SPB

When an electric iron is connected to an electric circuit, the element of electric iron gets heated because of dissipation of electric energy, which heats the electric iron. The element of electric iron is a purely resistive conductor. This happens because of the heating effect of electric current. Cause of heating effect of electric current: Electric current generates heat to overcome the resistance offered by the conductor through which it passes. Higher the resistance, the electric current will generate a higher amount of heat. Thus, generation of heat by electric current while passing through a conductor is an inevitable consequence. This heating effect is used in many appliances, such as electric iron, electric heater, electric geyser, etc. 2a. Choose the incorrect expression which doesn’t represents Joule’s law of heating- i. I2 Rt ii. V2 Rt iii. V2 / Rt iv. VIt 2b. Calculate the heat energy produced in resistance of 5 Ω when 3 A current flows through it for 2 minutes. 2c. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as i. Volt- ampere ii. Kilowatt-hour iii. Watt- second iv. Joule- sec 2d. Why are the heating elements of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal? VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARKERS) 1. Define electric current. 2. Write a mathematical relation between charge and current. 3. Name the instrument used to measure (a) current (b) voltage in a circuit. 4. How does resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section? 5. Define the SI unit of current. 6. What makes the electric charge to flow in a circuit? 7. What is the direction of flow of conventional current? 8. What is the commercial unit of energy? 9. Name the physical quantity which is the same in all the resistors when they are connected in series. 10. Name the device which is used to maintain potential difference in a circuit. OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. Work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric circuit is a measure of (a) current (b) potential difference (c) resistance (d) power [151]

2. A wire of length /, made of material resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to, (a) ρ (b) ������/2 (c) 2 ρ (d) 4 ρ 3. The resistance whose V-I graph is given below is 4. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is (a) < 100 Ω (b) < 4 Ω (c) < 1 Ω (d) > 2 Ω 5. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1 R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is true? (a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1 > R2 > R3 (c) R3 > R2 > R1 (d) R2 > R3 > R1 6. If in the given arrangement, the three resistors are to be replaced by a single resistor. What will be the value of this resistor? [152]

(a) 4Ω (b) 6Ω (c) 9Ω (d) 18Ω 7. A wire of resistance R1 is cut into five equal pieces. These five pieces of wire are then connected in parallel. If the resultant resistance of this combination be R2, then the ratio R1/ R2 is: (a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 5 (d) 25 8. You are given four ammeters A, B, C and D having least counts mentioned below: (I) Ammeter A with least count 0.25 A (II) Ammeter B with least count 0.5 A (III) Ammeter C with least count 0.05 A (IV) Ammeter D with least count 0.1 A Which of the ammeters would you prefer for doing an experiment to determine the equivalent resistance of two resistances most accurately, when connected in parallel? (a) Ammeter A (b) Ammeter B (c) Ammeter C (d) Ammeter D ASSERTION & REASON 1. Assertion (A): A conductor has + 3.2 x 10 -19 C charge. Reason (R): Conductor has gained 2 electrons. 2. Assertion (A) The resistivity of conductor increases with the increasing temperature. Reason (R): The resistivity is the reciprocal of the conductivity. 3. Assertion (A): Bending a wire does not affect electrical resistance. Reason (R) Resistance of wire is proportional to resistivity of material. 4 Assertion (A): Two resistance having value reach. Their equivalent resistance is R/2 Reason (R) Given resistance is connected in parallel. 5. Assertion (A): In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest potential is the positive terminal of the battery. [153]

Reason (R): The current flows towards the point of the lower potential as it flows in such a circuit from the negative to the positive terminal. 6. Assertion (A): Electric appliances with metallic bodies have three connections, whereas an electric bulb has a two pin connection. Reason (R): Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting wires. 7. Assertion(A): A fuse wire is always connected in parallel with the main line. Reason (R): of a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, fuse wire melts. 8. Assertion(A): Copper is used to make electric wires. Reason (R): Copper has very low electrical resistance. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKERS) 1. Calculate the amount of work done in carrying a charge of 5 mC against a potential difference of 100 V. 2. Derive the equation for resultant resistance of Resistors in series 3. How much work is done in moving a charge of 3 coulomb from a point at the volts 115 to a point at 125 volts? 4. Mention one reason why tungsten is used for making filament of electric lamps. 5. A wire of resistance ‘R’ is stretched by 50%. What will be the percentage change in its resistance? 6. A Rectangular block of iron has dimensions L X L X b. What is the resistance of the block measured Between the two square ends? Given ρ= resistivity. 7. Three equal resistances are connected in series then in parallel. What will be the ratio of their Resistances? 8. How many bulbs of 8Ώ should be joined in parallel to draw a current of 2A from a battery of 4 V? 9. State Ohm’s law. Draw a circuit to verify this law indicating the positive and negative terminals of a battery. Also, mark the direction of the current. 10. Differentiate between resistance & resistivity. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKERS) 1. A circuit is shown in the diagram given below: (a) Find the value of R. (b) Find the reading of the ammeter. [154]

(c) Find the potential difference across the terminals of the battery. 2. An electric geyser rated 1500 W and 250 V is connected to 250 V line mains. Calculate: (a) the electric current drawn by it. (b) energy consumed by it in 50 hours. (c) cost of energy consumed if each unit costs Rs.2. 3. A wire of resistance 10 ohm is bent in the form of a closed circle. What is the effective resistance between the two points at the end of any diameter of the circle? 4. A resistor of 8ohm is connected in parallel with another resistor X. The resultant resistance of the combination is 4.8 ohm. What is the value of X? 5. How will you connect three resistors of 2 ohm, 3 ohm, 5 ohm respectively so as to obtain a resultant resistance of 2.5 ohm? Draw the diagram to show arrangement. 6. If R1=R2=R3=R4=R5= 3 ohm. Calculate the effective resistance of the circuit. 7. The ratio of resistivity of two materials A and B is 1:2, ratio of their length is 3:4 and if the ratio of radii is 2:3 find the ratio of resistance of A and B. 8. A given length of wire is doubled on itself and this process is repeated once again. By what factor does the resistance of the wire change? 9. An electrician puts a fuse of rating 5 A in that part of the domestic electrical circuit in which an electrical heater of rating 1.5 kW, 220 V is operating. What is likely to happen in this case and why? What change, if any, needs to be made? 10. The electric power consumed by a device may be calculated by using either of the two expressions: P = I2R or P = V2/R. The first expression indicates that the power is directly proportional to R, whereas the second expression indicates inverse proportionality. How can the seemingly different dependence of P on R in these expressions be explained? LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKERS) 1. In the circuit diagram shown, calculate: (a) current flowing through arms AB, AC and CDE [155]

(b) potential difference across AB, CD and DE (c) effective resistance of the circuit. 2. Two wires A and B are of equal lengths, different cross-sectional areas and made of the same metal. (i) Name the property which is same for both the wires. (ii) Name the property which is different for both the wires. (iii) If the resistance of wire A is four times the resistance of wire B, calculate (a) The ratio of the cross-sectional areas of the wires. (b) the ratio of the radii of the wires. 3. Find the ammeter reading when the circuit is closed. 4. For the circuit shown in the diagram, calculate (a) The resultant resistance (b) The total current (c) Voltage across 7 ohm resistor 5. Calculate the total resistance in diagrams (a) and (b) . 6. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the network across the points A and B. [156]

