250 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 158. Observe the given figure and answer the question that Explanation: follows: In aerobic respiration energy is produced in presence of oxygen so greater amount of ATP is synthesized (38ATP) while in anaerobic of energy is required. Respiration in absence of O2 less amount (2 ATP). 160. Study the graph below and that represents changes in pressure within large arteries during a single cardiac cycle of contraction and relaxation. 120 Bulb glows, when......wire is placed between theEnergy supplied (%) terminals A and B. Arterial Pressure (mm Hg) (i) Copper (ii) Aluminium (iii) Iron (iv) Silver (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) 80 (c) Only (iv) (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these Systole Diastole Explanation: (heart contraction) (relaxation; refilling) Metals are good conductors of electricity for bulb to Choose the correct combination of plots provided in glow metals should be used that can conduct flow of electric current. Since all are metals all can conduct the following table. electricity. Blood pressure Systolic Diastolic category (mmHg) (mmHg) 159. Study the graph below that represents the amount (a) Normal 120 80 of energy supplied with respect to the time while an athlete is running at full speed. (c) Normal 80 120 100 Plot A (c) Hypertension 120 80 (d) Hypertension 70 60 75 Ans. Blood pressure Systolic Diastolic category (mmHg) (mmHg) 50 (a) Normal 120 80 Explanation: 25 The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and Plot B diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg. Hypertension is high blood pressure and hypotentions is low blood pressure. 0 1 2 3 45 Time running at full speed (min) Choose the correct combination of plots and 1 61. The diagram given below represents the cross-section justification provided in the following table. of a leaf. Plot A Plot B Justification Identify ''X'' and choose the correct combination of (a) Aerobic Anaerobic information provided in the following table: Amount of energy is low and in- (b) Aerobic Anaerobic consistent in aerobic and high in anaerobic. (c) Anaerobic Aerobic Amount of energy is high and (d) Anaerobic Aerobic consistent in aerobic and low in anaerobic. X Description Function Amount of energy is high and consistent in aerobic and low in Chlorophyll A green Essential for anaerobic (a) coloured photosynthesis pigment Amount of energy is high and in- consistent in anaerobic and low in aerobic Ans. Plot A Plot B Justification (b) Aerobic Anaerobic Amount of energy is high and consistent in aerobic and low in anaerobic.
Science 251 (b) Chloroplast A cell Conducts (a) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is convex organelle photosynthesis (b) Mirror A is plane and mirror B is concave (c) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is plane (c) Vascular Vascular Transportation in (d) Mirror A is convex and mirror B is concave bundle tissue plants Ans. (c) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is plane Explanation: Chloroplast A green Essential for (d) coloured photosynthesis Here, mirror A is concave as the image size is increasing pigment when object is moving towards it and mirror B is a plane Ans. mirror, as the size of the image does not changes while moving towards the mirror. X Description Function (b) Chloroplast A cell Conducts organelle photosynthesis Explanation: 1 64. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the hole on the other face of Chloroplasts are cell organelles in plants that conduct the box as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box? [NCERT Exemplar] photosynthesis, where photosynthetic pigment is A B chlorophyll that captures energy from sunlight stores it 1 10 2 in form of ATP molecules and NADPH while freezing O2 3 from water in plants. 9 4 8 5 1 62. An object AB is placed in front of a convex lens at its 6 focus as shwon in figure. 7 7 L 6 8 5 9 A 4 B 3 10 2 FF 1 Which of the ray diagram below correclty depicts the Box refraction through the lens L? (a) Concave lens A A (b) Rectangular glass slab (c) Prism (a) B F (b) B F (d) Convex lens F F Ans. (a) Concave lens Explanation: As incident rays are parallel and emergent rays are diverging and concave lens is diverging lens. A A 165. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z, X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the following (c) B F (d) B F properties is not shown by Z? F F A (a) Has high melting point F (b) Has low melting point Ans. (a) B (c) Conducts electricity in molten state F (d) Occurs as solid Ans. (b) Has low melting point Explanation: Explanation: The light ray parallel to the principal axis passes through Compound formed by gain and loss of electron is ionic compound and ionic compounds have high melting and the focus and the light ray passing from the optical boiling points. centre passes undeviated 166. An element 'X' is yellow coloured solid, insoluble 163. Two big mirrors A and B are fitted side by side on a in water but soluble in carbon disulphide. It has low wall. A man is standing at such a distance from the melting point 114.5ºC. It boils at 445ºC and it burns wall that he can see the erect image of his face in both with pale blue flame forming pungent smelling gas 'Y' the mirrors. When the man starts walking towards the which turn moist blue litmus red and finally colourless. mirrors, he finds that the size of his face in mirror A 'X' and 'Y' are: goes on increasing but that in mirror B remains the same (a) C, CO2 (b) N, NO2 (c) S, SO2 (d) I2, I2O5
252 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) Ans. (c) S, SO2 1 71. When hydrochloric acid is added to barium hydroxide, Explanation: a white-colored compound is formed. Which option gives the complete chemical reactions? Sulphur is yellow coloured solid, carbon is black, nitrogen is colourless. Sulphur is insoluble in water and soluble in (a) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaH2 + 2HCl + O2 CS2. It has low melting point of 114.5ºC, boils at 445ºC and burns with pale blue flame having pungent smell of (b) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH SO2 gas which turns blue litmus to red. (c) HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + HOH 167. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are (d) HCl + 2Ba(OH) → 2BaCl2 + 2HOH + O2 responsible for the same? Ans. (b) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH (i) Goold thermal conductivity Explanation: (ii) Good electrical conductivity It is a neutralisation reaction where acid reacts with (iii) Ductility base to form salt which is white coloured salt of BaCl2. (iv) High melting point 172. A student sets up an experiment to study the photosynthesis in plants. The student destrached a (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) potted plant by keeping it in a dark room for 3 days. Half of the portion of destarched leaf was placed in (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) a bottle containing caustic potash (absorbs CO2) as shown. Ans. (d) (i) and (iv) The student then places the plant in light and tests Explanation: the leaf after 5 hours for the presence of starch. The portions inside the bottle shows negative starch test Aluminium is a metal hence it is a good conductor of by reflecting no change in colour when react with heat and has high melting and boiling points. iodine, however, other upper portions of the leaf gave positive starch test showing blue-black colour with 168. An incomplete chemical equation of the reaction iodine. What can be evaluated from this experiment? between iron and oxygen is given below: 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → Which option shows the products formed during the reaction? (a) 3Fe4O2(s) (b) 12FeO(s) Leaf (c) 4FeO3(s) (d) 2Fe2O3(s) Ans. (d) 2Fe2O3(s) KOH Explanation: Starch test Caustic potash 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) Starch test Plant negative Plot 1 69. A student writes two incomplete chemical reactions. (a) Lack of carbon dioxide increase amount of starch in plant. P4 + 5O2(g) → X Mg + O2 → Y (b) Carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate. (a) X – P5O4(s); Y – (MgO)2(s) (b) X – 4PO10(s); Y – 4MgO(s) (c) Carbon dioxide is directly linked with the colour of (c) X – P4O10(s); Y – 2MgO(s) leaf. (d) X – 5P4O2(s); Y – Mg2O2(s) Ans. (c) X – P4O10(s); Y – 2MgO(s) (d) Lack of carbon dioxide slows the process of photosynthesis. 170. A student studying the chemical properties of metals finds incomplete chemical reactions in his book, as Ans. (b) Carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing shown: carbohydrate. MgO + HNO3→ Explanation: Which option completes the reaction? CO2 and water. Lack of any of these factor would result (a) MgO + HNO3 → Mg + NO2 + O2 in no phtosynthesis since caustic soda absorbs all CO2, (b) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + H2O Hence no photosynthesis takes place and plants will (c) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(OH)2 + 2NO2 eventually die. (d) MgO + HNO3 → Mg3N2 + 4H2O Ans. (b) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + H2O 173. The image shows the bread moulds on a bread. How these fungi obtain nutrition?
Science 253 Bread mould 1 76. Which of the following statements about the autotrophs Fungi body is incorrect? Bread (a) They synthesise carbohydrates from carbon (a) By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and own food. chlorophyll. (b) By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread (b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch. and then consuming them. (c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into (c) By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight. absorbing them. (d) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains. (d) By eating the bread on which it is growing. Ans. (c) T hey convert carbon dioxide and water into Ans. (c) By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight. absorbing them. Explanation: Explanation: Autotrophs take in food from the outside world and Fungi are saprophytic in nature that is they cannot convert them into stored forms of energy. This material prepare their own food and feed on dead, decaying is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water which matter to meet their food requirements. So fungi is converted into carbohydrates in the presence of break down nutrients of bread and absorb them for its sunlight and chlorophyll. nutrition. 177. The image shows the human digestive system. 174. The image shows how Amoeba obtaining nutrition. Mouth Tongue Food Food Food Pharynx particle Pseudopodia vacuole particle Oseophagus Nucleus How this process is advantageous for Amoeba? Liver Stomach Gall bladder Pancreas (a) Capturing of food takes less time. Big intestine Large (b) More amount of food can be consumed. intestine (c) Complex food can be digested easily. Rectum (d) Fast distribution of nutrition within the body. Anus Ans. (d) Fast distribution of nutrition within the body. Explanation: Digestion of food starts from which organ of the Amoeba is unicellular organisms and has simple cellular digestive system? organisation. It meets its nutritional needs by simple process of diffusion which is advantageous as it result (a) Mouth due to the presence of saliva. in the fast distribution of nutrition. (b) Pancreas that releases juices for fat breakdown. 175. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity will not take place (c) Oesophagus that moves the food in gut. properly? (a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids (d) Stomach which helps in mixing food with digestive (b) Starch breaking down into sugars juices. (c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol (d) Absorption of vitamins Ans. Mouth due to the presence of saliva. Ans. (B) Starch breaking down into sugars Explanation: Explanation: Amylase is a starch hydrolase enzyme that catalysis Mouth is the beginning of digestive tract. Digestion starts from mouth as salivary glands gets active and the conversion of starch to simple sugars. As a result, salivary amylase works on breakdown of starch. In oral if salivary amylase is lacking in saliva, starch digestion is cavity salivar from salivary glands mixes food and start hampered. breakdown of food.
