XAM IDEA Social Science

armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s. With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 15. The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French Revolution were: (a) it ended the absolute monarchy. (b) it transferred power to a body of the French citizens. (c) it proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny. (d) all the above. 16. The first clear expression of nationalism came with: (a) The American Revolution (b) The French Revolution (c) The Russian Revolution (d) The Industrial Revolution 17. The ideas of a United Community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution were expressed by the French as: (a) La Patrie (b) Le Citoyen (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 18. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and it was renamed as: (a) National Assembly (b) Body of Executives (c) Rule of Directory (d) None of these Case-based Question–II : Read the source given below and answer the questions (19-22) that follow: Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventor of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources. (ii) evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the First Five Year Plan launched after Independence. The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region, but mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology and institutions may hinder development. There are many regions in our country that are rich in resources but these are included in economically backward regions. On the contrary there are some regions which have a poor resource base but they are economically developed. The history of colonisation reveals that rich resources in colonies were the main attractions for the foreign invaders. It was primarily the higher level of technological development of the colonising countries that helped them to exploit resources of other regions and establish their supremacy over the colonies. Therefore, resources can contribute to development only when they are accompanied by appropriate technological development and institutional changes. India has experienced all this in different phases of colonisation. Therefore, in India, development in general, and resource development in particular do not only involve the availability of resources, but also the technology, quality of human resources and the historical experiences of the people. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 19. From which Five Year Plan has India made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning? (a) First Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan (c) Annual Plans (d) Tenth Five Year Plan 20. Resource planning is essential for __________ existence of all forms of life. (a) ecological balance (b) sustainable (c) exploitation (d) None of these 21. What was main attraction of foreign invaders to India? (a) architecture (b) resource (c) irrigation method (d) spices 148 Social Science–X: Term–1

22. Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life? (a) Resource planning (b) Resource management (c) Resource extraction (d) Resource generation Case-based Question–III : Read the source given below and answer the questions (23-26) that follow: Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from Human Development Report 2019. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 23. HDI stands for: (b) Human Development Index (a) Heavy Developed Industry (d) Heavy Industries Development (c) Heavy Developed Infrastructure 24. The Human Development Report compares countries on the basis of: (a) The educational levels of the people (b) Health status of the people (c) Per capita income of the people (d) All the above factors 25. Which organisation publishes the Human Development Report: (a) WHO (b) UNDP (c) WTO (d) IMF 26. Which one of the following criteria is the basis to measure the development of a country according to UNDP? (a) Per capita income (b) Educational levels of the people (c) Health status of the people (d) All the above Case-based Question–IV : Read the source given below and answer the questions (27-30) that follow: Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups. Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will have a share in governmental power, either through participation in governmental committees or bringing influence on the decision-making process. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 27. What is the meaning of coalition? (a) one party (b) oppose (c) alliance (d) multi party 28. What does the competition amongst the political parties ensure? (a) power remains in one hand (b) power is shared (c) power does not remain in one hand (d) all the above Practice Papers 149

29. None-sharing of power leads to (a) peace among all the communities (b) tyranny of the majority and oppression of the majority (c) negation of the very spirit of democracy (d) both (b) and (c) 30. What do you understand by pressure groups? (a) organisations that attempt to oppose government policies (b) organisations that attempt to influence government policies (c) organisations that attempt to reject government policies (d) none of the above The following questions (31-38) consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 31. Assertion (A) : Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well. Reason (R) : So, income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able to use. 32. Assertion (A) : Sri Lanka has a diverse population. Reason (R) : The major social groups are the Sinhala-speakers (74 per cent) and the Tamil- speakers (18 per cent). 33. Assertion (A) : The local government structure goes right up to the state level. Reason (R) : A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a panchayat samiti or block or mandal. 34. Assertion (A) : Organic farming is much in vogue today because it is practised without factory made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. Reason (R) : Hence, it does not affect environment in a negative manner. 35. Assertion (A) : During the 1830s, Giuseppe Garibaldi had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. Reason (R) : Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a democratic. 36. Assertion (A) : The developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but also about other important things in life. Reason (R) : A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. 37. Assertion (A) : Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile. Reason (R) : Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. 38. Assertion (A) : Language, too, played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. Reason (R) : After Russian occupation, the Polish language was welcomed in schools and the Russian language was forced out. 150 Social Science–X: Term–1

The following questions (39 - 40) are based on map. Answer the questions by selecting the correct option marked on the map. 39. Select the correct name of the dam that is marked on the map. (a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Salal (c) Tehri (d) Hirakund Practice Papers 151