7. Calculate the effective resistance between the points A and B in the network shown below. CHAPTER: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT PASSAGE BASED QUESTION: 1. Electromagnetic Induction was first discovered way back in the 1830’s by Michael Faraday. Faraday noticed that when he moved a permanent magnet in and out of a coil or a single loop of wire it induced an Electro Motive Force or emf, in other words a Voltage, and therefore a current was produced. So what Michael Faraday discovered was a way of producing an electrical current in a circuit by using only the force of a magnetic field and not batteries. This then led to a very important law linking electricity with magnetism, Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction Michael Faraday’s famous law of electromagnetic induction states: “that a voltage is induced in a circuit whenever relative motion exists between a conductor and a magnetic field and that the magnitude of this voltage is proportional to the rate of change of the flux”. In other words, Electromagnetic Induction is the process of using magnetic fields to produce voltage, and in a closed circuit, a current. 1a. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is i. the process of charging a body. ii. the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil. iii. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil. iv. the process of rotating a coil at an electric motor. 1b. What is the condition of an electromagnetic induction? i. there must be a relative motion between the coil of wire and galvanometer ii. there must be a relative motion between the galvanometer and a magnet iii. there must be a relative motion between galvanometer and generator iv. there must be a relative motion between the coil of wire and a magnet 1c. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly. The induced potential difference i. more in (i) than in (ii) case ii. more in (ii) than in (i) case iii. same in both iv. can’t say 2. The motor or an electrical motor is a device that has brought about one of the biggest advancements in the fields of engineering and technology ever since the invention of electricity. A motor is nothing [157]

but an electro-mechanical device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. It’s because of motors, life is what it is today in the 21st century. Without the motor, we had still been living in Sir Thomas Edison’s Era where the only purpose of electricity would have been to glow bulbs. There are different types of motor developed for different specific purposes. In simple words, we can say a device that produces rotational force is a motor. The very basic principle of functioning of an electrical motor lies on the fact that force is experienced in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field and the current, when field and current are made to interact with each other. Ever since the invention of motors, a lot of advancements has taken place in this field of engineering and it has become a subject of extreme importance for modern engineers. This particular web page takes into consideration the fact as mentioned above and provides a detailed description of all major electrical motors and motoring parts being used in the present era. 2a. Electric motor converts i. Mechanical energy into electrical energy ii. Mechanical energy into heat energy iii. Electrical energy into heat energy iv. Electrical energy into mechanical energy 2b. Commercial electric motors do not use i. an electromagnet to rotate the armature ii. effectively large number of turns of conducting wire in the current carrying coil iii. a permanent magnet to rotate the armature iv. a soft iron core on which the coil is wound 2c. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by i. Fleming’s left-hand rule. ii. Fleming’s right hand rule. iii. Right hand thumb rule. iv. Left hand thumb rule. VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARKERS) 1. What is the pattern of the magnetic field lines around a straight conductor carrying current? 2. If the no. of turns of a circular current carrying coil are doubled, then how will the magnetic field produced by it change? 3. How can you say that the magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid. 4. Identify the poles of a magnet in the figure. 5. State the effect of a magnetic field on the path of a moving charged particle. [158]

6. Why does a compass needle show deflection near a current carrying conductor? 7. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it. 8. When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field the largest? OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. A soft iron bar is inserted inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid: (a) Will decrease (b) Will increase (c) Will become zero (d) Will remain the same 2. A current carrying conductor is held in exactly vertical direction. In order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around the conductor, the current should be passed in the conductor: (a) From top to bottom (b) From left to right (c) From bottom to top (d) From right to left 3. An induced emf is produced when a magnet is moved into a coil. The magnitude of induced emf does not depend on: (a) The speed with which the magnet is moved (b) The number of turns of the coil (c) The resistivity of the wire of the coil (d) The strength of the magnet 4. A positive charge is moving towards a person. The direction of magnetic field lines will be in (a) Clockwise direction (b) Anticlockwise direction (c) Vertically upward direction (d) Vertically downward direction 5. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer forming a loop and a magnet is: A: Held stationary B: Moved away along its axis C: Moved towards along its axis There will be a induced current in: (a) A only (b) A and B only (c) B and C only (d) A, B and C [159]

6. The shape of the magnetic field lines produced by a current carrying conductor are: (a) Straight lines (b) Concentric circles (c) Concentric ellipse (d) Concentric parabolas 7. An alpha particle is diverted towards the west and is deflected towards north by a field. The field is magnetic. What will be the direction of the field? a. Towards south b. towards east c. downward d. upward 8. The magnetic field is the strongest at (a) middle of the magnet. (b) north pole. (c) south pole. (d) both poles. 9. For a current in a long straight solenoid N-pole and S-pole are created at the two ends. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is – (a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. (b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed inside the coil. (c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet. (d) The N-pole and S-pole exchange position when the direction of current through the solenoid is reversed. 10. The direction of the magnetic field at a point P above the wire (lying in the plane of paper) carrying current as shown in the figure is (a) towards North (b) towards South (c) into the page (d) out of the page 11. Potential difference between a live wire and a neutral wire is [160]

(a) 200 Volt (b) 150 Volt (c) 210 Volt (d) 220 Volt 12. A bar magnet is broken into three parts X, Y and Z. Which diagram shows the poles in X, Y and Z? 13. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when the key is on. The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti- clockwise and clockwise, respectively. The magnetic field lines point from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to (a) A (b) B (c) A if the current is small and B if the current is large (d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large 14. In the arrangement shown in figure, there are two coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod. Initially, the key is not inserted. Then, the key is inserted and later removed. Then, (a) the deflection in the galvanometer remains zero throughout. (b) there is a momentary deflection in the galvanometer but it dies out shortly and there is no effect when the key is removed. [161]

(c) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly, the deflections are in the same direction. (d) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly, the deflections are in opposite directions. Thus, the galvanometer shows momentary deflections in opposite directions. ASSERTION & REASON In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following: (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true. 1. Assertion: Only a change in magnetic field lines linked with coil will induce current in the coil. Reason: The presence of large magnetic flux through the coil maintains a current in a closed circuit coil. 2. Assertion: When the direction of velocity of moving charge is perpendicular to the magnetic field, it experiences a maximum force. Reason: Force on the moving charge does not depend on the direction of the magnetic field in which it moves. 3. Assertion: Steel core is used as an electromagnet. Reason: Steel gets permanently magnetised when the current flows through the coil wound around. 4. Assertion (A) : Two bar magnets attract when they are brought near to each other with the same pole. Reason (R) : Unlike poles will attract each other 5. Assertion (A) : Magnetic field lines never intersect. Reason (R) : At a particular point the magnetic field has only one direction. 6. Assertion (A) : In Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the direction of magnetic field, force and current are mutually perpendicular. Reason (R) : Fleming's Left hand Rule is applied to measure the induced current. 7. Assertion (A) : When two bulbs are operated on the same voltage supply, having power 60 W and 100 W then 100 W bulb has less resistance than 60 W. Reason (R) : The power of the bulb is directly proportional to the square of the voltage. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKERS) 1. An electric fuse of rating 3 A is connected in a circuit in which an electric iron of power 1 kW is connected which operates at 220V. What would happen? 2. State the observation made by Oersted on the basis of his experiment with current carrying conductors. [162]

