national or which scientists, state boundaries. economists, nature as in the Our future is linked case of crops and philosophers and other together. social scientists are plants. working together. HUMAN DEVELOPMENT INDEX Is defined as a composite statistic of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries in four tiers of human development. It has three indicators Life expectancy defined as the Gross Enrolment Ratio is Per Capita Income is the average number of years that a determined by the number mean income of the people new-born could expect to live if of students enrolled in in an economic unit, her or she were to pass through school at several different calculated by total income life, subject to the age-specific grade levels. divided by the total mortality rates of a given period. population. adding the three indicators and dividing it by 3, gives you the human development index. HDI = Life exp. Index + Gross Enrolment Ratio + Per capita Income Index 3 It is prepared by the United Nation’s Global Development Network (UNDP). 110 Social Science–X: Term–1

MORE POINTS TO REMEMBER 1. Development: Development is defined as growth. Some of the important goals are, seeking more income, equal treatment, freedom, security, respect from others, etc. 2. Income and Other Goals: One would consider earning more income, being a common factor among people. With this income, they buy services and goods for their daily needs. 3. National Development: National development refers to the ability of a nation to improve the lives of its citizens. Measures of improvement may be material, such as availability of healthcare, etc. 4. Average Income: Average income is earned per person in a given area. 5. Infant Mortality Rate: Infant Mortality Rate is the number of deaths under one year of age occurring among the live births in given geographical area during a given year. 6. Literacy Rate: Literacy rate is the total percentage of the population of an area at a particular time aged seven years or above who can read and write with understanding. 7. Net Attendance Ratio: Net Attendance ratio is defined as the ratio of the number of people in the official age-group attending any educational institution in a particular class- group to the total number of people in the age-group. 8. Public Facilities: Public facilities are those which are provided by the government to satisfy the collective needs of the people. Examples – hospitals, schools, community halls, etc. 9. Human Development Index: Human Development Index is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries in four tiers of human development. 10. Sustainable Development: Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Choose and write the correct option in the following questions. 1. Meaning of development is different for (b) alien people (a) different people (c) same people (d) none of these 2. Classical view of economic development includes (a) per capita income (b) national income (c) none of these (d) both (a) and (b) 3. Human Development Report is published by (a) UNDP (b) World Bank (c) IMF (d) WHO 4. IMR stands for (b) Indian Mortality Ratio (a) Infant Mortality Rate (d) none of these (c) International Mortality Ratio Economics: Development 111

5. Development criteria include (b) equal treatment (a) income (d) all of these (c) freedom 6. Full form of SED is (b) simple economic development (a) sustainable economic development (d) none of these (c) sound economic development 7. Per capita income hides (b) average income (a) disparities (d) none of these (c) total population 8. Which of the following is the most important component for comparing different countries? (a) Population (b) Income (c) Per capita income (d) Resources 9. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development? (a) Profit loss (b) Income (c) Sales (d) Import-export 10. What are the developmental goals of landless rural labourers? (a) More days of work and better wages (b) Acquirement of land for self-tilling (c) More hours of work (d) Self-reliance 11. What brings about stable income? (a) Better wages (b) Work opportunities (c) Regular work (d) Decent price for their crops or other products 12. Besides seeking more income, there is something people resent, what is it? (a) Getting fewer wages for more work (b) Discrimination (c) No work (d) Poverty 13. What is the one factor on which our life depends? (a) Employment (b) Security of work (c) Money, or material things that one can buy with it (d) Freedom 14. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make? (a) Their dignity in the household and society decreases (b) No difference (c) No dignity (d) Their dignity in the household and society increases 15. Different persons could have ________ notions of a country’s development. (a) different as well as conflicting (b) same (c) indifferent (d) no 16. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the level of development? (a) Industrial development (b) Resources of the country (c) Income (d) Import-export 17. More income means ___________. (b) more of all things that human beings need. (a) average out of needs of people. (d) more business. (c) no effect on the common man. 112 Social Science–X: Term–1

18. ___________ is the total income of the country divided by its total population. (a) Per capita income (b) Gross income (c) Net income (d) Total income 19. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in classifying countries? (a) Total income (b) Gross income (c) Per capita income (d) Net income 20. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India? (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan 21. Countries with per capita income of US$ __________ per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries. (a) 12,126 (b) 11,246 (c) 12,056 (d) 10,056 22. Countries with per capita income of US$ __________ or less are called low-income countries. (a) 995 (b) 885 (c) 955 (d) 855 23. Which category does India come under? (b) Low middle-income countries (a) High-income countries (d) High middle-income countries (c) Low-income countries 24. What was India’s per capita income in 2017? (a) US$ 1950 per annum (b) US$ 1880 per annum (c) US$ 1930 per annum (d) US$ 1820 per annum 25. What can money not buy you? (b) Water (a) Unadulterated medicines (d) Organic food (c) Pollution-free environment 26. Why does Kerala have a low infant mortality rate? (a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities (b) Suitable climate (c) Pollution Free environment (d) Good water 27. Over the past decade or so, __________ indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. (a) health and nutrition (b) health and education (c) child development (d) human development 28. According to the Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development Programme, which two countries have a higher Life expectancy at Birth rate than India? (a) Sri Lanka and Myanmar (b) Pakistan and Nepal (c) Pakistan and Bangladesh (d) Nepal and Bangladesh 29. Per Capita Income is calculated in __________ for all countries. (a) pounds (b) euros (c) dollars (d) rupees 30. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that__________. (a) health and nutrition is declining (b) per capita income is unstable (c) levels of resources are not sustainable (d) levels of development are not sustainable Economics: Development 113