40. Select the correct name of the dam that is marked on the map. (a) Tungabhadra (b) Nagarjuna Sagar (c) Hirakund (d) Tehri zzz 152 Social Science–X: Term–1

3 PRACTICE PAPER Time allowed : 90 Minutes Max. marks: 40 General Instructions: Same as Practice Paper–1. Choose and write the correct option in the following questions. 1. A large part of Balkan region was under the control of: (a) Russian empire (b) Ottoman empire (c) German empire (d) Habsburg empire 2. What does the coalition government imply? (a) Power-sharing between different communities (b) Power-sharing among the different organs of the government (c) Power-sharing by two or more political parties (d) Power-sharing within the government at different levels 3. Choose the correctly matched pair about the agriculture in India from the following options: (a) Rabi crops are sown – October to December (b) Gram – paddy crops (c) Aus, Aman and Boro – Government schemes (d) Kissan Credit Card – Increased the production 4. Give one moral reason as why power-sharing is good? (a) It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. (b) It does not lead to confusion in managing the state. (c) People have a right to be consulted on how they are governed. (d) Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. 5. The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French Revolution were – (a) it ended the absolute monarchy (b) it transferred power to a body of the French citizens (c) it proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny (d) all the above 6. Prudential reasons of power sharing stresses more on- (a) reducing the possibility of conflict between various social groups. (b) fair chance to minority. (c) bringing stability in the political order. (d) all the above 7. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include the_________ to get the total production. (a) values of goods and services in production (b) final goods and services (c) adding up the actual numbers of goods (d) goods and services in the three sectors Practice Papers 153

8. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words: ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was: (a) The Russian Revolution (b) The French Revolution (c) The American Revolution (d) India’s First War of Independence 9. Why does Kerala have a low infant mortality rate? (a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities (b) Suitable climate (c) Pollution Free environment (d) Good water 10. What is the secondary sector? (a) Production of a good by exploiting natural resources. (b) Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing. (c) Activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process. (d) Mineral excavation. 11. Tick the characteristics of Commercial farming. (a) Plots of land are fragmented. (b) Transport and communication plays an important role. (c) The yield is usually low. (d) The pressure of population is high on land. 12. “Power sharing is a good way to ensure stability of political order.” Which among the following is the reason for power sharing? (a) Moral (b) Prudential (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above 13. Which one of the following was not a part of the concept of nation-state? (a) Clearly defined boundary (b) National identity based on culture and history (c) Sovereignty (d) Freedom from monarchy 14. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the level of development? (a) Industrial development (b) Resources of the country (c) Income (d) Import-export Case-based Question–I : Read the source given below and answer the questions (15-18) that follow: Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient 154 Social Science–X: Term–1

bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria – who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 15. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna? (a) Britain (b) Russia (c) Prussia (d) Switzerland 16. Why was the treaty of Vienna (1815) drawn up? (a) To establish tariff barriers (b) To restore the monarchies (c) To divide the German Confederation of 39 states (d) To establish democracies 17. Who among the following was associated with the Treaty of Vienna of 1815? (a) Bismarck (b) Duke Metternich (c) Louis Philippe (d) Victor Emmaunel II 18. After the Napoleon which dynasty was restored in France? (a) Bourbon (b) Mazzini (c) Bouborn (d) none of the above Case-based Question–II : Read the source given below and answer the questions (19-22) that follow: Agriculture has been practised in India for thousands of years. Sustained uses of land without compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace of agricultural development. Inspite of development of sources of irrigation most of the farmers in large parts of the country still depend upon monsoon and natural fertility in order to carry on their agriculture. For a growing population, this poses a serious challenge. Agriculture which provides livelihood for more than 60 per cent of its population, needs some serious technical and institutional reforms. Thus, collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the country after Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five Year Plan. The ‘right of inheritance’ had already led to fragmentation of land holdings necessitating consolidation of holdings. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 19. Which of the following is the most important occupation of the people of India? (a) Food gathering (b) Agriculture (c) Manufacturing (d) Services 20. In spite of development of irrigation , farmers still depend on ____________. (a) artificial water resources (b) monsoon (c) wells (d) none of the above Practice Papers 155