3. A current carrying straight wire held perpendicular to the plane of paper and current passes through this conductor in the vertically upward direction. What is the direction of the magnetic field produced around it? 4. Why and when does a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience force? List the factors on which direction of this force depends? 5. A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation for the following cases, and give reason for the same in each case. (a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased. (b) The compass needle is displaced away from the wire. 6. Magnetic field lines of two magnets are shown in fig. A and fig. B. Select the figure that represents the correct pattern of field lines. Give reasons for your answer. Also name the poles of the magnets facing each other. 7.Two coils A and B of insulated wires are kept close to each other. Coil A is connected to a galvanometer while coil B is connected to a battery through a key. What would happen if (i) a current is passed through coil B by plugging the key, and (ii) the current is stopped by removing the plug from the key? Explain your answer mentioning the name of the phenomenon involved. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKERS) 1. A coil made of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen to the deflection of the galvanometer if this coil is moved towards a stationary bar magnet and then moved away from it? Give reason for your answer and name the phenomenon involved. 2. (a) What are ‘magnetic field lines’? How is the direction of a magnetic field at a point determined? (b) Draw two field lines around a bar magnet along its length on its two sides and mark the field directions on them by arrow marks. 3. Write one application of each of the following: (a) Right-hand thumb rule (b) Fleming’s left-hand rule (c) Fleming’s right hand rule 4. State one main difference between A.C. and D.C. Why is A.C. preferred over D.C. for long range transmission of electric power? Name one source each of D.C. and A.C. 5. What is short circuiting? State one factor/condition that can lead to it. Name a device in the household that acts as a safety measure for it. State the principle of its working. 6. What is meant by solenoid? How does a current carrying solenoid behave? Give its main use. [163]

7. With the help of a diagram of experimental setup describe an activity to show that the force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field increases with increase in field strength. 8. Define electromagnetic induction? Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B? Explain. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKERS) 1. Explain the construction and working of an electric motor using a well labelled diagram. 2. (a) State Fleming's left-hand rule. (b) Write the principle of working of an electric motor. (c) Explain the function (i) Armature (ii) Brushes (iii) Split ring. 3. (a) Describe an activity to demonstrate the pattern of magnetic field lines around a straight conductor carrying current. (b) State the rule to find the direction of magnetic field associated with a current carrying conductor. (c) What is the shape of a current carrying conductor whose magnetic field pattern resembles that of a bar-magnet? 4. Two coils C1 and C2are wrapped around a non-conducting cylinder. Coil C1is connected to a battery and key and C2 with galvanometer G. On pressing the key (K) , current starts flowing in the coil C1. State your observation in the galvanometer: (i) When key K is pressed on (ii) When current in the coil C1 is switched off. (iii) When the current is passed continuously through coil C1 (iv) Name and state the phenomenon responsible for the above observation. Write the name of the rule that is used to determine the direction of current produced in the phenomena. 5. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the paper. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise. With the help of a diagram, explain how the direction of the magnetic field can be determined inside and outside the loop. Name the law used to find the direction of the magnetic field. [164]

SOCIAL SCIENCE SUBJECT CODE: 087 [165]

HISTORY CHAPTER-1 RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE MCQ: 1. Arrange the following events related to the formation of nation-state of Britain in chronological order: I. Act of Union between England and Scotland. II. English Parliament seized power from the Monarchy. III. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom. IV. Catholic revolt against British dominance. Options: a) III – I – II – IV b) I – II – III – IV c) IV – I – II – III d) II – I – IV – III 2. Which of the following groups of powers collectively defeated Napoleon? a) England, France, Italy, Russia b) England, Austria, Spain, Russia c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain d) Britain, Russia, Prussia, Italy 3. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because a) it ensures protection to all inhabitants. b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens. c) it ensures Parliamentary form of govern-ment to its inhabitants. d) It ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants 4. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct? (i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. (ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by a member of the royal family. (iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws for all citizens. (iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France. a) (ii) and (iii) b) (ii) and (iv) c) (i) and (iii) d) (iii) and (iv) 5. Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany? a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) — Kaiser William I. b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister). c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher. d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich. 6. Who founded the revolutionary militia ‘Red Shirt’? [166]

a) Wilson b) Tsar Alexander II c) Garibaldi d) Metternich 7. What mission did the revolutionaries declare as the destiny to the French people? a) to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism - to help other peoples of Europe to become nations. b) to make a one nation state c) to become a democracy d) to become sovereign 8. Which territories were included under the Habsburg Empire? a) Alpine regions – the Tyrol, Austria Hungry and the Sudetenland , Bohemia, Lombardy and Venetia b) Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland c) Bohemia, Lombardy and Venetia d) Sudetenland , Bohemia, Lombardi 9. ____________ wars over seven years – with Austria, Denmark and France – ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification? a) four b) three c) six d) two 10. Which country began to use language as a weapon of national resistance? a) Prussia b) Hungary c) Poland d) Austria SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS: 1. Napoleon’s administrative measures had Revolutionized the whole administration. Comment. 3 2. Discuss the role of women in the Nationalist Movement in Europe. 3 3. What was the cause of the Silesian weavers uprising? 3 4. What were the main features of the European Aristocracy? 3 5. How did the concept of Nation-State develop in Europe? 3 6. What were the reactions of the local people to the French rule in the areas they captured? 3 7. Explain the conditions which were viewed as obstacles to economic exchange and growth and by the new commercial classes. How did it end in 1834? 5 8. Describe the role played by culture in creating the European concept of nation. 5 9. “The French Revolution left an indelible mark on the world history” Evaluate this statement. 5 10. What had happened during the year following 1815 when the fear of repression drove many liberal nationalists underground? Explain. 5 11. 11.How did nationalism aligned with imperialism become the cause of the First World War? Explain. 5 [167]

PASSAGE BASED QUESTIONS 1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions: The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England, where industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent. This was especially so in textile production, which was carried out mainly in homes or small workshops and was only partly mechanised. In those regions of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in town and country. I) The first half of the 19th century saw an enormous increase in … a) Temperature b) Population c) employment d) pollution II) Small producers in town were often faced with stiff competition from: a) Goods of big producers b) Imports of cheap machine made goods from England. c) Fine handmade goods d) Cheap second hand goods III) The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread……….. In towns. a) Pauperism b) prosperity c) popularity d) crime IV) The reasons for the poverty of peasants were……. a) Illiteracy b) feudal dues and obligations c) population d) unemployment 2. Read the given passage and answer the following questions One such individual was the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini. Born in Genoa in 1807, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. As a young man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria. He subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne, whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states. Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty. Following his model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’. I) Why was Mazzini sent into exile in 1831? II) Why Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’. III) Why did Mazzini founded secret societies during his exile? IV) Name the other revolutionary of Italy who had played an important role in the unification of Italy. [168]