31. How can we find out if we are properly nourished? (a) Through good weight and scale (b) Body mass index (c) Nutrient table (d) Height and weight table 32. The literacy rate for the rural population of males in Uttar Pradesh is __________. (a) 73% (b) 70% (c) 76% (d) 78% 33. In the comparative data on Haryana, Kerala, and Uttar Pradesh which state has the highest literacy rate? (a) Haryana (b) Kerala (c) UP (d) All are equal 34. In the data for the Per Capita Income of Haryana, Kerala, Bihar-which state has the lowest per capita income? (a) Haryana (b) Kerala (c) Bihar (d) All are equal 35. Development is sustained by the ____________. (a) conservation of resources and the environment (b) conservation of the factors of production (c) continuous increase in per capita income (d) all the above 36. Green GNP concept is related to ______________. (a) economic development (b) growth of a country (c) green colour (d) green revolution 37. The World Development Report is published by _____________. (a) UNDP (b) World Bank (c) UNO (d) UNESCO 38. According to the 2004 survey, the literacy rate of the population for 15+ in India was __________. (a) 41% (b) 61% (c) 91% (d) 51% 39. What is a creative way of using resources? (b) Import them (a) Export them (d) Preserve them as much as possible (c) Use them to the maximum extent 40. _________ is a method to find out if adults are under-nourished. (a) BMI (b) SSI (c) BSI (d) SMI 41. Which among the following is considered as the most important attribute for calculating the development of a country? (a) Per capita income of the people (b) Availability of natural resources (c) Population (d) Existence of a democratic structure in a country 42. Which of the following countries rank above India in HDI? (a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh (c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal 43. What portion of India’s energy comes from the use of non-renewable sources at present? (a) 87 percent (b) 99 percent (c) 67 percent (d) 88 percent 44. Identify the criteria used by the World Bank to classify countries. (a) Household income (b) Individual income (c) Average income (d) Sectoral income 45. Which of these neighbouring countries occupies a better rank than India in every respect? (a) Bangladesh (b) Pakistan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal 114 Social Science–X: Term–1

46. What does HDI stands for? (b) Human development indicator (a) Human development index (d) Hampered development indicator (c) High development index 47. ___________ is a long and healthy life measured in terms of life expectancy in years. (a) Longevity (b) Literacy rate (c) Comfortable life (d) Development 48. Which among the following is more likely to be the developmental goal of a landless labour? (a) To be able to visit abroad frequently (b) More days of work with better wages (c) To send his children in one of the best school in a nearby city (d) To be able to buy expensive clothes from the nearby market 49. Which of the following states has the highest per capita income? (a) Punjab (b) Bihar (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu 50. As per statistics of the Government of India, Infant Mortality Rate is the highest in the state of ____________. (a) Bihar (b) West Bengal (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Punjab 51. Which of the following states has a low infant mortality rate? (a) Punjab (b) Kerala (c) Bihar (d) Jharkhand 52. Consider that in country A, one million children were born in the year 2005. Out of these, 50,000 children died before the age of one. What is the infant mortality rate of country A? (a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 55 53. Which of the following is most likely to be a development goal for landless rural labourers: (a) High literacy rate (b) Highest support prices (c) Settle the children abroad (d) Raised Wages 54. Life expectancy at Birth means: (a) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth. (b) Average expected length of life of a person at time of death. (c) Average expected length of a child at time of birth. (d) None of above 55. Which one of the following countries has the largest size of illiterate population in the age group of 15 in the world. (a) Myanmar (b) India (c) Bangladesh (d) Srilanka 56. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer? (a) Expansion of rural banking (b) More days of work and better wages (c) Metal roads for transportation (d) Establishment of a high school 57. What will be the aspiration of an educated urban unemployed youth? (a) An educated urban unemployed youth will aspire for better opportunities in agriculture. (b) Support from government at every step in life for his upward movement. (c) An urban educated unemployed will aspire for good job opportunities where his education can be made use of. (d) Better facilities of recreation for his leisure time. 58. Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define ‘average income’. (a) Average income of the country means the total income of the country. (b) The average income in a country is the income of only employed people. (c) The average income is the same as per capita income. (d) The average income includes the value of property held. Economics: Development 115

59. Which country can be considered as a developed country in the modern world? Select your answer from the following statements. (a) Countries which have accumulated huge amount of wealth and always secures the future of their citizens. These countries are considered to be developed. (b) Countries which are among the highest in the ‘Human Development Index’ are considered to be the developed countries. (c) Only rich countries are considered to be developed because people have money to buy everything needed for human beings—both material and non-material. (d) Iran is a rich country and therefore it is a developed country. 60. Money cannot buy all the goods and services that we may need to have a good life. A list of things required for a good life is given below. Which among the following are things money cannot buy? (i) Full protection from infectious diseases (ii) High quality education (iii) A luxury home (iv) A pollution-free atmosphere in every part of the country (a) (i) and(ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) 61. HDI stands for ‘Human Development Index’ that focuses on Fill in the blanks with one of the following options: (a) life expectancy (b) gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling (c) national income (d) All the above 62. What would be the most promising source of energy fifty years from now and why? (a) Petroleum energy, because it is obtained from fossil fuels. (b) Solar energy, because it is not exhaustible. (c) Coal based energy, because it is pollution- free. (d) Forest product based energy, because India has abundant forests. 63. The total number of children attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group is called (a) net attendance ratio (b) literacy rate (c) gross enrollment ratio (d) level of education 64. Dividing the total income of country with its population, we get I. Per-Capita income II. National income III. Average Income IV. Total Income (a) Only III (b) I and II (c) All of the above (d) None of these 65. The per-capita income of different countries is counted in which currency? (a) Rupees (b) Pounds (c) US Dollars (d) Canadian Dollars 66. Among Haryana, Kerala and Bihar, the lowest percapita income state is Bihar. It shows that (a) Bihar has high standard of living (b) People are earning less in Kerala (c) Maharashtra has more number of rich people (d) On an average, people in Bihar have low income 116 Social Science–X: Term–1