21. What do you understand by the term ‘collectivisation’? (a) Combining land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on collective basis (b) Combining land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on individual basis (c) Comparing land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on pocket basis (d) none of the above 22. What was the main objective of First Five Year Plan? (a) Land forms (b) Land degradation (c) Land reforms (d) all the above Case-based Question–III : Read the source given below and answer the questions (23-26) that follow: The product of primary activity, cotton, is a natural product. Similarly, in the case of an activity like dairy, we are dependent on the biological process of the animals and availability of fodder etc. The product here, milk, also is a natural product. Similarly, minerals and ores are also natural products. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. Why primary? This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers, and people to do administrative and accounting works. In recent times, certain new services based on information technology such as internet cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies etc have become important. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 23. Which sector converts raw materials into goods? (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) unorganised sector (d) organised sector 24. Which sector includes the units producing services? (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) all the above 25. Manufacturing sector is associated with (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) private sector 156 Social Science–X: Term–1

26. Production of a commodity through exploitation of natural resources is an activity in the (a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) information technology sector Case-based Question–IV : Read the source given below and answer the questions (27-30) that follow: Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration. Last year, we studied the system of ‘reserved constituencies’ in assemblies and the parliament of our country. This type of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government. This method is used to give minority communities a fair share in power. Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups. Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option. 27. Which one of the following statements about community government is true? (a) Power is shared among different organs of the government (b) Power is shared among governments at different levels (c) Power is shared by different social groups (d) Power is shared by two or more political parties 28. Power can be shared in modern democracies in the following ways: (a) Among different organs of the government (b) Among various levels (c) Among different social groups (d) All the above 29. Power sharing is good because: (a) It increase the conflict between social groups (b) It ensures the instability of political order (c) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups (d) It leads to violence 30. Which is a prudential reason for power – sharing? (a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political order (b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy (c) both the above (d) None of the above Practice Papers 157

The following questions (31-38) consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 31. Assertion (A) : Indian coffee is known in the world for its good quality. Reason (R) : The Asian variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country. 32. Assertion (A) : The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods that are used in making the final good. Reason (R) : The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for the next two years. 33. Assertion (A) : Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Reason (R) : Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which federalism has been strengthened in practice. 34. Assertion (A) : In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a state government ministry. Reason (R) : With the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, the central ministry collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP. 35. Assertion (A) : The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. Reason (R) : National Assembly proclaimed a Republic, granted suffrage to all adult males above 21, and guaranteed the right to work. 36. Assertion (A) : Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. Reason (R) : This arrangement is called a system of chess and balances. 37. Assertion (A) : Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick. Reason (R) : The Forest soil develops under tropical and subtropical climate with alternate wet and dry season. 38. Assertion (A) : The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and territorial expansion. Reason (R) : Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation: art and poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings. 158 Social Science–X: Term–1

The following questions (39 - 40) are based on map. Answer the questions by selecting the correct option marked on the map. 39. Select the correct name of the dam that is marked on the map. (a) Salal (b) Tungabhadra (c) Tehri (d) Hirakund Practice Papers 159

40. Select the correct name of the dam that is marked on the map. (a) Sardar Sarovar (b) Tungabhadra (c) Bhakra Nangal (d) Nagarjuna Sagar Answers of Practice Paper–01 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a) Answers of Practice Paper–02 4. (b) 5. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 36. (d) 37. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) Answers of Practice Paper–03 20. (b) 21. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d) zzz 160 Social Science–X: Term–1

SIDE-1 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. Use Blue/Black Ball Point only to write on this Answer Sheet. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code on SIDE-2 of the ANSWER SHEET is the same as printed on Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 3. Do not use white/correction fluid on this Answer Sheet. 4. Overwriting, Cutting and Erasing on the Answer Sheet is not allowed. Do not make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. 5. Rough work must not be done on this Answer Sheet. Use last page of the Test Booklet for rough work. 6. Use English Numbers/letters only to write on SIDE-2 of the Answer Sheet 7. Write Centre Number, Roll Number, Test Booklet Number (as given on top left hand side comer of the Test Booklet) on the Answer Sheet as shown in the example. 8. Candidates should write his/her name in CAPITAL LETTERS as given in Admit Card in the space earmarked for Candidate’s Name. Each letter should be written in one box as shown below. One box should be left blank between each part of the name. Candidate’s Name : RAJ KUMAR SHARMA RA J K UMA R S HARMA 9. (i) Darken the complete circle. A light or faintly darkened circle is liable to be rejected by the optical scanner. (ii) Darken only one circle for response against each question. The response once marked is not liable to be changed. More than one response indicated against a question will be deemed as incorrect response. (iii) If the candidate does not want to attempt any question, he/she should not darken the circle against that question. (iv) For the purpose of evaluation, the Test Booklet Code as printed in the Answer Sheet on SIDE-2 will be accepted as final. (v) Way of marking: If your response for question number 3 is a, darken as shown in correct method: EXAMPLE-HOW TO FILL SIDE-2 CORRECT METHOD If your Centre Number is 2009, If your Text Booklet Q. No. a b c d write as Number is 056789 03 b c d Centre Number 2 0 0 9 write as WRONG METHOD Test Booklet Number 056789 Q. No. a b c d If your Roll Number is 6101234, 03 a b d write as 03 a b c d Roll Number 6101234 03 a b c d in figures Roll Number SIXTY ONE LAKH ONE THOUSAND TWO 03 a b c d in words HUNDRED THIRTY FOUR 03 a b d

