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TERM - 1 10 CBSE 2021-22 SOCIAL SCIENCE (As per the Latest CBSE Syllabus Released in July 2021) Visit https://telegram.me/booksforcbse for more books. Full Marks Pvt Ltd (Progressive Educational Publishers) An ISO : 9001-2015 Company New Delhi-110002

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Preface Social Science-10 (Term-1) is based on the latest curriculum guidelines released by the CBSE in July 2021 for the examination to be conducted between November-December 2021. It will certainly prove to be a torch-bearer for those who toil hard to achieve their goal. This Question Bank has been developed keeping in mind all the requirements of the students for Board Examination preparations like learning, practising, revising and assessing their progress. Salient Features of the Book: ● Each chapter is designed in a ‘Topicwise’ manner where every topic is briefly explained followed by Exercise to that topic. ● Topics are presented in easy-to-understand points that help in memorising and retention. ● Every exercise covers all possible varieties of questions with answers in the form of Multiple Choice Questions and other questions based on Assertion and Reasoning, Information, Data/ Graph, Picture/Figure, Case Study Source, Map Questions, etc. ● All important NCERT Textbook questions are covered with answers. ● Previous Years’ Important Board Questions with answers are also included. ● Latest CBSE Sample Paper and 2 Sample Papers for Mock Test are given with answers and OMR Sheets for self-assessment. ● The book has been well prepared to build confidence among students. We earnestly hope that this book will prove to be highly useful for students. Suggestions for further improvement of the book, pointing out printing errors/mistakes which might have crept in spite of all efforts, will be thankfully received and incorporated in the next edition. –Publishers (iii)

Syllabus (TERM – I) No. of Periods Marks: 40 12 Time: 3 Hrs. 16 Marks 14 10 No. Units 20 10 I India and the Contemporary World -1 10 II Contemporary India – I 62 10 III Democratic Politics – I IV Economics 40 Total COURSE CONTENT Unit 1: India and the Contemporary World – II Themes Learning Objectives • Enable the learners to identify and comprehend Section 1: Events and Processes the forms in which nationalism developed along with the formation of nation states in Europe 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe in the post-1830 period. • The French Revolution and the Idea of the • Establish the relationship and bring out the Nation difference between European nationalism and anti-colonial nationalisms. • The Making of Nationalism in Europe • The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848 • The Making of Germany and Italy • Understand the way the idea of nationalism • Visualizing the Nation emerged and led to the formation of nation • Nationalism and Imperialism states in Europe and elsewhere. Unit 2: Contemporary India – II Themes Learning Objectives 1. Resources and Development • T y p e s o f R e s o u r c e s • D e v e l o p m e n t of • Resources • Resource Planning in India • • Understand the value of resources and the need Land Resources • Land Utilization for their judicious utilization and conservation. Land Use Pattern in India • Land Degradation and Conservation Measures • Soil as a Resource • Classification of Soils • Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation 3. Water Resources • Water Scarcity and The Need for Water Conservation and Management • Multi-Purpose • Comprehend the importance of water as a River Projects and Integrated Water Resources resource as well as develop awareness towards Management • Rainwater Harvesting its judicious use and conservation. Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter • Identify different Dams in the country. ‘Water Resources’ to be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination. However, the map items of this chapter as listed will be evaluated in Board Examination. 4. Agriculture • Explain the importance of agriculture in national • Types of farming economy. • Cropping Pattern • Major Crops • Identify various types of farming and discuss the • Technological and Institutional Reforms various farming methods; describe the spatial • Impact of Globalization on Agriculture distribution of major crops as well as understand the relationship between rainfall regimes and cropping pattern. • Explain various government policies for institutional as well as technological reforms since independence. (iv)

Unit 3: Democratic Politics – II Learning Objectives • Familiarize with the centrality of power sharing Themes 1. Power Sharing: in a democracy. • Case Studies of Belgium and Sri Lanka • Understand the working of spatial and social • Why power sharing is desirable? • Forms of Power Sharing power sharing mechanisms. 2. Federalism: • Analyse federal provisions and institutions. • What is Federalism? • Explain decentralization in rural and urban • What make India a Federal Country? • How is Federalism practiced? areas. • Decentralization in India Unit 4: Economics Themes Learning Objectives 1. Development: • What Development Promises - Different people • Familiarize with concepts of macroeconomics. • Understand the rationale for overall human different goals • Income and other goals • National Development development in our country, which includes • How to compare different countries or states? the rise of income, improvements in health and • Income and other criteria • Public Facilities education rather than income. • Sustainability of development • Understand the importance of quality of life and sustainable development. 2. Sectors of the Indian Economy: • Identify major employment generating sectors. • Sectors of Economic Activities • Reason out the government investment in • Comparing the three sectors • Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors in different sectors of economy. India • Division of sectors as organized and unorganized • Sectors in terms of ownership: Public and Private Sectors INTERNAL ASSESSMENT Periodic Assessment Marks Description 5 marks 10 Marks 5 marks Pen Paper Test Assessment using multiple strategies For example, Quiz, Debate, Role Play, Viva, Group Dis- cussion, Visual Expression, Interactive Bulletin Boards, Gallery Walks, Exit Cards, Concept Maps, Peer Assess- ment, Self-Assessment, etc. Portfolio 5 Marks • Classwork and Assignments • Any exemplary work done by the student Subject Enrichment Activity 5 Marks • Reflections, Narrations, Journals, etc. • Achievements of the student in the subject throughout the year • Participation of the student in different activities like Heritage India Quiz Project Work (v)

CONTENTS Unit-1: History (India and the Contemporary World-II)............................. 7–24 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe........................................................................ 7 Unit-2: Geography (Contemporary India-II)................................................. 25–58 1. Resources and Development.................................................................................. 25 3. Water Resources (Only Map Items will be evaluated in the Board Examination)............................................................................................... 39 4. Agriculture.............................................................................................................. 41 Unit-3: Political Science (Democratic Politics-II)........................................ 59–84 1. Power Sharing......................................................................................................... 59 2. Federalism.............................................................................................................. 72 Unit-4: Economics (Understanding Economic Development-II)............. 85–118 1. Development........................................................................................................... 85 2. Sectors of the Indian Economy............................................................................... 98 • Sample Papers-1 (Issued by CBSE on 2nd September, 2021)........................ 119 • Sample Papers-2.............................................................................................. 128 • Sample Papers-3.............................................................................................. 136 • Answers to Sample Papers (1 to 3).............................................................. 145 • OMR Sheets............................................................................................... 147-152 (vi)

Unit-1 History (India and the Contemporary World-II) 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Topics covered 1. TheFrench Revolution and the Idea of the Nation, and the Making of Nationalism in Europe 2. The Age of Revolutions: 1830–1848 3. The Making of Germany and Italy 4. Visualising the Nation 5. Nationalism and Imperialism TOPICWISE IMPORTANT POINTS The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics • In 1848, Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of world. • In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their flags and national costume. • It showed series of people of Europe and America marching in a long train offering homage to Statue of Liberty. • This procession is followed by United States, Switzerland, Germany, Austria, the Kingdom of Two Sicilies, Lombardy, Poland, England, Ireland, Hungary and Russia. • From the heavens above Christ, saints and angels gaze upon scene as if they are blessing them. • During the 19th century, nationalism emerge as a force which brought about political changes in the world. • Nation-state emerge in the place of multinational dynastic empires of Europe. EXERCISE I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which of the following is true regarding Frederic Sorrieu? He was a/an (a) German artist (b) French artist (c) Swedish artist (d) Italian artist (ii) The artists at the time of French Revolution personified liberty as a (a) Male figure (b) Female figure (c) Both male and female figures (d) None of these (iii) Which of the following artists prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world? (a) Auguste Rodin (b) Frederic Sorrieu (c) Edgar Degas (d) Berth Morisot 7

(iv) In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are identified through which among the following? (a) Flags (b) National costume (c) Both flags and national costume (d) None of these (v) Leading the procession, way past the Statue of Liberty, the peoples of Germany were bearing which of the following colour flags? (a) Black (b) Red (c) Gold (d) Black, red and gold (vi) What was the main theme of the paintings of Frederic Sorrieu? (a) Democracy (b) Liberalism (c) Socialism (d) Capitalism I I. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 2. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?’ In a lecture delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the French philosopher Ernst Renan (1823-92) outlined his understanding of what makes a nation. The lecture was subsequently published as a famous essay entitled ‘Qu’est-ce qu’une nation?’ (‘What is a Nation?’). In this essay Renan criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation is formed by a common language, race, religion, or territory: ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic past, great men, glory, that is the social capital upon which one bases a national idea. To have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the present, to have performed great deeds together, to wish to perform still more, these are the essential conditions of being a people. A nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity … Its existence is a daily plebiscite … A province is its inhabitants; if anyone has the right to be consulted, it is the inhabitant. A nation never has any real interest in annexing or holding on to a country against its will. The existence of nations is a good thing, a necessity even. Their existence is a guarantee of liberty, which would be lost if the world had only one law and only one master. 2.1. Who was Ernst Renan? (a) He was a Russian philosopher. (b) He was an American philosopher. (c) He was a French philosopher. (d) He was a German philosopher. 2.2. When was Ernst Renan born? (a) 2 October 1892 (b) 27 February 1923 (c) 27 February 1892 (d) 15 March 1882 2.3. Fill in the blank from the given options. Ernst Renan believed that racial features were instinctual and deterministic. He gave the idea of ...................... . (a) a revolution (b) unification of a country (c) ‘what is a Nation’ (d) ‘what is a Common Man’ 2.4. How are Nations formed according to Ernst Renan? (a) Nations are formed by removing internal impediments to trade and enterprise. (b) They are not formed only by common language, race, religion or territory. (c) They are formed on social capital i.e., a heroic past, great men, glories, sacrifices and devotion. (d) Both (b) and (c) 2.5. What is plebiscite? (a) It is a system of indirect vote by which the people of a religion, themselves decide to accept or reject a proposal. 8 Social Science-10