67. Development of an individual refers to (b) physical development (a) mental development (d) overall development (c) spiritual development 68. Development goal for landless agricultural labour is (a) high prices for crops (b) more days of work (c) cheap labour (d) pollution free environment 69. If industrialists want more dams then why do local people resist it? (a) They will be displaced. (b) Their lands will be submerged. (c) Their will be no source of earning for them. (d) All of the above 70. People may have different developmental goals; what is development for one, may even be ___________ for the other. (a) destructive (b) constructive (c) same (d) equal 71. The Human Development Report (HDR) published by UNDP compares countries based on literacy rate, health status and ___________ (a) National income (b) Per-capita income (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 72. A good way to measure the quality of life in countries across the world is by comparing their ___________ (a) per capita Income (b) human development index (c) gross national income (d) sustainable development 73. Which among the following is not a public facility? (a) Transport and electricity (b) Roads and bridges (c) Private schools (d) Government hospitals 74. The __________ helps in maintaining the nutritional levels of poor people by providing food at lower cost. (a) BMI body mass indez (b) PDS public distribution system (c) GNI gross national income (d) HDI human development index 75. Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present and future use is known as (a) sustainable development (b) planned development (c) human development Index (d) development Answers 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (d) 61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a) Economics: Development 117

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS Attempt all sub-parts from each question. Each question carries 1 mark. 1. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal. Now, what is the income of a country? Intuitively, the income of the country is the income of all the residents of the country. This gives us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such an useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Per capita income is : (a) Income per person (b) Income per family (c) Income per earning person (d) Income per month (ii) In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in Classifying countries? (a) Total income (b) Gross income (c) per capita income (d) Net income (iii) The average income is also called: (a) Per capita profit (b) Per capita income (c) Limited income (d) None of the above (iv) What is the most important attribute while comparing countries? (a) Their population (b) Their political status (c) Their income (d) None of the above 2. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from Human Development Report 2019. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) HDI stands for: (a) Heavy Developed Industry (b) Human Development Index (c) Heavy Developed Infrastructure (d) Heavy Industries Development (ii) The Human Development Report compares countries on the basis of: (a) The educational levels of the people (b) Health status of the people (c) Per capita income of the people (d) All the above factors 118 Social Science–X: Term–1

(iii) Which organisation publishes the Human Development Report: (a) WHO (b) UNDP (c) WTO (d) IMF (iv) Which one of the following criteria is the basis to measure the development of a country according to UNDP? (a) Per capita income (b) Educational levels of the people (c) Health status of the people (d) All the above Data analysis questions: 1. Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income. Countries Monthly income of citizens in four countries in 2015 Citizens I Citizen II Citizen III Citizen IV Citizen V Average Country A 5500 6000 2000 1000 2000 3300 Country B 700 6000 600 500 600 1680 Country C 10500 11000 12500 9500 7000 10100 Country D 900 4900 600 4000 670 2214 (a) Country A (b) Country B (c) Country C (d) Country D 2. Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income. Countries Monthly Income of Citizens in four countries in 2019 Citizen I Citizen II Citizen III Citizen IV Citizen V Average Country A 11500 12000 10200 13000 12000 11740 Country B 700 6000 600 500 600 1680 Country C 500 10000 500 6500 3000 4100 Country D 900 4900 600 4000 670 2214 (a) Country A (b) Country B (c) Country C (d) Country D 3. Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income. Countries Monthly Income of Citizens in four countries in 2018 Citizen I Citizen II Citizen III Citizen IV Citizen V Average Country A 11600 10000 12200 12500 11000 11460 Country B 800 5000 700 400 800 1540 Country C 400 11000 800 7500 4000 4740 Country D 700 6900 400 5000 870 2774 (a) Country A (b) Country B (c) Country C (d) Country D Answers 1. (i) (a) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) 2. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) 3. (a) 1. (c) 2. (a) ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Economics: Development 119

1. Assertion (A) : Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well. Reason (R) : So, income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able to use. 2. Assertion (A) : Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use. Reason (R) : Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities. 3. Assertion (A) : Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. Reason (R) : But the quality of our life does not depend on nonmaterial things. 4. Assertion (A) : We compare the average income which is unevely distibuted income of the country divided by half of its population. Reason (R) : The average income is also called per capita income. 5. Assertion (A) : The developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but also about other important things in life. Reason (R) : A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. Answers 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 1. (a) zzz 120 Social Science–X: Term–1

8 SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY BASIC CONCEPTS – A FLOW CHART SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY ARE DIVIDED INTO THREE CATEGORIES PRIMARY SECTOR SECONDARY SECTOR TERTIARY SECTOR When we produce Covers activities in which natural products These activities by themselves do not a good by are changed into other forms through produce a good but they are an aid or a exploiting natural ways of manufacturing that we associate support for the production process. resources, it is an with industrial activities. activity of primary sector. Example – using cotton fibre from plants, For example, goods that are produced in we spin yarn and weave cloth, etc. the primary or secondary sector would Example – need to be transported by trucks or trains agriculture, dairy, This sector gradually became associated and then sold in wholesale and retail fishing, forestry, etc. with the different kinds of industries that shops. came up, it is also called as industrial This sector is known sector. Since, these activities generate services as agricultural and rather than goods, it is also known as the related sector. Adding the sum of all the three sectors service sector. would give you the GDP; Gross Domestic Product. Primary sector + Secondary Sector + Tertiary Sector = GDP GDP – shows how big the economy is. Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 121

VALUE OF GOODS AND SERVICES IN THE THREE SECTORS ARE CALCULATED, AND THEN ADDED UP Economists suggest that the values of goods and services should be used rather than the adding up the actual numbers. For example A farmer grows cotton and sells it to the textile industry. Now, the textile industry makes it into a shirt, adds buttons and thread. And sells it on a higher rate. IMPORTANCE OF TERTIARY SECTOR In any country, there The development of Due to the demand in New services based are several services agriculture and income levels, there is on information and which are required – industry leads to the rise in demand for technology and hospitals, educational development of more services. communication have institutions, telegraph services like transport, become important and services, police storage, trade. essential. stations, etc. UNDEREMPLOYMENT/DISGUISED EMPLOYMENT When more people are working than is needed, this situation is called underemployment or disguised unemployment IN RURAL AREAS IN URBAN AREAS All the family members There are thousands of casual workers in the service sector, who search for daily employment This means that even if we remove a lot of people There are many others like rikshaw pullers or cart pushers on from agricultural sector the street selling something, where they may spend the and provide them work whole day but earn very little somewhere else, the agricultural production will not be affected 122 Social Science–X: Term–1

