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Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida Page 1 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida PREFACE Cambridge School Noida always believes in developing an educational programme and environment which nurtures boys and girls who will endeavour to be good citizens and distinguish themselves in all walks of life. Teachers at Cambridge School Noida are committed to deliver a high-quality educational programme to our children This question bank is an initiative by the subject teachers to help the students to achieve their targets and exhibit excellence in the forthcoming All India Secondary School Examination, 2020-21. The assignments of this Questions bank have been created keeping in mind the development of critical thinking, reasoning, logic and application skills and it also encapsulates questions designed to test High Order Thinking Skills (HOTS). This booklet covers chapter wise (or section wise) questions of each subject covering very short answer type, short answer type, long answer type questions. It also includes assertion-reason questions and paragraph-based questions in accordance with the latest CBSE pattern. This booklet covers the questions as per the CBSE latest sample papers released for Session 2020-21. We hope this effort made by the teachers would help our students to achieve their target in CBSE Board Exams. ALL THE BEST Page 2 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida INDEX ENGLISH.................................................................................................................................................. 4 MATHEMATICS ..................................................................................................................................... 32 SCIENCE ................................................................................................................................................ 62 SOCIAL SCIENCE.................................................................................................................................. 165 HINDI .................................................................................................................................................. 205 FRENCH............................................................................................................................................... 246 GERMAN ............................................................................................................................................. 254 COMPUTER APPLICATION................................................................................................................... 277 PAINTING ............................................................................................................................................ 288 INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY ............................................................................................................ 294 LINKS TO CBSE SAMPLE PAPERS …………………………………………………………………………………………………….312 Page 3 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida ENGLISH (Subject Code: 184) Page 4 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida READING Q1. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: 1. Reading books is a globally recognized intellectual and cultural activity, which keeps the brain healthy and alive, but unfortunately the culture of reading books is almost becoming non-existent in our society.TV, Video and other electronic media are solely responsible for the decline in reading interest of children today. The time honoured way of improving reading is by reading fiction. Psychologists say each one of us needs stories. Covenant told stories round the fire. Mythologies and folk stories have been passed down from one generation to another. Most of us think we are literates and so our fictional needs can be satisfied by reading. 2. But, it is not so. Today’s average school children depend heavily on videos, television and film. Whilst many of these activities may be harmless, we need to realise they do nothing to build up reading skills. If instead of spending long hours watching television, children spent more hours reading, our next generation of population would be better read. The famous saying, “A home without books is like a body without soul,” is the best defined one emphasising the importance of books and their role in shaping up the importance of book reading. 3. Watching a story is a totally passive pastime. Someone else has made all the decisions about casting, set, clothing, facial expressions, tone etc. Reading a story is an active partnership with the author. Ideas are sketched and the mind of the reader creates the rest. Why is dramatised fiction usurping the written kind? It is because children whose reading is hesitant cannot readily identify and enjoy the plot. Watching stories is much easier. This is leading to the mind’s process being stultified. The problem is that most children read very slowly. I sometimes see children carry the same 100 page book for a week or even a fortnight. Such children eventually declare that they hate reading. Their problem is that whilst they read, they cannot interpret the text. The need is to be able to read and interpret fast enough to feed the mind’s hunger for a story. Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option from the ones given below: (i) Reading is recognised as an intellectual activity because_____. (a) it’s a global feature (b) it’s good for setting up goals (c) it keeps you culturally alive (d) it keeps the brain active Page 5 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida (ii) The writer blames the television, video and other electronic media for _____. (a) today’s children’s lack of interest in reading (b) decline in the reading interests of today’s children (c) slow reading attitude of the children (d) today’s children not able to interpret the text (iii) The common urge in mankind according to psychologists is _______. (a) everyone needs stories (b) to buy TV’s, films, and videos to watch stories (c) to read fiction (d) to translate all fiction into drama (iv) The author feels that the present generation is not w e ll r e ad b ecause_____. (a) Children can easily dramatise stories read by them. (b) Children can read texts without having the ability to understand and interpret (c) Children love to read fiction. (d) Children are fast readers. (v) By saying, ‘reading is an active partnership with the author’ the writer means that ______. (a) reading can only be done along with a partner (b) the reader’s mind engages itself actively with the author’s thoughts and ideas and so both have a silent communication. (c) as the reader reads the text aloud his mind becomes active (d) when we read aloud we have listeners who become our partners (vi) The word ‘usurping’ means to________. (a) give someone a proper place of honour (b) take someone else’s position forcefully (c) experiment with new forms (d) surf the net for information (vii) Children who get into the habit of watching stories over videos and films generally______. (a) become more creative (b) become fast readers (c) develop hatred for reading (d) become avid readers (viii) Children take days to finish a book as______. (a) they dislike the fact that they cannot interpret the text while reading a book (b) they hate books (c) they need to feed the mind (d) they have a problem (ix) Which word is not a synonym of ‘non-existent’ (para 1) Page 6 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida (a) missing (b) unreal (c) non-fictional (d) imaginary (x) Give the opposite of the word ‘passive’ (para 3) (a) alive (b) active (c) alert (d) quiet Q2. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow 1 Caged behind thick glass, the most famous dancer in the world can easily be missed in the National Museum, Delhi. The Dancing Girl of Mohenjodaro is that rare artefact that even school children are familiar with. Our school textbooks communicate the wealth of our 5000-year heritage of art. You have to be alert to her existence there, amid terracotta animals to rediscover this bronze image. 2 Most of us have seen her only in photographs or sketches, therefore the impact of actually holding her is magnified a million times over. One discovers that the dancing girl has no feet. She is small, a little over 10 cm tall- the length of a human palm -but she surprises us with the power of great art- the ability to communicate across centuries. 3 A series of bangles -of shell or ivory or thin metal -clothe her left upper arm all the way down to her fingers. A necklace with three pendants bunched together and a few bangles above the elbow and wrist on the right hand display an almost modern art. She speaks of the undaunted, ever hopeful human spirit. She reminds us that it is important to visit museums in our country to experience the impact that a work of art leaves on our senses, to find among all the riches one particular vision of beauty that speaks to us alone. On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following questions. (i) The Dancing Girl belongs to_______. (a) Mohenjodaro. (b) Greek culture. (c) Homo sapiens. (d) Tibet. (ii) In the museum the dancing girl is kept among_____. (a) dancing figures. (b) bronze statues. (c) terracotta animals. (d) books. (iii) Which information is NOT given in the passage? Page 7 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida (a) The girl is caged behind glass. (b) She is a rare artefact. (c) School books communicate the wealth of our heritage. (d) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze. (iv) School children are familiar with the dancing girl because they______. (a) have gone for trips to the museum (b) have read about it in school textbooks (c) have held it in their palm (d) have seen it only in photographs (v) ‘Great Art’ has power because____. (a) it appeals to us despite a passage of time. (b) it is small and can be understood. (c) it is seen in pictures and sketches. (d) it is magnified a million times. (vi) The jewellery worn by the dancing girl_______. (a) consists of bangles of shell or ivory or thin metal only. (b) is a necklace with two pendants. (c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. (d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. (vii) It’s ironical that the dancing girl (a) has no feet (b) is not dancing (c) is caged (d) is so small (viii) The dancing girl reminds us______. (a) of the never-say-die attitude of humans. (b) why museums in our country are exciting. (c) why she will make us come into money. (d) of dancing figures. (ix) The synonym of the word ‘‘among’’ in paragraph 1 is _______. (a) wealth (b) artefact (c) caged (d) amid (x) The size of the dancing girl is ________to the length of the human palm. (a) more (b) equal (c) similar (d) less Page 8 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida Q3. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow From the moment a baby first opens its eyes, it is learning. Sight and sensation spark off a learning process which will determine in large measure, the sort of person it will become. Language stands head and shoulders over all other tools as an instrument of learning. It is the language that gives man his lead in intelligence over all the other creatures. No other creature can assemble a list of ideas, consider them, draw conclusions and then explain his reasoning. Man can do all this because he possesses language. And if thought depends on language, the quality of an individual’s thought will depend on that person’s language-rudimentary or sophisticated, precise or approximate, stereotyped or original. Very young babies are soothed by human voice uttering comforting words close to them. This essentially-emotional response provides early evidence that feeling is an important component of language learning. Children learn to use language in interaction with other human beings and this learning proceeds best against a background of affectionate feedback from the person who is closest to them. This is seen to perfection in the interaction between parent and a baby: eyes locked together, the adult almost physically drawing ‘verbal’ response from the baby, both engulfed by that unique experience of intimate and joyful ‘connecting’, which sets the pattern of the relationship between two people. Thus, long before they can speak, children are involved in a two-way process of communication, which is steadily building a foundation on which their later use of language will be based. Constantly surrounded by language, they are unconsciously building structures in their minds into which their speech and reading will later fit grammatical constructions, tense sequences and so on. The forms of these structures will depend on the amount and complexity of speech they hear. Fortunate are those children who listen to articulate adults, expressing ideas and defending opinions. They will know, long before they can contribute themselves and