(b) It is a system of direct vote by which the people of a religion, themselves decide to accept a proposal. (c) It is a system of direct vote by which the people of a religion themselves decide to accept or reject a proposal. (d) It is a system in which people of a religion do not have power to accept or reject a proposal. 2.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): The lecture of Ernst Renan was published as a famous essay. Reason (A): In this eassy he condemns the concepts suggested by others about the nation. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaination of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Answers 1. (i)–( b), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c), (v)–(d), (vi)–(a) 2. 2.1 ( c) 2.2 (b) 2.3 (c) 2.4 (d) 2.5 (c) 2.6 (a)  1. The French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation, and the Making   of Nationalism in Europe THE FRENCH REVOLUTION AND THE IDEA OF THE NATION • The French Revolution in 1789 marked the age of revolution in Europe. It led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. • The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would make the nation and shape its destiny. • French revolutionaries introduced (took) various steps to unite the people of France. They considered it as the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism by introducing (a) A new French flag (b) The idea of la patrie and le citoyen (c) A centralised administration system (d) Uniform laws for all citizens (e) Uniform system of weights and measures. • Students, educated-middle classes set up Jacobin clubs to spread the ideas of revolutionaries into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s. • Napoleon introduced many reforms to simplify the administration and to make the whole system more efficient. His revolutionaries principles were called Civil Code of 1804 usually known as the Napoleonic Code. • This code was exported to the regions of Switzerland, Italy and Germany. • The French armies were welcomed as a symbol of liberty in Brussels, Mainz, Milan and Warsaw. • The people became hostile due to increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French army. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  9

THE MAKING OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE • Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons. • Eastern and central Europe were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of which lived diverse people. They did not see themselves as sharing a collective identity or a common culture. • The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, for example, was a patchwork of many different regions and peoples. It included the Alpine regions–the Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland–as well as Bohemia, where the aristocracy was predominantly German- speaking. It also included the Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia. • In Hungary, half of the population spoke Magyar while the other half spoke a variety of dialects. • In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish. • Besides these three dominant groups, there also lived within the boundaries of the empire, a mass of subjects peasant peoples–Bohemians and Slovaks to the north, Slovenes in Carniola, Croats to the south and Roumans to the east in Transylvania. THE ARISTOCRACY AND THE NEW MIDDLE CLASS • A landed aristocracy was the dominant class of the continent, socially and politically. The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions. • Industrialisation began in France and parts of the German states during the nineteenth century. New social groups came into being: a working-class population, and middle classes. • Slowly and steadily ideas of national unity among the educated, liberal middle classes gained popularity which led to the abolition of aristocratic privileges. WHAT DID LIBERAL NATIONALISM STAND FOR? • The term ‘liberalism’ is taken from the Latin word liber which means free. • The ideology of liberalism emerged which ended the state interference in the economic life of society. Freedom of markets was achieved and state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital were abolished. Napoleon’s administrative measures were altered. • For the new middle classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality for all before the law. • In 1834, a customs union or Zollverein was formed. A NEW CONSERVATISM AFTER 1815 • In 1815, Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria collectively defeated Napoleon and to make a settlement, the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was signed. According to the provisions of this treaty, the Bourbon dynasty was restored to power, France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. • A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. (a) Netherlands and Belgium to look after the north boundaries. (b) Genoa and Piedmont in the south. (c) Austria and northern Italy. (d) In the east, Russia was given part of Poland. (e) Prussia was given a portion of Saxony. • The main aim was to restore the monarchies and to create a new conservative order in Europe. • The autocratic regimes did not tolerate criticism and to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic government. It imposed censorship laws to newspapers, books, plays and songs that reflected the idea of freedom and liberty. 10 Social Science-10

THE REVOLUTIONARIES • During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. • Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. • Most of these revolutionaries saw the creation of nation-states as an essential part of this struggle for freedom. • The Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was the member of the secret society of the Carbonari. He opposed monarchical form and fought for Liberty and freedom. • Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single united republic within a wider alliance of nations. • Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republic frightened the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’. EXERCISE 1.1 I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in the year of (a) 1789 (b) 1879 (c) 1798 (d) 1778 (ii) In 1789 France was under the rule of (a) federal government (b) an absolute monarch (c) socialist (d) capitalist (iii) What is the meaning of the Latin word liber? (a) Free (b) Freedom (c) Liberty (d) Liberal (iv) Which of the following countries was not divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons? (a) Germany (b) Italy (c) France (d) Switzerland (v) Which of the following was not a quality of Napoleon’s Civil Code? (a) Right by birth (b) Right of property (c) Right to vote for all (d) Equality before law (vi) Identify the correct statement about the liberal nationalists of Europe from the options given below. (a) They emphasized the concept of government by the consent of the people. (b) They criticized the glorification of science. (c) They created a sense of collective heritage. (d) They did not stand for the freedom of markets. II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 2. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France, as you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  11

From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation. 2.1. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of nationalism? (a) French Revolution (b) Russian Revolution (c) Glorious Revolution (d) The Revolution of the Liberals 2.2. When did the French Revolution take place? (a) In 1889 (b) In 1789 (c) In 1788 (d) In 1751 2.3. Fill in the blank from the given options. The idea of la patrie was initiated by French revolutionaries. It means .................. . (a) the fatherland (b) the motherland (c) the citizen (d) the Constitution 2.4. Identify the purpose of the French revolutionaries from the following options: (a) To establish republic (b) To provide equal rights for all (c) To create a sense for collective responsibility (d) All of the above 2.5. Which of the following measures was not adopted by the French revolutionaries? (a) Ideas of la patrie and le citoyen (b) The tricolour French flag (c) Hymns composed (d) Regional dialects were encouraged 2.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A) : In 1798, the first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution. Reason (A) : The idea of French revolutionaries emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaination of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 3. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and 12 Social Science-10

stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. 3.1. Which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative ideology? (a) Preservation of believes introduced by Napoleon (b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity (c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere (d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society 3.2. Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following options. (a) To declare competition of German unification (b) To restore conservative regime in Europe (c) To declare war against France (d) To start the process of Italian unification 3.3. Fill in the blank from the given options. Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society should be preserved. They focused on ..................... at the Congress of Vienna. (a) to re-establish peace and stability in Europe (b) to establish socialism in Europe (c) to introduce democracy in France (d) to set up a new Parliament in Austria 3.4. How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option. (a) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty (b) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy (c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe (d) By giving power to the German confederation 3.5. Which of the following is not a result of the Treaty of Vienna, 1815? (a) Austria was given control of Northern Italy. (b) Russia was given German confederation of 39 states. (c) The Kingdom of Netherlands was established in the North. (d) Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers. 3.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): In 1815s the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Reason (R): Most of these revolutionaries saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  13

Answers 1. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (a), (iv) (c), (v) (c), (vi) (a) 2. 2.1 (a) 2.2 (b) 2.3 (a) 2.4 (d) 2.5 (d) 2.6 (d) 3.5 (b) 3.6 (a) 3. 3.1 (d)   3.2 (b) 3.3 (a) 3.4 (c)   2. The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848 • The period between 1830–1848 is symbolised with the age of revolutions. The first upheaval took place in France in July 1830. The Bourbon kings were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries. Louis Philippe was made a constitutional monarch. Belgium got separated from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands. • The Greek war of Independence started in 1821. • It created nationalist feelings among the educated people in Europe. • Their struggle for Independence began in 1821 and got support from the Greeks living in other European countries. • Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation. THE ROMANTIC IMAGINATION AND NATIONAL FEELING • Romanticism, cultural movements develop a sense of nationalism through art, poetry, stories, music and past experiences. • They promote emotions and mystical feelings to create a sense of oneness and love for nation. Johann Gottfried Herder, a German philosopher created a spirit of nationalism through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances. • Karol Kurpinski of Poland created nationalist feeling through his operas, music and folk dances. • Language too played a major role in developing nationalist sentiments. • Poland was occupied by Russia and people fought for their language and culture. HUNGER, HARDSHIP AND POPULAR REVOLT • The 1830s were the years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe which gave rise to unemployment. • Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. • Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England. • In those regions of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in town and country. • Food shortages and widespread unemployment brought the population of Paris out on the roads. THE REVOLUTIONS OF THE LIBERALS: 1848 • In 1848, a revolution led by educated middle class professionals, businessmen, and prosperous artisans. • They demanded a creation of a nation state on parliamentary principles, a constitution, freedom of press and freedom of association. • On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in the Frankfurt parliament in St. Paul Church to draft the Constitution, headed by monarchy. • The Friedrich Wilhelm IV, King of Prussia rejected the crown; the assembly was disbanded. • Political rights to men were controversial. 14 Social Science-10

• Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this they were not given the right to vote. EXERCISE 1.2 I. Objective Type Questions  (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Identify the correct statement with regard to Johann Gottfried Herder is correct. (a) He was a French philosopher. (b) He was a German philosopher. (c) He was an Italian philosopher. (d) He was an Indian philosopher. (ii) The first upheaval took place in France in July in which of the following years? (a) 1820 (b) 1830 (c) 1840 (d) 1850 (iii) Which of the following treaties recognized Greece as an independent nation?  [CBSE S.P. 2020-21] (a) Treaty of Sevres (b) Treaty of Versailles (c) Treaty of Lausanne (d) Treaty of Constantinople (iv) Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nations? (a) Treaty of Constantinople (b) Treaty of Vienna (c) Treaty of Versailles (d) Treaty of Paris (v) What does Romanticism refer to? (a) Literary movement (b) Political movement (c) Cultural movement (d) Religious movement 2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate below: Assertion (A): Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation. Reason (R): Collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation-building. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 3. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had participated actively over the years. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this they were denied suffrage rights during the election of the Assembly. When the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St Paul, women were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery. Though conservative forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848, they could not restore the old order. Monarchs were beginning to realise that the cycles of revolution and repression could only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  15

revolutionaries. Hence, in the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815. Thus serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in the Habsburg dominions and in Russia. The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867. 3.1. What did women do to extend their political rights? (a) They had formed their own political association. (b) They had published newspapers. (c) They had taken part in political meeting and demonstations. (d) All of the above 3.2. The Frankruft Parliament was held on (a) 18 August 1948 (b) 8 May 1948 (c) 18 June 1948 (d) 18 May 1948 3.3. Fill in the blank from the given options. The Frankruft Parliament was a German National Assembly. The .................., where it was convened in 1848. (a) Indoor Tennis Court (b) Church of St. Pauls (c) Bastille (d) Hall of Mirrors 3.4. What happened when Frankfurt Parliament was convened? (a) Women were welcomed. (b) They were allowed to take part in the discussion. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Women were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitor’s gallary. 3.5. Conservative forces did not believe in establishing (a) Social hierarchies (b) Traditional institutions (c) The democracy (d) The monarchy 3.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Conservatives were able to repress liberal movements in 1848. Reason (R): The Habsburg rulers glanted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 4. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Parallel to the revolts of the poor, unemployed and starving peasants and workers in many European countries in the year 1848, a revolution led by the educated middle classes was under way. Events of February 1848 in France had brought about the abdication of the monarch and a republic based on universal male suffrage had been proclaimed. In other parts of Europe where independent nation-states did not yet exist – such as Germany, Italy, Poland, the Austro-Hungarian Empire – men and women of the liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with national unification. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their demands for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution, freedom of the press and freedom of association. 16 Social Science-10

4.1. What are the demands of liberal middle class? (a) A Constitution (b) Freedom of the press (c) Freedom of association (d) All of these 4.2. Which of the following is not an European country? (a) Germany (b) Italy (c) USA (d) Poland 4.3. Fill in the blank from the given options. Independent nation-states existed in other parts of Europe such as ..................... . (a) Poland, Ireland (b) Italy, Germany (c) Hungary, Greece (d) Germany, Netherlands 4.4. Which of the following did not define the term ‘Liberal Nationalism’ for Europeans in the 19th century? (a) End of autocracy and clerical privileges (b) Freedom for the individual and equality (c) Government empowered to violate the right of private property (d) Government by consent 4.5. Which of the following statements best describes the idea of liberal nationalism of 19th century Europe? (a) Freedom of individual and equality before law (b) Emphasis on social justice (c) Supremacy of state oriented nationalism (d) None of the above 4.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Events of February 1848 in France had brought about the abdication of the monarch. Reason (R): This revolution led by the lower classes was underway. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Answers 1. (i) (b), (ii) (b), (iii) (d), (iv) (a), (v) (c) 2. (a) 3. 3.1 (d)   3.2 (c)   3.3 (b)   3.4 (d)   3.5 (c)   3.6 (b) 4. 4.1 (d)  4.2 ( c)   4.3 (b)   4.4 (c)   4.5 (a)   4.6 (c)     3. The Making of Germany and Italy GERMANY UNIFICATION • After 1848, nationalist feeling were widespread among middle class Germans. • Germany and Italy came to be unified as nation-states. • National feelings were widespread among middle-class German. Prussia took on the leadership of the movement for national unification. • The Chief Minister, Otto von Bismarck was the architect of this process carried out with the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  17

• On the 18 January 1871, the princes of the German states, representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers including Otto von Bismarck gathered in the Palace of Versailles to proclaim the new German Empire headed by Kaiser William I of Prussia. • The new state placed a story emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial systems in Germany. Prussian measures and practices often become a model for the rest of Germany. ITALY UNIFIED • Like Germany, Italy, too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. • During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals. • Italy offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance. • Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat. • In 1860, a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Giuseppe marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning support and drove out the Spanish rulers. • In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of united Italy. THE STRANGE CASE OF BRITAIN • The history of nationalism in Britain was different from the rest of Europe. Before the eighteenth century there was no British nation. The people of different identities comprised English, Welsh, Scot or Irish lived in the British Isles. • The Act of Union of 1707 between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. This led to the demolition of Scotland’s distinctive culture and political institutions. • In Ireland, the English helped the protestants and established their control over the Catholic country and Ireland was dominated by United Kingdom in 1801. • A British nation was formed with English culture, British flag, the national anthem and the English language. EXERCISE 1.3 I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which of the following was the only state of Italy that was ruled by an Italian princely house? (a) Sardinia-Piedmont (b) Romania (c) Bulgaria (d) Hungary (ii) Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union-1707’ from the following options. [CBSE S.P. 2020-21] (a) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament. (b) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland. (c) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. (d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales. (iii) Large landowners of Prussia were called (c) Freedom fighters (d) Philosophers (a) Junkers (b) Artisans 18 Social Science-10

(iv) In which of the following years, the Prussian king, Kaiser William I, was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles? (a) January 1671 (b) January 1771 (c) January 1871 (d) January 1971 (v) Young Italy, a secret society was formed by (a) Metternich (b) Mazzini (c) Bismarck (d) Wilhelm Wolff (vi) Which of the following was not a condition of Italy before unification? (a) Political fragmentation. (b) Italy was dominated by UK in 1801. (c) Italy was divided into seven states. (d) Italians were scattered over several dynastic states. (vii) By whom was/were the various states of Italy ruled? (a) The North was under Austrian Habsburgs. (b) The centre was ruled by Pope. (c) The southern regimes were under the Bourbon Kings of Spain. (d) All of the above (viii) Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861? (a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Macedonia II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 2. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. On the bitterly cold morning of 18 January 1871, an assembly comprising the princes of the German states, representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers including the chief minister Otto von Bismarck gathered in the unheated Hall of Mirrors in the Palace of Versailles to proclaim the new German Empire headed by Kaiser William I of Prussia. The nation-building process in Germany had demonstrated the dominance of Prussian state power. The new state placed a strong emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial systems in Germany. Prussian measures and practices often became a model for the rest of Germany. 2.1. King William-I was belonged to which of the following nations? (a) Prussia (b) Austria (c) Denmark (d) France 2.2. Who among the following personalities played an important role in unifying Germany? (a) Mazzini (b) Matternich (c) Otto von Bismarck (d) Kaiser William-I 2.3. Fill in the blank from the given options. Bismarck manipulated European rivalries to make Germany a world power. On 18 January 1871 in his leadership an assembly was held in ...................... . (a) The Church of St. Pauls (b) The Hall of Mirrors (c) Indoor Tennis Court (d) None of these 2.4. Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany after the unification of Germany? (a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Voltaire (c) Matternich (d) Kaiser William-I 2.5. The new state emphasised on moderning the (a) Banking (b) Currency (c) Legal and judicial systems (d) All of these The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  19