GOVERNMENT POLICIES PROMOTE EMPLOYMENT Banks can provide a loan to construct wells to irrigate their lands Dam construction will provide employment opportunities as well as irrigation facilities Better rural roads and more transportation facilities to be provided to farmers to sell their crops On the credit of local banks, inputs like seeds, fertilisers, agricultural equipment and pumpsets can be bought Government can promote and locate industries in the semi-rural areas to generate employment Mills like–Dal mill, cold storage, honey collection centres, processing of vegetables etc. More schools will lead to employment to teachers, builders, peons and other staff For improving health situation, more doctors, nurses, health workers are needed to work in rural areas Employment can be generated in tourism, regional craft industry or new services like IT The central government in India made a law implementing the Right to work in 200 districts of India and then to 130 Known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA) All those who are able to and are in need of work are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government. If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowances to the people. Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 123

DIVISION OF SECTOR AS ORGANISED SECTOR UNORGANISED SECTOR Terms of employment regular Small scattered units outside the control of government Follow rules and regulation of Factory Act, Minimum Wages Act, Gratuity Act, etc. Rules and regulations not followed Employees register themselves with the Jobs are low paid and often not regular government No provision for overtime, paid leave, Security of work holidays or leave due to sickness Work for a fixed number of hours Employment is not secure If work more, paid overtime They may be told to leave the job any time Get benefits likes paid leave, payment during Lot of them are employed on their own holidays, provident fund, gratuity, etc. doing small jobs Get medical benefits, drinking water, safe working environment HOW TO PROTECT THE UNORGANISED SECTOR RURAL AREAS URBAN AREAS SC/ST Vulnerable people are—landless Comprise of workers in Majority workers from agricultural labourers, small and small scale industry, SC/ST and backward marginal farmers, sharecroppers communities are in casual workers, trade and unorganised sectors and other artisans (weavers transport, vendors head carpenters) load workers, garment Besides irregular and low makers, rag pickers etc. paid work, they face social Nearly 80% rural households are marginal and small farmers Need government’s discrimination support for providing raw Can be supported by adequate material and marketing of Protection and support is facilities for timely delivery of needed to get economic needs, agricultural inputs, etc. output and social development 124 Social Science–X: Term–1

SECTORS ON THE BASIS OF OWNERSHIP PUBLIC SECTOR PRIVATE SECTOR Government owns most of the assets and Ownership of assets and delivery of services is provides all the services in the hands of private individuals e.g., Railways, post office Meant for social benefit e.g., Tata Iron and Steel company of Reliance Industries Government raises money through taxes and other ways to meet expenses on the services rendered by it Guided by motive to earn profit Government provide subsidies and bear To get services, we have to pay money part of the cost to support industries Is unable to provide several things needed Government must spend on provision of by the people at reasonable rates health and educational facilities MORE POINTS TO REMEMBER 1. Primary Sector: It is a sector of an economy making direct use of natural resources. This includes agriculture, forestry, fishing and mining. 2. Secondary Sector: The portion of an economy that includes light and heavy industrial manufacturers of finished goods and products from raw materials. 3. Tertiary Sector: This sector focuses on tertiary productions, which are commercial services that work to provide support to distribution and production processes such as warehousing, transport services, insurance services, teaching, health care and advertising services. 4. GDP – Gross Domestic Product: GDP is a monetary measure of the market value of all final goods and services produced in a period. Sum of Primary sector + Secondary Sector + Tertiary sector = GDP. 5. Disguised Unemployment is a kind of unemployment in which some people look like being employed but are actually not employed fully. It is also known as Hidden unemployment . 6. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005: The act provides 100 days of assured employment every year to rural household. If the government is unable to provide employment due to any reason, in exchange, 100 days allowance is provided to the worker. 7. Organised Sector is a sector where the employment terms are fixed and regular, and the employees get assured work. 8. Unorganised Sector is a sector where the employment terms are not fixed and regular, as well as the enterprises, are not registered with the government. 9. Private Sector is the part of a country’s economic system that is run by individuals and companies, rather than the government. 10. Public Sector is usually comprised of organisation that are owned and operated by the government and exist to provide services for its citizens. Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 125

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Choose and write the correct option in the following questions. 1. Animal Husbandry is a part of (d) none of these (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector 2. Converting iron ore to steel is a part of (d) all of these (a) primary activity (b) secondary activity (c) tertiary activity 3. ATM is an example of (d) all of these (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector 4. Service is (b) intangible (c) both (a) and (b) (d) physical Product (a) tangible 5. GDP of a country is based on (b) final value of goods and services (a) total value of good and services (d) all of these (c) initial value of goods and services 6. MGNREGA guarantees job to poor for (a) 100 days (b) 90 days (c) 60 days (d) 50 days 7. Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of economy? (a) Fisherman (b) Farmer (c) Factory worker (d) Teacher 8 Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option [CBSE Sample Paper 2020] (a) It is the only way for economic development of the country. (b) Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world. (c) It has always given only positive results in all the countries. (d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from a region to another. 9. Public health is responsibility of (c) private sector (d) none of these (a) primary sector (b) government 10. Hidden unemployment is also called (b) disguised unemployment (a) organised sector (d) contractual unemployment (c) tertiary sector 11. Name one type of classification of the economy? (a) Urban (b) Rural (c) Public/Private (d) State/National 12. From where the employment and non-employment figures are taken to study the data? (a) Real-Time Handbook of Statistics on Indian Economy (b) National Statistical Office (NSO) (c) NITI Aayog (d) Statistics Information Bureau 13. What are the groups of classification of an economy called? (a) Sectors (b) Centers (c) Types (d) Categories 14. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources it is called ___________? (a) tertiary sector (b) primary sector (c) service sector (d) public sector 15. Which activities come under the agriculture and related sectors? (a) Dairy (b) Mineral excavation (c) Using cotton fiber from the plant (d) Selling agricultural products in the market 126 Social Science–X: Term–1