understand, that relationships are forged through this process of speaking and listening; that warmth and humour have a place in the process, as have all other human emotions. Using books is the most important means of ensuring a child’s adequate language development. None of us can endlessly initiate and maintain speech with very small children; we run out of ideas or just get sick of it. Their lives are confined to a limited circle and they do not have enough experience to provide raw material for constant verbal interaction. Parents and children who share books share the same frame of reference. Incidents in everyday life constantly remind one or the other of a situation, a character, an action, from a jointly enjoyed book, with all the generation of warmth and well-being that is attendant upon such sharing. Too often, there is a breakdown of communication between parents and children when the problems of adolescence arise. In most cases, this is most acute when the give-and-take of shared opinions and ideas have not been constantly practiced throughout childhood. Books can play a major role in the establishment of this verbal give-and-take because they are rooted in language. Young children’s understanding greatly outruns their capacity for expression as their speech strains to encompass their awareness, to represent reality as they see it. Shades of meaning which may be quite unavailable to the child of limited verbal experience are startlingly talked to toddler. All the wonderful modifying words-later, nearly, tomorrow, almost, wait, half, lend, etc. begin to steer the child away from the simple extremes of “Yes” and “No” towards the adult word of compromise from the child’s black and white world to the subtle shades and tints of the real world. The range of imaginative experience opened up by books expands the inevitably limited horizons of children’s surroundings and Page 9 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida allows them to make joyful, intrigued, awestruck acquaintance with countless people, animals, objects and ideas in their first years of life. Books also open children to new points of view, besides their own as they unconsciously put themselves into other people’s places-‘if that could happen to him, it could happen to me’. This imaginative self-awareness brings apprehensions and fears as well as heightened hopes and joys. In books, children can experience language which is subtle, resourceful, exhilarating and harmonious; languages that provide the human ear (and understanding) with a pointed and precise pleasure, the searing illuminating impact of good and true words. A. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 5 = 5 mark) (i) What is an important component of language learning? (a) Feeling (b) Linguistics (c) Emotions (d) Environment (ii) What are the things that enable a baby to learn about the world around it? (a) See and hear (b) Sense and analyse (c) Understand and use language (d) See, hear and sense (iii) What are the most important means of ensuring a child’s adequate language development? (a) Using books (b) Two-way process of communication (c) Uttering comforting words (d) Drawing verbal response (iv)Why do books help in the establishment of verbal give-and-take? (a) Because they help in interaction with others (b) Because they are rooted in language (c) Because they are beautiful to look at (d) Because they have varied topics (v)How do books help children see things from other’s points of view? (a) Books help in imaginative self-awareness (b) Books have a beautiful cover (c) Books generate a lot of discussions (d) Books create awareness about various topics B. Answer the following questions briefly. (1 × 7 = 7 marks) (i) How does the range of language affect a person’s thinking? (ii) What advantages do children, who listen to articulate adults, enjoy in comparison to others? Page 10 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida (iii) Why, according to the writer, is ‘talking alone’ an inadequate base for language development? (iv) What is the role of books in maintaining a good relationship? Explain. (vi) Find a word from the passage (para-3) which means ‘pronounce distinctly’. (vii) Find a word from the passage (para-6) which means ‘give-and-take’. Q4. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow 1. Given the standing of some of its institutions of higher learning, the IITs and IIMs, India is a potential knowledge power. Realising the potential, however, is not going to be easy. The impressive strides made by Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) notwithstanding, universal access to quality school education- a minimum necessary condition for any progress towards making India a knowledge society’, as the 2006 report of the National Knowledge Commission (NKC) puts it-remains a distant goal. 2. There is as yet no legislation at the national level to affirm the right to education, a fundamental right under the Constitution. The number of school buildings for elementary and secondary education falls far short of requirements and so does the number of qualified teachers. The pressure on government budgets, which forces governments to hire teachers on contract paying a pittance of a salary, is playing havoc with quality. While the incursion of the private sector in the field is providing some competition, mechanisms to enforce the required standards are lacking. 3. Not that there are no national standards or standards-enforcing agencies. We have the National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT) to bring out textbooks in various subjects for school education. The central government runs several model schools. The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducts examinations for schools affiliated to it across the country. The states too have their school boards to conduct exams and enforce minimum standards. How even the standards vary widely. In their anxiety to show spectacular performance, some states are overly lenient-in marking answer papers. 4. Questions arise even over the standards applied by CBSE. Going by the number of students securing 90% or more in their higher secondary exam, it would appear India is on the brink of a knowledge revolution. The numbers are so large that the cut-off point for admission to top colleges is now above 90%. However, admissions to IITs and medical colleges are not based only on CBSE or state board exam results. Leading undergraduate colleges offering non- professional degree courses hold their own admission tests. Obviously, higher secondary school results are not taken to be a reliable index of the quality of a student’s learning capability or potential. 5. It is not difficult to see why. In the CBSE class XII exam., the number of successful candidates securing more than 90% in economics this year turned out to be over 8000 in the Delhi region alone; in English it was above 9000. The numbers seem to be growing every year. If the country produces so many children who attain very high levels of performance even before graduation, we can expect India to produce Amartya Sens by the dozens. 6. While scoring high marks or even 100 out of 100 may not be out of a good student’s reach in subjects like mathematics or physics, it is difficult to figure out the quality of the answers that fetch 90% marks in Economics or English. The standards applied by higher secondary boards Page 11 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida like CBSE seem to have been diluted to the point that leaves a big gap between what students learn at school and what they have to face on entering institutions of higher learning. Thriving teaching shops around the country promise to bridge that gap. 7. In an attempt to remedy the situation, NCERT had recently commissioned experts to rewrite textbooks on macro and micro economics. Though not entirely free from blemishes, these new texts should go some way in helping beginners get acquainted with the basic concepts in the subject and their applications. 8. Not surprisingly, their introduction is facing roadblocks. Teachers do not like to be compelled to look at textbooks they are not familiar with. Those who revel in seeing students score 90% are chary of ushering in something that may stop the rush of such scores. Lastly, even teaching shops see red as they fear loss of business if the higher secondary finalists can get their skills upgraded without buying their help. 9. One wonders if our Knowledge Commission is aware of these insidious impediments to India’s knowledge ambitions. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. 1. Why is quality school education a distant goal? (a) There are no fundamental rights. (b) There is no legislation at the national level. (c) Measures to enforce the required standards are not there. (d) There are no minimum necessary conditions. 2. What is the tone of writer when he remarks: ‘India is on the brink of a knowledge revolution.’ (a) Optimistic (b) Imaginative (c) Sarcastic (d) Presumptuous 3. For ensuring good performances some schools are ………………… 4. Teachers are opposing the new textbooks……………………….. 5. ………………. remains a distant goal. 6. The main factor that has affected the quality of education is …………... 7. ……………….. is the standard enforcing agency in India. 8. The leading undergraduate colleges hold their own admission tests because ………………. 9. Right to education is a fundamental right. (True / False) 10. NCERT is not in favour of rewriting books on macro and micro economics. (True / False) Which word in the passage means the same as- 11. Reputation 12. Impressive Q5. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow Page 12 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida 1. Mahatma Gandhi used to say that if we want to see real India we should to go the village. Similarly if we want to See the real spirit of’ Indian life, we shall have to go to see villagers celebrating their fairs. Last year I was invited by a friend to see a fair in his village. Though this fair was not an annual affair; last year it assumed more importance and attracted a large number of visitors because one of’ our senior ministers had very kindly consented to inaugurate it. The minister’s consent was not an unusual thing since it was an election year. 2. The village was situated at a distance of about ten miles from Delhi. I travelled by cycle and reached my friend’s house at about noon. It was a cloudy day and the countryside looked beautiful. The minister arrived in time. He was preceded and followed by a number of policemen. In the life of villagers visits by such dignitaries are a very unusual affair. Everyone bowed in deep respect and I was wondering whether the atmosphere created by the presence of the minister was in tune with the gay spirit of the fair. 3. After the ceremonial departure of the minister, villagers seemed to heave a sigh of relief. They came in increasingly large numbers. They were in their colourful best. Men, women and children were very happily advancing towards the male grounds near the tomb of a Muslim saint. Many stalls had sprung up. There were toy sellers and sweetmeat sellers. Every child was forcing his parents to buy toys. The toys the sweetmeats were dust laden as every blow of wind laid a fresh coat of dust on them. There were no roads, only dusty pathways led to the stalls and the fair ground. 4. Some distance from the stalls I saw a juggler performing his tricks. The simple-minded villagers watched his tricks with open-mouthed wonder and felt beside themselves with joy at every new trick. Another group of villagers was enjoying the feast of a rope dancer. Children and women were availing themselves of swinging in the air on ropes tied to the trees. Everywhere and in every heart there was joy. The colourful dress of children and women and their songs added to the beauty of the fair. 5. Near the tomb, I saw about half a dozen Muslim holy men sitting quietly and receiving the homage of the simple villagers who gathered there every year to invoke the blessing of a great saint to keep the evil spirits away from their fields. A group of villagers formed a circle danced hand in hand around the tomb. A couple of women also took part in it. 6. As evening fell, the fair came to an end. 1’he villagers dispersed as easily as they had gathered. There were no traffic jams, no policemen to control mischief-makers and no voluntary agencies to look after the missing children. Everybody in the village knew one another and there was no fear of loneliness. This show of brotherhood among the villagers deserves to be followed by city-dwellers. Type I (Multiple Choice Questions) 1.1 Choose the most appropriate option: i. We should go to a village to see the: a. Ministers c. real spirit of life b. village people d. village fair ii. Dignitaries visiting a village is an unusual affair because: a. they don’t like villagers c. village fairs are not frequent b. they are interested in d. their usual Visits are during inaugurations only elections only iii. After the departure of the minister: Page 13 of 312