2.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Otto von Bismarck was a Prussian minister. Reason (R): Other Prussian measures and practices became a model for other parts of Germany. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 3. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and local variations. During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance. 3.1. During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into how many states? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 8 3.2. Who among the following did not play any role in the process of unification of Italy? (a) Napoleon (b) Cavour (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Garibaldi 3.3. Fill in the blank from the given options. Italy had a long history of political fragmentation. ..................... led the process of the unification of Italy. (a) Venetia (b) Papal State (c) Sardinia-Piedmont (d) None of these 3.4. What do you know about Giuseppe Mazzini? (a) He was a Russian revolutionary. (b) He was a French revolutionary. (c) He was an Italian revolutionary. (d) He was a Prussian revolutionary. 3.5. Which of the following regions was ruled by the Hubsburg Empire? (a) Spain-Portugal (b) Austria-Hungary (c) Scotland-Ireland (d) France-Netherlands 3.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house. Reason (R): In 19th century, the central Italy was ruled by the Pope while the northern Italy was under Austrian Habsburgs. 20 Social Science-10

Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Answers 1. (i) (a), (ii) (c), (iii) (a), (iv) (c), (v) (b), (vi) (b), (vii) (d), (viii) (b) 2. 2.1 (a)   2.2 (c)   2.3 (b)   2.4 (d)   2.5 (d)   2.6 (b) 3. 3.1 (b)   3.2 (a)   3.3 (c)   3.4 (c)    3.5 (b)   3.6 (b)   4. Visualising The Nation • The artist in the 18th and 19th centuries personify nations as a female figures that did not resemble for any particular woman in real life. • The female figure became an allegory of the nation, to portray ideas such as liberty, justice and the republic. These ideals were represented through specific objects or symbols. • Marianne, a Christian name, became the allegory of France. Her statues were erected in public squares to create the feeling of unity. Her images were marked on coins and stamps. • Germania, the allegory of German nation, wear a crown of oak leaves, as the German-Oak stands for heroism. EXERCISE 1.4 O bjective Type Questions  (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which among the following figure became an allegory of the nation? (a) Female (b) Male (c) Both (d) None of these (ii) The attribute of liberty was (b) broken chain (a) red cap (c) blindfolded woman (d) both (a) and (b) (iii) Germania became the allegory of (a) France (b) Germany (c) Italy (d) All of these (iv) Which of the following was the female allegory which represented the peoples nations in France? (a) Marianne (b) Bharat Mata (c) Germania (d) None of these (v) Marianne represented the Republic of (a) England (b) Britain (c) US (d) France (vi) What does the German oak stand for? (c) Heroism (a) Patriotism (b) Liberalism (d) Socialism (vii) What was the significance of ‘Broken Chains’? (a) Readiness to fight (b) Willingness to make peace (c) Heroism (d) Being freed 2. Arrange the correct sequence of Column I against the Column II Column I (Attribute) Column II (Significance) I. Sword 1. Symbol of the German empire-strength II. Breast plate with eagle 2. Readiness to fight III. Rays of the rising sun 3. Heroism IV. Crown of the oak leaves 4. Beginning of a new era The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  21

Choose the correct answer. (b) III-4, I-2, IV-3, II-1 (a) II-4, IV-3, III-1, I-2 (d) IV-1, II-4, I-3, III-1 (c) I-4, III-1, II-3, IV-2 Answers 2. (b) 1. (i) (a), (ii) (d), (iii) (b), (iv) (a), (v) (d), (vi) (c), (vii) (d)   5. Nationalism And Imperialism • During the last quarter of the nineteenth century, nationalist groups became increasing intolerant of each other and over ready to go to war. • The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. The Balkan was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Bosnia, Serbia, etc. Their inhabitants were known as Slaves. • A large part of Balkan was under the control of Ottoman empire. • The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism and disintegration of Ottoman empire created problems in this region. • One by one its European subject nationalities declare themselves independent. • The Balkan states were jealous of each other and wanted to gain others territory. • When European powers like Russia, Germany, England and Austro-Hungary tried to gain control over this region. They led to a series of wars and finally the First Worl6d War. • Nationalism aligned with imperialism that led Europe to disaster in 1914 because many countries were colonised by the European powers began to oppose imperial domination. The anti-imperial movements that developed everywhere were nationalist. • The nationalists struggled to form independent nation-states and were inspired by a sense of collective national unity, forged in confrontation with imperialism. EXERCISE 1.5 Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) After 1871 the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe was the area called (a) Germany (b) Balkans (c) Italy (d) Ottoman Empire (ii) An important part of the Bankans was under the control of (a) Italy (b) Germany (c) Ottoman Empire (d) US (iii) Balkans comprised countries such as (a) Greece, Albania, Bulgaria, Slovenia (b) Romania, Greece, Macedonia, Montenegro (c) Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Serbia (d) All of the above (iv) On what basis did the Balkans claim for freedom? (a) Nationality (b) Social rights (c) Political rights (d) None of these (v) Which of the following powers was not interested to increase their own control over the Balkans? (a) Switzerland (b) England (c) Russia (d) Germany 22 Social Science-10

2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions Two statements are given in the questions (i) and (ii) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option: Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (i) Assertion (A): The Balkan area became an area of intense conflict. Reason (R): The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the others. (ii) Assertion (A): The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. Reason (R): The rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long-lost independence. Answers 1. (i) –(b), (ii) –(c), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(a), (v)–(a) 2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(a) Picture Based Questions 1. Following image is the personification of Germany generally associated with the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its aspect from among the following options. (a) Folk and Cultural Tradition (b) Heroism and Justice (c) Austerity and Asceticism (d) Revenge and Vengeance A ns. (b) 2. Following image is represented as a postman here who had incorporated revolutionary principles by introducing the Civil Code of 1804. Identify its name from among the following options. (a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Cavour (c) Napoleon Bonaparte (d) Frederic Sorrieu A ns. (c) The Rise of Nationalism in Europe  23

1714 Main Events 1715 1740-1748 : George-I became the king of the Great Britain. 1756-1763 : Louis XVI became the king of France. 1776 : The War of the Austrian Succession. 1789 : The Seven Years War. 1797 : The American Declaration of Independence. 1814 : The French Revolution took place. 1814-1815 : Napoleon invaded Italy; Napoleonic wars began.­ : The First Treaty of Paris: established a lenient peace with France. 1821 : Fall of Napoleon; the Vienna Peace Settlement; Napoleon escaped from 1831 1830 Elba, gathered a new army, but was defeated at Waterloo.­ 1832 : Greek struggle for independence began.­ 1849-1878 : Giuseppe Mazzini established Young Italy. 1852 : Period of economic crisis in Europe. 1858 : Greece gained independence from the Ottoman Empire. 1859 : The reign of Victor Emmanuel-II of Sardinia-Piedmont. 1859-1870 : Camillo Cavour became the premier of Sardinia-Piedmont. 1860 : Cavour formed an alliance with France 1861 : Piedmont and France defeated Austria; Piedmont annexed Lombardy. : Unification of Italy. 1870 : Garibaldi defeated Spanish from the kingdom of Two Sicilies. 1861-1888 : The Kingdom of Italy was announced; Victor Emmanuel-II of Sardinia- 1866-1871 1867 Piedmont became king of Italy. 1870-1871 : After France declared war on Prussia, Italy annexed Rome. 1871 : Reign of King William-I of Prussia. : Unification of Germany. 1848 : Prussia created the North German Confederation. : Franco-Prussian War. 1905 : The German Empire was formed; Germany annexed Alsace and Lorraine; 1914 the Provinces of France : Revolutions in Europe; artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolt against economic hardships; middle classes demand constitutions and representative governments; Italians, Germans, Magyars, Poles, Czechs, etc. demand nation-states. : Slav nationalism gathered force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires. : Beginning of First World War 24 Social Science-10

Unit-2 Geography (Contemporary India-II) 1 Resources and Development Topics Covered 1. Resources and Its Classification and Types 2.  Development of Resources 3. Resource Planning in India and Conservation of Resources 4. Land Resources, Land Utilisation, Land Use Pattern in India, Land Degradation and Conservation Measures 5. Soil as a Resource, Classification of Soils, Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation TOPICWISE IMPORTANT POINTS   1. Resources and Its Classification and Types •• Everything available in our environment which is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable and can satisfy over needs is known as resource. Example: human beings, plants, animals, etc. •• The process of transformation of things available in the environment involves an interactive relationship between nature, technology and institution. •• Resources can be classified on the basis of origin, exhaustibility, ownership and the status of development. EXERCISE 1.1 I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which one of the following is not the basis of the classification of resources? (a) Origin (b) Shape (c) Ownership (d) Exhaustibility (ii) Which of the following resources is based on exhaustibility? (a) Community resources (b) National resources (c) Individual resources (d) Renewable resources (iii) Which of the following is not a renewable resource? (a) Solar energy (b) Water (c) Metals (d) Forests and wildlife (iv) Which of the following resources is considered a biotic resource? (a) Air (b) Plants (c) Oil (d) Rocks (v) Rocks and minerals are examples of (b) Biotic resources (a) Abiotic resources (c) Renewable resources (d) Non-renewable resources (vi) On the basis of its origin, resources can be classified into: (a) Renewable and non-renewable (b) Continuous and biological (c) Biotic and abiotic (d) Recyclable and non-recyclable 25