16. What is the secondary sector? (a) Production of a good by exploiting natural resources. (b) Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing. (c) Activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process. (d) Mineral excavation. 17. Using sugarcane as raw material, we make sugar or gur, under what sector does this activity come? (a) Primary (b) Private (c) Industrial (d) Tertiary 18. Those activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process, are called __________. (a) primary (b) private (c) industrial (d) tertiary 19. Name one functioning activity of the tertiary sector. (a) Goods that are produced would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. (b) This sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries. (c) Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing. (d) Produce a good by exploiting natural resources. 20. Which sector is also called the service sector? (a) Primary (b) Public (c) Industrial (d) Tertiary 21. The sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the __________ of a country. (a) Gross income (b) Gross domestic product (c) Net domestic product (d) Net income 22. The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the __________. (a) average production of the sector for that year (b) net production of the sector for that year (c) total production of the sector for that year (d) gross production of the sector for that year 23. ________ gradually became the most important in total production and employment. (a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector (c) Public sector (d) Primary sector 24. Which one is a primary occupation? (a) Tailor (b) Basket weaver (c) Flower cultivator (d) Milk vendor 25. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include the _________ to get the total production. (a) values of goods and services in production (b) final goods and services (c) adding up the actual numbers of goods (d) goods and services in the three sectors 26. Give an example of an intermediate good? (b) Chair production from wood (a) Woven basket (d) Biscuits (c) Wheat flour 27. It has been noted from the histories of many, now developed, countries that at initial stages of development, ________ sector was the most important sector of economic activity. (a) public (b) tertiary (c) secondary (d) primary Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 127

28. As the methods of farming changed and the agriculture sector began to prosper, most of the goods produced were ________ from the primary sector and most people were also employed in this sector. (a) synthetic products (b) involved machines (c) natural products (d) mixed products 29. Why did the secondary sector later become the most important sector? (a) People began to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap rates (b) Employment increased (c) Agriculture declined (d) Both (a) and (b) 30. In developed countries, the ________ sector has become the most important in terms of total production. (a) primary (b) industrial (c) service (d) public 31. In the data given of GDP, which was the most productive sector in 1974? (a) primary sector (b) tertiary sector (c) secondary sector (d) equal production sector 32. The primary sector is also called ________. (b) agriculture and related sector (a) service sector (d) unorganized sector (c) pre-industry sector 33. In the data given of GDP which was the most productive sector in 2013-14? (a) primary sector (b) tertiary sector (c) secondary sector (d) equal production sector 34. The secondary sector is also called ________. (a) organised sector (b) service sector (c) industrial sector (d) public sector 35. Which sector has grown the most over forty years? (a) Primary sector (b) Tertiary sector (c) Secondary sector (d) Equal production sector 36. Which of these can be considered as basic services? (a) Growing of wheat (b) Transport (c) Storage (d) Police station 37. Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors, ________would be the demand for such services? (a) equal (b) more (c) less (d) uneven 38. When income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like________ . (a) more food (b) hospitals (c) defense (d) tourism 39. Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as ________ have become important and essential? (a) private hospitals (b) professional training (c) information and communication technology (d) insurance 40. Underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. It is also called ________ . (a) hidden employment (b) disguised unemployment (c) unstable employment (d) less employment 41. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the (a) central government (b) state government (c) provincial government (d) all of the above 128 Social Science–X: Term–1

42. The motive of the public sector enterprises is (a) profit making (b) entertainment (c) social welfare and security (d) none of the above 43. How do big private companies contribute in the development of a nation? (a) By increasing the demands for their products through advertisements. (b) By increasing their profits. (c) By increasing productivity of the country in the manufacturing of industrial goods. (d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich. 44. Employment figures of a country are based on data collected from 5-yearly survey on employment and unemployment. Which organisation conducts this survey? (a) NSSO – National Sample Survey Organisation (b) NREGA 2005 – National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 (c) ILO – International Labour Organisation (d) Census of India 45. Protection and support to the unorganised sector workers is necessary for both: (a) rural and urban areas (b) economic and political development (c) social and political development (d) economic and social development 46. The sector in which the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services is called: (a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Mixed sector (d) None of the above 47. Railways and Post office, are example of: (a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Mixed sector (d) All the above 48. Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited, Reliance Industries Limited are examples of: (a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Mixed sector (d) none of the above 49. Production in the period 1973-2003 has increased the most in: (d) all the above (a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector 50. The economy is classified into public and private sectors on the basis of : (a) employment conditions (b) the nature of economic activity (c) ownership of enterprises (d) number of workers employed in the enterprise 51. Percentage share of employment is highest in (d) public sector (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector 52. Who carries economic activities? (a) individuals (b) firms (c) government (d) All of the above 53. In which sector activities are not guided by profit motive? (a) organised sector (b) public sector (c) private sector (d) unorganised sector 54. In which type of unemployment more people are employed than required? (a) seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment (c) educated unemployment (d) All of the above 55. In the last 100 years, the sector gaining prominance is (d) all of these (a) secondary sector (b) primary sector (c) tertiary sector 56. Information and Technology is a part of (a) tertiary sector (b) primary sector (c) secondary sector (d) all of these 57. The goods produced by exploiting natural resources comes under the category of: (a) Tertiary (b) Secondary (c) Primary Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 129