Question Bank/Class X/Session 2020-21 Cambridge School Noida a. the villagers went back to their home b. the villagers came in large number to the fair c. every one bowed in deep respect d. no one spoke loudly iv. Every child in the fair forced his parents to buy: a. Sweetmeats c. toys b. colourful dresses d. sweets v. The village fair did not have. a. Juggler c. swings b. rope dancers d. electronic swings vi. When a village fair comes to an end, there are: a. traffic jams c. no mischief-makers b. policemen d. fearful vii. The word from the passage which means the opposite of ‘homage’ is a. respect b. tribute c. contempt d. reverence Page 14 of 312

Type — II (Very Short Answer Type Questions) 1.2 Answer the following questions briefly: a) The author visited a village fair. What had made the event assume more importance? b) How did the villagers behave when the minister arrived? Why did they do so? c) Describe the village fair scene. d) What were the people doing near the tomb? e) How was the disposal scene different from those in cities? WRITING ANALYTICAL PARAGRAPH Q1. The given chart shows the division of household tasks by gender in Great Britain. Write an analytical paragraph describing the chart in not more than 100-120 words. Q2. Analytical Paragraph – SOCIAL DISTANCING [15]

The cases of corona virus disease are spreading like wild fire across the globe. Social distancing is one of the measures to control the disease. Write an analytical paragraph on the topic, ‘Social Distancing is the need of the hour’. You are Anit/ Anita. 1. Some clues are given below. Write an analytical paragraph on ‘Importance of Morning Walk’. You are Kavi/ Kavita. • Makes you rise early • Fresh air • Energy for the day • Good for studies • Blood rushes through the body • Hungry for breakfast • All day active Q3. The following data in the form of histogram shows that death due to violence has increased considerably during recent years. Write its interpretation in 100 words on how educated youth can play a major role in establishing peace in society. [16]

Q4. The line graph given above shows estimated sales of gold in Dubai in 2002. Write an analytical paragraph describing the line graph in around 100-120 words. Q5. Study the graph given below, which is based on a survey done on students of tenth class in three different types of schools in Bhopal. The chart depicts the number of students speaking English and Hindi. On the basis of the details given in the bar-graph given below, briefly summarize the data making comparison wherever necessary in about 100-120 words. LETTER WRITING: 1. You are Rakshit, a resident of Anand Vihar, New Delhi. Write a letter to the Editor of a local newspaper, drawing the attention of the authorities towards the deteriorating law and order situation in your locality. 2. You are Ravi of 52, Shah Road, Agra. You had bought a text book ‘First Flight’ for Class X from a neighbourhood book store. After browsing through the book, you realized that a few pages were missing and the print overlapping on a few pages. Write a complaint letter to the Manager, Prakash Books, Sadar Bazar, Agra requesting him to replace the book or to refund the money at the earliest. [17]

3. You are Raj/Rajani Singh, 22 Church Road, Chennai. Last week you placed an order for the supply of a few items of furniture. On receiving the furniture, you found that some items were damaged and some not according to specifications. Describing the shortcomings, write a letter in 100-150 words complaining to the supplier, SR Furniture Mart, Mint Road, Chennai asking for an immediate replacement. 4. The traffic situation in our towns is quite complex. There are all sorts of vehicles from bullock carts to fast moving cars. Sometimes this leads to traffic jams and air pollution. Write a letter to the District Magistrate, expressing your views about the increasing traffic on roads in 100-120 words. You are Asha/Ashwani, living in 9 Galaxy Road, Noida. 5. There is an increasing dependence of students on coaching institutes and tuition centres. Write a letter to the Editor of The Hindu, in 100-120 words, giving reasons for this overdependence. Also, suggest a few measures that can be taken to check this trend. You are Arun/ Aruna, F-123, Mall Road Simla. GRAMMAR Q1. Read the following conversation carefully and complete the following passage by choosing the most appropriate option. Ranbir: Where is my car? I remember parking it here. Policeman: The car has been towed away as you parked it in the ‘no parking area’ Ranbir: Sir, can I be excused this time? Policeman: I hope you’ll remember the lesson you learnt today Ranbir asked the policeman standing there (a)_______________________ . The policeman replied (b)_________ Ranbir requested the policeman (c)___________________. The policeman then reminded him (d)____________. (a) i. where was his car? He remembered parking it here. ii. that where his car was? He remembered parking it there. iii. where his car was. He remembered parking it there. iv. that where was my car? He remembered it was parked here. (b) i. that the car had been towed away because he had parked it in the ‘no parking’ zone. ii. that the car was towed away because he had parked it in the ‘no parking’ zone. iii. the car had been towed away because it had been parked in the ‘no parking’ zone. iv. that the car had been towed away because it had been parked in the ‘no parking’ zone. (c) i. to be excused that time. ii. whether he could be excused that time. iii. that he should be excused. iv. whether he could be excused this time. (d) i. that he hoped he will have to remember the lesson he had learnt that day. [18]

ii. that he hoped he should be able to remember the lesson he had learnt that day. iii. that he has to remember the lesson he had learnt that day iv. that he hoped he would remember the lesson he had learnt that day. Q2. CHANGE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES INTO REPORTED SPEECH: i. He said to me, “I have often told you not to play with fire.” ii. They said, “We shall not play the match today”. iii. Rohit’s father said, “Your uncle is working in his office. He is a very busy man.” iv. She said, “I am waiting and longing for my daughter’s return.” v. “What do you want?” he said to her. vi. “Are you coming home with me”? He asked. vii. He enquired, “When do you intend to pay me?” viii. “Don’t you know the way home?” I asked. ix. “Bring me a glass of milk,” said the king to his servant. x. “Sit down, girls”, said the teacher. xi. He said to me, “Wait until I come.” xii. Rita said, “Please lend me your note book Leena.” xiii. “How smart you are!” she said. xiv. He said, “Alas! Our enemy is too strong”. xv. He said, “Let’s go and play outside.” xvi. The King said, “Put him in the prison.” Q3. CHANGE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES INTO DIRECT SPEECH: i. He asked Raj to go with him. ii. Raj replied that he could not do so. iii. She asked her mother when the next letter would come. iv. I told her that I had not seen her for months. v. He said that he was tired, and he wished to go to bed. vi. He asked me where I was going. vii. Sita asked Gita if she had read the letter. viii. He asked me if I would accompany him. ix. He said that the earth moves round the sun. x. He suggested we should study together. xi. He ordered him to leave the room. xii. The mother asked her boy where he had been all the afternoon. xiii. The speaker said that it gave him great pleasure to be there that evening. xiv. He told us that he had waited an hour. xv. The boy said that he would go with us. xvi. Rahul said that he wanted to be a doctor. [19]

Q4. CHANGE FROM DIRECT TO INDIRECT SPEECH: i. 1.\"Where is my umbrella?\" she asked. ii. \"How are you?\" Martin asked us. iii. He asked, \"Do I have to do it?\" iv. 4.\"Where have you been?\" the mother asked her daughter. v. 5.\"Which dress do you like best?\" she asked her boyfriend. vi. 6.\"What are they doing?\" she asked. vii. 7.\"Are you going to the cinema?\" he asked me. viii. 8. The teacher asked, \"Who speaks English?\" ix. 9.\"How do you know that?\" she asked me. x. 10.\"Has Caron talked to Kevin?\" my friend asked me. Q5. CHANGE FROM INDIRECT TO DIRECT SPEECH: i. She told her mother that she was going to the market. ii. His friends told me that they would go home the following Sunday. iii. The teacher told Mark he had been very regular in his work. iv. Marc told me that he had finished his work. v. The teacher said the earth moves around the sun. vi. He said that she was not going home that day. vii. He asked me if I had brought the pens. viii. The boy asked me if that was the place we had visited before. ix. The judge told the witness to tell the truth. x. The prisoner begged the judge to forgive him. Gap filling Q1. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer - (4 marks) Chocolates (a) ………. Lift up your mood easily. When you eat (b) ……….. chocolate, a chemical called serotonin is (c) ………… in the brain (d) ……….. makes you feel good. (a) (i) can (ii) could (iii) is (iv) was (b) (i) some (ii) the (iii) an (iv) the (c) (i) release (ii) releasing (iii) released (iv) releases (d) (i) it (ii) which (iii) they (iv) those Q2. Fill in the blanks using an appropriate form of the verb given in the brackets. Information technology (1)______(change) the way we access information. Since its introduction in the 1980’s, the internet (2)_____become) cheap and commonplace. Some people (3)_______ (see) this as an opportunity to deal with problems like unemployment. 1.(a) has changed (b) will change (c) changed (d) would change 2. (a) can become (b) had become (c) has become (d) did become 3. (a) saw (b) see (c) were seeing (d) are seeing Q3. Fill in the blanks with one word only: i. How ………….. money do you want? [20]