254 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 1 78. The image shows the transport of gases in body (a) towards the lungs. through heart and lungs. Lungs (b) towards the left atrium of heart. Pulmonary Pulmonary (c) towards the upper body. artery vein (d) towards the lower body. Right Left atrium atrium Ans. (a) towards the lungs. Right Left ventricle ventricle Explanation: Vena Aorta The right side of blood contains deoxygenated blood cava which is passed by pulmonary artery to lungs where Blood exchange of gases takes place. So deoxygenated blood vessels from right ventricle to heart travels towards the lungs. 180. The image shows the circulation of blood in fishes. Red arteries (oxygen rich blood) Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell? (a) Lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left Gill capillaries Blue veins ventricle → aorta → body cells. (oxygen deficient blood) (b) Lungs → pulmonary artery → right atrium → right Heart ventricle → vein cava → body cells. Which option correctly traces the pathway of blood (c) Lungs → pulmonary artery → left atrium → left flow in fish body? ventricle → vena cava → body cells. (a) Capillaries → heart → oxygenated blood → body (d) Lungs → pulmonary vein → right atrium → right cells → deoxygentated blood → heart → gills. ventricle → aorta → body cells. (b) Gill capillaries → oxygenated blood → body cells → Ans. (a) Lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left deoxygentated blood → heart → gills. ventricle → aorta → body cells. (c) Gill capillaries → oxygenated blood → heart → body Explanation: cells → deoxygentated blood → heart → gills. Oxygenated blood travels from lungs through (d) Gill capillaries → oxygenated blood → heart → body palmonary vein to left side of heart and then to other cells → deoxygentated blood → gills. parts. Carbon Dioxide rich blood returns to right side of heart through superior vena cava and inferior vena cave Ans. (b) Gill capillaries → oxygenated blood → body cells → and then by pulmonary artery to lungs where gaseous deoxygentated blood → heart → gills. exchange take place. Explanation: 1 79. The image shows oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood in the human heart. The circulation pathway in fishes is same as that of pathway in human (Refer ans 178) except that in fishes exchange of gases takes place in gills which are respiratory organs in fishes. To lungs 1 81. The image shows the circulation of blood in fishes and humans. From upper body Lungs capillaries From lungs Gill capillaries Left atrium To lungs Ventricles Atria Atrium Right ventricle Left ventricle Ventricles What is the direction of deoxygenated blood from Blood capillaries Blood capillaries right ventricle of the heart? Fish Human
Science 255 How is the circulation of blood in fish different from (a) Platelets form clot by plugging the site of injury. that in humans? (b) Red blood cells and platelets migrate to site of injury (a) The flow of blood in fish is unidirectional. and secrete substance that forms new vessel. (b) The heart of fish has more chambers as compared to (c) Platelets uses component of broken vessel to form that of a human. clot. (c) The blood goes through heart only once in fishes. (d) Red blood cells divide and replace the broken vessel at the site injury. (d) The heart in fish is bigger in size. Ans. (a) Platelets form clot by plugging the site of injury. Ans. (c) The blood goes through heart only once in fishes. Explanation: Explanation: Platelets play major role in blood clothing. When one Only single circulation of blood takes place in fishes. blood vessels is injured platelets clump together to form In human circulatory system as heart of human is four clot to plug the hole in blood vessel and stop bleeding. chambered with two auricles and two ventricle there Platelets change shape of blood vessel from round to is mechanism of double circulation whereas in fishes sping and stick to blood wall and interact with blood heart is only two chambered with one auricle and one protein to form fibrin and stop the bleeding. ventricle so circulation is unidirectional that is blood travels through heart only once in fishes. 182. The image shows the structure of an artery. 184. A student performs an experiment using a Balsam Thick outer wall plant with intact stem, leaves, roots and flowers. The plant was kept in a test tube containing eosin solution (a pink colour dye). The test tube mouth was covered using cotton plug as shown. Narrow central lumen through which blood flows Which statement supports the likely reason for thick Cotton plug walls in arteries? Test tube (a) To sustain the high-pressure blood from the heart. Eosin solution (b) To carry large amount of blood. (c) To ensure blood flows in only one direction The student kept the plant undisturbed in the lab. After (d) To allow easy exchange of gases with cells. 2-3 hours, a transverse section of stem was obtained Ans. (a) To sustain the high-pressure blood from the heart. using sharp scissors and studied under microscope. The studies revealed the presence of pink colour in the Explanation: vessels of xylem. What does this observation explain? Arteries are are thick walled because they are closer to (a) Most portion of the plant stem is occupied by xylem. heart and receive blood that is surging at a far greater (b) Water moves through xylem in the plant. pressure. They have thik walls to with stand high (c) Eosin solution gets stored in the xylem. pressure as they receive oxygenated blood from heart (d) Xylem reacts with eosin and gives colour. which has pressure more as compared to pressure of deoxygenated blood. Ans. (b) Water moves through xylem in the plant. Explanation: 1 83. The image shows the healing of a wound. Eosin is water soluble stain. When the cut end of plants Fibrin polymers is immersed in eosin the coloured solution enters xylem vessels and they only appears red indicating Platelet water uptake in plants is through xylem only. Upward movement is called assent of Sap. Red blood cells 185. The image shows the transport of food material inside plant body with the help of phloem. Blood vessel Connective wall tissue Based on the image, what explains the process?
256 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) Sources Sinks (a) Plant leaves give off water in form of vapours. (b) Plant absorbs water from environment thus extra Fruit Water water appears on the inside of jar. Food (c) Heat from the outside warms the jar which melts Sink the vaseline into vapours. How is food transported from phloem to the tissues (d) Covered roots and stem of the plant decreases according to plants need? the temperature of jar resulting in condensation of moisture into vapours. (a) Food is transported in only one direction like water Ans. (a) Plant leaves give off water in form of vapours. in the plant body through xylem. Explanation: Transpiration is the process of a plant where exhalation (b) Food is transported along with the water in plant of water vapours occurs through stomata of plant. So body. water vapours appear on jar as plant leaves give water through transpiration. (c) Food is transported from a region with low 1 87. The image shows the movement of sucrose into concentration to higher concentration. phloem against the concentration gradient which also leads to the movement of water due to osmotic (d) Food is transported from a region where it is difference. This osmotic pressure allows movement of produced to other parts of the plants. material in plant body. Ans. (d) Food is transported from a region where it is How the movement of sucrose into phloem takes produced to other parts of the plants. place initially? Explanation: Food in plants is transported by process known as translocation which take place with the help of conducting tissue called phloem. It transports food secreted from leaves to other parts of plants. Pressure moves food in pholem to different tissues of plant with less pressure. 186. A student setup an experiment using a well-watered plant. The plant's roots and soil were covered with a rubber sheet. The plant was then kept in a glass bell jar and sealed with vaseline at the bottom part to prevent the flow of air. The student keeps the apparatus in the light and observes water drops inside the jar after 2 hours as shown in the image. Water drops Glass plate (a) With the help of ADP molecules Bell jar Vaseline (b) With the help of transpiration (c) With the help of ATP molecules Rubber sheath (d) With the help of water gradient Ans. (c) With the help of ATP molecules What can be evaluated about transpiration from this experiment? Explanation: The cotransport of proton with sucrose allows movement of sucrose against its concentration gradient into companion cells. From there it diffuses to sieve tube elements through plasmodesmata. As intially the transportation is against its concentration gradient hence ATP molecules are used for such transportation.
Science 257 188. The image shows the structure of a nephron. 1 89. Which of the following statement(s) is /(are) true about Vessels to respiration? [NCERT Exemplar] renal vein (i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm Glomerulus Bowman's Collecting is raised capsule duct Vessels from (ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e., renal artery Capillary oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into blood and Second carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air First coiled coiled tubule tubule (iii) H aemoglobin has greater affinity for oxygen than carbondioxide (iv) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Ans. (d) (ii) and (iv) Explanation: Nephron is a unit of filtration in kidneys which During inhalation, diaphagm contraction occur which reabsorbs or excretes water with the help of capillaries induces lower ribs to move upward and forward that surrounds it. What is the likely benefit of this? which increases thoracic volume. Ribs move outward as central tendron pushes down in liver which acts as (a) It helps to keep the output of urine constant fulcrum. Alveloi is site of gaseous exchange in lungs and throughout the day. increase surface area for facilating this process. (b) It helps to uptake and store excess amount of water 1 90. A scientist in a chemistry lab wants to make salt of pH in the body for later use. 5.5 using acid and base. The table shows the acid and base present in the lab. (c) It makes the process of filtration at Bowman's capsule easier. 1 HCl (d) It maintains the concentration of urine based on the 2 NaOH amount of water present in the body. 3 H2CO3 Ans. (d) It maintains the concentration of urine based on the 4 NH4Oh amount of water present in the body. 5 CH3COOH Which of the acid and base he should use for the Explanation: reaction? Nephron is a unit of filteration in kidney responsible for (a) CH3COOH and NaOH (b) HCl and NaOH removing all waste products of blood by converting it to (c) HCl and NH4OH (d) H2CO3 and NaOH urine. It selectively reabsobs or exeretes water with help Ans. (c) HCl and NH4OH of capillaries that help to mantain the concentration of Explanation: urine. For pH to be 5.5 it is acidic in nature so an acid along with weak base should be used to make an acidic salt, So HCl is strong acid and NH2OH is weak base are used.
258 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) Science Self Assessment Paper - 1 Section - A Section – A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated. 1. What is the name of the process where fatty foods become rancid? (A) Corrosion (B) Oxidation (C) Reduction (D) Hydrogenation 2. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for : (A) Nutrition (B) Respiration (C) Excretion (D) Transportation 3. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of a plane mirror, then the distance of image from mirror will be: (A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 0 4. Which one of the following precipitates are formed when the carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water? (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Ca(OH)4 (C) CaCO3 (D) CaCO2 5. Why is potassium more metallic than sodium. Give reason for the choice. (A) Both have 1 electron in their outermost shell. (B) Both are highly electropositive. (C) Sodium is larger in size than potassium. (D) Potassium is larger in size than sodium. 6. The opening and closing of stomatal pores depends upon : (A) Oxygen (B) Water in guard cells (C) Concentration of carbon dioxide in stomata (D) Temperature 7. In given figure, a light ray AB is incident normally on one face PQ of an equilateral glass prism. Find out the angles at faces PQ and PR. P A 60° B QR (A) 60° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 90° 8. In a convex spherical mirror, reflection of light takes place at: (A) a flat surface (B) a bent-in surface (C) a bulging-out surface (D) an uneven surface 9. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the following acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg) ? (A) H2SO4 (B) HCl (C) HNO3 (D) All of these 10. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The distance between its image and the pole is: (A) equal to f (B) between f and 2f (C) equal to 2f (D) greater than 2f
Science 259 11. In human digestive system the enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted respectively by : (A) Pancreas and liver (B) Pancreas and gall bladder (C) Stomach and pancreas (D) Stomach and salivary glands 1 2. What is the colour of the ash formed when a magnesium ribbon is burnt in the air? (A) White (B) Black (C) Yellow (D) Pink 1 3. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow? (A) Reflection, refraction and dispersion (B) Reflection, dispersion and total internal reflection (C) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection (D) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection 1 4. Suhana takes three beakers A, B and C filled with aqueous solution of glucose, alcohol and hydrochloric and respectively as shown in the following figure: The bulb glows in a solution depending on whether the solution is: (A) acidic (B) an electrolyte (C) basic (D) a non electrolyte 15. Protein, carbohydrate, and fat components of food are completely digested in the: (A) stomach (B) small intestine (C) large intestine (D) esophagus 16. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to their and cannot be kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following: (A) Mg (B) Na (C) P (D) Ca 1 7. The spectrum produced by the white light by a prism is called: (A) pure spectrum (B) impure spectrum (C) monochromatic spectrum (D) none of these 18. The table shows the characteristics of blood in one blood vessel of the body. Oxygen concentration Carbon dioxide concentration Pressure High Low High Which blood vessel contains blood with these characteristics? (A) Aorta (B) Pulmonary artery (C) Pulmonary vein (D) Vena cava 1 9. A ray of light falls normally or perpendicular on the surface of a mirror. Which of the following is not true regarding this? (A) The angle of incidence for such a ray of light is zero (B) The angle of reflection for such a ray of light is zero (C) Such ray of light reflects back along the same path (D) A ray of light in this case does not follow law of reflection 20. Study the given experimental set-up and answer the following question:
260 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) A new product sodium zincate is formed when sulphuric acid is replaced with: (A) Sodium hydroxide (B) Sodium oxide (C) Zinc oxide (D) Water 2 1. Which of the following correctly represents graphical relation between since of angle of incidence (i) and sine of angle of refraction (r)? (A) (B) (C) (D) 22. Match chemical compound given in the Column I with its colour given in Column II and select the correct answer using the options given below: Column I Column II (Chemical compounds) (Colour of their compound) A. Barium sulphate 1. Colourless B. Ferrous sulphate 2. Blue C. Copper sulphate 3. Green (light) D. Zinc sulphate 4. White A B C D 3 4 2 (A) 1 2 1 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 4 3 2 (D) 4 3 2 1 23. In which of the following group of organisms, food material is broken down outside the body and absorbed ? (A) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba (B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould (C) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta (D) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm 24. In which of the following diagrams is the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism shown correctly? (A) (B) (C) (D) I II III IV Section - B Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated. 2 5. Mrignayani was doing the experiment of comparing reactivity of metals in the laboratory. She was given aluminium metal and was told to check reactivity by using four solutions as shown below. She would observe that reaction takes place in:
Science 261 Al2 (SO)4 FeSO4 Al Al (A) (B) ZnSO4 CuSO4 Al Al (C) (D) (A) A and B (B) B, C and D (C) A, C and D (D) C and D 2 6. The image shows the process of making food by a plant. Which statement can be concluded from the image? (A) Plants absorb CO2 from air and H2O from the soil as raw materials and convert them into glucose. (B) Plants absorb O2 from air and minerals from the soils raw materials and convert them into heat energy. (C) Plants absorb O2 from air and glucose from the soil as raw materials and convert them into light energy. (D) Plants absorb CO2 from the soil and H2O from air as raw materials and convert them into glucose. 27. A spherical air bubble is embedded in glass, and a ray of light (incident ray I) approaches the bubble as shown in the figure. Which of the following represents the refracted ray which passes through the bubble completely? A IB air C glass D (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 28. Which of the following reactions is an exothermic reaction ? (A) Burning of coal. (B) Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost. (C) Process of respiration. (D) Decomposition of calcium carbonate to form quick lime and carbon dioxide. 29. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity will not take place properly? (A) Proteins breaking down into amino acids (B) Starch breaking down into sugars (C) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol (D) Absorption of vitamins 30. Which of the statement is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light in air? (A) Red light moves the fastest. (B) Blue light moves faster than green light. (C) All the colours of the white light travel with the same speed. (D) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of red and the violet light.