58. Transport, communication and banking come under: (a) Secondary (b) Tertiary (c) Primary 59. Tertiary sector is larger in a: (b) Developed country (a) Developing country (c) Underdeveloped country 60. Development in the primary and secondary sectors leads to the development of: (a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector 61. If some people are removed from agricultural activities without affecting its production, it is said that the sector is (a) Underemployed (b) Overemployed (c) Unemployed 62. If the workers work less than their potential, it is said that they are: (a) Underemployed (b) Overemployed (c) Unemployed 63. The workers in an organised sector enjoy: (b) Security of employment (a) High salary (c) Less working hours 64. Which of the following is not an example of tertiary sector? (a) Banking (b) Transport (c) Trade (d) Forestry 65. Which among the following is a feature of unorganised sector? (a) Fixed number of work hours (b) Paid holidays (c) Employment is insecure (d) Registered with the government 66. Which among the following activities is not related to primary sector? (a) Fishing (b) Natural gas extraction (c) Making of sugar (d) Mining 67. Which among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector? (a) Educated and trained professionals (b) Repair persons and daily wage earners (c) People in defence services (d) People working in health centres and hospitals 68. Places of work which follow rules and regulation are termed as (d) secondary sector (a) organised sector (b) unorganised sector (c) tertiary sector 69. All economic activities that directly involve conversion of natural resources are classified under (a) secondary sector (b) primary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) government sector 70. The sector in which the productive units are owned, maintained and managed by government (a) organised sector (b) primary sector (c) public sector (d) industrial sector 71. The sum total of production of all goods and services in the three sectors are combined. (a) NDP (b) NI (c) GNI (d) GDP Answers 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 1. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 9. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (b) 17. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b) 25. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 33. (b) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (a) 41. (a) 49. (c) 130 Social Science–X: Term–1

57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (d) CASE-BASED QUESTIONS Attempt all sub-parts from each question. Each question carries 1 mark. 1. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. It is also common to find many organised sector enterprises in the unorganised sector. They adopt such strategies to evade taxes and refuse to follow laws that protect labourers. As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary. They are often exploited and not paid a fair wage. Their earnings are low and not regular. These jobs are not secure and have no other benefits. Since the 1990s, it is also common to see a large number of workers losing their jobs in the organised sector. These workers are forced to take up jobs in the unorganised sector with low earnings. Hence, besides the need for more work, there is also a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganised sector. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Which of the following examples does not fall under unorganized sector? (a) A farmer irrigating his field. (b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor. (c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient. (d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her house. (ii) Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the organised sector? (a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month. (b) She is not paid for leave. (c) She gets medical allowance. (d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she joins work. (iii) Manufacturing units in unorganised sector are: (a) not subject to government regulations (b) subjects to government regulations (c) subject to central bank’s regulations (d) none of the above (iv) Choose the correct meaning of organised sector. (a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular. (b) It is outside the control of the government. (c) Jobs are not regular. (d) It provides low salaries. 2. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Using sugarcane as a raw material, we make sugar or gur. We convert earth into bricks and use bricks to make houses and buildings. Since this sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries that came up, it is also called as industrial sector. After primary and secondary, there Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 131

is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Which sector includes the units producing services? (a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) All the above (ii) Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector? (a) It generates services rather than goods. (b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing. (c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources. (d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy. (iii) The service sector includes activities such as (a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry (b) making sugar, gur, and bricks (c) transport, communication and banking (d) none of these (iv) Which one of the following economic activities is not in the tertiary sector? (a) Banking (b) Bee keeping (c) Teaching (d) Working in a call centre 3. Read the information given below and select the correct option: Rahul is an agricultural labourer. There are several months in a year when he has no work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 8 per cent per month. Rahul repays the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland. Over the years his debt will – (a) Increase - because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount (b) Remain constant - as he is working for the employer but is repaying less (c) Reduce - as amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly repayment (d) Be totally repaid - as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labour OR Most of the agricultural labourers like Rahul depend upon loans from informal sector. Which of the following statements about this sector is correct? (a) There are government bodies to supervise informal sector. (b) Money lenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest. (c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high. (d) Money lenders use fair means to get their money back. 4. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: The product of this activity, cotton, is a natural product. Similarly, in the case of an activity like dairy, we are dependent on the biological process of the animals and availability of fodder etc. The product here, milk, also is a natural product. Similarly, minerals and ores are also natural products. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. Why primary? This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced 132 Social Science–X: Term–1

by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers, and people to do administrative and accounting works. In recent times, certain new services based on information technology such as internet cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies etc have become important. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Which sector converts raw materials into goods? (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) unorganised sector (d) organised sector (ii) Which sector includes the units producing services? (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) all the above (iii) Manufacturing sector is associated with (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) private sector (iv) Production of a commodity through exploitation of natural resources is an activity in the (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) information technology sector 5. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP. After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. We also may need to talk to others over telephone or send letters (communication) or borrow money from banks (banking) to help production and trade. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. (i) Life insurance is an activity of the (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) service sector (d) none of the above (ii) Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India. Select one from the following alternatives: (a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector (c) Primary sector (d) Science and Technology sector (iii) The money value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year is called: (a) Gross domestic product (b) Net domestic product (c) National product (d) Production of secondary sector Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 133

(iv) Information and communication technology is associated with (d) none of the above (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector Answers 1. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (a) 2. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (b) 4. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) 3. (a) OR (c) 5. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c) ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 1. Assertion (A) : The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at fair price.  [CBSE 2020, 32/5/1] Reason (R) : Public sector contributes to the economic development. 2. Assertion (A) : The unorganised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. Reason (R) : But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. 3. Assertion (A) : The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods that are used in making the final good. Reason (R) : The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for the next two years. 4. Assertion (A) : In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a state government ministry. Reason (R) : With the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, the central ministry collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP. 5. Assertion (A) : Since the 1890s, it is common to see a large number of workers losing their jobs in the organised sector. Reason (R) : Service sector also includes some essential services they may not directly help in the production of goods. Answers 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 1. (a) zzz 134 Social Science–X: Term–1