CHAPTER- 3 NATIONALISM IN INDIA MCQ: 1. After which of the following events, Mahatma Gandhi abruptly withdrew the Non- Cooperation Movement? a) Jalianwalan Bagh Massacre b) Rowllat Act b) c) Chauri-Chaura d) Dandi March 2. In 1919 Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali started which of the following movement in India? a) Khilafat Movement b) Quit India Movement c) Civil Disobedience Movement d) Non-cooperation Movement 3. Who formed the Swaraj Party in 1922 to press for a return to Council politics? a) C R Das and Jawahar Lal Nehru b) Jawahar Lal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose c) C R Das and Motilal Nehru d) Jawaharlal Nehru and Motilal Nehru. 4. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did the Rowlatt Act arouse popular outrage? a) It curtailed the freedom of religion. b) It curbed trade union activities. c) It was against the Champaran Satyagraha. d) It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. 5. Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha Movement among cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad in the year a) 1869 b) 1915 c) 1917 d) 1918 6. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order from first to last: a) Jallianwalla Bagh Massacre b) Gandhiji travels to Champaran c) Start of Non-cooperation Movement d) The Rowlatt Act was passed. 7. Which party did not boycott the Council elections held in the year 1921? a) Swaraj Party b) Justice Party c) Congress Party d) Muslim League 8. Which industrialist attacked colonial control over Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement? a) Dinshaw Petit b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas c) Dwarkanath Tagore [169]

d) Seth Hukum Chand 9. Who created the first image of Bharat Mata? a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay b) Subhash Chandra Bose c) Rabindranath Tagore d) Abanindranath Tagore 10. Which of the following combinations of colours was there in the ‘Swaraj flag’ designed by Gandhiji in 1921? a) red, green and white b) red, green and yellow c) orange, white and green d) Yellow, white and green SHORT & LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS: 1. What was the impact of the Rowlatt Act Satyagraha on the political situation in India? Describe. 3 2. What was Gandhiji’s idea of Satyagraha? Why were many congress leaders reluctant to boycott council elections? 3 3. Describe any three major problems faced by the peasants of Awadh in the days of Non- Cooperation Movement. 3 4. “Many Dalit leaders were keen on a different political solution to the problems of the community.” Explain the statement with examples. 3 5. The Non-Cooperation Movement in the cities gradually slowed down for a variety of reasons. Examine the reasons. 3 6. How did the Khilafat issue become part of the National Movement? 3 7. Explain any three measures taken by British administration to repress the movement started against the Rowlatt Act. 3 8. Explain the circumstances under which Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931. 3 9. How did the ‘First World War’ create a new economic and political situation in India? Explain with examples. 5 10. “Not all social groups were moved by the abstract concept of “Swaraj”. Support the statement in the light of the Civil Disobedience Movement in the 1930s. 5 11. How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a sense of collective belonging? 5 12. Plantation workers had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi’s ideas and the notion of ‘Swaraj’. Support the statement. 5 13. Explain how Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930. 14. Explain the limitations of the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’. 5 5 15. “The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-Cooperation Movement”. Support the statement with examples. 5 PASSAGE BASED QUESTIONS 1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions [170]

Mahatma Gandhi on Satyagraha ‘It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active … ‘ Satyagraha is not a physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever. ‘ Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. It burns the flame of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma … ‘It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war-god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own ...’ I) For what the term ‘passive resistance’ is used in the passage? II) What was ‘Satyagraha’ according to Gandhiji? III) Where was satyagraha used by Gandhiji first of all? III) Name the early satyagraha organised by Gandhiji after coming to India. 2. Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. By the end of the nineteenth century many Indians began feeling that to instill a sense of pride in the nation, Indian history had to be thought about differently. The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves. In response, Indians began looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements. They wrote about the glorious developments in ancient times when art and architecture, science and mathematics, religion and culture, law and philosophy, crafts and trade had flourished. This glorious time, in their view, was followed by a history of decline, when India was colonised. These nationalist histories urged the readers to take pride in India’s great achievements in the past and struggle to change the miserable conditions of life under British rule. These efforts to unify people were not without problems. When the past being glorified was Hindu, when the images celebrated were drawn from Hindu iconography, then people of other communities felt left out. I) Why history was reinterpreted to create a feeling of nationalism? II) How colonialism destroyed the glory of India? III) Which problems were associated with reinterpretation of history? IV) Which other methods were followed by the leaders to bring the sense of collective belongingness? [171]

POLITICAL SCIENCE CHAPTER-1 POWER SHARING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is: a) Power Sharing b) Central Government c) Majoritarianism d) Community Government 2. Which of the following features are common to Indian and Belgian forms of power-sharing arrangements? A) Power is concentrated in the central government. B) Power is shared among different organs of government. C) Power is shared among different social groups. D) Power is shared among different parties and takes the form of competition. (a) A, B, C, D (b) B, C and D (c) A and C (d) A, C and D 3. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities in Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s? 1 a) Both the communities demanded special powers. b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority Dutch-speaking community. c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the minority French speaking community d) Both the communities were equal in social-economic ladder and this was resented by the French speaking community. 4. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of federal division of powers. 1 a) Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government b) Sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments c) The constitution clearly lays down powers of different levels of government d) There is no vertical division of powers. 5. Which is a prudential reason for power sharing? a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political order. b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy c) Both the above d) None of the above 6. Choose the correct option: Power sharing is desirable because it helps: (a) To increase pressure on the government. [172]

(b) To reduce possibilities of conflicts. (c) To generate awareness among people. (d) To increase the percentage of voters. 7. The word ‘ethnic’ signifies: (a) different religions. (b) social division on shared culture. (c) a violent conflict between opposite groups. (d) a careful calculation of gains and losses. 8. Who elects the community government in Belgium? (a) People belonging to one language community only. (b) By the leader of Belgium. (c) The citizens of the whole country. (d) The community leaders of Belgium 9. Which one of the following statements about power-sharing arrangements is correct? (a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions. (b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions. (c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions. (d) Power-sharing is not necessary at all. 10. When European countries came together to form the European Union (EU), ………. was chosen as the headquarters. a) Brussels b) Denmark c) Paris d) Netherlands 11. Which one of the following options signifies this cartoon? 1 a) Problem of power sharing b) Problem of running Germany’s grand coalition government. c) Power to be shared among two parties d) All of the above [173]

12. What is the relationship between democracy and concentration of power: 1 a) In democracy, two leaders are required to run the government. b) In democracy, power resides in the hands of leaders. c) Concentration of power is not good for democracy. d) None of the above SHORT AND LONG QUESTIONS 1. Write one prudential and one moral reason of power sharing. 3 2. What is meant by the system of ‘checks and balances’? 3 3. Compare the different ways in which the Belgians and the Sri Lankans have dealt with the problem of cultural diversity. 3 4. How is Belgium’s power-sharing path different from any other country? 3 5. Describe the geographical and ethnic composition of Sri Lanka. 3 6. How did the Sri Lankan Tamils struggle for their demands? 3 7. What are different forms of power sharing in modern democracies? Give an example of each of these. 5 8. Describe Majoritarian measures adopted by the Sri Lankan Government to establish Sinhala supremacy. 5 9. Why did the Sri Lankan Tamils feel alienated in spite of their long stay in Sri Lanka? 5 PASSAGE BASED QUESTIONS: 1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions Thus, two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power sharing. Firstly, power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. Imposing the will of majority community over others may look like an attractive option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to the majority as well. There is a second, [174]

deeper reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed. A legitimate government is one where citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system. I) What are the two sets of reasons for power sharing? II) How power sharing ensures the stability of political order? III) Why does tyranny of the majority bring ruin to it? IV) What is the moral reason for power sharing? 2. Read the given passage and answer the following questions: Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called the federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government. The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by different names in different countries. In India, we call them State Governments. This system is not followed in all countries. There are many countries where there are no provincial or state governments. But in those countries like ours, where there are different levels of government, the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is what they did in Belgium, but was refused in Sri Lanka. This is called federal division of power. The same principle can be extended to levels of government lower than the State government, such as the municipality and panchayat. Let us call division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government vertical division of power. I) How is power shared in a federal government? II) How is the federal government different from unitary government? III) Why is power sharing essential for democracy? IV) Who ensures the power sharing in a federal government? CHAPTER 2 FEDERALISM MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following is incorrect about the unitary form of government? a) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central of government b) The central government can pass an order to the provincial government c) A state government is answerable to central government d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the constitution 2. What is true regarding source of revenue in a federal system a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue b) States are dependent for revenue or funds on the central government c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy d) States have no financial autonomy 3. Which are the basic objective of a federal system [175]