262 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) Question No. 31 to 34 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true 31. Assertion (A): Hydrogen peroxide is kept in coloured bottles. Reason (R): Hydrogen peroxide is a moderately reactive metal that can react with light or heat slowly to produce water. 32. Assertion: Plane mirror may form real image. Reason: Plane mirror forms virtual image, if objects is real. 33. Assertion: Aerobic animals are not truly aerobic. Reason: They produce lactic acid anaerobically. 34. Assertion: Colour of copper sulphate solution changes when an iron nail is kept immersed in it. Reason: The colour of copper sulphate solution changes when iron nail is kept immersed in it due to the decomposition reaction taking place between iron and copper leading to formation of iron sulphate. 35. A piece of red cloth when suitably illuminated may look black, but a piece of black cloth will never appear red. This phenomenon occurs because : (A) Black cloth reflects only black light (B) Black absorbs all the colours (C) Black cloth reflects all colours (D) Red cloth reflects all colours 36. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to : (I) The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride. (II) Sublimation of silver chloride. (III) Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride. (IV) Oxidation of silver chloride. (A) (I) only (B) (I) and (III) (C) (II) and (III) (D) (IV) only 37. In human digestive system the enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted respectively by : (A) Pancreas and liver (B) Pancreas and gall bladder (C) Stomach and pancreas (D) Stomach and salivary glands 3 8. Element S reacts with element T to form a compound C. During the formation of compound C, atoms of S lose one electron whereas T gains one electron each. Which of the following properties is not shown by compound C? (A) High melting point (B) Low melting point (C) Occurrence as solid (D) Conduction of electricity in the molten state 39. Which of the following statements are correct ? (I) Pyurvate can be broken down into ethanol and carbon dioxide by yeast (II) Fermentation takes place in aerobic bacteria (III) Fermentation takes place in mitochondria (IV) Fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration (A) (I) and (III) (B) (II) and (IV) (C) (I) and (IV) (D) (II) and (III) 4 0. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible for the same ? (I) Good thermal conductivity (II) Good electrical conductivity (III) Ductility (IV) High melting point (A) (I) and (II) (B) (I) and (III) (C) (II) and (III) (D) (I) and (IV) 41. Examine few statements regarding NaCl. (I) It is prepared by Chlor-alkali process (II) It is a white crystalline substance (III) It also exists in the form of rocks called rock salt (IV) It is a neutral salt with a pH value = 7 (A) (II) and (III) only (B) (III) and (IV) only (C) (I) and (IV) only .(D) (II), (III) and (IV) only
Science 263 White Light Glass prism R O Sheet with pin hole Y G B I V White Screen 4 2. Opening and closing of stomatal pore depends on: (A) Atmospheric temperature (B) oxygen concentration around stomata (C) carbon dioxide concentration around stomata (D) water content in the guard cells 43. The splitting of white light can be done by: (A) lens (B) prism (C) mirror (D) none of these 44. What is ‘white, solid hard mass’ called as? (A) Talcum powder (B) Paris of Plaster (C) Plaster of Paris (D) Copper sulphate 4 5. When a red light passes through a prism, it: (A) will not split (B) will split into seven colours (C) will split into white colour (D) will split into many different colours. 46. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the following properties is not shown by Z ? (A) Has high melting point (B) Has low melting point (C) Conducts electricity in molten state (D) Occurs as solid 47. Which property of light is used by prism to form a spectrum? (A) Reflection (B) Refraction (C) Dispersion (D) Scattering 48. Which of the following dispersion is correct? (A) Red (B) Blue Blue Red White White light light (C) Blue (D) Blue Violet Green White White light light Section - C Section- C consists of three Cases followed by questions. There are a total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section. The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated. Case 1 : Common edible salt, NaCl (Sodium Chloride) obtained from seawater or from lakes contains many impurities such as sulphates of sodium and magnesium along with chlorides of calcium and magnesium. The chlorides of these metals are particularly undesirable being deliquescent in nature. A saturated solution of salt in a minimum quantity of water is prepared and insoluble impurities are filtered off. HCl gas is then passed through the saturated solution and the crystals of pure NaCl separate out. The soluble impurities remain in the solution. Pure crystals of NaCl are filtered, washed and dried. 49. Choose the correct statement: (A) Pure NaCl is hygroscopic in nature by itself (B) Pure NaCl is soluble in alcohol (C) NaCl shows hygroscopic properties only due to impurities (D) NaCl is a brown crystalline solid
264 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 50. Nature of the aqueous solution of common salt is: (A) Acidic (B) Alkaline (C) Basic (D) Neutral 5 1. Which of the following compounds is alkaline in an aqueous medium? (A) Na2CO3 (B) NaCl (C) H2CO3 (D) CuSO4 5 2. Adding common salt to water will result in: (A) Increase in pH of the water (B) Decrease in pH of the water (C) No change in pH of the water (D) Flames in water Case 2 : The curved surface of a spoon can be considered as a spherical mirror. A highly smooth polished surface is called mirror. The mirror whose reflecting surface is curved inwards or outwards is called a spherical mirror. Inner part works as an concave mirror and the outer bulging part acts as a convex mirror. The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called pole and the radius of the sphere of which the mirror is formed is called radius of curvature. 5 3. When a concave mirror is held towards the sun and its sharp image is formed on a piece of carbon paper for some time, a hole is burnt in the carbon paper. What is the name given to the distance between the mirror and carbon paper. (A) Radius of curvature (B) Focal length (C) Principal focus (D) Principal axis 5 4. The distance between pole and focal point of a spherical mirror is equal to the distance between: (A) pole and centre of curvature (B) focus point and centre of curvature (C) pole and object (D) object and image 5 5. The focal length of a mirror is 15 cm. The radius of curvature is: (A) 15 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 60 cm 56. The normal at any point on the mirror passes through: (A) focus (B) pole (C) centre of curvature (D) any point Case 3 : Refer the figure given below carefully and answer the following questions : 57. The given picture shows a part of : (A) human digestive system (B) mouse digestive system (C) human respiratory system (D) mouse alimentary canal 58. Food taken in is processed to generate particles, which are small and of the same texture through: (A) biting (B) crushing the food with our teeth (C) mixing with saliva in the mouth (D) licking 5 9. Biological catalysts which help in food disintegration are also known as: (A) enzymes (B) proteins (C) fats (D) nucleic acids 60. Digestion functions are taken care of by the gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach by releasing the following : (A) hydrochloric acid, pepsin, and mucus (B) hydrochloric acid, pepsin, and malic acid (C) sulphuric acid, pepsin, and mucus (D) hydrochloric acid, pepsin and mucus Scan this QR code for the Solutions
Roll No. Name of Exam : ___________________________ 2021-22 1 2 OMR Response Sheet 3 4 Name __________________________________________________ 5 6 Class & Section _________________________________________ 7 8 Subject ________________________________________________ 9 Subject Code : 0 Date of Exam : D D M M YYYY Candidate’s Sign. Instructions for filling the OMR sheet : Invigilator’s Sign. 1. Use only black blue ballpoint pen to fill the circle 2. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited 3. Circle should be designed completely and properly 4. Cutting and erasing on this sheet is not allowed Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D 1. 21. 41. 2. 22. 42. 3. 23. 43. 4. 24. 44. 5. 25. 45. 6. 26. 46. 7. 27. 47. 8. 28. 48. 9. 29. 49. 10. 30. 50. 11. 31. 51. 12. 32. 52. 13. 33. 53. 14. 34. 54. 15. 35. 55. 16. 36. 56. 17. 37. 57. 18. 38. 58. 19. 39. 59. 20. 40. 60.