ii. Have you read ………….. stories? iii. I have read………….. short stories in Hindi but only ………….. in English. iv. I read the letter again and noticed that there were………….. mistakes in it. v. How ………….. milk do you take every day? vi. There are………….. countries in the world where the population is not growing fast. vii. Would you lend me your watch for ………….. days? viii. Do you have …………. complaint against the clerk? ix. There are ………….. eggs in the basket, but there isn’t ………….. butter. x. ………….. care could have prevented the accident. xi. ………….. of the boys has broken this window pane. xii. I have already spent the ………….. rupees you gave me. xiii. ………….. the husband and wife are members of this club. xiv. ………….. the customers insisted that the shopkeeper must provide them full measure. xv. The story was published in ………….. the local newspapers. xvi. xvii. He is an expert on languages, but he knows ---- about mathematics. xviii. I don't think there will be a severe shortage of usable water because there was ---- rain fall xix. yesterday. xx. Unfortunately, I have ---- talent for music although I have always wanted to be a famous singer. xxi. xxii. There were ---- people at the meeting earlier but most of them left early so there aren't many xxiii. left now. xxiv. Although she thought she knew ---- of the subject, the teacher asked a few details she hardly xxv. remembered. ---- people enjoy the performance of the theater company but I don't think it is a successful one. I had to live in Paris and Madrid for many years because of my business but I don't like ---- city much. Both players in the tennis match have been warned by the referee but ---- of them seems to take it seriously. In my country, ---- universities offer a wide range of courses. That's why they are preferred by foreign students as well. The vocabulary list had been memorized by ---- of the students and each one scored over 80 percent on the exam. Q4. Fill in the blanks in the paragraph given below by choosing the most appropriate options from the ones that follow. Soon you will not be able (a) _________ your car on the roadside. New parking rules (b)________ soon. Civic agencies (c)________ four months to implement them. (a) (i) to parking (ii) to allow to park (iii) at park (iv) to park (b) (i) will notify (c) (i) have (ii) will be notified (iii) will be noticed (iv) will be notifying (ii) had (iii) has (iv) are having Q5. Fill in the blanks to complete the paragraph given below with the help of options that follow: [21]

You play to win but a good sportsperson knows that defeat (a) ______also come once in a while. There are times when others (b)_______ do better than you. What you (c)________look to do is to maximize your chances of success. And the only way you (d)______ do this is by being yourself. (a) (i) may (ii) can (iii) shall (iv) will (b) (i) can (ii) must (iii) will (iv) ought to (c) (i) may (ii) should (iii) ought (iv) shall (d) (i) must (ii) should (iii) might (iv) can LITERATURE Literature Reader (First Flight) Prose 1. A Letter To God: Q1. Answer in 20-30 words- a) What was unusual about Lencho as a farmer? b) Why did Lencho’s happy mood change into concern? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words- a) Lencho did not try to find out who had sent the money to him. Why? b) What must the postmaster have expected in Lencho’s second letter? Q3. Answer in 100-120 words- a) The story ‘A Letter to God’ contains three letters. Which one of these does the title refer to? Elucidate. 2. Nelson Mandela Q1. Short Answers -20-30 words (2 marks) How did Mandela learn the meaning of courage? (3 marks) Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (5 marks) How does Mandela associate oppression with character? Q3. Long answers 100-120 words How did Mandela’s understanding of freedom change with age and experience? 3. Two Stories about Flying (2 marks each) Q1. Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words – (3 marks each) a. How did the wind help the seagull to fly? b. When did the seagull get over the fear of water? Q2. Answer the following questions in 40 to 50 words – a. Do you sympathise with the seagull? Give reasons. [22]

b. The pilot wanted to thank another pilot after his safe landing. Why? What characteristics are reflected from his action? Q3. Answer the following questions in 100 to120 words – (8 marks) a. Do you think the story ‘The Black Aeroplane’ is a mystery? Do you see some elements of supernatural power in the story? 4. From the Diary of Anne Frank Q1. Answer in 30-40 words (2 marks) a) Paper has more patience than people. Why did Anne write this in her diary? b) Why was Anne’s entire class ‘quaking in its boots’? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) a) According to Anne, she was not alone…. ‘on the surface’. Do you think she felt herself ‘alone’? If yes, why? b) How did Anne react to the punishment given to her by her Maths teacher? Q3. Answer in 100-120 words (5 marks) a) What idea do you form Mr. Keesing as a teacher? What is that you like the most about him? 5. The Hundred Dresses - I Q1. In what ways was Wanda different from the other children? (2 marks) Q2. How did Wanda describe the hundred dresses? (3 marks) Q3. We should behave well with all the students of our class and not make fun of anyone. Do you agree? What would you have done if you had been Peggy OR Maddie? (5 marks) 6. The Hundred Dresses – II Q1. Do you think Wanda hated the girls who used to tease her? (2 marks) Q2. Why did Maddie call a ‘coward’? What could she have done? (3 marks) Q3. Most of us know the difference between right and wrong but lack the courage to do what is correct. Keeping the above statement in mind what is your opinion about Maddie? (5 marks) 7. (a) Glimpses of India Part : A Baker from Goa (2 marks) (3 marks) Q1. Short Answers -20-30 words (5 marks) What are the elders in Goa nostalgic about? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words How did the bakers dress evolve over time in Goa? Q3. Long answers 100-120 words 7(b). Glimpses of India: Coorg (2 marks) Q1. Answer in 30-40 words (3 marks) a) What proves Kodavu people’s Arab descent? b) What attracts visitors to Coorg? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words a) What does the author refer to as ‘bonus’? Why? b) What are the many surprises that wait to be discovered in Coorg? [23]

Q3. Answer in 100-120 words (5 marks) a) The Coorgis are known for their hospitality. They are friendly and caring. Which of their qualities one must inculcate in one’s life? What makes them so lovable? 7(c). Glimpses of India: (Assam) Q1. What is the Chinese legend about the discovery of tea? (2 marks) Q2. How are tea pluckers different from farmers and labourers on the farms? (3 marks) Q3. What are the various legends about the origin of tea? (5 marks) Imagine you are Greg Samuel. Your grandson Jacob wants you to share with him your childhood memories of the Portuguese era and their famous bakery items. Write your letter in 100-120 words. 8. Madam Rides a Bus Q1. Answer in 30-40 words (2 marks) a) How did Valli feel when the conductor called her ‘My Fine Madam’? b) Why did Valli rebuke the elderly woman on the bus? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) a) What was Valli’s favourite pastime? Why? b) What proves that Valli was a meticulous planer? Q3. Answer in 100-120 words (5 marks) a) Valli sternly refused the conductor’s offer of a cold drink though she might be willing to have one. What lesson do you learn from her gesture? 9. The Sermon at Benaras Q1. According to Gautam Buddha, how can a person get peace of mind? (2 marks) Q2. How did Kisa Gotami realise that life and death is a normal process? (3 marks) Q3. How do you understand the idea of ‘selfishness’? Do you agree with Kisa Gotami that she is being ‘selfish in her grief’? (5 marks) 10. The Proposal Q1. Short Answers 20-30 words (2 marks) Why does Lomov threaten to take ‘the matter’ to court? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) Give details about the merits and demerits of ‘Guess’, Lomov’s hunting dog, as described by Chubukov. Q3. Long answers 100-120 words (5 marks) The three characters in the play, ‘The Proposal’ are a pack of fools. Who, according to you is the most foolish? POETRY 1. Dust of Snow Q1. Read the following stanza and answer the questions that follow: “The way a crow Shook down on me The dust of snow [24]

From a hemlock tree Has given my heart A change of mood And saved some part Of a day I had rued” 1.What does “Dust of Snow” represent? (2 marks each) (a) healing power of nature (b) particles of snow (c) cool weather (d) none of the above 2.Why does the poet call it “dust of snow”? (a) snow particles were too tiny (b) they came over him like dust (c) they felt like dust (d) they looked like dust 3.The rhyme scheme of the above lines is (a) abcd ; abcd (b) abac ; abac (c) abab ; abab (d) xyxz ; xyxy 4.What uplifted the poet’s mood? (a) falling of snow on his shoulder (b) the crow (c) hemlock tree (d) all of the above 5. Which word is not similar in meaning to ‘shook’? (a) quiver (b) tremble (c) shudder (d) placate Q2. Answer the following in 20-30 words. (a) Describe the poet’s state of mind at the beginning of the poem. (b) What role does the crow play in lifting the spirit of the poet? (c) Answer the following questions in 40-50 words (d) How does a simple incident in the poem convey a significant idea? 2. Fire and Ice: [25]