1 SOCIAL SCIENCE BLUE PRINTS PRACTICE PAPERS OMR SHEETS



BLUE PRINT–1 (FOR PRACTICE PAPER–01) S. No. Chapters Multiple Case-based Assertion- Map Total Choice Questions Reason Questions 10(10) 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Questions (1 Mark) (1 mark) 10(10) (1 Mark) Questions 4(4) (1 Mark) — 10(10) 4(4) 4(4) — 10(10) — 2(2) 2(2) 40(40) 2. Resources and Development — — — — 4(4) — — 3. Water Resources — — 2(2) — 4(4) 1(1) — 4. Agriculture 2(2) — 1(1) — 16(16) 1(1) 2(2) 5. Power Sharing 3(3) 1(1) 8(8) 6. Federalism 1(1) 7. Development 3(3) 8. Sectors of the Indian Economy 1(1) Total 14(14) BLUE PRINT–2 (FOR PRACTICE PAPER–02) S. No. Chapters Multiple Case-based Assertion- Map Total Choice Questions Reason Questions 10(10) 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Questions (1 Mark) (1 mark) 10(10) (1 Mark) Questions 4(4) (1 Mark) — 10(10) 4(4) 4(4) — 10(10) — 2(2) 2(2) 40(40) 2. Resources and Development — — 1(1) — 4(4) — — 3. Water Resources — — 1(1) — 4(4) 1(1) — 4. Agriculture 2(2) — 1(1) — 16(16) 2(2) 2(2) 5. Power Sharing 4(4) — 8(8) 6. Federalism — 7. Development 1(1) 8. Sectors of the Indian Economy 3(3) Total 14(14)

BLUE PRINT–3 (FOR PRACTICE PAPER–03) S. No. Chapters Multiple Case-based Assertion- Map Total Choice Questions Reason Questions 10(10) 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Questions (1 Mark) (1 mark) 10(10) (1 Mark) Questions 4(4) (1 Mark) — 10(10) 4(4) — — 10(10) — 2(2) 2(2) 40(40) 2. Resources and Development — 4(4) 1(1) — 4(4) — — 3. Water Resources — — 1(1) — 4(4) — — 4. Agriculture 2(2) — 2(2) — 16(16) — 2(2) 5. Power Sharing 4(4) 2(2) 8(8) 6. Federalism — 7. Development 2(2) 8. Sectors of the Indian Economy 2(2) Total 14(14) Note: 1. Number of question(s) is/are given in the brackets. 2. Case-based and Map Questions contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). 3. T he above Blue Print is only a sample. Suitable internal variations may be made for generating similar Blue Prints keeping the overall weightage to different form of questions and typology of questions same.

1 PRACTICE PAPER Time allowed : 90 Minutes Max. marks: 40 General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) There are 40 questions in all. (iii) This question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), Case-based MCQs, Assertion-Reason MCQs and Map Questions. (iv) Only one of the options in every question is correct. (v) An OMR sheet of every practice paper is given. The candidate has to give his/her answer of the question by darkening the circle against that question. Choose and write the correct option in the following questions. 1. What major issue was criticised against by the liberal nationalists? (a) Censorship laws to control the press (b) Preservation of the Church (c) A modern army (d) Efficient bureaucracy 2. Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘Community Government’ of Belgium? [CBSE 2020, 32/4/1] (a) Different social groups (b) Different organs of government (c) Central and State government (d) State government and Community government 3. Which one of the following is not true for pulses? (a) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif seasons. (b) Pulses are leguminous crops. (c) They are grown in rotation with other crops. (d) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities. 4. Which of the following is not the form of power sharing? (a) Vertical division of power (b) Horizontal division of power (c) Division of power between people (d) Division of power among social groups 5. What did ‘Das Volk’ stand for? (a) Democracy (b) Factory workers (c) Slum dwellers (d) common people 6. Which one of the following statements about power sharing arrangement is correct? (a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions. (b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions. (c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions. (d) Power sharing is not necessary at all. 7. Development is sustained by the ____________. (a) conservation of resources and the environment Practice Papers 139

(b) conservation of the factors of production (c) continuous increase in per capita income (d) continuous increase in gross domestic product 8. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means: (a) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to men. (b) the right to vote for all adults. (c) the right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning men. (d) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and women. 9. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the (a) central government (b) state government (c) provincial government (d) all of the above 10. Which among the following is more likely to be the developmental goal of a landless labour? (a) To be able to visit abroad frequently (b) More days of work with better wages (c) To send his children in one of the best school in a nearby city (d) To be able to buy expensive clothes from the nearby market 11. Which is the right condition for the growth of maize? (a) Temperature between 21 to 27 degrees Celsius and old alluvial soil (b) Temperature below 17 degree Celsius and shallow black soil (c) Temperature of 25 degrees Celsius and 200 cm of rainfall (d) None of the above 12. The belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is (a) Power sharing (b) Absolutism (c) Majoritarianism (d) Community government 13. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of ‘Conservatism’? (a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional institutions of state and policy. (b) Conservatives stressed the importance of tradition and preferred gradual development to quick change. (c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-revolutionary days and were against the ideas of modernisation to strengthen monarchy. (d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church, and other social hierarchies. 14. How do big private companies contribute in the development of a nation? (a) By increasing the demands for their products through advertisements. (b) By increasing their profits. (c) By increasing productivity of the country in the manufacturing of industrial goods. (d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich. Case-based Question–I : Read the source given below and answer the questions (15-18) that follow: The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive. All through the nineteenth 140 Social Science–X: Term–1

century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen itself through modernisation and internal reforms but with very little success. One by one, its European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence. The Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or political rights on nationality and used history to prove that they had once been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers. Hence the rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long-lost independence. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 15. The Ottoman Empire sought to strengthen itself through: (a) Modernisation (b) internal reforms (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 16. The Balkan peoples based their claims for __________ or __________ on nationality. (a) independence, political rights (b) power sharing, federalism (c) secularism, political rights (d) modernisation, strength 17. The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area of __________. (a) Ottoman Empire (b) Balkans (c) Greece (d) Albania 18. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism was responsible for: (a) disintegration of Greece (b) Balkans disintegration from the Ottoman Empire (c) integration of Macedonia (d) none of the above Case-based Question–II : Read the source given below and answer the questions (19-22) that follow: Individual Resources: These are also owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land which is allotted to them by government against the payment of revenue. In villages there are people with land ownership but there are many who are landless. Urban people own plots, houses and other property. Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells etc. are some of the examples of resources ownership by individuals. Community owned resources: There are resources which are accessible to all the members of the community. Village commons (grazing grounds, burial grounds, village ponds, etc.) public parks, picnic spots, playgrounds in urban areas are de facto accessible to all the people living there. National Resources: Technically, all the resources belong to the nation. The country has legal powers to acquire even private property for public good. You might have seen roads, canals, railways being constructed on fields owned by some individuals. Urban Development Authorities get empowered by the government to acquire land. All the minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km) from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to the nation. International Resources: There are international institutions which regulate some resources. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 19. The resources which are owned by the community are: (a) plantation (b) pasture land (c) ponds (d) all the above 20. Which one of the following is an example of Biotic Resources? (a) Rock (b) Mountain (c) Mineral (d) Flora 21. On the basis of ownership, plantations can be better considered as which of the following types of resources? (a) Individual resource (b) Community owned resource (c) National resource (d) International resource Practice Papers 141