(vii) The ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles is classified under which zone? (a) Exclusive Economic Zone (b) Export-processing Zone (c) Special Economic Zone (d) None of these (viii) Everything available in our environment to satisfy our needs is termed as: (a) Technology (b) Resource (c) Natural vegetation (d) None of these (ix) Individual, community, national and International resources are classified on the basis of (a) Origin (b) Exhaustibility (c) Ownership (d) Status of development (x) Which of the following is not classified on the basis of status of development? (a) Potential resource (b) Developed stock resource (c) Reserves resource (d) Renewable resource (xi) The resources which are obtained from biosphere and have life are called (a) Biotic (b) Abiotic (c) Parasitic (d) None of these (xii) Which one of the following types of resource is iron ore? (a) Renewable (b) Biotic (c) Flow (d) Non-renewable (xiii) Under which of the following types of resource can tidal energy be put? (a) Replenishable (b) Human-made (c) Abiotic (d) Non-recyclable (xiv) Which of the following are examples of national resources? (a) Minerals and water resources (b) Roads and Railways (c) Forests and wildlife (d) All of these 2. Choose the correct pair (i) Choose the correctly matched pair about the classification of resources from the following options: (a) On the basis of origin—Individual community, national and international (b) On the basis of inexhaustibility—Renewable and non-renewable (c) On the basis of status and development—Biotic and abiotic (d) On the basis of ownership—Potential, developed stock and reserves (ii) Choose the correctly matched pair about the resources and development. (a) Developed resources—Living things (b) Biotic resources—Non-living things (c) Abiotic resources—Hydrogen and oxygen (d) Reserves—Subset of the stock 3. Fill in the blanks (i) Biotic and Abiotic resources: on the basis of origin, Renewable and non-renewable resources: on the basis of exhaustibility, ____________: on the basis of the status of development. (a) National and International resources (b) Potential and Developed resources (c) Individual and Community-owned resources (d) Human resources (ii) On the basis of origin resources are __________ and __________ . (a) Potential; Developed (b) Renewable; Non-renewable (c) Biotic; Abiotic (d) National; International (iii) Water is a compound of two gases: __________ and __________ . (a) Nitrogen; Carbon dioxide (b) Hydrogen; Oxygen (c) Oxygen; Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen; Nitrogen 26 Social Science-10

(iv) Resources are __________ accessible; __________ feasible and __________ acceptable. (a) socially; culturally; economically (b) economically; socially; technologically (c) nicely; properly; socially (d) technologically; economically; culturally 4. Information Based Question Analyse the information given below and select the correct option. Technically, all the resources belong to the nation. The country has legal powers to acquire even private property for public good. All the minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km) from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to the nation. (a) Renewable Resources (b) Individual Resources (c) National Resources (d) Potential Resources Answers (viii)–(b), (ix)–(c), 1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(b), (v)–(a), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(a), (x)–(d), (xi)–(a), (xii)–(d), (xiii)–(a), (xiv)–(d) 2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a)  3. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(d)  4. (c)   2. Development of Resources And Resource Planning • For the maintaining of the quality of life, resources are played vital role for human survival. Therefore, human used them indiscriminately. • As a result, resources are depleted, accumulate in few hands, and led to global ecological crises such as global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation. • Sustainable Development means development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations. • Agenda 21 is the declaration signed by the world leaders of the countries in 1992 at the Rio Earth Summit. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. EXERCISE 1.2 I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which of the following statements is true about the term Resources? (a) Resources are the functions of human activities. (b) Human beings used resources properly. (c) Resources are free gifts of nature. (d) Resources are not important for human survival. (ii) Which of the following statements defines Sustainable Development? [CBSE SP 2019-20] (a) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation. Resources and Development  27

(b) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well. (c) It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and forthcoming future generation. (d) To meets the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present generation go unmet. (iii) Agenda 21 was signed in (a) 1990 (b) 1892 (c) 1992 (d) 1991 (iv) Resource planning is essential for _______ existence of all forms of life. (a) Ecological balance (b) Sustainable (c) Exploitation (d) None of these (v) Which of the following states is not rich in coal deposits? (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Jharkhand (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan 2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace. Reason (R): Resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) R is true but A is false. II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 3. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels. Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. 28 Social Science-10

3.1. Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life? (a) Resource planning (b) Resource management (c) Resource extraction (d) Resource generation 3.2. Resource planning is important in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. Which one of the following is not essential for a developed region? (a) Availability of resources (b) Valuation of resources (c) Utilisation of resources (d) Valuation of planning 3.3. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options. I. Jharkhand is rich in coal deposits. II. Rajasthan has abundance of water resources. III. Resources planning is a simple process. (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I only (d) III only 3.4. The state of Rajasthan lacks in which of the following resources? (a) Water resources (b) Soil resources (c) Biotic resources (d) Potential resources 3.5. Which of the following union territories has cold desert? (a) Puducherry (b) Chandigarh (c) Ladakh (d) Lakshadweep 3.6. Which of the following processes is involved in Resource Planning? (a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. (b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology (c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans (d) All of the above 4. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit. The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socioe-conomic development at the global level. The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity. The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving sustainable development in the 21st century. Agenda 21 is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21. 4.1. Where was the first International Earth Summit held? (a) Nagpur (b) Moscow (c) Rio de Janeiro (d) Beijing 4.2. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options. I. The first International Earth Summit was convened to discuss problems of socio- economic development at local level. II. To achieve sustainable development its members signed Agenda 21. III. The aim of Agenda 21 is not only to protect the present generation but also posterity. (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III only (d) II only Resources and Development  29

4.3. What does Agenda 21 mean? (a) It is an agreement between 10 developing countries on climate change. (b) It is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the UN with regard to sustainable development. (c) It is a free trade between 5 developed countries. (d) None of the above 4.4. When was sustainable development came into existence? (a) 1990 (b) 1949 (c) 1995 (d) 1992 4.5. What is the meaning of sustainable economic development? (a) Development should take place without damaging the environment. (b) Development should not compromise with needs of the future generations. (c) Development should take place on technological and level of their feasibility. (d) Both (a) and (b) 4.6. Using which of the following resources will aid in achieving sustainable development? (a) Hydroelectricity (b) Solar and Wind energy (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Natural gas Answers 1. (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d) 2. (a) 3. 3.1 (a)   3.2 (b)   3.3 (b)   3.4 (a)   3.5 (c)   3.6 (d) 4. 4.1 (c)   4.2 (b)   4.3 (b)   4.4 (d)   4.5 (d)   4.6 (c)   3. Resource Planning in India and Conservation of Resources • Resource Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. Country like India, there has enormous diversity in the availability of resources, therefore it is important to plan about the resources. • There are some regions in India which can be considered self sufficient in terms of availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. Therefore, India needs balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels. • Resource planning is a complex process which involves in three steps: (i) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. (ii) Proper planning with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. • Resource are important for any developmental activity. India has made enormous efforts for conservation of resources. • India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the First Five Year Plan launched after independence. • There are many regions but these are included in economically backward regions. • On the contrary there are some regions which have a poor resource base but they are economically developed. • Irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environment problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels is important. 30 Social Science-10

EXERCISE 1.3 Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Resource planing is a complex process which involves step/steps such as– (a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. (b) Proper planning with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. (d) All of the above (ii) Who said, ‘‘There is enough for everybody’s need and not for everybody’s greed’’? (a) Dr Ambedkar (b) Pt. Nehru (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sardar Patel (iii) India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the– (a) First Five Year Plan (b) Second Five Year Plan (c) Fourth Five Year Plan (d) Sixth Five Year Plan 2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region. Reason (R): Dr. Rajendra Prasad was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is True. 1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a) Answers 2. (c)   4. Land Resources, Land Utilisation, Land Use Pattern in India, Land Degradation and Conservation Measures • We live on land. It is a natural resource of utmost importance. It supports natural vegetation, wildlife, human life, economic activities, transport and communication systems. • In India, about 43% of land area is plain, 30% is of mountains and 27% is of plateaus. • Land resources are used for many purposes like forests, land not available for cultivation, other uncultivated land, follow lands and net shown area. • Area sown only once in any agricultural year is known as net sown area. • Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area. • Land use pattern is determined both by physical factors like topography, climate, soil types and human factors like population density, technological capability and culture and traditions, etc. Resources and Development  31