Q1. How can fire destroy the human society? (2 marks) Q2. Why will the world perish twice? How? (3 marks) Q3. Read the extract and answer the questions below. Some say the world will end in fire Some say in ice From what I’ve tasted of desire I hold with those who favour fire. (a) Which are the two different views about the inevitable ‘end’ of the world? (b) Which one does the poet favour? (c) What according to the poet will end the world? (d) What is the rhyming scheme of the stanza? 3. A Tiger in the Zoo Q1. ‘But he’s locked in a concrete cell, His strength behind bars Stalking the length of his cage, Ignoring visitors’ (i) The bars of the cage have_______. (a) restricted the tiger’s movement and power (b) made the tiger ignore visitors (c) made the tiger stalk the length of his cage (d) made the tiger fearless (ii) The poetic device used in ‘behind bars’ is______. (a) repetition (b) alliteration (c) assonance (d) metaphor (iii) By “ignoring visitors”, what is the poet trying to say? (a) the tiger knows his power is restricted (b) the tiger knows that showing rage is of no use (c) the tiger is less terrorising because of the cage (d) all of the above (iv) The tiger’s attitude towards the visitors is one of____ (a) warmth (b) hatred (c) indifference (d) terrorising Q2 Short Answers -20-30 words (2 marks) [26]

How has the poet described the tiger in the zoo? (3 marks) Q3 Answer in 40-50 words How does a tiger manage his food in the forest? How is it different in a zoo? 4. The Ball Poem Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. I saw it go Merrily bouncing, down the street, and then Merrily over — there it is in the water! No use to say ‘O there are other balls’: An ultimate shaking grief fixes the boy As he stands rigid, trembling, staring down All his young days into the harbour where His ball went 1. The poet uses the ball as a symbol of the boy’s a) sense of adventure. b) carefree childhood days. c) ability to bounce back. d) extended family. 2. The poet feels that there is no point consoling the boy as a) it would give him false hope. b) he might demand for a new ball. c) it might distress him further. d) whatever he has lost is irretrievable. 3. The word ‘harbour’ DOES NOT have a meaning similar to a) port. b) pier. c) dock. d) cargo. 4. ‘Merrily over — there it is in the water!’ The dash here is meant to convey a) some familiar experience. b) a feeling of excitement. c) a sense of unexpected interruption. d) some thoughtful moments. 5. The word that DOES NOT indicate a physical manifestation of sorrow in the boy, is a) worthless. b) shaking. c) trembling. d) rigid. Q2. Why is the boy affected by the loss of his ball? (2 marks) Q3. What does the poet mean by ‘a world of possessions’? (2 marks) Q4. What is the central idea of the poem ‘The Ball Poem’? (3 marks) Q5. Loss is an essential and significant experience of one’s life. Explain in 100-120 words (5 marks) 5. Amanda! [27]

Q1 ‘(I am an orphan, roaming the street. I pattern soft dust with my hushed, bare feet. The silence is golden, the freedom is sweet.)’ (i) What does Amanda want to do as an orphan? (a) walk freely in the streets (b) play in dust with bare feet (c) all of the above (d) none of the above (ii) Amanda hopes to enjoy a life of_______. (a) silence and stillness (b) silence and hard work (c) solitude and peace (d) solitude and freedom (iii) Amanda is fed up of her _____. (a) mother (b) parents (c) mother’s constant nagging (d) her dreams (iv) Name the literary device used in the line \"freedom is sweet\". (a) Anaphora (b) Enjambment (c) Metaphor (d) Alliteration Q2. Short Answers -20-30 words Justify the poet’s allusion to Rapunzel in ‘Amanda’. Q3. Answer in 40-50 words Do you think Amanda’s mother is a concerned mother? Comment. 6. Animals Q1. How are animals better than humans? (2 marks) Q2. What does the poet mean by ‘tokens of myself’ that humans have lost but animals still possess? (2 marks) Q3. What message does the poem ‘Animals’ wish to convey? (3 marks) Q4. How has the poet driven home the fact that civilization has influenced man’s behaviour? Write in 100-120 words. (5 marks) Q5. Read the extract and answer the questions below I think I could turn and live with animals, they are [28]

So placid and self-contained I stand and look at them long and long (a) What does the speaker wish to do? The speaker wishes to (i) live in the forest (ii) live in the zoo (iii) live with the animals (iv) live in camps (b) What qualities does the speaker find in the animals? The speaker finds that the animals are (i) peaceful (ii) contented (iii) uncomplaining (iv) all of the above (c) Which word placid in the stanza does not have a meaning similar to (i) mild (ii) calm (iii) excitable (iv) docile (d) The poetic device in the line ‘I stand and look at them long and long’ is (i) simile (ii) refrain (iii) alliteration (iv) repetition 7. The Tale of Custard the Dragon (2 marks each) Q1. Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words – (a) How dis Belinda and her pets treat Custard? (b) Describe the pirate. What weapons did the pirate have? Q2. Belinda paled, and she cried Help! Help! But Mustard fled with a terrified yelp, Ink trickled down to the bottom of the household, And the little mouse Blink strategically mousehold. (a) How did Belinda react when a pirate broke into her house? (b) What did Belinda’s pets do when the pirate broke into the house? (c) What is your opinion about Belinda, Ink, Blink and Mustard? (d) Which word in the stanza means the same as ‘scared’? Q3. Answer the following questions in 40 to 50 words – (3 marks) (a) ‘Appearances are deceptive’ is an apt summation of the poem, ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’. Elucidate. Q4. Reference to context – (4 marks) Belinda was as brave as a barrel full of bears, And Ink and Blink chased lions down the stairs, Custard was as brave as a tiger in a rage, But Custard cried for a nice safe cage. (a) What type of a girl was Belinda? (b) What kind of a pet was Mustard? (c) Why did Custard cry for a nice safe cage? (d) Which word in the stanza means the same as ‘fury’? Supplementary Reader (Footprints without Feet) [29]

1. A Triumph of Surgery Q1. Answer in 30-40 words (2 marks) a) Why was Mr. Herriot shocked at Tricki’s appearance? b) How did lunch become ‘a ceremonial occasion’ for Mr. Herriot and his partners? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) a) How was Tricki greeted at the surgery by other dogs in the beginning? b) Describe the ‘parting scene’ between Tricki and Mrs. Pumphrey’s entire household staff. Q3. Answer in 100-120 words (5 marks) a) Mrs. Pumphrey is a very caring and loving mistress for Tricki. But excess of everything is bad. Elaborate with reference to Mrs. Pumphrey and Tricki. 2. The Thief’s Story Q1. Answer in 30-40 words (2 marks) a) How did Hari Singh come to know that Anil had forgiven him? b) What made the thief come back to Anil? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) a) Why was the thief able to steal Anil easily? b) How did Anil help to reform the thief? Q3. Answer in 100-120 words (5 marks) a) ‘Values are caught not taught’. Discuss with reference to Anil and the thief. 3. Footprints without Feet Q1. Answer in 30-40 words (2 marks) a) The landlord’s wife was convinced that Griffin was an ‘eccentric scientist’. What made her think of Griffin in those terms? b) Do you think Griffin’s discovery was of any use to humanity? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) a) Griffin was rather a lawless person. Pick out instances which prove that he was lawless. b) Three extraordinary things happened in the room. What were they? Q3. Answer in 100-120 words (5 marks) a) ‘Discoveries of science can be used for welfare as well as for destruction’. How is this applicable to Griffin’s scientific discovery? How did Griffin bring a bad name to his invention? Elucidate his character. 4. The Making of a Scientist Q1. Short Answers -20-30 words (2 marks) Why is DNA called the blueprint for life? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) Why did Richard Ebright lose interest in tagging butterflies? Q3. Long answers 100-120 words (5 marks) What are the qualities that go into the making of a scientist? Explain with reference to the text, ‘The Making of a Scientist’. 5. The Necklace [30]

Q1. Answer in 30-40 words (2 marks) a) What is the role of Mme Forestier in the story ‘The Necklace’? b) What were Matilda’s apprehensions when her husband brought her the invitation to the ball? Q2. Answer in 40-50 words (3 marks) a) ‘It was all over for her’. What does ‘It’ refer to here? How had it ended for her? b) What was the ‘frightful disaster’? How it changed Loisels’ lives? Q3. Answer in 100-120 words (5 marks) a) To err is human. We all make mistakes in our life. Those who make a confession may suffer less than those who don’t. Give your opinion with reference to the story of Matilda who ruined her life just because she did not have the courage to confess her mistake. 6. The Hack Driver Q1. Why did Lutkins befool the lawyer? How? (2 marks) Q2. Why do you think were the neighbours anxious to meet the lawyer? (3 marks) Q3. Lutkins appeared to be humble whereas actually he was not. Appearances are deceptive. Do you think in real life we come across such people frequently? (5 marks) 7. Bholi Q1. Why did Bholi talk very little as a child? (2 marks) Q2. Who was responsible for Bholi’s transformation into Sulekha? How? (3 marks) Q3. Education is always a great asset in the life of a woman. How did Bholi, an educated girl face the challenges posed by Bishambar’s greed? (5 marks) [31]

MATHEMATICS SUBJECT CODE: MATHEMATICS STANDARD- 041 MATHEMATICS BASIC – 241 [32]