a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country b) To accommodate regional diversity c) To share power among different communities d) Both (a) and (b) 4. Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which of the following holds true in the case of India? a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity. b) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language. c) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all other languages. d) None of the above 5. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those which hold true for decentralisation after 1992. a) Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own. b) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies. c) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. d) No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes. i) b) and c) ii) a) and c) iii) a) and d) iv) b) and d) 6. The ………… Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List a) State government b) Central government c) District government d) Municipal government 7. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government, it is called ………… a) Centralisation b) Decentralisation c) Concentration d) urbanisation 8. An ideal federal system must have a) Mutual trust between different levels of government b) Agreement to live together c) Both of these d) None of these 9. [176]

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon? a) Demand for a separate state from a democratic government. b) Democratic government accepts demand based on separate states c) Running a coalition government d) Central government undermines the powers of the state governments 10. Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon? a) Monarchy b) Unitary government c) dictatorship d) Challenges to run a coalition government SHORT AND LONG QUESTIONS [177]

1. Differentiate between unitary and federal forms of government. 2. Explain five changes towards decentralization brought in the Constitution after the Amendments made in 1992. 3. Mention any five main features which make India a federal country. 4. Why are federations necessary? Highlight any three steps taken by India towards making it a federation. 5. Distinguish between ‘coming together federations’ and ‘holding together federations’ with examples. India comes under which type of federation. 6. What is the meaning of decentralisation? Explain any four provisions that have been made towards decentralisation in India after the constitutional amendment in 1992. 7. Why has Federalism succeeded in India? What policies adopted by India have ensured this success? 8. Why did the makers of our Constitution declare India to be a ‘Union of states? Why were some sub political units of India given a special status? 9. Critically analyse the centre-state relations prior to 1990 and after. 10. “The creation of linguistic states was the first and major test for democratic politics in our country”. Justify this statement. 11. Examine the language policy of India as an important aspect of our constitution. 12. Explain the structure of rural local government in India. PASSAGE BASED QUESTIONS 1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions: A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned State.Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non- Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of English continues. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English Speaking elite. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in. I) Why any language is not given the status of a national language in India? II) What is a scheduled language? III) Why did the use of English for official purposes restarted? IV) What is the policy of the central government to promote Hindi in non-Hindi states? [178]

CHAPTER-6 POLITICAL PARTIES MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which one of the following countries has one party system? a) China b) Indo-China c) Japan d) Germany 2. A recognised political party is a) a party that is present in only one of the federal units. b) a party that is present in several and all units of the federation c) a party that is based on regional and communal diversities. d) A party recognised by the election commission with all the privileges and facilities. 3. Which of these is not a good option for a democratic state? a) One-party system b) Two-party system c) Multi-party system d) None of the above 4. An Affidavit signifies a) Signed document where a person makes a sworn statement regarding his or her antecedents. b) A law to check the menace. c) Legal document to declare the academic qualification. d) All of the above 5. Multi-party system advocates: i. The political parties which governs the country ii. The government is formed by various parties coming together iii. Does Not permit free competition for power iv. This system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation. a) i, ii and iii b) i, iii and iv c) iv and iii d) ii and iv 6. The rise of political parties is directly linked to…. a) Emergence of representative democracies b) Large scale societies c) Mechanism of restrain and support the government d) All of these 7. Any party with 6% of total votes in Lok Sabha or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least 4 seats in Lok Sabha is recognized as…. a) National Party b) Regional Party c) State Party d) Factional Party 8. Which of these is the challenge faced by the political party? (a) Lack of internal democracy [179]

(b) Dynastic succession (c) Growing role of money and muscle power (d) All of these 9. Which of the following challenges to political parties is depicted in this cartoon (below)? a) Meaningful choice to the voters b) Money and muscle power c) Dynastic succession d) d) Lack of internal democracy . 10. What does this picture (below) show? a) There is the rule of one party in America b) Corporate America controls all major institutions of the country. c) The rule of the party whose symbol is elephant won the elections. d) Presidents have no stake in the decisions, people are the priority. [180]

SHORT AND LONG ANSWER 1. How can common man help to improve political parties? 2. Describe the role of opposition in Democracy. 3. Describe the key ideological features of Bhartiya Janta Party? 4. What are the features of the ideology of the Indian National Congress Party? 5. State any two advantages of the multi-party system. In what way is an alliance different from a coalition government? 6. State various functions that political parties performed in a democracy. 7. Distinguish between National Party and Regional Party 8. Suggest some reforms to strengthen parties so that they perform their functions well. 9. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the statement with examples. 10. Describe in brief the recent efforts that have been made in India to reform political parties and its leaders. PASSAGE BASED QUESTIONS 1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions: The third challenge is about the growing role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during elections. Since parties are focused only on winning elections, they tend to use short-cuts to win elections. They tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party. In some cases, parties support criminals who can win elections. Democrats all over the world are worried about the increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics. i. What is the growing role of money and muscle power in politics? 1 ii. How does the election commission keep control on the expenditure of the political parties? 1 iii. Give two suggestions to reform political parties. 2 [181]

CHAPTER -7 OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which one of the following features is common to most of the democracies? a) They have formal Constitution b) They hold regular elections c) They have political parties d) All of the above 2. Which one of the following is not the way to resolve a conflict in a democracy? a) Mass mobilisation b) Using parliament c) Doing justice d) Armed rebellion 3. ‘Equal treatment of women’ is a necessary ingredient of a democratic society. This means that: a) women are actually always treated with respect. b) it is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights. c) Most societies across the world are now increasingly women dominated. d) women are now treated as equals in the political arena. 4. Consider the following statements. Which of these do not hold true for non-democratic regimes? a) These do not have to bother about public opinion. b) These take less time to arrive at a decision. c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force. d) These often suppress internal social differences. 5. To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of the following practices and institutions would one look for? a) Regular, free and fair elections b) Open public debate on major policies c) Citizens’ right to information about the government d) All of the above 6. Which of the following statements is correct? a) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups b) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups d) Both (a) and (b) 7. Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democracy? a) The government don’t want to take decisions b) The government is hesitant in taking decisions c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation d) A democratic government is not interested in taking quick decisions 8. In the context of democracies, what is successfully done by Democracies? a) Eliminated conflicts among people b) Eliminated economic inequalities among people c) Eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated [182]

d) Rejected the idea of political inequality 9. What does the above cartoon signify? a) Governmental Secrecy b) Additional need of funds for running government c) More powers and autonomy of the government d) Proportional representation in the union government 10. Which of the following concepts is highlighted in this cartoon? a) Accommodation of social diversity b) Economic inequalities among nations c) Reduction of poverty d) Dignity and freedom of citizens. SHORT AND LONG QUESTIONS 1. A democratic government has to be accountable, responsive and legitimate. Discuss. 2. What are the challenges faced by democratic governments? 3. Write a brief note on freedom and dignity to citizens in democratic and non- democratic countries. [183]