Self Assessment Chart After solving the self assessment paper, with the help of online solutions, mark yourself accordingly. Q. No. Chapter Name Topic Marks per Marks Question Obtained 1 Chemical reactions and Equations Oxidation and reduction 0.8 0.8 2 Life processes Excretion in animals 0.8 0.8 3 Light : Reflection and Refraction Images formed by spherical mirrors 0.8 0.8 4 Chemical reactions and Equations Displacement reaction 0.8 0.8 5 Metals and nonmetals Reactivity series 0.8 0.8 6 Life processes Respiration in plants 0.8 0.8 7 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 0.8 0.8 8 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light by curved surfaces 0.8 0.8 9 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 10 Light : Reflection and Refraction Images formed by spherical mirrors 0.8 0.8 11 Life processes Digestion in animals 0.8 0.8 12 Chemical reactions and Equations Decomposition reaction 0.8 0.8 13 The Human Eye and the colourful world Scattering of light 0.8 0.8 14 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 15 Life processes Digestion in animals 0.8 0.8 16 Metals and nonmetals Properties of metals and Non metals 0.8 0.8 17 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 0.8 0.8 18 Life processes Transport in animals 0.8 0.8 19 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light by curved surfaces 0.8 0.8 20 Chemical reactions and Equations Displacement reaction 0.8 0.8 21 Light : Reflection and Refraction Laws of refraction 0.8 0.8 22 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 23 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 0.8 0.8 24 The Human Eye and the colourful world Refraction of light through a prism 0.8 0.8 25 Metals and nonmetals Reactivity series 0.8 0.8 26 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 0.8 0.8 27 Light : Reflection and Refraction Refraction of light 0.8 0.8 28 Chemical reactions and Equations Exothermic reactions 0.8 0.8 29 Life processes Digestion in animals 0.8 0.8 30 The Human Eye and the colourful world Scattering of light 0.8 0.8 31 Metals and nonmetals Reactivity series 32 Light : Reflection and Refraction Image formed by mirrors 33 Life processes Respiration in animals 34 Acids, bases and salts General properties 35 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light 36 Chemical reactions and Equations Decomposition reaction 37 Life processes Digestion in animals 38 Metals and nonmetals Properties of ionic compounds 39 Life processes Respiration in plants 40 Metals and nonmetals Properties of metals and Non metals 41 Acids, bases and salts Preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide 42 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 43 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 44 Acids, bases and salts Plaster of Paris 45 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 46 Metals and nonmetals Properties of ionic compounds 47 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 48 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 49 Acids, bases and salts Preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide 50 Acids, bases and salts Preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide 51 Acids, bases and salts Preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide 52 Acids, bases and salts Preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide 53 Light : Reflection and Refraction Images fromed by the Spherical mirrors 54 Light : Reflection and Refraction Images fromed by the Spherical mirrors 55 Light : Reflection and Refraction Images fromed by the Spherical mirrors 56 Light : Reflection and Refraction Images fromed by the Spherical mirrors 57 Life processes Digestion in animals 58 Life processes Digestion in animals 59 Life processes Digestion in animals 60 Life processes Digestion in animals How did you perform ? (Marks Achieved/Maximum Marks × 100%)
Science Self Assessment Paper- 2 Section - A Section – A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated. 1. Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + ………….. (A) H2 (B) Cl2 (C) Zn (D) None of these 2. A powdered salt (X) in a dry test tube was heated that evolves brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide and a yellow residue of lead oxide is also formed. The salt (X) is: (A) MgSO3 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) (NH4)2SO4 (D) CaCO3 3. Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following: XY 20 cm Screen Screen 25 cm (A) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively. (B) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm respectively. (C) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively. (D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively. 4. A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour. This indicates that rice water contains: (A) Complex proteins (B) Simple proteins (C) Starch (D) Fats 5. Study the following ray diagram: z p y q x In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have been represented by: (A) y, p and z (B) x, q and z (C) p, y and z (D) p, z and y
268 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 6. The figure given below represents the experiment carried out between conc. sulphuric acid and sodium chloride, which react with each other to form HCl gas. Blue litmus paper is brought near the mouth of the delivery tube to check the presence of HCl acid but no change is observed in the colour of litmus paper because : (A) The litmus paper used is dry (B) The litmus paper used is moist (C) Blue litmus paper does not change its colour with an acid (D) The litmus paper is kept very close to the mouth of the delivery tube 7. Identify the basic salt from the following salts : (A) Na2CO3 (B) NH4Cl (C) NaNO3 (D) KCl 8. In which part of alimentary canal food is finally digested ? (A) Stomach (B) Mouth cavity (C) Large intestine (D) Small intestine 9. To prepare a good temporary mount of the petunia leaf peel showing many stomata. From where the student will have to observe the peel? Give reason for your answer. (A) tip of the leaf (B) upper surface of the leaf (C) lower surface of the leaf (D) point of attachment of the leaf to its petiole 10. At noon, the sun appears white as: (A) light is least scattered (B) all the colours of the white light are scattered away (C) blue colour is scattered the most (D) red colour is scattered the most 11. Carbon dioxide is an important element for production of food by plants. With a help of the below experiment, it is demonstrated that photosynthesis cannot be possible without carbon dioxide. Bell jar Watch-glass (a) (b) containing potassium hydroxide What is the role of potassium hydroxide in the above demonstrated experiment: (A) Hygroscopic (B) Absorb carbon dioxide (C) Absorb oxygen (D) Absorb water
Science 269 1 2. Match the following: Column A Column B (I) Plane Mirror (P) Virtual image (II) Real Image (Q) Cannot be taken on screen (III) Virtual Image (R) Can be taken on screen (IV) Convex Mirror (S) Lateral Inversion (A) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV-Q (B) I-P, II-Q, III-R, IV-S (C) I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P (D) I-Q, II-R, III-S, IV-P 13. Predict the metal when 2 mL each of concentrated HCl, HNO3 and a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO3 in the ratio of 3: 1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test tube C respectively. (A) Al (B) Au (C) Cu (D) Pt 1 4. Light rays A and B fall on optical component X and come out as C and D. The optical component is a: (A) Concave lens (B) Convex lens (C) Convex mirror (D) Prism 1 5. The image shows the bread moulds on a bread. How these fungi obtain nutrition? (A) By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food. (B) By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming them. (C) By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them. (D) By eating the bread on which it is growing. 16. Samples of five metals ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’ were taken and added to the following solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows: FeSO4 CuSO4 ZnSO4 AgNO3 Al2(SO4)3 MgSO4 A No reaction Displacement No reaction Displacement No reaction No reaction B Displacement Displacement No reaction Displacement No reaction No reaction C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement No reaction No reaction D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction E Displacement Displacement Displacement Displacement No reaction No reaction Which of them is least reactive? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E 17. Which of the following is the correct order of splitting of the components of the white light: (A) Red > Green > Blue (B) Blue > Yellow > Orange (C) Orange > Red > Green (D) Blue > Green > Violet 18. Reema took 5ml of Lead Nitrate solution in a beaker and added approximately 4ml of Potassium Iodide solution to it. What would she observe? (A) The solution turned red (B) Yellow precipitate was formed (C) White precipitate was formed (D) The reaction mixture became hot
270 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 1 9. Where an object should be placed in front of the concave mirror, so that its image can erect and large in size? (A) At the centre of curvature (C) of the mirror (B) At the focus point (f) of the mirror (C) In between the centre of curvature (C) and the focus point (f) of the mirror (D) In between the pole (P) and the focus point (f) of the mirror 2 0. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible for the same? (I) Good thermal conductivity (II) Good electrical conductivity (III) Ductility (IV) High melting point (B) (I) and (III) (C) (II) and (III) (D) (I) and (IV) (A) (I) and (II) 21. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light in the air? (A) Red light moves fastest. (B) Blue light moves faster than green light. (C) All the colours of the white light move at the same speed. (D) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and violet light. 2 2. In photosynthesis, which substance are used up, which are produced and which are necessary, but remain unchanged after the reaction? S. No. Used up Produced Remain unchanged Water Oxygen A Carbon dioxide Carbon dioxide Water Starch Cellulose B Chlorophyll Oxygen Chlorophyll C Oxygen D Water 2 3. Light rays are deviated by a prim The deviation angle d is measured for light rays of different frequencies, including blue light and red light. Which graph is correct? (A) (B) (D) (C)
Science 271 24. What is the nature of the new product which is formed by the action of water on quick lime ? (A) Neutral (B) Acidic (C) Amphoteric (D) Basic Section - B Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated. 2 5. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of a plane mirror, then the distance of image from mirror will be : (A) 5 cm (B)1 0 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 0 cm 2 6. A plant is kept in the dark for two days. A leaf is used in an experiment to investigate the effect of two factors on photosynthesis as shown in the diagram. What are the colours of Q and R, when the leaf is tested for starch, using iodine solution? (A) Q-Blue/black, R-Brown (B) Q-Brown, R-Brown (C) Q-Blue/black, R-Blue/black (D) Q-Brown, R-Blue/black 2 7. The following reaction is an example of CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq). (I) Displacement reaction (II) Combination reaction (III) Decomposition reaction (IV) Exothermic reaction (A) Only (III) (B) (I) and (III) (C) (II) and (IV) (D) Only (I) 2 8. Two identical prisms PQR and P′Q′R′ are given. White light is passed through PQR as shown below. Which of the following position of P′Q′R′ will again yield white light? (A) P' (B) Q' R' Q' R' P' (C) Q' (D) Q' R' P' P' R'
272 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 2 9. A student placed 10 mL HCl and NaOH in two separate breakers as shown. Beaker 1 Beaker 2 In breaker 1, 4 mL of NaOH is added whereas in breaker 2, 4 mL of HCl is added. The student notes the possible changes in pH in both solutions. Change in pH (Beaker 1) Change in pH (Beaker 2) A increase increase B reduce increase C increase reduce D reduce reduce Which change in pH is correct ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 30. The correct sequence of anaerobic reaction is yeast is: (A) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Mitochondria Ethanol + Carbon dioxide (B) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Cytoplasm Lactic acid (C) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Mitochondria Lactic acid (D) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Cytoplasm Ethanol + Carbon dioxide Question No. 31 to 34 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true 31. Assertion (A): Chemical equations should be balanced. Reason (R): As per the law of conservation of mass, mass can neither be created nor be destroyed. 32. Assertion: The rate of photosynthesis will be lowered if the leaves are coated with oil. Reason: Stomata gets blocked and thus gaseous exchange is affected. 3 3. Assertion (A): When a piece of copper metal is added to dilute sulphuric acid, the solution turns blue. Reason (R): Copper reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form copper (II) sulphate solution. 34. Assertion (A): The air bubble shines in water. Reason (R): Air bubble in water shines due to refraction of light. 35. A clear sky appears blue, because: (A) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere. (B) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere. (C) violet and blue lights get scattered more than the lights of all other colours by the atmosphere (D) lights of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere. 36. Which of the following reaction is characterised by the yellow colour of product? (A) Zn(s) + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 (B) Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → NaSO4 + H2O + CO2 (C) 2Pb3O4 D→ 6PbO(s) + O2(g) (D) 2KClO3 D→ 2KCl + 3O2(g)
Science 273 37. In which of the following groups of organisms, blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body? (A) Rabbit, Parrot, Turtle (B) Frog, crocodile, Pigeon (C) Whale, Labeo, Penguin (D) Shark, dog fish, sting ray 38. Which of the following is the correct order of speed of light in glass? (A) Red > Green > Blue (B) Blue > Green > Red (C) Violet > Red > Green (D) Green > Red > Blue 3 9. Calcium oxide can be reduced to calcium, by heating with sodium metal. Which compound would act as an oxidizing agent in the above process? (A) sodium (B) sodium oxide (C) calcium (D) calcium oxide 40. During vigorous physical exercise, lactic acid is formed from glucose inside the muscle cells because: (A) there is lack of oxygen (B) there is lack of water (C) there is excess of carbon dioxide (D) None of these 41. A student drops pieces of potassium and silver in beakers containing water. The image given below shows the reaction. What are the products formed in each beaker? (A) Beaker 1 : K2O and H2O; Beaker 2 : No reaction takes place (B) Beaker 1 : KOH and H2O; Beaker 2 : Ag2O and H2O (C) Beaker 1 : K2O and H2O; Beaker 2 : AgO and H2O (D) Beaker 1 : KOH and H2O; Beaker 2 : No reaction takes place 42. Which colour has the maximum frequency? (A) Red (B) Violet (C) Blue (D) Green 4 3. The formation of quick lime and carbon dioxide from calcium carbonate is an example of: (A) photochemical decomposition reaction (B) thermal decomposition reaction (C) oxidation reaction (D) displacement reaction 44. Villi present on the internal wall of intestine help in the: (A) emulsification of fats (B) breakdown of proteins (C) absorption of digested food (D) digestion of carbohydrates 4 5. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by four students are shown as W, X, Y and Z in figure. Which one of them is correct? (A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z 46. In the decomposition of lead (II) nitrate to give lead (II) oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen gas, the coefficient of nitrogen dioxide (in the balanced equation) is: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 4 7. Which of the following is the correct order of wavelength? (A) Red > Green > Yellow (B) Red > Violet > Green (C) Yellow > Green > Violet (D) Red > Yellow > Orange
274 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 4 8. A student makes an arrangement to test the electrical conductivity of distilled water as shown. The student observes that the bulb does not glow. What could be the reason the bulb does not glow? (A) The water never conducts electricity (B) The bulb needs DC source to glow (C) The graphite is bad conductor of electricity (D) The distilled water does not have ions present in it Section - C Section- C consists of three Cases followed by questions. There are a total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section. The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated. Case 1 : Marble’s popularity began in ancient Rome and Greece, where white and off-white marble were used to construct a variety of structures, from hand-held sculptures to massive pillars and buildings. 49. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is: (B) A marble statue (A) Dolomite (C) Calcined gypsum (D) Sea shells 5 0. A student added 10g of calcium carbonate in a rigid container, secured it tightly and started to heat it. After some time, an increase in pressure was observed, the pressure reading was then noted at intervals of 5 mins and plotted against time, in a graph as shown below. During which time interval did maximum decomposition took place? Pressure (atm) 1.25 1.00 0.75 0.50 0.25 (A) 15-20 min (B) 10-15 min (C) 5-10 min (D) 0-5 min 5 1. Gas A, obtained above is a reactant for a very important biochemical process which occurs in the presence of sunlight. Identify the name of the process: (A) Respiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) Transpiration (D) Photolysis 5 2. Marble statues are corroded or stained when they repeatedly come into contact with polluted rain water. Identify the main reason.