22. The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone can be termed as which of the following types of resource? (a) Individual resources (b) Community owned resources (c) National resources (d) International resources Case-based Question–III : Read the source given below and answer the questions (23-26) that follow: For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal. Now, what is the income of a country? Intuitively, the income of the country is the income of all the residents of the country. This gives us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such an useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 23. Per capita income is: (b) Income per family (a) Income per person (d) Income per month (c) Income per earning person 24. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in Classifying countries? (a) Total income (b) Gross income (c) per capita income (d) Net income 25. The average income is also called: (b) Per capita income (a) Per capita profit (c) Limited income (d) None of the above 26. What is the most important attribute while comparing countries? (a) Their population (b) Their political status (c) Their income (d) None of the above Case-based Question–IV : Read the source given below and answer the questions (27-30) that follow: Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. We studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 27. Power sharing is between – (b) legislature, executive and judiciary (a) legislature, executive and parliament (d) none of the above (c) legislature, high court and judiciary 28. It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers is known as ___________. (a) circular distribution of power (b) vertical distribution of power (c) horizontal distribution of power (d) all the above 142 Social Science–X: Term–1

29. Judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures, known as _____________. (a) horizontal distribution of power (b) checks and balances (c) vertical distribution of power (d) all the above 30. Power sharing means – (a) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between ministers of the government (b) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different organs of the government (c) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different levels of government (d) all the above The following questions (31-38) consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 31. Assertion (A) : The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and territorial expansion. Reason (R) : Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation: art and poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings. 32. Assertion (A) : Arid soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau. Reason (R) : Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats. 33. Assertion (A) : In Belgium, the Dutch community could take advantage of its numeric majority and force its will on the French and German-speaking population. Reason (R) : In Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community enjoyed an even bigger majority and could impose its will on the entire country. 34. Assertion (A) : Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. Reason (R) : But the quality of our life does not depend on nonmaterial things. 35. Assertion (A) : Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. Reason (R) : This arrangement is called a system of chess and balances. 36. Assertion (A) : The developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but also about other important things in life. Reason (R) : A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. 37. Assertion (A) : The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. Reason (R) : National Assembly proclaimed a Republic, granted suffrage to all adult males above 21, and guaranteed the right to work. Practice Papers 143

38. Assertion (A) : Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick. Reason (R) : The Forest soil develops under tropical and subtropical climate with alternate wet and dry season. The following questions (39 - 40) are based on map. Answer the questions by selecting the correct option marked on the map. 39. Select the correct name of the dam that is marked on the map. (a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Bhakar Nagal (c) Tehri (d) Salal 144 Social Science–X: Term–1

40. Select the correct name of the dam that is marked on the map. (a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Sardar Sarovar (c) Tungabhadra (d) Tehri zzz Practice Papers 145

PRACTICE PAPER 2 Time allowed : 90 Minutes Max. marks: 40 General Instructions: Same as Practice Paper–1. Choose and write the correct option in the following questions. 1. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’? [CBSE 2020 (32/1/1)] (a) French Revolution (b) Russian Revolution (c) Glorious Revolution (d) The Revolution of the liberals 2. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy? (a) People are the source of all political power. (b) In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance. (c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. (d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decision and enforce them. 3. Rabi crops are- (a) sown in winter and harvested in summers. (b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter. (c) sown in summer and harvested in winter. (d) none of the above 4. Which of the following is an example of horizontal distribution of power? (a) Power sharing between different states (b) Power sharing between different organs of the government (c) Power sharing between different levels of the government (d) Power sharing between different social groups 5. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means: (a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture. (b) strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations. (c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others. (d) equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world. 6. By the 1980s several political organizations were formed demanding ________. (a) certain rights (b) independent Tamil Eelam (State) (c) sovereign state (d) priority in jobs for Tamils 7. Why did the secondary sector later become the most important sector? (a) People began to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap rates (b) Employment increased (c) Agriculture declined (d) Both (a) and (b) 146 Social Science–X: Term–1

8. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain? (a) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of a sudden upheaval. (b) In 1688, the monarchy in Britain had seized the power from English Parliament. (c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy which gradually led to the emergence of a nation-state. (d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales. 9. Over the past decade or so, __________ indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. (a) health and nutrition (b) health and education (c) child development (d) human development 10. Underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. It is also called ________ . (a) hidden employment (b) disguised unemployment (c) unstable employment (d) less employment 11. Which of the following is not correct about plantation crop? (a) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. (b) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. (c) Plantation cover large tracts of land called estates. (d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling the trees and burning them, to produce cereals and other food crops. 12. Which one of the following statements about power sharing arrangement is correct? (a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions. (b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions. (c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions. (d) Power sharing is not necessary at all. 13. Zollevrein started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a: (a) Trade Union (b) Customs Union (c) Labour Union (d) Farmer’s Union 14. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that__________. (a) health and nutrition is declining (b) per capita income is unstable (c) levels of resources are not sustainable (d) levels of development are not sustainable. Case-based Question–I : Read the source given below and answer the questions (15-18) that follow: From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation. The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism, in other words to help other peoples of Europe to become nations. When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French Practice Papers 147