• Total geographical area of India is 3.28 million sq. km but only 93% are used due to some internal and land dispute issues. • The land under permanent pasture has decreased and also the pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33% of geographical area. • Continuous use of land over a long period of time, resulted in land degradation. Human activities have not only brought about degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. • There are many ways to solve the problems of land degradation such as afforestation, proper management of grazing, planting of shelter belt of plants, stablisation of sand dunes, control of mining activities, proper disposal of industrial effluents, and proper management of waste lands, etc. EXERCISE 1.4 I. Objective Type Questions  (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) What is the total geographical area of India? (a) 1.38 million sq. km (b) 2.28 million sq. km (c) 3.28 million sq. km (d) 4.48 million sq. km (ii) Land not available for cultivation is called (b) barren and waste lands (a) forests (c) fallow lands (d) net sown area (iii) The land (with deep channels) which cannot be used for cultivation is (a) Good land (b) Bad land (c) Fallow land (d) Arable land (iv) Which one of the following is an example of cultivable wasteland? [CBSE SP 2019-20] (a) Gross Cropped Area (b) Uncultivable Land (c) Barren Wasteland (d) Current Follow Land (v) Which of the following North-Eastern states has been fully surveyed for its land use? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur (c) Tripura (d) Assam (vi) Land use data is available only for _______ of the total geographical area because the land use reporting for most of the north-east states except Assam has not done fully. (a) 99 per cent (b) 93 per cent (c) 50 per cent (d) 60 per cent (vii) What percentage of land in India consist of fertile plains? (d) 43% (a) 70% (b) 38% (c) 61% (viii) Area sown more than once in agricultural year plus net sown area is known as (a) Fallow lands (b) Gross cropped area (c) Cropped area (d) Grazing land 2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Land is a natural resource of utmost importance. Reason (R): Land can be used for various purposes. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. 32 Social Science-10

I I. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 3. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and less than 10 per cent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands. Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area, as it was outlined in the National Forest Policy (1952). It was considered essential for maintenance of the ecological balance. The livelihood of millions of people who live on the fringes of these forests depends upon it. A part of the land is termed as waste land and land put to other non-agricultural uses. Waste land includes rocky, arid and desert areas and land put to other non-agricultural uses includes settlements, roads, railways, industry etc. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it, has resulted in land degradation. This, in turn, has serious repercussions on society and the environment. 3.1. The pattern of net sown area is less than 10 per cent in which of the following regions of India? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Mizoram and Manipur (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (d) All of these 3.2. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options. I. Net sown area is over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana. II. India’s forest area is far higher than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area. III. Human activities are responsible for maximum land degradation. Options: (a) II and III (b) I and III (c) II only (d) I only 3.3. The National Forest Policy came into existence in (a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1947 (d) 2000 3.4. India’s forest area is far lower than the desired ______ of geographical area as per the national forest policy. (a) 33 per cent (b) 54 per cent (c) 10 per cent (d) 50 per cent 3.5. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab? (a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation (c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing 3.6. Which human activities have led to land degredation? (a) Agriculture (b) Construction of roads and building (c) Deforestation and overgrazing (d) Afforestation Answers 1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d), (vi)–(b), (vii)–(d), (viii)–(b)    2. (a) 3. 3 .1 (d)   3.2 (c)   3.3 (b)   3.4 (a)   3.5 (c)   3.6 (c)  5. Soil as a Resource, Classification of Soils, Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation • Soil is the most significant renewable natural resource. It is a living system where plants grow and many types of living organisms take breaths. • India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types. These have contributed in the development of various types of soils. In India, alluvial soil, black soil, red soil, yellow soil, laterite soil, arid soil and forest soil are some major soils. Resources and Development  33

• Alluvial soils, are deposited by the three important Himalayan river systems – the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. It is found in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers. According to their age, alluvial soils can be classified as Bangar (old alluvial) and Khadar (new alluvial). • Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil. • Due to the diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks, red soils appear reddish colour. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. • Laterite soil is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain. It is suitable for cultivation with adequate doses of manures and fertilizers. • Arid soils are sandy in texture and saline in nature. Due to the dry climate, high temperature, evaporation is faster and the soil lacks humus and moisture. • Forest soils are loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse grained in the upper slopes. These soils are acidic with humus content in the snow covered areas of Himalayas. • Soil is uppermost layer of the earth’s crust which is loose and fragmented. • The denudation of the top soil cover and its washing down is described as soil erosion. • The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies, it is known as gully erosion. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines. • When the top soil is washed away due to heavy flow of water over large areas down a slope, it is known as sheet erosion. • When the top fertile soil blows off due to wind it is known as wind erosion. • Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called contour ploughing. • Planting lines of trees to create shelter to break up the force of the wind is known as shelter belts. EXERCISE 1.5 I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which is the most important soil of India? (a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil (c) Red soil (d) Laterite soil (ii) Red soil looks yellow when it occurs in (a) Hydrated form (b) Original form (c) Oxidated form (d) Degraded form (iii) Which type of soil has a good capacity to hold moisture? (a) Alluvial soil (b) Arid soil (c) Forest soil (d) Black soil (iv) Which of the following soils is more common in Piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai? (a) Black soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Red soil (v) Which soil is also known as regur soil? (a) Black soil (b) Red soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil (vi) In the snow-covered areas of Himalayas, which of the following soils experiences denudation and is acidic in nature with humus content? (a) Laterite soil (b) Black soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Forest soil (vii) The lower horizons of the arid soil is occupied by kankar due to increasing (a) Calcium content (b) Potash content (c) Lime, potash and phosphorous contents (d) Phosphorous content 34 Social Science-10

2. Choose the correct pair Choose the correctly matched pair about the soils found in India from the following options: (i) (a) Alluvial soils – Himalayan river systems (b) Arid soils – Tropical and sub-tropical climate (c) Forest soils – Regur soils (d) Laterite soils – Red to brown is colour (ii) (a) Black soils – West Bengal (b) Forest soils – Ladakh (c) Arid soils – Karnataka (d) Red and yellow soils – Gujarat 3. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (v) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option: Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (i) Assertion (A): Evaporation is faster in the arid soil region and the soil lacks humus and moisture. Reason (R): There is dry climate and high temperature in the arid soil region. (ii) Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of paddy, wheat, cereal and pulse crops. Reason (R): Alluvial soil is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture. (iii) Assertion (A): Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. Reason (R): Soil supports different types of living organisms on the earth. (iv) Assertion (A): Processes of soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously and creates a balance between the two. Reason (R): The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is soil erosion. (v) Assertion (A): Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation. Reason (R): Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. It restricts the filtration of water. 4. Fill in the blanks (i) Tea and coffee: Laterite soils, Maize and pulses: Arid soils, _____________ : Black soils (a) Rubber and coconut (b) Barley and spices (c) Cotton and jowar (d) Wheat and cinchona (ii) Maharashtra: Black soil, Karnataka: Laterite soil, _____________: Arid soil (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Kerala (d) Assam II. Case/Source Based Questions  (6 Marks) 5. R ead the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The processes of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion. Resources and Development  35

Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion. Western and central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works in a similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India. 5.1. The denudation of earth cover and subsequent washing down is called. (a) Sheet erosion (b) Soil erosion (c) Gully erosion (d) Wind erosion 5.2. Read the following statements of find the INCORRECT from the given options. I. When the land becomes useless for agriculture it is known as bad land. II. Wind erosion refers to the top infertile soil blows off due to wind. III. Shelter belts have contributed importantly in stabilising the desert in eastern India. (a) II and III only (b) I and II only (c) III only (d) I only 5.3. The running water cuts through the clayey soils (a) Bad land (b) Gullies (c) Deltas (d) None of these 5.4. Where is gully erosion common? (a) In Bramhaputra Basin (b) In Ganga Basin (c) In Chambal Basin (d) In Narmada Basin 5.5. Planting lines of trees to build shelter to break up the wind force is called (a) Wind erosion (b) Soil erosion (c) Contour ploughing (d) Shelter belts 5.6. Which of the following is not the soil conservation method? (a) Terracing of slopes (b) Checking overgrazing (c) Contour ploughing (d) Strip cropping Answers 1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c), (v)–(a), (vi)–(d), (vii)–(a) 2. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b) 3. (i)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c), (v)–(c) 4. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b) 5. 5.1 (b)  5.2 (a)  5.3 (b)  5.4 (c)  5.5 (d)  5.6 (a) Graph Based Question Which of the following options best signifies this graph? (a) About 43% of the land area is plain which provides facilities for agriculture and industry. (b) Mountains account for about 30% of the land area which provides facilities for tourism and ecological aspects. (c) About 27% of the plateau region possesses rich resources of minerals, fossil fuels and forests. (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 36 Social Science-10

Map Based Questions 1. Identify the major soil types shown in the given outline map of India and write their names.[As per the CBSE Map List] On the same outline map of India, identify the locations and choose the correct option. 2. Which of the following soils are found in Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and Uttarakhand regions where sufficient rainforests are available? (a) Alluvial soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Forest and mountainous soil (d) Black soil 3. Which of the following soils ranges from red to brown in colour? (a) Black soil (b) Arid soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Alluvial soil (iii) 2 3 (vi) (iii) (i) (iv) (v) Tropic of Cancer (vi) (ii) 12° (iv) 8° Ans. 1. (i) Arid/Desert soil, (ii) Laterite soil, (iii) Forest and Mountainous soil, (iv) Red and Yellow soil (v) Black soil (vi) Alluvial soil     2. (c),  3. (b) Resources and Development  37