Science 275 1908 1969 (A) decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide (B) polluted water is basic in nature hence it reacts with calcium carbonate (C) polluted water is acidic in nature hence it reacts with calciumcarbonate (D) calcium carbonate dissolves in water to give calcium hydroxide. Case 2 : When you look at yourself in a mirror, you see your own image as if your exact twin are standing in front of you, but reversed right to left. The image appears as far into the mirror as you are in front of the mirror. If you step back, so does your image. Image appears in mirrors because of how light is reflected by mirrors. As light is reflected from all surfaces, not just mirrors. But not all surfaces from images. The reason is the two types of reflections. Object 3' Mirror 3' Image 53. For a plane mirror image formed is: (B) only (II) is correct (D) All (I), (II) and (III) are correct (I) erect and virtual (II) same size as the object (III) laterally inverted (A) only (I) is correct (C) (II) and (III) are correct 54. In a plane mirror, the image formed is: (A) behind the mirror (B) infront of the mirror (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these 5 5. A plane mirror reflects a pencil of light to form a real image. Then the pencil of light incident on the mirror is: (A) parallel (B) convergent (C) divergent (D) none of these 5 6. What should be the angle between two plane mirrors so that whatever be the angle of incidence, the incident ray and the reflected ray from the two mirrors be parallel to each other? (A) 60° (B) 90° (C) 120° (D) 175° Case 3 : Like humans, plants also need to maintain the vital functions even when they are not doing anything particular. These maintenance processes are needed to prevent damage and break-down, energy is needed for them. This energy comes from outside the body of the individual organism. So, there must be a process to transfer a source of energy from outside the body of the organism, the outside sources of energy could be quite varied, since the environment is not under the control of the individual organism. These sources of energy, therefore, need to be broken down or built up in the body, and must be finally converted to a uniform source of energy that can be used for the various molecular movements needed for maintaining living structures, as well as to the kind of molecules the body needs to grow. The following graph shows the growth of plants A and B over the period of weeks.
276 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) PLANT GROWTH 8 7 Growth in cm 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 1 234 Weeks of Growth 57. Roots of the plants absorb water from the soil through the process of: (A) Diffusion (B) Transpiration (C) Osmosis (D) None of these 58. What is the energy currency of the cell? (A) Adenosine triphosphorous (B) Adenosine tetraphosphorous (C) Adenosine triphosphate (D) Adenosine diphosphate 59. The following diagram show the cross-section of leaf. Midrib Lamina or leaf blade Vein A Phloem Xylem Waxy B cuticle Upper epidermis C D } Lower epidermis Choose the correct option with respect to the function of labelled parts. (A) A- helps in transportation of gases throughout the length of plants (B) B- convert chemical energy into light energy via the photosynthetic process. (C) C- allows gaseous exchange between the leaf and the outside atmosphere through the stomata (D) D- guard cells from pathogen attacks 6 0. Plants can get rid of excess water by ............... (A) Transpiration (B) Translocation (C) Photosynthesis (D) Diffusion Scan this QR code for the Solutions
Roll No. Name of Exam : ___________________________ 2021-22 1 2 OMR Response Sheet 3 4 Name __________________________________________________ 5 6 Class & Section _________________________________________ 7 8 Subject ________________________________________________ 9 Subject Code : 0 Date of Exam : D D M M YYYY Candidate’s Sign. Instructions for filling the OMR sheet : Invigilator’s Sign. 1. Use only black blue ballpoint pen to fill the circle 2. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited 3. Circle should be designed completely and properly 4. Cutting and erasing on this sheet is not allowed Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D Q. No. A B C D 1. 21. 41. 2. 22. 42. 3. 23. 43. 4. 24. 44. 5. 25. 45. 6. 26. 46. 7. 27. 47. 8. 28. 48. 9. 29. 49. 10. 30. 50. 11. 31. 51. 12. 32. 52. 13. 33. 53. 14. 34. 54. 15. 35. 55. 16. 36. 56. 17. 37. 57. 18. 38. 58. 19. 39. 59. 20. 40. 60.
Self Assessment Chart After solving the self assessment paper, with the help of online solutions, mark yourself accordingly. Q. No. Chapter Name Topic Marks per Marks Question Obtained 1 Chemical reactions and Equations Chemical equation 0.8 0.8 2 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 3 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light and refraction of light 0.8 0.8 4 Life processes Digestion in animals 0.8 0.8 5 The Human Eye and the colourful world Reactivity series 0.8 0.8 6 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 7 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 8 Life processes Digestion in animals 0.8 0.8 9 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 0.8 0.8 10 The Human Eye and the colourful world Scattering of light 0.8 0.8 11 Light : Reflection and Refraction Nutrition in Plants 0.8 0.8 12 Light : Reflection and Refraction Decomposition reaction 0.8 0.8 13 Metals and nonmetals Properties of metals and Non metals 0.8 0.8 14 Light : Reflection and Refraction Refraction of light by spherical lens; 0.8 0.8 15 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 0.8 0.8 16 Metals and nonmetals Reactivity series 0.8 0.8 17 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 0.8 0.8 18 Chemical reactions and Equations Displacement reaction 0.8 0.8 19 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light by curved surfaces 0.8 0.8 20 Metals and nonmetals Properties of metals and Non metals 0.8 0.8 21 Light : Reflection and Refraction Dispersion of light 0.8 0.8 22 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 0.8 0.8 23 The Human Eye and the colourful world Refraction of light through a prism 0.8 0.8 24 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 25 Light : Reflection and Refraction Images formed by mirrors 0.8 0.8 26 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 0.8 0.8 27 Chemical reactions and Equations Chemical equation 0.8 0.8 28 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 0.8 0.8 29 Acids, bases and salts General properties 0.8 0.8 30 Life processes Respiration in animals 0.8 0.8 31 Chemical reactions and Equations Chemical equation 32 Life processes Nutrition in Plants 33 Acids, bases and salts General properties 34 Light – Reflection and Refraction Total internal Reflection of light 35 The Human Eye and the colourful world Scattering of light 36 Chemical reactions and Equations Chemical equation 37 Life processes Transport in animals 38 Light : Reflection and Refraction Dispersion of light 39 Chemical reactions and Equations Oxidation and Reduction 40 Life processes Respiration in animals 41 Chemical reactions and Equations Chemical equation 42 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of light 43 Chemical reactions and Equations Types of chemical reaction 44 Life processes Digestion in animals 45 Light : Reflection and Refraction Refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab 46 Chemical reactions and Equations Balanced chemical equation 47 The Human Eye and the colourful world Dispersion of Light 48 Metals and Non metals Properties of ionic compounds 49 Acids, bases and salts General properties 50 Acids, bases and salts General properties 51 Acids, bases and salts General properties 52 Acids, bases and salts General properties 53 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light through a plane mirror 54 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light through a plane mirror 55 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light through a plane mirror 56 Light : Reflection and Refraction Reflection of light through a plane mirror 57 Life processes Respiration in plants 58 Life processes Respiration in plants 59 Life processes Respiration in plants 60 Life processes Excretion in plants How did you perform ? (Marks Achieved/Maximum Marks × 100%)
Social Science Term-1 Syllabus 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 2. Resources and Development 3. Water Resources 4. Agriculture 5. Power Sharing 6. Federalism 7. Development 8. Sectors of the Indian Economy
CHAPTER-1 : RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT RESOURCES Nature Institutions Technology Resources are something that satisfy humans and are available in the environment. It involves a relationship between : CLASSIFICATION OF RESOURCES ON THE BASIS OF Origin Exhaustibility Biotic Resources: Abiotic Resources: Renewable Non-renewable Obtained from Resources composed of Resources: Resources: non-living things, e.g. : Resources which can be biosphere, e.g. : Human reproduced or replenished These resources cannot beings, Fisheries, Flora Rocks, metals, etc. again. These include solar, be reproduced as they take wind energy, wildlife, and Fauna, etc. forest, etc. millions of years in their formation. These include fossil fuels, some metals, etc. Ownership Status of Development Individual Resources: Resources owned privately by Potential Resources: These are the resources which are individuals. It includes pasture lands, ponds, wells etc. found in a region but are not yet utilised. E.g. Rajasthan and Commnuity Owned Resources: Resources commonly Gujarat have enormous potential to develop wind and solar energy. available to all the members of community. It includes picnic Developed Resources: Resources which are ready to be utilised spots, public spots, etc. as the quality and quantity have already been determined. National Resources: All the resources in a way are national Stock: Resources which have the potential to satisfy human needs resources, as even private resources can be acquired for common but human beings don’t have enough technology to use these good. resources. International Resources: The resources which are regulated Reserves: These are considered to be subset of stock. Human by international institutions fall in this category. beings have enough technology to access these resources but the utilisation has not yet started. PROBLEMS ARISED Resources are depleting Indiscriminate BECAUSE OF in order to satisfy exploitation of resources human needs. has led to global ecological INDISCRIMINATE USE OF RESOURCES crises. Society is divided into haves and have nots as resources are accumulated in few hands.
CHAPTER-1 : THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE THE IDEA OF NATION Nationalism is the representation of same national identity of all citizens of a nation : In 1848, Frederick Sorrieu, a French artist, envisioned the development of the world based on social, democratic republics. In the late-eighteenth and early-nineteenth centuries, Europe saw the dramatic rise of revolutions and nationalist movements. The French The Rise of Revolution (1789-1799) : Napoleon Bonaparte (1769-1821) : Europe The French Revolution witnessed the emergence of a brought about social and great ruler, Napoleon Bonaparte political changes in the and the establishment of history of France and Second Republic of Europe. France. THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN OTHER EUROPEAN COUNTRIES (EARLY-MID NINETEENTH CENTURY) • Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms - duchies and cantons, having autonomous rule. • The Industrial Revolution emerged in England between 1820 and 1840. • After the decline of Napoleon, the European government adopted the ideals of conservation. • The Conservatism that dominated the European scene after 1815 gained support from Monarchy, Aristocracy and the Church. • The revolutionaries antagonised the conservative regimes and fought for liberty and freedom. • Giuseppe Mazzini formed 'Young Italy' for the purpose of uniting Italy. THE AGE OF REVOLUTIONS (1838-48) • During this phase, liberalism developed in full swing. • The classic statements of liberalism, 'the Declaration of Rights of Men and Citizens' surfaced. • Brussels and Greece saw the high noon of revolutionary movements. • Europe became the epicentre of cultural and political movements. • The 1830s represented the turbulent years of economic hardships as Hunger Hardship and Popular Revolt emerged. • This period marked the rise of constitutionalism and the process of national unifications. VISUALISING THE NATION The nation was envisioned as strong female figures, such as Marianne (France), Germania (Germany), Britannica (Britain) and Mother Russia (Russia). Nationalism : In the last quarter of Imperialism : The big states were the nineteenth century, nationalism embroiled into the rivalries of the Balkan represented a parochial creed with regions, which led to the beginning of the restricted ends. World War-I in the early twentieth century.