4. The prime duty of any democratic government is to reduce inequality in wealth among its citizens and eliminate poverty. Discuss. 5. ‘Democracy accommodates social diversities.’ Support the statement with examples. 6. ‘A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic projects.’ Justify the statement. PASSAGE BASED QUESTIONS 1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions: Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities. A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health. In actual life, democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large proportion of our voters and no party will like to lose their votes. Yet democratically elected governments do not appear to be as keen to address the question of poverty as you would expect them to. The the situation is much worse in some other countries. In Bangladesh, more than half of its population lives in poverty. People in several poor countries are now dependent on the rich countries even for food supplies. a) What do you understand by ‘political equality’? b) What are the reasons for growing economic inequalities in India? c) Why democratic governments do not address the question of poverty as we would expect them to? d) Why do people want to live in a democratic country as compared to non-democratic country? ******************************************************** [184]

GEOGRAPHY CHAPTER 1 - RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT MCQ 1. The reason for land degradation in the state of Chhattisgarh is a) Overgrazing b) Deforestation due to mining c) Over irrigation d) Dumping of industrial waste 2. The process of transformation of things available in our environment involves an inter- dependent relationship between a) Nature, Technology, Institutions b) Human beings, Technology, Institutions c) Nature, Technology, Resources d) Nature, Human beings, Institutions 3. Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs, but humans lack appropriate technology a) Reserve b) Stock c) Potential resource d) Actual Resource 4. How much area of the land is occupied by Plains in India? a) 30% b) 27% c) 40% d) 43% 5. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is a) Fallow land b) Culturable waste land c) Current fallow land d) Waste land 6. This soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay a) Alluvial b) Black c) Red 7. Land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years a) Current fallow b) Other than current fallow c) Current fallow 8. The soil is loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse grained in upper slopes a) Arid soil b) Forest soil c) Red and Yellow soil 9. Intensively leached soil of the monsoon climate a) Laterite soil [185]

b) Black soil c) Alluvial soil Long Questions Q1. “Resources are free gifts of nature”-how indiscriminate use of them will give rise to various problems? Give three points. 3 Q2. What planning is required for balanced use of resources at various levels? Explain. 3 Q3. The state of Punjab has 80% of its total area under net sown area whereas Arunachal Pradesh has less than 10% of its total area under net sown area. Give three points each. 3 Q4. “The process of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two”. State the various human and natural factors causing the imbalance. 2+1= 3 Q5. Suggest various ways to tackle the problem of land degradation in various parts of the country. 5 Q6. “Regions of alluvial soil are intensively cultivated and densely populated”-give the reasons for the same. Also explain the age wise distribution of this soil. 2+3=5 Q7. State the factors which play an important role in the formation of black soil. Explain when this soil develops cracks or becomes sticky. 2+3=5 Q8. State various measures which can be taken to prevent soil erosion in mountainous, desert and in plain land. 2+2+1=5 Q9. Give reason why- 2+1+2=5 A) Laterite soil lacks in humus content B) Red soil develops a reddish colour C) Infiltration of water is restricted in Arid soil Section -IV 1. We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future generations too. Ninety-five percent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. At present there are about 130 million hectares of degraded land in India. i. What according to you are the various human activities (name two) responsible for degradation of land. 1 ii. Suggest which natural force plays a predominant role in causing damage to land? 1 iii. What is Land Degradation? 1 iv. Suggest any two measures which can be taken to prevent land degradation in a place? 1 2. Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. It is the medium of plant growth and supports different types of living organisms on the earth. The soil is a living system. It takes millions of years to form soil up to a few cm in depth. Various forces of nature and activities of decomposers etc. contribute to the formation of soil. Chemical and organic changes which take place in the soil are equally important. i. Define Soil. 1 ii. Name any four factors which helps in the formation of soil. 2 iii. Name a few forces of nature which contribute to the formation of soil. 1 [186]

CHAPTER-4 (AGRICULTURE) SECTION-I (MCQ) Q1. _________ is another name for Jhumming Cultivation in Andhra Pradesh a)Dhaiya b) Kumari c)Khil d) Podu or Penda Q2. The crop which is used both as food and fodder is ________. a) Maize b) Wheat c) Rice d) Sugarcane Q3. During which season important crops like watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops are produced? a) Zaid Season b) Kharif Season c) Rabi Season d) All of the above Q4. Why is Agriculture important for Indian Economy? a) Two-third of its population on agricultural activity b) Agriculture is a Primary Activity in India c) Agriculture produces raw material for various industries d)All of the above Q5. Important crops like paddy, maize, jowar, etc. are grown during which of the following seasons? a) Summer b) Winter c)Spring d) Monsoon Q6. _______ is a scheme introduced by the Government of India for the benefits of the farmers. a) Farmer Scheme b) Jan Dhan Yojana c) Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana d) Kisan Credit Card Q7. Grouping of small land holdings into a bigger one is called _________. a) Ceiling on land holdings b) Consolidation of land Holdings c) Co-operative farmings d) Collectivisation Q8. Package technology introduced to improve Indian agriculture a) White Revolution b) Yellow Revolution c) Green Revolution d) Blue Revolution Q9. An institution setup to modernize Indian agriculture a) ICAR b) PAIS c)KCC d) MET department Q10. Which of the following crops help in restoring fertility by fixing Nitrogen from the air? a) Tur b) Moong c) Grams d) Peas SECTION-II (Answer the following) (3) Q1. Why is subsistence agriculture still practiced in certain parts of the country? Q2. State any three features of Intensive Agriculture. (3) Q3. Why are Indian farmers facing big challenges from international competitions? Mention three points. (3) [187]

Q4. Enumerate the contribution of Agriculture to national income and employment (3) Q5. What are the problems faced by Indian farmers today. State any three points (3) Q6. Describe any five characteristics of plantation agriculture. (5) Q7. Wheat and Rice farming in India is fairly different from each other. Explain with the help of five points. (5) Q8. Tea cultivation is mainly confined to North-Eastern states of India while Coffee cultivation is confined to South-Western states of India. Explain. (5) Q9. Suggest the initiative taken by the government to ensure the increase in Agriculture production. (5) Q10.Which fiber crop is called golden fiber? Which is the most important region of its growth and why? Give one major reason why it is losing the market now. (5) SECTION-III Q1. State the climatic conditions required for the cultivation of Rubber (1) Q2. Why Rubber is known as Cash Crop (1) Q3. Name any two states which produce rubber. (1) SECTION-IV (Map Work) [188]