POLYNOMIALS VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) Q1. The product of the zeros of x3 + 4x2 + x – 6 is (a) – 4 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 6 Q2. If one zero of p(x) = 4x2 – (8k2 – 40k) x – 9 is negative of the other, find values of k. Q3. If a and b are zeros of polynomial 6x2 – 7x – 3, then form a quadratic polynomial whose zeros are 2a and 2b Q4. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1)x + b are 2 and – 3, then (a) a = – 7, b = – 1 (b) a = 5, b = – 1 (c) a = 2, b = – 6 (d) a = 0, b = – 6 Q5. What will be the number of zeros of a linear polynomial p(x) if its graph (i) passes through the origin. (ii) doesn’t intersect or touch x-axis at any point? SHORT ANSWER TYPE (I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) Q6. If a and b are the zeros of the polynomial x2 – 5x + m such that a – b = 1, find m. Q7. If zeros of x2 – kx + 6 are in the ratio 3 : 2, find k. Q8. If the sum of squares of zeros of the polynomial x2 – 8x + k is 40, find the value of k. Q9. What should be added to the polynomial x3 – 3x2 + 6x – 15, so that it is completely divisible by x – 3? Q10. If the product of zeros of ax2 – 6x – 6 is 4, find the value of a. Hence find the sum of its zeros. SHORT ANSWER TYPE (II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) Q11. Find the value of k such that 3x2 + 2kx + x – k – 5 has the sum of zeros as half of their product. Q12. If a and b are zeros of x2 – x – 2, find a polynomial whose zeros are (2a + 1) and (2b + 1) Q13. Find values of a and b so that x4 + x3 + 8x2 + ax + b is divisible by x2 + 1. Q14. –5 is one of the zeros of 2x2 + px – 15, zeros of p(x2 + x) + k are equal to each other. Find the value of k. Q15. If a and b are zeros of y2 + 5y + m, find the value of m such that (a + b)2 – ab = 24 [33]

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) Q16. If the polynomial x4 – 3x3 – 6x2 + kx – 16 is exactly divisible by x2 – 3x + 2, then find the value of k. Q17. On dividing the polynomial x3 – 5x2 + 6x – 4 by a polynomial g(x), quotient and remainder are (x –3) and (– 3x + 5) respectively. Find g(x) Q18. Obtain all zeros of the polynomial 2x4 – 2x3 – 7x2 + 3x + 6 if two factors of this polynomial are (������ ± √23) Q19. If two zeros of x4 – 6x3 – 26x2 + 138 x – 35 are (2±√3) , find other zeroes. Q20. Find the zeros of the polynomial 2x3 + x2 – 6x – 3 if two of its zeros are √3and - √3 QUADRATIC EQUATIONS VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARKS) Q1. If 1 is one root of quadratic equation 2x2 + kx + 1 = 0, find k. 2 Q2. Find the nature of the roots of 3x2– 4√3x + 4 = 0. Q3. If px2 + 3x + q = 0 has two roots x = –1 x = –2 and find q – p. Q4. If the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has equal roots then find c in terms of a and b. Q5. If the equation x2 + 6x – 91 = 0 can be written as (x + p)(x + q) = 0 then find p and q. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) Q6. Solve by factorisation method: 8x2 – 22x – 21 = 0 Q7. Find k for which the given quadratic equation 9x2 + 3kx + 4 = 0has distinct roots. Q8. Find p for which the equation x2 + 5px + 16 = 0 has no real roots. Q9. For what value of k, x2 – 5x + 3 (k – 1) = 0 has difference of roots equal to 11. Q10. The sum of squares of two consecutive natural numbers is 313, find the numbers. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) Q11. Solve for x: 4x2 – 2(a2 + b2) x + a2b2 = 0 Q12. If the roots of the quadratic equation (p +1)x2 – 6(p + 1) x + 3(p + 9) = 0 are equal find p and then find the roots of this quadratic equation. [34]

Q13. Solve by using quadratic formula abx2 + (b2 – ac) x – bc = 0 Q14. A natural number, when increased by 12, equals 160 times its reciprocal. Find the number. Q15. Find the positive value of k for which the quadratic equation x2 + kx + 64 = 0 and the quadratic equation x2 – 8x + k = 0 both will have real roots. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) Q16. In the centre of a rectangular lawn of dimensions 50 m × 40 m, a rectangular pond has to be constructed, so that the area of the grass surrounding the pond would be 1184 m2. Find the length and breadth of the pond. Q17. A peacock is sitting on the top of a pillar, which is 9 m high. From a point 27 m away from the bottom of a pillar, a snake is coming to its hole at the base of the pillar. Seeing the snake the peacock pounces on it. If their speeds are equal, at what distance from the hole is the snake caught? Q18. The area of an isosceles triangle is 60 cm2. The length of equal sides is 13 cm find length of its base. Q19. A girl is twice as old as her sister. Four years hence, the product of their ages (in years) will be 160. Find their present ages. Q20. A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 18. When 63 is subtracted from the number, the digit interchange their places. Find the number. COORDINATE GEOMETRY VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) Q1. If the distance between the points (x , 2) and (3,–6) is 10 units, what is the positive value of x. Q2. Find the coordinates of a points on x-axis which is equidistant from the points (–2,5) and (2,– 3). Q3. The midpoint of the line segment AB is (4,0). If the coordinates of point A is (3,–2), then find the coordinates of point B. Q4. A parallel line is drawn from point P(5,3) to y-axis, what is the distance between the line and y-axis. Q5. What is the distance of point (3,2) from x-axis? SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) Q6. Find the point of trisection of the line segment joining the points (1, –2) and (–3,4). Q7. Find the value of x if the points A (4,3) and B(x,5) lie on a circle whose centre is O(2,3). Q8. Find the ratio in which x-axis divides the line segment joining the points (6,4) and (1,–7). Q9. Show that the points (–2,3), (8,3) and (6,7) are the vertices of a right-angle triangle. [35]

Q10. Find the coordinates of a centroid of a triangle whose vertices are (3,–5), (–7,4) and (10,– 2). SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) Q11. Three consecutive vertices of a parallelogram are (–2, –1), (1,0) and (4, 3). Find the coordinates of the fourth vertex. Q12.The line segment joining the points A (2,1) and B (5,–8) is trisected at the points P and Q such that P is nearer to A. If P also lies on line given by 2x – y + k = 0, find the value of k. Q13. The point R divides the line segment AB, whose A(–4,0) and B(0,6) are such that AR = 43AB Q14. Show that the points A(5,6), B(1,5),C(2,1) and D(6,2) are the vertices of a square. Q15. Two vertices of a triangle are (1,2) and (3,5). If the centroid of the triangle is at origin, find the coordinates of the third vertex. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) Q16. Point P divides the line segment joining the points A (2, 1) and B (5, – 8) such that ������������ = 1 . If P lies on the line 2x – y + k = 0, Find the value of k. ������������ 3 Q17. If a point A(0,2) is equidistant from the points B(3,p) and C(p,5) then find value of p and the length of AB. Q18. The coordinates of the houses of Mona and Nishi are (7, 3) and (4, –3) respectively. The coordinates of their school are (2, 2). If they both start for school at the same time in the morning and reach at the same time, who walks fast? Q19.The midpoints of the sides of a triangle are (3,4), (4,1) and (2,0). Find the vertices of the triangle. Q20. A teacher asked three students to stand to form a triangle at the points P (–1, 3), Q (1,–1) and R (5, 1). Suddenly a fourth boy came and showed his interest in participating in the activity. She asked him to stand at points mid way between Q and R. What is his distance from P. SURFACE AREA AND VOLUME VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) Q1. Volume of two spheres is in the ratio 64:125. Find the ratio of their surface areas. Q2. A cylinder and a cone are of the same base radius and of same height. Find the ratio of the volumes of the cylinder to that of the cone. Q3. A cylinder, a cone and a hemisphere are of the same base and have the same height. What is the ratio of their volumes? Q4. A solid sphere of radius r is melted and recast into the shape of a solid cone of height r. Find radius of the base of the cone. Q5. If the volume and the surface area of a sphere are numerically equal, then find the radius of the sphere. [36]

SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) Q6. Two identical cubes each of volume 64 cm³ are joined together end to end. What is the surface area of the resulting cuboid? Q7. Twelve solid spheres of the same sizes are made by melting a solid metallic cylinder of base diameter 2 cm and height 16cm. Find the radius of each sphere. Q8. Find the height of largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose volume is 729 cm³. Q9. How many cubes of side 2 cm can be cut from a cuboid measuring (16cm×12cm×10cm). Q10. Find the length of the longest rod that can be put in a room of 10m×10m×5m dimensions. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) Q11. Three cubes of a metal whose edge are in the ratio 3:4:5 are melted and converted into a single cube whose diagonal is 12√3cm. Find the edge of three cubes. Q12. A petrol tank is a cylinder of base diameter 28cm and length 24cm filled with conical ends each of axis length 9cm. Determine the capacity of the tank. Q13. Find the depth of a cylindrical tank of radius 10.5 cm, if its capacity is equal to that of a rectangular tank of size 15 cm × 11 cm × 10.5 cm. Q14. A tent is in the shape of a right circular cylinder upto a height of 3m and conical above it. The total height of the tent is 13.5 m and radius of base is 14 m. Find the cost of cloth required to make the tent at the rate of Rs. 80 per sq. m. Q15. A solid toy is the form of a right circular cylinder with a hemispherical shape at one end and a cone at the other end. Their diameter is 4.2 cm and the heights of the cylindrical and conical portions are 12 cm and 7 cm respectively. Find the volume of the toy. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) Q16. A container, shaped like a right circular cylinder, having diameter 12cm and height 15 cm is full of ice-cream. This ice-cream is to be filled into cones of height 12 cm and diameter 6 cm, having a hemispherical shape on the top. Find the number of such cones which can be filled with ice-cream. Q17. The difference between outer and inner curved surface areas of a hollow right circular cylinder, 14 cm long is 88cm2. If the volume of the metal used in making the cylinder is 176cm3. Find the outer and inner diameters of the cylinder. Q18. A toy is in the shape of a right circular cylinder with a hemisphere on one end and a cone on the other. The radius and height of the cylindrical part are 5 cm and 13 cm respectively. The radii of hemispherical and comical parts are the same as that of the cylindrical part. Find the surface area of the toy if the total height of the toy is 30 cm. [37]