CHAPTER-1 : RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT RESOURCES Nature Institutions Technology Resources are something that satisfy humans and are available in the environment. It involves a relationship between : CLASSIFICATION OF RESOURCES ON THE BASIS OF Origin Exhaustibility Biotic Resources: Abiotic Resources: Renewable Non-renewable Obtained from Resources composed of Resources: Resources: non-living things, e.g. : Resources which can be biosphere, e.g. : Human reproduced or replenished These resources cannot beings, Fisheries, Flora Rocks, metals, etc. again. These include solar, be reproduced as they take wind energy, wildlife, and Fauna, etc. forest, etc. millions of years in their formation. These include fossil fuels, some metals, etc. Ownership Status of Development Individual Resources: Resources owned privately by Potential Resources: These are the resources which are individuals. It includes pasture lands, ponds, wells etc. found in a region but are not yet utilised. E.g. Rajasthan and Commnuity Owned Resources: Resources commonly Gujarat have enormous potential to develop wind and solar energy. available to all the members of community. It includes picnic Developed Resources: Resources which are ready to be utilised spots, public spots, etc. as the quality and quantity have already been determined. National Resources: All the resources in a way are national Stock: Resources which have the potential to satisfy human needs resources, as even private resources can be acquired for common but human beings don’t have enough technology to use these good. resources. International Resources: The resources which are regulated Reserves: These are considered to be subset of stock. Human by international institutions fall in this category. beings have enough technology to access these resources but the utilisation has not yet started. PROBLEMS ARISED Resources are depleting Indiscriminate BECAUSE OF in order to satisfy exploitation of resources human needs. has led to global ecological INDISCRIMINATE USE OF RESOURCES crises. Society is divided into haves and have nots as resources are accumulated in few hands.
CHAPTER-3 : WATER RESOURCES CAUSES OF Over exploitation of Pressure exerted by WATER SCARCITY water resources by growing industries on growing population. fresh water resources. Scarcity can arise because of water pollution. MULTIPURPOSE RIVER PROJECTS • Dams are being constructed in India for irrigation, electricity generation, flood control, recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding. For example : In Satluj-Beas River Basin, the Bhakra Nangal project is used for hydel power generation and irrigation. • The construction of these dams have come under a lot of scrutiny as it affects the natural flow of river water. • It has also been the cause of many social movements like Narmada Bachao Andolan, Tehri Dam Andolan. As construction of dams causes displacement of local people. • It has some ecological consequences like salinisation and has also widened the gap between the rich and the poor. • These dams were constructed to check floods but ironically they increase its chance due to sedimentation in the reservoir. In ancient times, people RAIN WATER HARVESTING Tankas were built in had extraordinary tradition of IN ANCIENT TIMES every house of Bikaner, water harvesting as people were well aware of rainfall Phalodi and Barmer. regimes and soil types. In hilly regions, Rooftop rainwater Inundation channels were people built diversion harvesting technique built to irrigate in Bengal. channels called`kuls' and was commonly used In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted `guls'. in Rajasthan. into rain-fed storages. RAIN WATER In Western Rajasthan, In Meghalaya, rainwater HARVESTING IN rooftop rainwater harvesting harvesting is done through PRESENT TIME is on decline. bamboo drip irrigation. In Gendathur, a village in Karnataka, rooftop rain- water harvesting is still being practiced.
CHAPTER-4 : AGRICULTURE Primitive Subsistence Rabi Crops: These crops Farming: It is practised on are sown during winter season small patches of land and depends on monsoon, natural fertility of soil, i.e., from October to and other environmental December. Examples of Rabi conditions. It is also called slash crops are Wheat, Barley, and burn agriculture. Gram, Peas, Mustard, etc. Intensive Subsistence TYPES OF CROPPING Kharif Crops: These Farming: This type of FARMING PATTERN crops are sown with the onset farming is practised in areas of monsoon and are harvested where there is high population pressure on land. Irrigation and in September-October. biochemical inputs are used to Example of Kharif crops are increase production. Rice, Jowar, Maize, Jute and Cotton, etc. Commercial Farming: Zaid Crops: In this type of farming, These crops are sown in between biochemical fertilisers, pesticides, Rabi and Kharif season. Example of High Yielding Variety seeds are used to obtain high productivity. Zaid crops are Cucumber, Watermelon, Muskmelon, etc. MAJOR CROPS Rice Wheat Maize Millets Pulses India is the second It is a rabi crop and It is used as both Bajra, jowar and India is the largest largest producer of is sown in north- food and fodder ragi are examples producer of pulses rice in the world. It western parts of and requires a of millets grown in in the world. Arhar, is a kharif crop and India. It requires temperature of India. These are Moong, Urad, Masur requires a temperature a cool temperature, 21°C-25°C. It is coarse grains and are some of the types above 25°C and bright sunshine and mostly cultivated are grown in the of pulses grown in India. rainfall above 100 cm. 50-75 cm rainfall. on alluvial soils of moist areas mostly. It is mostly cultivated Bihar. in north and north- eastern parts of India.
Sugarcane: It is cultivated FOOD CROPS Horticulture Crops: In in hot and humid conditions (OTHER THAN GRAINS) India, fruits and vegetables and is considered a tropical are cultivated in large amount. as well as a subtropical crop. It Potato, peas, cauliflower, requires temperature between 21°C tomatoes are some of the and 27°C and rainfall between vegetables grown in India. 75 and 100 cm. Tea: It is a beverage crop of Coffee: Arabica variety of India and is grown in tropical and coffee is produced in India. It is cultivated mostly in subtropical climates. It Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and requires fertile and well Kerala. drained soil. NON-FOOD CROPS • Fibre Crops : Cotton, Jute, Hemp and natural silk are important fibre crops grown in India. • India is the second largest producer of cotton in the world and it is grown on black soil, whereas jute is cultivated in Assam, Bihar, West Bengal, Odisha etc. TECHNOLOGICAL AND INSTITUTIONAL REFORMS • Indian Government introduced Green and White Revolutions to improve the condition of Indian agriculture. Land development programmes were introduced in the1980s and 1990s. • Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, Kisan Credit Card are some of the important schemes introduced by the Government of India to improve the condition of farmers. IMPACT OF GLOBALISATION ON AGRICULTURE • During the British period, cotton was exported as raw material to Britain. Champaran Movement was started in 1917 against forced cultivation of Indigo. • Globalisation, particularly after 1991, exposed farmers to new challenges. Small and marginal farmers need to be protected to improve the condition of agriculture. Diversification of crops is required to compete with the developed countries.
CHAPTER-1 : POWER SHARING POWER SHARING • Power sharing helps in bringing political stability in a country by minimising the probability of conflict among its social groups. Power sharing is one of the essential aspects of democracy, which involves the participation of citizens in the process of decision making. • Proper sharing of power among the different organs of government, namely legislature, executive and judiciary enables a country to hasten the path of growth and development. • Horizontal distribution of power involves sharing of power by different organs of government, such as legislature, executive and judiciary. In such form of power sharing, different organs of government have different powers. This avoids unnecessary clashes among their powers and brings about a balance in the system. • Vertical distribution of power involves sharing of power at different levels of government, that is Central, State and Local governments. In this form of power sharing, Central government delegates its power to the State government, which further delegates its power to local and smaller government bodies. Power is also shared among social groups like religious groups and linguistic groups. POWER SHARING IN BELGIUM • Belgium is a small European country. Out of the composite population of Belgium, 59% of Belgian people speak Dutch, 40% speak French and rest 1% speak German. Whereas in Brussels, the capital city of Belgian, 80% of the people speak French while 20% speak Dutch. • In Belgium, the French speaking community was in minority but they were economically and educationally more stable as compared to the majority community, that is, the Dutch speaking community. • According to the Belgian model, Central government of the country has ministers from both majority and minority communities of the country. Central government has delegated a number of its powers equally to the state governments of the regions where Dutch speaking and French speaking communities reside. Brussels has a separate government wherein French speaking community and Dutch speaking community both have equal participation. • Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government known as the ‘community government.’ A ‘community government’ is chosen by those people who belong to a particular language community. This type of government solves issues related to the culture, education and language. This government prevents civil war among different linguistic communities. POWER SHARING IN SRI LANKA • Sri Lanka got independence in 1948. Out of the total population, 74% of the people speak Sinhala and 18% speak Tamil (in which 13% are Sri Lankan Tamils and 5% are Indian Tamils). Sinhala-speaking people are primarily Buddhists, while Tamils are either Hindus or Muslims. Only 7% of Sri Lanka’s population is Christian, who speaks both Tamil and Sinhala. • In Sri Lanka, majoritarianism was practised. Majoritarianism is a political philosophy, wherein the majority community has the right to govern the country in the way it wants. As a result, Sinhala was established as the official language of Sri Lanka in 1956. The government policies favoured Sinhala people and they got government jobs and good educational institutes. A new constitution was established for the protection and growth of Buddhism. Such activities alienated Sri Lankan Tamils. • Sri Lankan Tamils formed parties and started struggles for establishing Tamil as an official language. They demanded equal education and employment opportunities. But Sinhala government denied this. • By 1980s, various political organisations were established in Sri Lanka and they started demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in the northern and eastern parts of the country. Such differences between the two communities led Sri Lanka into the state of a civil war.
CHAPTER-2 : FEDERALISM FEDERALISM Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. • The Central government is for the entire country and is responsible for the subjects of common national interest. • The State government is responsible for looking after the day-to-day affairs of their respective states. • Both the State and the Central governments enjoy power independent of each other. • Originally, the constitution of India provided a two-tier system of government, the Union Government and the State Governments. • A third tier was added in the Indian federation; with the formation of Panchayats and Municipalities. SALIENT FEATURES OF FEDERALISM • There are two or more than two different levels (or tiers) of government. • Though, different tiers of government administer the same citizens, but there is specific jurisdiction of each tier in relation to legislation, taxation and administration. • As the jurisdiction of each tier is clearly laid in the Constitution, it guarantees for the existence and authority of each tier. • It is not possible to change the fundamental provisions of the Constitution by any one level. The change can be brought by mutual consent of both the levels. • In case of any dispute regarding exercise of power by the different levels of government, the matter can be resolved by the highest court. • There is clear specification regarding the sources of revenue for each level for ensuring its financial autonomy. THE BALANCE OF POWER : TWO KINDS OF FEDERATIONS Coming Together Federation : • In this type of federation, several independent states join to form a big union. • It helps in ensuring their security and maintaining their sovereignty. Here, the Centre and States have equal powers. For example: Switzerland, the USA, and Australia. Holding Together Federation : • In this type of federation, power is divided between the Central and State Governments. The Central Government is more powerful than the State Governments. • Some units may have special powers and the powers of the constituent units may be unequal. For example: Spain, India, Belgium, etc. • In this case, power is shared among various social groups to accommodate a huge diversity. • In this type of federation, the Central Government is more powerful than the State Government. • Different constituents of the federation may have unequal powers. Some units are granted special powers, e.g. the case of Jammu & Kashmir in India.