CHAPTER-6 (MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES) SECTION-I (MCQ) Q1. Which one of the following manufactures telephone, computer, etc? [189]

a) Electronic b) Chemical c)Cement d) Iron and Steel Q2. Name the industry classified on the basis of capital investment. a) Joint Sector b) Large Scale c) Public Sector d) Private Sector Q3. Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector? a) HAIL b) SAIL c) MNCC d) TATA Steel Q4. Most of India's Jute mills are located on the bank of _________. a) Hooghly River b) Ganga River c) Yamuna River d) Narmada River Q5. Which one of the following cities has emerged as the “Electronic Capital” of India? a) Delhi b) Kolkata c)Bengaluru d) Pune Q6. Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required to make steel in the ratio of approximately a) 1:2:4 b) 2:1:4 c) 4:2:1 d) 4:1:2 Q7. Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material? a) Alumunium b) Cement c) Sugar d) Jute Q8. The fertilizer industry is centered around the production of a) Organic Fertilizers b) Inorganic Fertilizers c) Nitrogenous Fertilizers d) Phosphate Fertilizers Q9. The Industry which requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum is a) Iron and Steel Industry b) Aluminum Industry c) Cement Industry d) All of the above Q10. The only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain is a) Agro-based industry b) Heavy industry c) Textile Industry d) None of the above SECTION-II Q1. Do you agree with the view that agriculture and industry go hand in hand? If yes, justify with the help of example. Q2. How can Indian agriculture be successful and profitable? Q3. What is an agglomeration economy? How do they help industries? Q4. Determine, why did Cotton textile industry concentrate in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat, in the early years? Q5. Name two cotton textile centres of Tamilnadu. Discuss two factors responsible for location of cotton mills in West Bengal where there is no cotton growing area. Q6. Critically evaluate why the cotton textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian economy. Q7. Analyse why sugar industries are shifting to southern and western states of India. Q8. “India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world, yet we are not able to perform to our full potential.” Justify the statement. Q9. Mention the role of Information technology in modern India. [190]

Q10. Discuss with examples, the role of industries in increasing pollution and degrading the environment. SECTION-III (MAP WORK) CHAPTER-7 LIFELINES OF NATIONAL ECONOMY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1. Name a port which is the deepest, land locked and well protected port of India. 2. Name a port which was developed for the purpose of export of Iron ore in Karnataka. 3. Water transport is classified into which two types? 4. Under which scheme every village in the country is linked with all seasoned motorable road? 5. Who maintains district roads? 6. When and where was the first train started in India? [191]

7. Name a port which serves a large and rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin. 8. Name any two major commodities which India imports from other countries. 9. Name the most important pipeline of India. 10. Name the terminal points of National waterway No.1 of India. LONG QUESTIONS 1. Which port was developed when Karachi went to Pakistan? Give any three characteristics of this port. 3 2. State the importance of waterways. Name any two national waterways of India. 3 3. “The roadways have an edge over the railways in India” -Explain by giving any six points. ½ x6=3 4. Differentiate between personal and mass communication. 3 5. “Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last three decades” -Explain by giving any five points. 5 6. “Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development of a country’’- Justify the statement by giving any five points. 5 7. “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity.” Support the statement with suitable examples. 5 8. Explain the various factors which affect the distribution pattern of railway networks in India with the help of example. State the importance of Railways in India. 3+2=5 9. What various things are transported through pipelines nowadays? State the importance of transportation through pipelines. 3+2=5 SECTION-IV 1. The air transport was nationalised in 1953. Air India provides international air services. Pawanhans Helicopters Ltd. provides helicopter services to Oil and Natural Gas Corporations in its off-shore operations, to inaccessible areas and difficult terrains like the north eastern states and the interior parts of J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Indian Airlines operations also extend to the neighbouring countries of South and South-East Asia and the Middle East. i. For which parts of India helicopter service is provided and why? 1+1=2 ii. Name a few neighbouring countries for which Indian airlines is providing its operation? 1 iii. What is meant by the word “Middle East’’? 1 2. India publishes a large number of newspapers and periodicals annually. They are of different types depending upon their periodicity. Newspapers are published in about 100 languages and dialects. India is the largest producer of feature films in the world. It produces short film, video feature films and video short films. The Central Board of Film Certification is the authority to certify both Indian and foreign films. i. Name the newspaper and periodicals according to periodicity. (any three) 1.5 ii. In which languages the largest number of newspapers are published? 1.5 iii. Give some examples of the types of films produced in India. 1 [192]

ECONOMICS CHAPTER 1: DEVELOPMENT VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. Read the statement given below and choose the correct option: Statement I : Averages are useful for making comparison Statement II : Averages does not tell us about the distribution of income a) Statement I is true but statement II is false b) Statement I is false but statement II is true c) both the statements are true d) both the statements are false 2. We can obtain Per Capita Income of a country by calculating: a) Total income of a person. b) By dividing the National Income by the Total Population of the country. c) Total value of all goods and services. d) The total exports of the country. 3. Which one of the following is not a measure of development in the Human Development Report of the UNDP? a) Per capita income in US $. b) Educational Level of the people. c) Body Mass Index. d) Life Expectancy at Birth. 4. Development of the country can generally be determined a) Its per capita Income b) Its average literacy rate c) Health status of its people d) All of the above 5. Per Capita Income is also known as: a) Total Income b) Average Income c) Gross Income d) Personal Income 6. Different people have different and conflicting notions of a country’s development. A fair and just path should be achieved. Interpret the concept discussed here: a) Social Development b) Cultural Development c) National Development d) Economic Development 7. The countries with per capita income of US $955 (2017) or less are termed as: a) Low Income Countries b) Developed countries c) Rich countries d) Middle Income Countries 8. What is the main criterion used by World Bank in classifying countries: a) Per Capita Income [193]

b) Human Development Index c) Total Income d) Body Mass Index 9. Human Development Report is published by: a) United Nations Development Progress b) United Nations Development Programme c) Unified Nations Developing Programme d) Unified Nations Development Progress 10. Per Capita Income is obtained by: a) Total Income divided by total population b) Total population divided by total income c) Total exports divided by total imports d) Total exports minus total imports 11. Which of the following is not a measure in Human Development Index a) mean years of schooling above 25 years age group b) Life Expectancy c) Per Capita Income d) Infant Mortality Rate VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. Why do different people have different notions of development? 2. Why do people have conflicting development goals? 3. Give examples where factors other than income are an important aspect of our lives. 4. State any two goals of development other than income. 5. What is total income? 6. Why is total income not such a good attribute for comparing countries? 7. What is average income/per capita income? 8. Why does Kerala have a low infant mortality rate? 9. What is Infant Mortality Rate? 10. What do you understand by Net Attendance Ratio? 11. How is literacy rate measured in India? 12. What do you understand by Sustainable Development? 13. How is Body Mass Index calculated? LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 3/ 5 MARKS) 14. Kerala with lower Per Capita Income has a better human development ranking as compared to Maharashtra. Explain. 15. Why is the issue sustainability important? Explain with the help of suitable examples. 16. Mention the examples of environmental degradation. 17. Mentions steps for environmental protection. 18. Explain the criterion used by World Bank classifying countries. 19. Explain the criterion used by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for comparing countries. 20. How is the criterion used by the UNDP different from the criterion used by World Bank for measuring development of different countries? [194]