SIDE - 2 ANSWER SHEET NUMBER ANSWER SHEET Use English Numbers/letters only. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to write in box. Test Booklet Code Centre Number Test Booklet Number Roll Number in figures Roll Number in words IMPORTANT The Candidate should check that the Test Booklet Code printed on the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on the Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. Candidate's Name in CAPITAL letters as given in Admit Card Darken only one circle for each question. Q. No. Response Q. No. Response Q. No. Response a bc a bc bc d bc d abc d 01 a bc d 15 a bc d 29 a b c d 02 a bc d 16 a bc d 03 a bc d 17 a bc d 30 a b c d 04 a bc d 18 a bc d 05 a bc d 19 a bc d 31 a b c d 06 a bc d 20 a bc d 07 a bc d 21 a bc d 32 a b c d 08 a bc d 22 a bc d 09 a bc d 23 a bc d 33 a b c d 10 a bc d 24 a bc d 11 a bc d 25 a bc d 34 a b c d 12 a bc d 26 a bc d 13 a bc d 27 a bc d 35 a b c 14 a d 28 a d 36 a b c d 37 a b c d 38 a b c d 39 a b c d 40 a b c d d Signature of Candidate (in running hand) Signature of Invigilator Before handing over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator, the candidate should check that Centre Number, Roll Number, Test Booklet Number and Candidate’s Name have been filled in correctly.

SIDE-1 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. Use Blue/Black Ball Point only to write on this Answer Sheet. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code on SIDE-2 of the ANSWER SHEET is the same as printed on Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 3. Do not use white/correction fluid on this Answer Sheet. 4. Overwriting, Cutting and Erasing on the Answer Sheet is not allowed. Do not make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. 5. Rough work must not be done on this Answer Sheet. Use last page of the Test Booklet for rough work. 6. Use English Numbers/letters only to write on SIDE-2 of the Answer Sheet 7. Write Centre Number, Roll Number, Test Booklet Number (as given on top left hand side comer of the Test Booklet) on the Answer Sheet as shown in the example. 8. Candidates should write his/her name in CAPITAL LETTERS as given in Admit Card in the space earmarked for Candidate’s Name. Each letter should be written in one box as shown below. One box should be left blank between each part of the name. Candidate’s Name : RAJ KUMAR SHARMA RA J K UMA R S HARMA 9. (i) Darken the complete circle. A light or faintly darkened circle is liable to be rejected by the optical scanner. (ii) Darken only one circle for response against each question. The response once marked is not liable to be changed. More than one response indicated against a question will be deemed as incorrect response. (iii) If the candidate does not want to attempt any question, he/she should not darken the circle against that question. (iv) For the purpose of evaluation, the Test Booklet Code as printed in the Answer Sheet on SIDE-2 will be accepted as final. (v) Way of marking: If your response for question number 3 is a, darken as shown in correct method: EXAMPLE-HOW TO FILL SIDE-2 CORRECT METHOD If your Centre Number is 2009, If your Text Booklet Q. No. a b c d write as Number is 056789 03 b c d Centre Number 2 0 0 9 write as WRONG METHOD Test Booklet Number 056789 Q. No. a b c d If your Roll Number is 6101234, 03 a b d write as 03 a b c d Roll Number 6101234 03 a b c d in figures Roll Number SIXTY ONE LAKH ONE THOUSAND TWO 03 a b c d in words HUNDRED THIRTY FOUR 03 a b d