LIST OF JURISDICTIONS Union List State List Concurrent List Residuary Subjects (i) Union List has 97 (i) State List has 59 subjects (i) Concurrent List has 47 (i) Those subjects which are subjects of national of State and regional importance subjects of common interest not mentioned in any of the importance, like, like trade, commerce, police, to both the Central and the State above mentioned lists, are defence, banking, foreign agriculture and irrigation, local Governments like education, considered as Residuary policy, post and telegraph, government, etc. trade unions, marriage, forest, subjects. currency, atomic energy, etc. adoption and succession. (ii) The State Governments can (ii) Union Government can (ii) The Union government make laws related with the (ii) Both the Central and the legislate on these subjects. can pass laws related to the subjects included in the State State Governments can make Union List. List. laws on the subjects included in the Concurrent List. (iii) In case of any dispute, the law made by the Union Government will be considered. THE THREE-TIER GovUenrniomnent State DECENTRALISATION GovLeorncaml ent Government THE REASONS FOR DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA : • In a big country like India, it is utmost essential to bring governance at the local level as the local people are better acquainted with the local problems. • It also helps to bring in efficiency in the system as the local people are more familiar with the area and can help in better utilisation of the resources. • It helps in involving local people in decision making which helps in planning development as per the local needs. • The local government can also solve the problems easily and immediately at minimal expenses. • It helps in bringing governance at the grassroot level, hence, ensures healthy, strong and stable democratic system. Rural LOCAL SELF-GOVERNMENT Urban (i) Zila Parishad (District Level) (i) Municipal Corporations (Large Urban Areas) (ii) Panchayat Samitis or Block (Intermediary or Middle Level) (ii) Municipal Councils or Municiplaities (iii) Gram Panchayats (Village Level) (Small Urban Areas) MEASURES FOR STRENGTHENING THE LOCAL GOVERNMENT IN THE AMENDMENT OF 1992 • It has become mandatory to hold regular elections for local government bodies. • Some seats are kept reserved for Scheduled Castes, Schedules Tribes and Other Backward Classes. • One-third of total positions are kept reserved for women candidates. • Out of the subjects included in the State List, 29 subjects were transferred to Panchayati Raj institution by the 11th schedule of the Constitution. • A State Election Commission has been established in each State for conducting the elections of Panchayats and Municipalities.
CHAPTER-1 : DEVELOPMENT DEVELOPMENT Development is defined as a situation in which all the aspirations of people get fulfilled. (i) Regular employment COMMON (v) Freedom DEVELOPMENT GOALS (i) Higher output (vi) Security (iii) Higher income (vii) Dignified life (iv) Equal distribution of income, Equal treatment (viii) Respect from others etc. MEASUREMENT OF DEVELOPMENT OF A COUNTRY Total Income Per Capita Human Income Development (i) Total Income refers to the GDP of the country as the measure of development. Index (ii) The total income fails to indicate that what a person earn in the country. Because given (i) The Per Capita Income of a country is The United Nations Development the total income of the country, the size of the an average income that refers to total Programme developed it. population makes the difference. income per person of a country. It is (iii) At the same level of income, the country calculated by dividing the total income UNDP uses: with less population will be better off in of a country by its total population. (i) The educational levels of the people. comparison to country with higher population. (ii) Their health status. Total income method fails to take into (ii) The Per Capita Income concept was (iii) Per capita income. consideration this role of population. started to be used as the measure of To compare the development of development because the standard of countries in its Human Development living of a person is dependent upon Repor t. what he earns. The countries with higher per capita income are considered to be Sustainable more developed than those with less Development per capita income. Sustainable development means the (iii) The Per Capita Income fails to take judicious use of resources for into consideration the distribution of income. development in such a manner so Given the same level of Per Capita Income, that the future generations may enjoy a country with more equal income distribution these resources in the similar manner is considered to be better in comparison to as the present generation is enjoying. those with less equal income distribution.
CHAPTER-2 : SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY On the basis CLASSIFICATION OF THE On the basis of Economic SECTORS OF THE ECONOMY of Public and Activities. Private Sectors. On the basis of Organised and Unorganised Sectors. CLASSIFICATION ON THE BASIS OF ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES Primary Sector Tertiary Sector Secondary Sector This sector includes the activities In this sector, the natural products are This sector is also known as service which are directly associated with the converted into other forms through the sector. This sector includes all kind of exploitation of natural resources like way of manufacturing. These manufacturing services like telecommunication, agriculture, forestry, fisheries, poultry, activities take place with the help of machines education, medical care, transportation animal husbandry etc. This sector is and labour. Since this sector gradually become insurance, banking etc. Tertiary sector also known as Agriculture and allied associated with the different kinds of industries provides support to rest both of the sector. that come up, it is also called as industrial sector. sectors. This sector is very important as far as the contribution in the national income is concerned. GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the sum total of money value of all the production which has taken place in all these three sectors during a particular year. GDP shows the size of the economy. UNEMPLOYMENT Unemployment is a very serious problem in India but bigger problem has been the underemployment. Underemployment is widely prevalent in primary sector. By right policies the government may tackle these problems in rural and urban areas. MGNREGA 2005 is helping the government a lot in tackling the problem of rural unemployment. MGNREGA 2005 • National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) was formulated in 2005 and launched by the Prime Minister on 2nd February, 2006 Later on, its name changed to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). • It targets Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs) and women suffering from poverty in the rural areas.
• It provides livelihood to the people below the poverty line. The scheme guarantees 100 days (recently amended to 150 days in drought-hit areas) of wage employment in a year to every rural household in 625 districts of the country. • The Gram Panchayat, after proper verification, will register households and issue job cards to them. • This Act is also called as Right to Work because if the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowances to the people. The type of work can be anything from road development, canal construction to any other similar work, which may increase productivity of the land. CLASSIFICATION OF SECTORS AS Unorganised ORGANISED AND UNORGANISED Sector Organised Sector (i) Organised sector includes those organisations or works where the (i) The unorganised sector includes those organisations or works terms of employment are certain and people get regular and assured work. where the terms of employment are not certain and people do not have regular and assured work. (ii) These organisations are registered by the government and have to follow rules and regulations framed by it such as the Factories Act, (ii) This sector is characterised by small and scattered units which Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and are not registered by the government and do not follow its rules and Establishments Act etc. regulations. (iii) Most of the times, the workers in this sector are exploited. Hence, appropriate government policies are required to secure the interests of the workers in this sector. CLASSIFICATION OF SECTORS Private AS PUBLIC AND PRIVATE Sector Public Sector (i) This sector includes the organisations that are owned and operated (i) This sector includes the industrial organisations that are owned by the government for providing goods and services to the people. and operated by the private entrepreneurs for providing goods and services to the people. (ii) The primary objective of this sector is the maximisation of welfare of the people. (ii) The primary objective of this sector is the maximisation of profit for the organisations. (iii) There are many goods and services which are provided by public sector to the public and industry while the private sector is not able to provide either due to higher cost or long gestation period.
Social Science 293 Social Science Multiple Choice Questions History 1. Choose the correctly matched pair who speaks (b) 1859 — Italy unified about the people and their ideas about the world. (c) 1817 — Italy fragmented in seven States (d) 1863 — Cavour through diplomacy allied France (a) Frederick Sorrieu — Democratic and social Republic to defeat Austria Ans. (a) 1831 — Efforts of Mazzini failed (b) Ernst Renan — Culture can be found in common people 6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the year and unification of various countries. (c) Napoleon — A common past and present (d) Johann Gottfried — Democratic countries (a) 1855–1961 — Unification of Britain Ans. (a) Frederick Sorrieu — Democratic and social (b) 1859–1870 — Unification of Italy (c) 1789–1801 — Unification of Germany Republic (d) 1866–1871 — Unification of France Ans. (b) 1859–1870 — Unification of Italy 2. Choose the correctly matched pair that tells about the revolts, the year, and the concerned country. (a) 1830 — England (b) 1845 — Germany 7. Choose the correctly matched pair about leaders of (c) 1848 — Paris (d) 1849 — Silesia unification and their country. Ans. (c) 1848 — Paris (a) Giuseppe Garibaldi — Britain 3. Choose the correctly matched pair about the year (b) Napoleon — France and important events that took place in Balkan (c) Bourbon King — Spain countries. (d) Otto von Bismarck — Germany Ans. (d) Otto von Bismarck — Germany (a) 1914 — Idea of nationalism swept over Balkan area 8. In 1848 who tried to unite the regions of the German confederation into a nation state by an (b) 1902 — European countries wanted to control elected parliament? Balkan area (a) Conservatives (b) Middle — class (c) 1892 — The cause of First World War (c) Otto von Bismarck (d) Kaiser William I (d) 1871 — Became the source of tension in Europe. Ans. (b) Middle — class Ans. (d) 1871 — Became the source of tension in Europe. 4. Choose the correctly matched pair about the country 9. Assertion: In 1707 the ‘UNITED KINGDOM OF and its allegory. GREAT BRITAIN’ was formed . (a) Marianne — France Reason: The Act of Union between Scotland and (b) Germania — Armenia England. (c) Mother Hayastan — Argentina (d) Effray of the Republic — Germany (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct Ans. (a) Marianne — France explanation of A. 5. Choose the correctly matched pair about the year, (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct and the action the revolutionaries took in the explanation of A. unification of Italy. (c) A is true but R is false. (a) 1831 - Efforts of Mazzini failed (d) R is true but A is false. Ans. (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
294 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) explanation of A. 18. Identify the correct statement with regard to the 10. Choose the correct option from the following. Treaty of Vienna from the following options: List -I (Year) List - II (Activity) (a) The right to vote and to get elected was granted to property owning person. (a) 1804 Greek Independence for struggle (b) The European powers drew up a settlement for (b) 1815 Treaty of Vienna Europe. (c) 1717 Napoleon Wars (c) A landed aristocracy became the dominant class. (d) France lost the territories it had annexed under (d) 1821 Civil War Napoleon. Ans. (b) 1815 — Treaty of Vienna Ans. (d) France lost the territories it had annexed under 11. Which incident shows that the army (conservatives) Napoleon. can be the architect of a nation? 19. Study the picture and answer the question that (a) 1848 July revolution follows: (b) Frankfurt Parliament (c) Unification of Germany (d) War of Waterloo Ans. (c) Unification of Germany 12. Who suppressed the liberal initiative of nation- Which of the following aspects best signifies the building? image given above? (a) Military of monarch of Prussia and Junkers (b) Louis Philippe (c) Louis XV (d) Victor Emmanuel Ans. (a) Military of monarch of Prussia and Junkers 13. What is the meaning of Junker? (a) Romanticism (b) Conservatism (c) Federalism (d) Feminism Ans. (a) Romanticism (a) Big Farmer (b) Minister (c) Large landlord (d) Feminist 20. Assertion: Austrian forces were defeated in 1859 by Ans. (c) Large landlord the Sardinia - Piedmont. 14. Which country took on the leadership of the Reason: Covour made a tactful diplomatic alliance movement for national unification? with France. (a) Poland (b) Austria (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (c) Russia (d) Prussia explanation of A. Ans. (d) Prussia (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct 15. Who was the architect of German unification? explanation of A. (a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Kaiser William I (c) A is true but R is false. (c) King George (d) Von Roon (d) R is true but A is false. Ans. (a) Otto von Bismarck Ans. (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. 16. The unification of Germany was possible with the 21. Name the countries that were defeated by Prussia in help of ................ and ................ . the seven years war. (a) French army and King (a) Austria, France and Germany (b) Bismarck and France (b) Austria, France and Poland (c) Bureaucracy and Prussian army (c) Austria, Italy and Germany (d) Austria and Denmark (d) Austria, Denmark and France Ans. (c) Bureaucracy and Prussian army Ans. (d) Austria, Denmark and France 17. ................ wars over ................ years ended in Prussian 22. Who was proclaimed the head of the new German victory. Empire held in the Palace of Versailles? (a) 3 and 7 (b) 7 and 3 (a) Otto Von Bismarck (b) Kaser William II (c) 3 and 6 (d) 10 and 6 (c) Anton Von Werner (d) Kaiser William I Ans. (a) 3 and 7 Ans. (d) Kaiser William I
Social Science 295 23. What was the real intention of Prussia behind the 31. Choose the correct option from the following. unification of Germany? List -I (Term) List - II (Explanation) (a) Democracy (b) Unity maintenance (a) Suffrage The right to vote and get (c) Nationalism elected (d) Political dominance over Europe Ans. (d) Political dominance over Europe (b) Zollverein A direct vote by people to accept or reject. 24. When was the Prussian king proclaimed the German (c) Plebiscite An extract idea. Emperor? (d) Allegory A customs union formed in 1834. (a) 18 July 1871 (b) 18 January 1871 (c) 18 June 1871 (d) 18 April 1871 Ans. (a) Suffrage — The right to vote and get elected Ans. (b) 18 January 1871 32. Who was the chief minister of Sardinia - Piedmont? 25. Where was Kaiser William I declared as the king of German Empire? (a) Count Camillo de Cavour (b) Giuseppe Garibaldi (a) Hall of Mirrors (c) Otto von Bismarck (b) Palace of Mirrors (d) Philip Veut (c) Hall of Prussians Ans. (a) Count Camillo de Cavour (d) Hall of Germania Ans. (a) Hall of Mirrors SOURCE 1. 26. What was newly modernized in Germany? From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create (a) Music and Drama a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The (b) Allegory ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) (c) Currency, banking, legal and judicial system emphasized, the notion of a united community enjoying (d) Currency, banking, legal, monarchical rule and equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tri colour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. judicial system The Estates General was elected by the body of active Ans. (c) Currency, banking, legal and judicial system citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, 27. Who had prepared the proclamation of the German all in the name of the nation. A centralized administrative Empire in the Hall of Mirrors at Versailles? system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and (a) Frederic Sorrieu dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and (b) Philip Veit measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged (c) Otto Von Bismarck and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became (d) Anton von Werner the common language of the nation. Ans. (d) Anton von Werner 28. Which of the following was a multi-national empire? 33. What was the idea of la patrie and le citoyen? (Choose the most appropriate answer) (a) Sardinia - Piedmont (b) Kingdom of both Sicilies (a) A united community enjoying equal rights under a (c) Papal State constitution. (d) Austrian Habsburg Empire Ans. (d) Austrian Habsburg Empire (b) Use of common language (c) A centralized administrative system 29. During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was (d) U se of French as it was spoken and written in divided into ................ states. Paris (a) 3 (b) 4 Ans. (a) A united community enjoying equal rights under a (c) 6 (d) 7 Ans. (d) 7 constitution. 30. How many empires were originally Italian in Italy 34. What were measures and practices introduced by during mid 19th century? the French Revolutionaries? (a) 2 (b) 1 (a) All citizens have equal rights (c) 0 (d) 7 (b) Uniform laws for all citizens Ans. (b) 1 (c) Centralized Administrative system (d) All of these. Ans. (d) All of these.