21. What is Human Development? Explain its indicators. HOTS: 22. What is the basic criterion used by the World Bank for comparison of countries? 23. Give examples to show different persons can have different developmental goals. 24. Why have scientists been warning that the development process is not sustainable? 25. Mention that factors other than income that are important for development but cannot be measured. 26. \"Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well.\" Explain with the help of a suitable example. 27. \"While averages are useful for comparison, it hides disparities.\" Explain this statement and also give a suitable example. 28. Weight of Mohan is 55 kgs and height is 1.6 m. Calculate his BMI. 29. On the basis of the given table given below answer the following questions: a) Calculate average income of country A and B. 1 b) Which country will be considered to be more developed and why? 1 30. On the basis of the given table given below answer the following questions: 1X4=4 1. Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate because: a) It has low Net Attendance Ratio b) It has low literacy rate c) It has adequate provision of education and health facilities d) It has low infrastructure facilities 2. The number of children that die before the age of one ear as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year is known as: a) Net Attendance Ratio b) Literacy Rate c) Life Expectancy [195]

d) Infant Mortality Rate 3. Out the three states compared in the table, which state has better Human Development Ranking: a) Haryana b) Kerala c) Bihar d) All of the above 4. Which state has the highest Net Attendance Ratio: a) Haryana b) Kerala c) Bihar d) All of the above CHAPTER 2: SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY VERY SHORT QUESTIONS: 1. Which of the following is the feature of organised sector: a) Enterprise where terms of employment are regular b) It is outside the control of the government c) Jobs are not secure d) It provides low salary 2. Disguised Unemployment means a situation where people are : a) Unemployed for some part of the year b) Employed only for some part of the year. c) Employed but productivity is nil. d) Gainfully employed for the whole year 3. Tertiary sector includes which of the following: a) Agriculture, mining and fishing b) Transport, communication and banking c) Sugar mill, cotton textiles and steel industry d) None of the above 4. Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the organized sector: a) She/he gets a regular salary at the end of the month b) She/he is not paid for leaves c) She/he is paid medical allowances d) She/he got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she joined this work. 5. Which of the following is a feature of Public Sector: a) Ownership of assets is in the hands of private individuals or companies. b) Activities are guided by the motive to earn profit c) Activities are guided by the welfare of people d) None of these 6. Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing, is an activity of ____________________ sector. 7. Read the following statements and choose the correct option: [196]

Statement I: Intermediate goods are used up in producing final goods and services. Statement II: The value of final goods does not include the value of intermediate goods a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true 8. Choose the correct meaning of the organised sector: a) Terms of employment are regular. b) It is outside the control of the government. c) Employment is irregular d) Salary is low and irregular 9. Underemployment refers to the situation when a) people do not want to work b) people are lazy to work c) people are working less than their potential d) people are not willing to work 10. Kamala is a daily wage labourer. She gets no other allowances apart from her wages. She is not paid for the days she does not work. She did not get any formal letter of employment. Which of the following is applicable for Kanata who works in the organised sector? (a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month (b) She is paid for leave (c) She does not receive medical allowance (d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she joins work. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 1. On what basis do we classify sectors into primary, secondary and tertiary sector. 2. How is the tertiary sector different from other sectors? 3. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of which economic sector? 4. Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing, it is an activity of which economic sector? 5. The activities which generate services rather than goods, it is an activity of which economic sector? 6. Why is the value of intermediate goods not included while calculating Gross Domestic Product? 7. Define Gross Domestic Product. 8. Why are a large number of people still employed in the Primary Sector in India? 9. Define underemployment. 10. How are activities classified on the basis of employment conditions? 11. On what basis do we classify sectors into public and private sector? LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS 12. Explain the difference between primary, secondary and tertiary sector. 13. How do we count various goods and services and know the total production in each sector? OR [197]

How do we calculate the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? 14. Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Explain. 15. What does the history of developed countries indicate about the shifts that have taken place between sectors? 16. Give reasons for the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India. 17. “Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Give reasons to support your answer. 18. Compare and contrast changes in India with the pattern that was observed for developed countries. What changes between sectors were desired but did not happen in India? 19. What do you understand by disguised unemployment? Explain and give a suitable example. 20. Suggest measures to create employment opportunities in India. 21. Why is NREGA,2005 referred to as 'Right to Work'? 22. Mention the main features of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005. 23. Differentiate between organised and unorganised sectors. 24. Why is the organized sector preferred by the employees? Explain. 25. Workers are exploited in the unorganised sector. Give reasons in support of answer. 26. Compare and contrast activities and functions of Private and Public Sector. 27. Explain how the public sector contributes to economic development of India. CHAPTER 3: MONEY AND CREDIT VERY SHORT ANSWERS 1. Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and choose the correct option: ASSERTION: Formal sources of credit ask for collateral while lending. REASON: If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell. a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. b) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. c) Assertion is true, reason is false. d) Both assertion and reason are false. 2. Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R) and choose the correct option: ASSERTION: Modern currency is made of precious metals like gold and silver. REASON: Currency made of precious metals is accepted as a medium of exchange. a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. b) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. c) Assertion is true, reason is false. d) Both assertion and reason are false. 3. It is necessary that banks and cooperatives increase their lending, particularly in rural areas, so that____________________ Choose the correct option: a) Dependence on informal sources of credit reduces. b) Higher interest rate on loans is charged by formal sources of credit. c) Dependence on informal sources of credit increases. [198]

d) Lower interest rate on loans is charged by informal sources of credit. 4. Manohar is a small businessman, who needs credit to purchase inputs for production. He needs to decide whether to borrow a formal or informal source of credit. Which is the following statement is incorrect: a) Informal sources charge a higher rate of interest on loan. b) Informal sources use unfair means to recover loan. c) Formal sources charge a lower rate of interest on loan. d) Informal sources are supervised by the Reserve Bank of India. 5. Which of the following is an essential feature of barter system: a) Standard of deferred payment b) Measure of value c) Double coincidence of wants d) Store of Value 6. Choose the incorrect option: a) The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the central government. b) Modern currency is made of precious metals like gold and silver. c) Modern currency is authorized by the government of the country. d) No individual in India can refuse a payment made in rupees. 7. Which one of the following is a modern form of currency? a) Gold b) Silver c) Deposits with banks d) None of the above 8. Which of the following authorities issues currency notes on behalf of the government? a) Government of India b) The State Bank of India c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development d) Reserve Bank of India 9. The informal source of credit does not include which of the following: a) Moneylender b) Employer c) Cooperatives d) Friends 10. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange? a) Because the currency is authorised by the government of the country. b) Because it is liked by the people who use it. c) Because the use of currency has its origin in ancient times. d) Because the currency is authorised by the World Bank 11. An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment refers to: a) Debt b) Deposit c) Credit d) Collateral 12. Money-lenders usually demand ‘security’ from the borrower. What is the formal word used for the ‘security’, such as land, vehicle, livestock, building, etc.: [199]

a) Deposit b) Collateral c) Credit d) Payment 13. Terms of Credit includes which of the following: a) Collateral b) Credit c) Store of Value d) Deposits 14. Why are demand deposits considered as money? 15. Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? 16. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: Dinesh has taken a loan of Rs. 20 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house at an interest rate of 10 percent per annum to be paid over 15 years. Dinesh had to submit the documents of his employment and salary records. The papers of the new house will be kept with the bank till the entire loan amount is repaid with interest. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option: 1X4=4 Q1. The bank retained the papers of the new house as: a) Statement b) Interest c) Collateral d) Payment Q2 Dinesh submitted his employment and salary records to the bank as which of the following component of terms of credit: a) Interest b) Collateral c) Documentation d) Mode of repayment Q3 If Dinesh fails to repay the loan, the bank has the right to recover loan by which of the methods: a) Using unfair means to recover loan b) Reducing interest rate charged on the loan. c) Waiver of the loan d) Selling the house kept as collateral Q4 Dinesh will consider which of the following options to take loan from the bank: a) Higher interest rate on loan. b) More documentation required for loan c) Easy conditions for mode of repayment d) More collateral required. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 3 MARKS) 17. The modern currency is without any use of its own. Then, why is it accepted as a medium of exchange? Give reasons to support your answer. 18. What is the Barter System? What is its essential feature? [200]