SIDE - 2 ANSWER SHEET NUMBER ANSWER SHEET Use English Numbers/letters only. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to write in box. Test Booklet Code Centre Number Test Booklet Number Roll Number in figures Roll Number in words IMPORTANT The Candidate should check that the Test Booklet Code printed on the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on the Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. Candidate's Name in CAPITAL letters as given in Admit Card Darken only one circle for each question. Q. No. Response Q. No. Response Q. No. Response a bc a bc bc d bc d abc d 01 a bc d 15 a bc d 29 a b c d 02 a bc d 16 a bc d 03 a bc d 17 a bc d 30 a b c d 04 a bc d 18 a bc d 05 a bc d 19 a bc d 31 a b c d 06 a bc d 20 a bc d 07 a bc d 21 a bc d 32 a b c d 08 a bc d 22 a bc d 09 a bc d 23 a bc d 33 a b c d 10 a bc d 24 a bc d 11 a bc d 25 a bc d 34 a b c d 12 a bc d 26 a bc d 13 a bc d 27 a bc d 35 a b c 14 a d 28 a d 36 a b c d 37 a b c d 38 a b c d 39 a b c d 40 a b c d d Signature of Candidate (in running hand) Signature of Invigilator Before handing over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator, the candidate should check that Centre Number, Roll Number, Test Booklet Number and Candidate’s Name have been filled in correctly.

SIDE-1 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. Use Blue/Black Ball Point only to write on this Answer Sheet. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code on SIDE-2 of the ANSWER SHEET is the same as printed on Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 3. Do not use white/correction fluid on this Answer Sheet. 4. Overwriting, Cutting and Erasing on the Answer Sheet is not allowed. Do not make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. 5. Rough work must not be done on this Answer Sheet. Use last page of the Test Booklet for rough work. 6. Use English Numbers/letters only to write on SIDE-2 of the Answer Sheet 7. Write Centre Number, Roll Number, Test Booklet Number (as given on top left hand side comer of the Test Booklet) on the Answer Sheet as shown in the example. 8. Candidates should write his/her name in CAPITAL LETTERS as given in Admit Card in the space earmarked for Candidate’s Name. Each letter should be written in one box as shown below. One box should be left blank between each part of the name. Candidate’s Name : RAJ KUMAR SHARMA RA J K UMA R S HARMA 9. (i) Darken the complete circle. A light or faintly darkened circle is liable to be rejected by the optical scanner. (ii) Darken only one circle for response against each question. The response once marked is not liable to be changed. More than one response indicated against a question will be deemed as incorrect response. (iii) If the candidate does not want to attempt any question, he/she should not darken the circle against that question. (iv) For the purpose of evaluation, the Test Booklet Code as printed in the Answer Sheet on SIDE-2 will be accepted as final. (v) Way of marking: If your response for question number 3 is a, darken as shown in correct method: EXAMPLE-HOW TO FILL SIDE-2 CORRECT METHOD If your Centre Number is 2009, If your Text Booklet Q. No. a b c d write as Number is 056789 03 b c d Centre Number 2 0 0 9 write as WRONG METHOD Test Booklet Number 056789 Q. No. a b c d If your Roll Number is 6101234, 03 a b d write as 03 a b c d Roll Number 6101234 03 a b c d in figures Roll Number SIXTY ONE LAKH ONE THOUSAND TWO 03 a b c d in words HUNDRED THIRTY FOUR 03 a b d

SIDE - 2 ANSWER SHEET NUMBER ANSWER SHEET Use English Numbers/letters only. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to write in box. Test Booklet Code Centre Number Test Booklet Number Roll Number in figures Roll Number in words IMPORTANT The Candidate should check that the Test Booklet Code printed on the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on the Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. Candidate's Name in CAPITAL letters as given in Admit Card Darken only one circle for each question. Q. No. Response Q. No. Response Q. No. Response a bc a bc bc d bc d abc d 01 a bc d 15 a bc d 29 a b c d 02 a bc d 16 a bc d 03 a bc d 17 a bc d 30 a b c d 04 a bc d 18 a bc d 05 a bc d 19 a bc d 31 a b c d 06 a bc d 20 a bc d 07 a bc d 21 a bc d 32 a b c d 08 a bc d 22 a bc d 09 a bc d 23 a bc d 33 a b c d 10 a bc d 24 a bc d 11 a bc d 25 a bc d 34 a b c d 12 a bc d 26 a bc d 13 a bc d 27 a bc d 35 a b c 14 a d 28 a d 36 a b c d 37 a b c d 38 a b c d 39 a b c d 40 a b c d d Signature of Candidate (in running hand) Signature of Invigilator Before handing over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator, the candidate should check that Centre Number, Roll Number, Test Booklet Number and Candidate’s Name have been filled in correctly.