Q19. Water is flowing at the rate of 2.52 km/hr. through a cylindrical pipe into a cylindrical tank, the radius of whose base is 40 cm. If the increase in the level of water in the tank, in half an hour is 3.15m, find the internal diameter of the pipe. Q20. A solid wooden toy is in the form of a hemi-sphere surmounted by a cone of the same radius. The radius of the hemi-sphere is 3.5cm and the total wood used in the making of toy is 1665 cm3. 6 Find the height of the toy. Also, find the cost of painting the hemi-spherical part of the toy at the rate of Rs. 10 per cm². ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. What is the common difference of an A.P. in which a21 – a7 = 84? 2. Find the sum of first 20 natural numbers . 3. Which term of the AP 21, 18, 15,.......... is zero? 1+3+5 4. Find the first positive term of the A.P. –11, –8, –5,........... . 5. If p – 1, p + 3, 3p – 1 are in AP, then find the value of p . 6. How many terms are there in the arithmetic series + …………..+ 73 + 75? 7. What is the common difference of the A. P. whose general term is an = 2n + 1 8. Which term of the progression 4, 9, 14, 19, … is 109? SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) 9. Which term of the A.P. 3, 14, 25, 36, … will be 99 more than its 25th term? 10. Find whether -150 is a term of the A.P. 17, 12, 7, 2, … ? (2011D) 11. Find the 9th term from the end (towards the first term) of the A.P. 5,9,13, …, 185. 12. Which term of the progression 20, 192, 183, 17 … is the first negative term? 13. Find how many two-digit numbers are divisible by 6? 14. Find the middle term of the A.P. 6, 13, 20, …, 216. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) 15. The angles of a triangle are in A.P., the least being half the greatest. Find the angles. 16. Find the number of natural numbers between 101 and 999 which are divisible by both 2 and 5. 17. Determine the A.P. whose fourth term is 18 and the difference of the ninth term from the fifteenth term is 30. 18. The 19th term of an AP is equal to three times its 6th term. If its 9th term is 19, find the A.P. 19. Find the number of terms of the AP 18, 151/2, 13,…, -491/2 and find the sum of all its terms. [38]

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) 20. The sum of 7th and 11th terms of an AP is 35. The sum of its 9th and 13th term is 55. Find the sum of its 1st fifteen terms. 21. How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250? Also find their sum. A thief runs with a uniform speed of 100 m/minute. After one minute a policeman runs after the thief to catch him. He goes with a speed of 100 m/minute in the first minute and increases his speed by 10 m/minute every succeeding minute. After how many minutes the policeman will catch the thief. 23. The sum of first m terms of an AP is 4m2 – m. If its nth term is 107, find the value of n. Also find the 21st term of this A.P. 24. If the ratio of the sum of the first n terms of two A.Ps is (7n + 1): (4n + 27), then find the ratio of their 9th terms. 25. If pth, qth and rth terms of an A.P. are a, b, c respectively, then show that (a – b)r + (b – c)p+ (c – a)q = 0. PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. How many solutions does the pair of equations y = 0 and y = -5 have? 2. If ax + by = a2 – b2 and bx + ay = 0, find the value of (x + y). 3. For what value of k, the pair of equations 4x – 3y = 9, 2x + ky = 11 has no solution? 4. Calculate the area bounded by the line x + y = 10 and both the co-ordinate axes. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) 5. Find whether the following pair of linear equations is consistent or inconsistent: 3x + 2y = 8 6x – 4y = 9 6. Check graphically whether the pair of equations 3x – 2y + 2 = 0 and 3/2 x – y + 3 = 0, is consistent. Also find the coordinates of the points where the graphs of the equations meet the Y-axis. 7. Draw the graph of 2y = 4x – 6; 2x = y + 3 and determine whether this system of linear equations has a unique solution or not. 8. Represent the following pair of equations graphically and write the coordinates of points where the lines intersect y-axis. [39]

SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) 9. Solve the following pair of linear equations for x and y: 141x + 93y = 189; 93x + 141y = 45 10. Find the two numbers whose sum is 75 and difference is 15. 11. Find the value of a and b for which the following pair of linear equations has infinite number of solutions: 2x + 3y = 7; ax + (a +b)y = 28 12. A man earns ₹600 per month more than his wife. One-tenth of the man’s salary and l/6th of the wife’s salary amount to ₹1,500, which is saved every month. Find their incomes. 13. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 8 and the difference between the number and that formed by reversing the digits is 18. Find the number. 14. The age of the father is twice the sum of the ages of his 2 children. After 20 years, his age will be equal to the sum of the ages of his children. Find the age of the Father. 15. A two digit number is seven times the sum of its digits. The number formed by reversing the digits is 18 less than the given number. Find the given number. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) 16. Sita Devi wants to make a rectangular pond on the road side for the purpose of providing drinking water for street animals. The area of the pond will be decreased by 3 square feet if its length is decreased by 2 ft. and breadth is increased by 1 ft. Its area will be increased by 4 square feet if the length is increased by 1 ft. and breadth remains the same. Find the dimensions of the pond. 17. On reversing the digits of a two-digit number, number obtained is 9 less than three times the original number. If difference of these two numbers is 45, find the original number. 18. Speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h. It goes 30 km upstream and returns back at the same point in 4 hours 30 minutes. Find the speed of the stream. [40]

19. The owner of a taxi company decides to run all the taxis on CNG fuel instead of petrol/diesel. The taxi charges in city comprises of fixed charges together with the charge for the distance covered. For a journey of 12 km, the charge paid is 789 and for journey of 20 km, the charge paid is ₹145. 20. A boat takes 4 hours to go 44 km downstream and it can go 20 km upstream in the same time. Find the speed of the stream and that of the boat in still water. 21. A man travels 300 km partly by train and partly by car. He takes 4 hours if he travels 60 km by train and the rest by car. If he travels 100 km by train and the remaining by car, he takes 10 minutes longer. Find the speeds of the train and the car separately. 22. The owner of a taxi company decides to run all the taxis on CNG fuel instead of petrol/diesel. The taxi charges in city comprises of fixed charges together with the charge for the distance covered. For a journey of 13 km, the charge paid is ₹129and for a journey of 22 km, the charge paid is ₹210.What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 32 km? 23. Solve the following pair of linear equations graphically: x + 3y = 6 ; 2x – 3y = 12 Also find the area of the triangle formed by the lines representing the given equations with y-axis. 24. Draw the graphs of following equations: 2x – y = 1; x + 2y = 13 Find the solution of the equations from the graph and shade the triangular region formed by the lines and the y-axis. 25. Draw the graphs of the equations x – y + 1 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 12 = 0. Determine the coordinates of the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines and x-axis. [41]

STATISTICS VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. The class mark of a class is 10 and its class width is 6. Find the lower limit of the class. 2. Find mode, using an empirical relation, when it is given that mean and median are 10.5 and 9.6 respectively. 3. If class marks of a distribution are 15, 20, 25,........ 45 , what is the class corresponding to 45? 4. Find the mean of x + 3, x – 2, x + 5, x + 7 and x + 72 5. Find the mean of the first 10 natural numbers. 6. Find the mode of the following items. 0, 5, 5, 1, 6, 4, 3, 0, 2, 5, 5, 6 SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) 7. The daily minimum steps climbed by a man during a week were as under: Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday 35 30 27 32 23 28 Find the mean of the steps 8. If the mean of 4 numbers, 2,6,7 and a is 15 and also the mean of other 5 numbers, 6, 18, 1, a, b is 50. What is the value of b? 9. Find the value of y from the following observations if these are already arranged in ascending order. The Median is 63. 20, 24, 42, y, y +2, 73, 75, 80, 99 10. While checking the value of 20 observations, it was noted that 125 was wrongly noted as 25 while calculating the mean and then the mean was 60. Find the correct mean. 11. Given below is a cumulative frequency distribution of “less than type”. Change the above data into a continuous grouped frequency distribution [42]

12. Convert the distribution to a less than type cumulative frequency distribution 13. Find the unknown values in the following table: 14. The width of 50 leaves of a plant were measured in mm and their cumulative frequency distribution is shown in the following table. Make frequency distribution table for this 15.Find the mode of the following frequency distribution: SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) 16. Find the mean of the 32 numbers, such that if the mean of 10 of them is 15 and the mean of 20 of them is 11. The last two numbers are 10. 17. If the mean of the following distribution is 54, find the missing frequency x: 18. The Median of the following distribution is 35. Find the value of x: [43]