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified informations. 4. (i) On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a soil. Identify it from the following options. (a) Arid soil (b) Regur soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Alluvial soil 36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96° 36° 32° 32° 28° 28° 24° A 24° 20° 20° 16° B 16° 12° 12° 8° 8° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° (ii) On the same map given above, ‘B’ is also marked as a soil which is ideal for growing cotton. (a) Black soil (b) Forest soil (c) Red and Yellow soil (d) Desert soil 5. (i) On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a soil. Identify it from the following options. (a) Laterite soil (b) Red and Yellow soil (c) Arid soil (d) Alluvial soil 36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96° 36° 32° 32° 28° 28° A 24° 24° 20° 20° 16° 16° 12° B 12° 8° 8° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° (ii) On the same map given above. ‘B’ is also makred as a soil which is very soil for growing tea and coffee. Identify it from the following options. (a) Arid soil (b) Black soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Mountainous soil Ans. 4. (i)-(d), (ii)-(a)  5. (i)-(b), (ii)-(c) 38 Social Science-10

3 Water Resources Note: The theoretical aspect of the chapter to be assessed in Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination. Only Map items as given in the CBSE Map List from this chapter will be evaluated in Board Examination. Map Based Questions 1. On an outline map of India locate and label the following dams along with river lines:  [As per the CBSE Map List] 1. Salal 2. Bhakra Nangal 3. Tehri 4. Rana Pratap Sagar 5. Sardar Sarovar 6. Hirakud 7. Nagarjuna Sagar 8. Tungabhadra Ans. Chenab R.1Sa. lal 2.Bhakra Nangal Satluj R. 3. Tehri RanSaaPgarartap4. Chambal R. Ganga R. 5. Narmada R. 6. Mahandi R Krishna R. 7.Nagarjuna Sagar 8. Tungabhadra 39

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified informations. 2. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as dam. Identify it from the following options. (a) Salal dam (b) Hirakud dam (c) Bhakra Nangal dam (d) Rana Pratap Sagar dam 36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96° 36° 32° 32° 28° B 28° 24° 24° A20° 20° 16° 16° 12° 12° 8° 8° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 3. On the same map of India given below, ‘B’ is also marked as a major dam located in Uttarakhand. Identified it from the following options. (a) Sardar Sarovar dam (b) Kallanai dam (c) Pandoh dam (d) Tehri dam 4. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a dam. Identify it from the following options. (a) Tungabhadra dam (b) Bhakra Nangal dam (c) Koyna dam (d) Banasura dam 36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96° 36° B32° 32° 28° 28° 24° 24° 20° 20° 16° 16° 12° A 12° 8° 8° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 5. On the same map given above, ‘B’ is also marked as major dam located in Jammu and Kashmir on Chenab river. Identify if from the following options. (a) Hirakud dam (b) Nagarjura Sagar dam (c) Mettur dam (d) Salal dam Ans. 2. (b)  3. (d)  4. (a)  5. (d) 40 Social Science-10

4 Agriculture Topics Covered 1. Types of Farming 2. Cropping Pattern 3. Food Crops other than Grains 4. Non-Food Crops 5. Technological and Institutional Reforms 6. Impact of Globalisation on Agriculture TOPICWISE IMPORTANT POINTS   1. Types of Farming •• Agriculture is an age-old economic activity is our country but over these year, cultivation methods have changed with the use of modern techniques. •• Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type. At present, in different parts of India these types of farming systems are practised. •• Primitive Subsistence Farming is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture in which farmers clear a patch of land and grow crops with the help of primitive tools to sustain their family. •• ‘Slash and burn’ agriculture is known as Jhumming in north-eastern states, Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. •• Intensive subsistence farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production. •• Commercial Farming in which farmers grow crops with the aim of selling the products for commercial purpose. •• Plantation is a type of commercial farming. In this farming a single crop is grown on large area. It is practised on large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. EXERCISE 4.1 I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Name the farming that is also known as ‘slash and burn’ agricultural. (a) Primitive subsistence farming (b) Intensive subsistence farming (c) Plantation farming (d) Dairy farming (ii) What is jhumming cultivation called in Andhra Pradesh? (a) Dahiya (b) Kumari (c) Khil (d) Podu or Penda (iii) In which state of India ‘slash-and burn’ agriculture is called ‘Pamlou’? (a) Meghalaya (b) Manipur (c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland (iv) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area? (a) Shifting agricultural (b) Plantation agriculture (c) Horticulture (d) Intensive agriculture 41

(v) Which of the following is an age-old economic activity? (a) Fishing (b) Tailoring (c) Agriculture (d) Weaving (vi) Which of the following methods have been changed depending upon the characteristics of physical environment, technological know-how and socio-cultural practice? (a) Industrial activity (b) Irrigation Pattern (c) Cultivation (d) None of these (vii) Jhumming in Brazil is called– (a) Ladang (b) Roca (c) Masole (d) None of these (viii) ________ is a slash and burn agriculture. (a) Extensive farming (b) Commercial subsistence farming (c) Jhumming (d) None of these (ix) Which of the following farming practice depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions? (a) Commercial farming (b) Internsive subsistence farming (c) Plantation (d) Primitive subsistence farming (x) Which type of agriculture practice is famous in North-Eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland? (a) Jhumming (b) Slash and burn farming (c) Commercial farming (d) Subsistence farming (xi) What population of India is engaged in agricultural activities? (a) Two-third (b) Three-fourth (c) One-fourth (d) Two-fourth (xii) Tick the characteristic of commercial farming. (a) Plots of land are fragmented. (b) Transport and communication plays an important role. (c) The yield is usually low. (d) The pressure of population is high on land. 2. Choose the correct pair (i) Choose the correctly matched pair about the Primitive cultivation in India from the following options: (CBSE SP 2020-21) (a) Dahiya – Madhya Pradesh (b) Kumari – Jharkhand (c) Khil – Andhra Pradesh (d) Koman – Karnataka (ii) Choose the correctly matched pair about the slash and burn agriculture in other countries from the following options: (a) Ray – Mexico (b) Milpa – Vietnam (c) Roca – China (d) Conuco – Venezuela 3. Fill in the blanks (i) Bewar: Madhya Pradesh, Penda: Andhra Pradesh, _________ : Odisha (a) Kuruwa (b) Podu (c) Khil (d) Bringa (ii) North-eastern region: Jhumming, Waltre: South-eastern Rajasthan, __________  : Odisha (a) Valre (b) Pama Dabi (c) Kuruwa (d) Podu 4. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions Two statements are given in the questions (i), (ii) and (iii) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option: 42 Social Science-10

Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (i) Assertion (A): Plantation, a type of commercial farming, in this a single crop is grown on a large area. Reason (R): Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets. (ii) Assertion (A): India’s primary activity is agriculture. Reason (R): Two-thirds of India’s population is engaged in agricultural activities. (iii) Assertion (A): Biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production. Reason (R): Doses of biochemical input are used to grow crops rapidly. II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 5. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations. 5.1. Plantation is a type of commercial farming. Which of the following crops come under plantation farming? (a) Rubber, coffee, wheat, banana, cotton (b) Tea, rice, rubber, coffee, maize (c) Sugarcane, tea, coffee, banana, rubber (d) Jute, tea, coffee, maize, banana 5.2. Plantation covers large tracts of land. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options. I. Planation is practised in areas where population pressure on land is high. II. It has an interface of agriculture and industry. III. It requires well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas. Options: (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III only (d) I only 5.3. Which of the following states of India is famous for spices and rubber? (a) West Bengal (b) Odisha (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala 5.4. Laterite soil is useful for growing which of the following commercial crops? (a) Rubber and sugarcane (b) Cotton and jute (c) Barley and gram (d) Tea and coffee Agriculture  43

5.5. Which form of agriculture is plantation farming? (a) Extensive farming (b) Commercial farming (c) Mixed farming (d) Subsistence farming 5.6. Which of the following is not a major planation crop of India? (a) Banana (b) Grapes (c) Rubber (d) Tea Answers 1. (i)–(a), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(b), (v)–(c), (vi)–(c), ( vii)–(b), (viii)–(c), (ix)–(d), (x)–(a), (xi)–(a), (xii)–(b) 2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(d) 3. (i)–(d), (ii)–(b) 4. (i)–(b), ( ii)–(a), (iii)–(a) 5. 5.1 (c)   5.2 (d)   5.3 (d)   5.4 (d)  5.5 (b)   5.6 (b)   2. Cropping Pattern •• Cropping Season: Season in which some particular crops are grown. India has three cropping season– rabi, kharif and zaid.  Rabi crops: These crops are grown in winter between October to December and harvested in summer between April to June.  Kharif crops: These crops are sown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and harvested in September-October.  Zaid crops: In between the Rabi and the Kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season. •• Major crops grown in India are rice, wheat, millets, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane, oilseeds, cotton, jute, etc. •• Rice is the staple food crop of the majority of people in India. •• India is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China. •• Wheat is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop in north and north- western part of the country. •• Jowar, bajra and ragi are the important millets grown in India. •• Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder. It grows well in old alluvial soil. EXERCISE 4.2 I. Objective Type Questions  (1 Mark) 1. C hoose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which crop is harvested in the months of September-October? (a) Zaid (b) Rabi (c) Kharif (d) None of these (ii) During which season/seasons important crops like watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber and vegetables crops are produced? (a) Zaid season (b) Kharif season (c) Rabi season (d) All of these (iii) Which one of the following is a rabi crop? (a) Paddy (b) Gram (c) Jowar (d) Soyabean (iv) What is ‘Boro’? (a) Kharif crop (b) Zaid crop (c) Rabi crop (d) None of these (v) Ragi is very rich in (a) Zinc (b) Iodine (c) Iron (d) Phosphorous 44 Social Science-10