19. Find the median of the following data 20. The following data gives the information on the observed life times (in hours) of 150 electrical components 21. The average score of boys in the examination of a school is 71 and that of the the girls is 73. The average score of the school in the examination is 71.8. Find the ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls who appeared in the examination. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) 22. If median height of 50 students of a class in the following frequency distribution is 144 cm, find the missing frequencies x and y 23. Literacy rates of 40 cities is given in the following table. If it is given that mean literacy rate is 63.5, then find the missing frequencies x and y. 24. Find the missing frequencies (f1, f2 and /3) in the following frequency distribution when it is given that f2 :f3 = 4: 3 and mean = 50. [44]

25. In a hospital, during the month of October 2013, number of patients admitted for dengue and their ages are as follows Find the mean and median age of patients. PROBABILITY VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. 24 Cards each marked with one of the numbers 6, 7, 8, ....., 15 and placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. One card is drawn at random from the box. What is the probability of getting a card with number less than 10? 2. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a black king? 3. What is the probability that two different friends have different birthdays? (ignoring leap year). 4. A box contains 3 blue, 2 white and 4 red marbles. If a marble is drawn at random from the box, what is the probability that it will not be a white marble? 5. A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a number less than 3 6. Two friends were born in the year 2000. What is the probability that they have the same birthday? 7. Two dice are thrown at the same time. Find the probability of getting different numbers on the dice. 8. A game consists of tossing a one-rupee coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time. Hanif wins if all the tosses give the same result, i.e., three heads or three tails, and loses otherwise, calculate the probability that Hanif will lose the game. VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) 9. The king, queen and jack of diamonds are removed from a pack of 52 cards and then the pack is well-shuffled. A card is drawn from the remaining cards. Find the probability of getting a card of (i) diamonds (ii) a Jack [45]

10. A bag contains 5 red, 4 blue and 3 green balls. A ball is taken out of the bag at random. Find the probability that the selected ball is (i) of red colour (ii) not of green colour. 11. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of playing cards. Find the probability of drawing a (i) face card (ii) card which is neither a king nor a red card 12. A bag contains tickets, numbered 11, 12, 13, ...., 30. A ticket is taken out from the bag at random. Find the probability that the number on the drawn ticket (i) is a multiple of 7 (ii) is greater than 15 and a multiple of 5. 13. What is the probability of getting 53 Mondays in a leap year? 14. What is the probability that a non-leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sunday’s 15. A jar contains 24 marbles. Some are red and others are white. If a marble is drawn at random from the jar, the probability that it is red is 2/3, then the number of white marbles in the jar is: SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) 16. In a game of chance there is spinning of an arrow which comes to rest pointing at one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and there are equally likely outcomes. What is the probability that it will point at (i) 7? (ii) an odd number? (iii) a number less than 9? 17. A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that? i) 5 will not come up either time? ii) 5 will come up at least once? iii) 5 will come up exactly once? 18. From a pack of 52 playing cards, Jacks, Queens and Kings of red colour are removed. From the remaining, a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that drawn card is: i) a black king ii) a card of red colour. iii) a card of black colour. 19. There are 100 cards in a bag on which numbers from 1 to 100 are written. A card is taken out from the bag at random. Find the probability that the number on the selected card: i) is divisible by 9 and is a perfect square. ii) is a prime number greater than 80. iii) is a composite number greater than 90 20. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability of: i) getting a number greater than 3 on each die. [46]

ii) getting a total of 6 or 7 of the numbers on two dice 21. A number x is selected at random from the numbers 1,4,9,16 and another number y is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4. Find the probability that the value of xy is more than 16 22. All red face cards art removed from a pack of playing cards. The remaining cards were well shuffled and then a card is drawn at random from them. Find the probability that the drawn card is i) a red card ii) a face card iii) a card of club 23. The probability of selecting a red ball at random from a jar that contains only red, blue and orange balls is 1/4. The probability of selecting a blue ball at random from the same jar is 1/3. If the jar contains 10 orange balls, find the total number of balls in the jar. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) 24. Tickets, on which numbers 11 to 60 are written, are mixed thoroughly and then a ticket is drawn at random out of them. Find the probability that the number on the drawn ticket is: i) multiple of 3 or 7. ii) a perfect square number iii) divisible by 5 iv) a prime number less than 20 v) divisible by 5 25. Three unbiased coins are tossed together, Find the probability of getting i) exactly two heads ii) at the most two heads iii) at least two tails iv) two tails [47]

APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. A straight highway leads to the foot of a tower of height 50m. From the top of the tower, the angles of depression of two cars are 30° and 60°. Read the following statements carefully. Write your answer as true or false. Justify your answer. i) Distance between the cars is 57.60 m. ii) First car is at a distance of 38.90 m from the tower. iii) Second car is at a distance of 86.50 m from the tower. iv) When the length of the shadow of a pole is equal to the height of the pole, then the angle of elevation of source of light is 90°. v) When we lower our head to look at the object, the angle formed by the line of sight with horizontal is known as angle of depression. 2. A ladder 15 m long leans against a wall making an angle of 60º with the wall. Find the height of the point where the ladder touches the wall. 3. In the given figure, the positions of the observer and the object are mentioned, the angle of depression is ___________________. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) 4. The ratio of the length of a pole and its shadow is 1: 3. Find the angle of elevation of the sun. 5. The angle of depression of a car parked on the road from the top of a 150 m high tower is 30°. Find the distance of the car from the tower (in m). 6. A pole casts a shadow of length 20√3m on the ground, when the sun’s elevation is 60o. Find the height of the tower. [48]

7. An observer 1.7 m tall is 20√3m away from a tower. The angle of elevation from the eye of the observer to the top of the tower is 30o. Find the height of the tower. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(II) QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) 8. Two poles of height 10 m and 15 m stand vertically on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 5√3m, find the distance between their tops. 9. The shadow of a tower on a level ground is found to be 20 m longer when the sun’s altitude is 45 o than when it is 60o. Find the height of the tower. 10. An electric pole is 10 m high. A steel wire tied to top of the pole is affixed at a point on the ground to keep the pole up right. If the wire makes an angle of 45º with the horizontal through the foot of the pole, find the length of the wire. (Use 2=1.414) 11. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point on the ground is 60º. After a flight of 30 seconds the angle of elevation becomes 30º. If the aeroplane is flying at a constant height of 3000 3 m, find the speed of the aeroplane. 12. The top of two poles of height 20 m and 14 m are connected by a wire. If the wire makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal, then find the length of the wire. 13. From the top of a 7m high building the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°, then find the height of the tower. 14. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the top of a transmission tower fixed at the top of a 20 m high building are 45° and 60° respectively, then find the height of the tower. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS) 15. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and top of a transmission tower fixed at the top of a 10 m high building are 30o and 60o respectively. Find the height of the tower. 16. A vertical tower stands on the plane ground and is surmounted by a flagstaff of height 5 m. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bottom of the flagstaff is 450 and that of the top of the flagstaff is 60 o. Find the height of the tower. (Take √3 = 1.732) 17. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of an 8 m tall building from the top of a multi- storied building are 30 o and 45 o, respectively. Find the height of the multi-storied building and the distance between the two buildings. 18. From the top floor of a shopping mall, 100 m high, a child observes two cars on the opposite sides of the tower and in the same straight line with its base, with the angles of depression 30° and 45° respectively. Find the distance between the two cars. [Take √3 = 1·732] 19. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to each other on either side of a road, which is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, angles of elevation of their top are 30° and 60°. Find the height of the poles and distance of point from poles. 20. From a point on a ground, the angle of elevation of bottom and top a transmission tower fixed on the top of a 20 m high building are 45°and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower. [49]

CIRCLES VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK) 1. Fill in the blanks: i) The lengths of the two tangents from an external point to a circle are ________. ii) A line that intersects a circle in one point only is called ________. iii) The tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are________. iv) A tangent of a circle touches it at ________ point(s). v) Tangent is perpendicular to the________ through the point of contact. vi) A line intersecting a circle at two points is called a________. vii) A circle can have parallel tangents at the most ________. viii) The common point of a tangent to a circle and the circle is called________. ix) There is no tangent to a circle passing through a point lying ________ the circle. x) The tangent to a circle is to the radius through ________ the point of contact. 2. State True or False: i) The tangent to the circumcircle of an isosceles triangle ABC at A, in which AB = AC, is parallel to BC. ii) A line drawn from the centre of a circle to a chord always bisects it. iii) If angle between two tangents drawn from a point P to a circle of radius a and centre O is 90°, then OP = a√2 . iv) Line joining the centres of two intersecting circles always bisects their common chord. v) In a circle, two chords PQ and RS bisect each other. Then PRQS is a rectangle. vi) A tangent to a circle is a line that intersects the circle in only one point. vii) The length of tangent from an external point P on a circle with centre O is always less than OP. viii) The tangent to a circle is a special case of the secant. ix) The length of tangent from an external point on a circle is always greater than the radius of the circle. x) A circle can have at the most two parallel tangents. SHORT ANSWER TYPE(I) QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) 3. In the given adjacent figure, there are two concentric circles with centre O. PRT and PQS are tangents to the inner circle from a point P lying on the outer circle. If PR = 5 cm, find the length of PS. [50]