(vi) Rabi crops are sown in (a) Winters (b) Monsoon (c) Summers (d) None of these (vii) Which of the following is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India? (a) Jowar (b) Bajra (c) Wheat (d) Rice (viii) Which out of the following is a zaid crop? (a) Moong (b) Mustard (c) Urad (d) Watermelon (ix) The crops grown in rabi season are (a) Wheat, peas, barley and mustard (b) Rice, jute, maize, soyabean (c) Pulses, melons, vegetables (d) Sugarcane and tobacco (x) In which months are the kharif crops harvested? (a) April – June (b) September – October (c) January – February (d) June – July (xi) Important crops like paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, etc. are grown during which of the following seasons? (a) Spring (b) Summer (c) Monsoon (d) Winter (xii) Aus, aman and boro are types of which crop? (a) Maize (b) Paddy (c) Jowar (d) Bajra (xiii) Which of the following crops is used both as food and fodder? (a) Ragi (b) Jowar (c) Maize (d) None of these 2. Choose the correct pair C hoose the correctly matched pair about the largest producing country from the following options: (a) Brazil – Pulses (b) China – Rice (c) India – Fruits and vegetables (d) Sugarcane – Japan 3. F ill in the blanks (i) Pulses: leguminous crop, watermelon: zaid crop, ____________: rabi crop (a) Maize (b) Jowar (c) Bajra (d) Barley (ii) Barley: rabi crop, cotton: kharif crop, ________: zaid crop (CBSE S.P. 2020-21) (a) Wheat (b) Mustard (c) Soyabean (d) Cucumber (iii) A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is _____________. (CBSE S.P. 2020-21) (a) Bajra (b) Rajma (c) Jowar (d) Ragi (iv) Peas: rabi crop, Muskmelon: zaid crop, _________ : kharif crop (a) Gram (b) Bajra (c) Wheat (d) Barley (v) West Bengal: Rice, Punjab: Wheat ________: Maize (a) Karnataka (b) Uttarakhand (c) Haryana (d) Assam 4. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions Two statements are given in the questions (i) and (ii) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Agriculture  45

(i) Assertion (A): Crops are grown depending upon the variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices. Reason (R): Crops are also grown according to availability of water. (ii) Assertion (A): Staple food crop in India is rice and requires less rain. Reason (R): Our country is the fourth largest producer of rice in the world. I I. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks) 5. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Through, these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir (UT), Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones help in the success of these crops. However, the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and Parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean. Some of the most important rice growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Karala and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Recently, paddy has also become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro. 5.1. Which of the following crops grown in rabi season? (a) Barely, soyabean, watermelon (b) Rice, peas, bajra (c) Gram, mustard, barley (d) Jowar, urad, gram 5.2. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options. I. Rabi crops are grown in summer and harvested from October to December. II. Kharif crops are harvested in September-October. III. West Bengal and Assam are major rice producing states of India. Options: (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I only (d) III only 5.3. Which of the following is not a kharif crop? (a) Arhar (b) Moong (c) Cotton (d) Mustard 5.4. Which of the following is the main crop of rabi reason? (a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Jowar 5.5. The three main cropping seasons of India are (a) Pongal, Lohri and Onam (b) Aus, Aman and Boro (c) Rabi, Kharif and Zaid (d) Chat, Baishakh and Lohri 5.6. The staple food of India is (a) Soyabean (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Gram 46 Social Science-10

Answers 1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a), (v)–(c), (vi)–(a), ( vii)–(d), (viii)–(d), (ix)–(a), (x)–(b), (xi)–(c) (xii)–(b), (xiii)–(c) 2. (b) 3. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c), (v)–(a)   4. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c) 5. 5.1 (c)   5.2 (c)   5.3 (d)   5.4 (a)  5.5 (c)   5.6 (b) 3. Food Crops other than Grains •• India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after Brazil. •• India was the second largest producer of groundnut in the world after China. •• India was the third largest producer rapeseed in the world after Canada and China. •• Main oilseeds produced in India are groundnut, coconut, sesamum (til), soyabean, castor seeds, cotton seeds, linseed and sunflower. •• Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oilseeds produced in the country. It grows well in Gujarat, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra. •• Tea is an beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British. It is a labour intensive industry. India was the second largest producer of tea after China and Turkey in 2014. •• Indian coffee is known in the world for its good quality. India produced 3.5 per cent of the world coffee production in 2014. The Arabica variety which is in great demand all over the world is produced in India. Its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills. •• Horticulture refers to intensive cultivation of vegetables, fruits and flower crops for the market. India was the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world after China in 2014. EXERCISE 4.3 Objective Type Questions  (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) The largest sugarcane producing state of India is (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Which of the following crops is grown once a year? (a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton (c) Rice (d) Pulses (iii) Which of the following is the largest tea producer state in India? (a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Assam (iv) Which of the following countries is the largest producer of sugarcane? (a) China (b) Brazil (c) France (d) India (v) Which of the following states is not a major sugarcane producing states in India? (a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan (vi) Which of the following are the two main beverage crops produced in India? (a) Cocoa and sugarcane (b) Rice and pulses (c) Tea and coffee (d) Jowar and Bajra (vii) Which of the following varieties of coffee is grown in India? (a) American (b) Arabica (c) Espresso (d) Cappuccino (viii) Which of the following countries is the largest producer of Horticulture crops? (a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Japan (d) China Agriculture  47

2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions Two statements are given in the questions (i) and (ii) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (i) Assertion (A): Tea cultivation is a labour-intensive industry. Reason (R): Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate throughout the year. (ii) Assertion (A): Groundnut is a zaid crop and accounts for about one-third of the major oilseeds produced in the country. Reason (R): Castor seed is grown both as rabi and kharif crop. Answers 1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(b), (viii)–(d) 2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(d)   4. Non-Food Crops •• Rubber is a major industrial raw material. It is an equatorial crop, but under special condition. •• Cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are the four major fibre crops grown in India. •• Sericulture is the rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre. •• India was the second largest producer of cotton after China in 2008. •• Jute is known as the golden fibre. It grows well in well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year. EXERCISE 4.4 Objective Type Questions (1 Mark) 1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs) (i) Which of the following crops requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C? (a) Jute (b) Rice (c) Rubber (d) Wheat (ii) India was the second largest producer of this crop after China in 2015. (a) Barley (b) Cotton (c) Maize (d) Sugarcane (iii) Which of the following crops is mainly grows in Kerala? (a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Rubber (d) Jute (iv) Which of the following countries was the second largest producer of cotton in 2015, but now it is the largest cotton producing country in the world? (a) India (b) China (c) Brazil (d) Sri Lanka (v) Cotton grows well in (a) Arid soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Black soil 48 Social Science-10

(vi) Which of the following is being used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts? (a) Jute (b) Cotton (c) Fibre (d) None of these (vii) Which of the following is not a fibre crop grown in India? (a) Silk (b) Maize (c) Hemp (d) Cotton 2. Choose the correct pair Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops from the following options: (a) Golden fibre – Jute (b) Fibre crop – Rubber (c) Food crop – Cotton (d) Non-food crop – Tea 3. Fill in the blanks (i) On black soil ______________ is grown. (a) Cotton (b) Maize (c) Silk (d) Mulberry (ii) ______________ a major industrial raw material which is mainly grown in Kerala and Tamil Nadu. (a) Coffee (b) Rubber (c) Coconut (d) Rice (iii) Rearing and breeding of fishes: Pisciculture, Honey-bee farming: Apiculture, Rearing of silkworms: __________ (a) Silkculture (b) Sericulture (c) Mulberryculture (d) Wormculture 4. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Rubber is grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas. Reason (R): It requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 100 cm and temperature above 50°C Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Answers 1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(a), (v)–(d), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(b) 2. (a) 3. (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b) 4. (c)   5. Technological and Institutional Reforms •• Collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the country after independence. •• The Green Revolution and the White Revolution (Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated to improve the lot of Indian agriculture. •• Green Revolution refers to technologies that were introduced to increase the agricultural production such as use of HYV seeds, fertilizers, modern machinery and inputs. Agriculture  49