296 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 35. Fill in the blank from the given options 41. Central Italy was ruled by the ................ . A centralized ................ system was put in place and (a) Monarch (b) Pope it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its (c) Duke Metternich (d) Victor Emmanuel II territory. Ans. (b) Pope (a) legislative (b) executive 42. Which part of Italy was ruled by the Bourbon kings (c) judiciary (d) administrative of Spain? Ans. (d) Administrative 36. Read the following statements and find the (a) North (b) East INCORRECT from the given options (c) South (d) West Ans. (c) South I. The ideas of la patrie and le citoyen was emphasized. 43. Who was the ruler of Sardinia - Piedmont? II. Centralized administrative system did not (a) Giuseppe Garibaldi formulated uniform laws for all citizens. (b) King Victor Emmanuel II (c) Otto von Bismarck III. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished. (d) Wolfe Tone Ans. (b) King Victor Emmanuel II Options (b) II and III (a) I and II (d) II Only 44. In the eyes of the ruling elites, what did a unified (c) III Only Italy offer them? Ans. (d) II Only (a) Decline 37. The Estate General was elected __________. (b) Political dominance and economic development (c) Freedom and Liberty (a) By the rulers. (d) Revolution and empowerment of Liberals (b) By the body of active citizens Ans. (b) Political dominance and economic development (c) By the National Assembly. (d) By all of these. 45. Most of the Belgians speak which language? Ans. (b) By the body of active citizens (a) French (b) German 38. Two statements are given in the question below as (c) English (d) Irish Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements Ans. (a) French and choose the appropriate option. 46. Which language was widely spoken among the Assertion (A): From the very beginning, the French Italian elites? revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create sense of collective (a) Italian (b) French identity amongst the French people. (c) German (d) Russian Ans. (b) French Reason (R): The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasized, the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct 47. In which year were the Austrian forces defeated by explanation of A Sardinia - Piedmont? (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct (a) 1858 (b) 1848 explanation of A (c) 1832 (d) 1859 Ans. (d) 1859 (c) A is true but R is false. 48. In which year did Giuseppe Garibaldi and his troops (d) A is false but R is true march into southern Italy? Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (a) 1859 (b) 1860 explanation of A (c) 1862 (d) 1861 Ans. (b) 1860 39. Which state was ruled by an Italian princely house? (a) Papal state (b) Sardinia-Piedmont 49. With whose support did Garibaldi succeed in driving (c) South Italy (d) Habsburg Empire out the Spanish rulers from southern Italy? Ans. (b) Sardinia-Piedmont (a) Victor Emmanuel II 40. Northern Italy was ruled by the ................ . (b) Peasants (c) Rich Merchants (a) Bourbon kings of Spain (b) Habsburg Empire (d) Young soldiers of Spanish army Ans. (b) Peasants (c) Papal state (d) Prussia Ans. (b) Habsburg Empire
Social Science 297 50. Choose the correct option from the following. 56. How many ethnic groups inhabited the British Isles? List -I (Attributes) List - II (Significance) (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6 (a) Broken Chain Beginning of a new Era Ans. (a) 4 (b) Sword Being freed (c) Olive branch around Willingness to make 57. Which nation from the following grew steadily in wealth, importance and power? the sword peace (d) Rays of rising sun Readiness to fight (a) English (b) Welsh (c) Irish (d) Scottish Ans. (c) Olive branch around the sword — Willingness to Ans. (a) English make peace 51. Mr. X lives in a country where the government 58. In which year did the English parliament seize power or system of rule has no restraints on the power from the monarchy? exercised. Of which type of government is this an example? (a) 1688 (b) 1868 (c) 1687 (d) 1707 (a) Federalist (b) Absolutist Ans. (a) 1688 (c) Democratic (d) Monarchical Ans. (b) Absolutist 59. When was the Act of Union signed? 52. In development of Nationalism in European countries (a) 1701 (b) 1707 like (c) 1688 (d) 1868 • France Ans. (b) 1707 • Germany • England SOURCE 2. Out of the three, why is unification of England is Let us look at Romanticism, a cultural movement which considered a strange case? Select the most suitable sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment. option from the following: Romantic artists and poets generally criticized the glorification of reason and science and focused instead on (a) It was the result of a long drawn out process. emotions, intuition and mystical feelings. Their effort was (b) It was a result of a revolutionary movement to create a sense of a shared collective heritage, a common (c) It was result of a peace treaty cultural past, as the basis of a nation. Other Romantics (d) It was a result of civil war such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder Ans. (a) It was the result of a long drawn out process. (1744-1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people–dasvolk. It was 53. During the celebration of Independence day, Seema through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the saw a statue of Bharat Mata displayed on stage. true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was popularised. So She remembered her teacher’s talk about the collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was personification of a country is called Bharat Mata. essential to the project of nation-building. She wondered whose allegory she would see when she pays a visit to her uncle in Germany. Can you 60. Which movement sought to develop a particular help her trace the allegory of Germany? form of nationalist sentiment? (a) Gaucho (b) Marine (Choose the most appropriate answer) (c) Germania (d) Johnny Canuck Ans. (c) Germania (a) Collective (b) Volksgeist 54. In which year was Victor Emmanuel II declared king (c) Romanticism of united Italy? (d) Common cultural past Ans. (c) Romanticism (a) 1861 (b) 1860 (c) 1859 (d) 1862 61. On what did the Romantic artists and poets focus? Ans. (a) 1861 55. The peasants of South Italy believed that `La Talia’ (a) The glorification of reason and science. was ______________. (b) Emotions, intuition and mystical feelings. (c) The glorification of reason, science, emotions, (a) La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's mother. (b) La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's sister. intuition and mystical feelings. (c) La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's wife. (d) none of these (d) La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's daughter. Ans. (b) Emotions, intuition and mystical feelings. Ans. (c) La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's wife.
298 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 62. Fill in the blank from the given options (c) Lord Byron Germany Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi Italy Gottfried Herder (1744-1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the Ans. (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi — Italy common people......... It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the 67. The British Parliament was dominated by its ............. nation (volksgeist) was popularised. (a) English members (b) Scottish members (a) das volk (b) volksgeist (c) Irish members (d) Welsh members (c) dasgeist (d) volkdas Ans. (a) English members Ans. (a) das volk 63. Read the following statements and identify the 68. What was the language spoken by the Scottish INCORRECT one from the given options. people? I. Romantics such as the German philosopher (a) Polish (b) French Johann Gottfried Herder claimed that true (c) Magyar (d) Gaelic German culture was to be discovered among the Ans. (d) Gaelic common people–dasvolk. 69. The Catholic clans of Scotland were the inhabitants II. It was not through folk songs, folk poetry and of the ................ folk dances that the true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was popularised. (a) Scottish Plains (b) Scottish coast III. The ideas of la patrie and le citoyen were (c) Scottish Highlands emphasized. (d) Scottish primitive villages Ans. (c) Scottish Highlands Options (b) II and III (a) I and II (d) II Only 70. What were the two Christian divisions in Ireland? (c) III Only Ans. (d) II Only 64. How was true German culture to be discovered (a) New testament and Old testament among the common people? (b) Catholic and Protestants (c) Catholics and Scottish church (a) By folk songs (b) By folk poetry (d) None of the above (c) By folk dances (d) By all of these. Ans. (b) Catholic and Protestants Ans. (d) By all of these. 71. Which was the community that received the help of 65. Two statements are given in the question below as the English in Ireland? Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. (a) Catholics (b) Protestants (c) Irish Church (d) English merchants Assertion (A): Romantics such as the German Ans. (b) Protestants philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744- 1803) claimed that true German culture was to be 72. Name the Irish catholic who revolted against British discovered among the common people–dasvolk. dominance? Reason (R): So collecting and recording these forms (a) Garibaldi (b) Grimm Brothers of folk culture was essential to the project of nation- (c) Wolfe Tone (d) Cavour building. Ans. (c) Wolfe Tone (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct 73. In which year was Ireland fully incorporated into the explanation of A United Kingdom? (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct (a) 1701 (b) 1707 explanation of A (c) 1801 (d) 1807 Ans. (c) 1801 (c) A is true but R is false. 74. Who was responsible for the forcible incorporation (d) A is false but R is true of Ireland into United Kingdom? Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct (a) King Victor Emmanuel II explanation of A (b) Wolfe Tone and United Irishmen (c) Cavour 66. Choose the correct option from the following. (d) Garibaldi Ans. (b) Wolfe Tone and United Irishmen List -I (Leaders) List -II ( (Country) (a) Otto von Bismarck Italy (b) Giuseppe Bismarck Greece
Social Science 299 75. Choose the correct option from the following. (a) Belgium, Netherlands (b) Netherlands, Bourbon List I ( Word) List II ( Meaning) (c) Netherlands, Belgium (d) Bourbon, Netherlands (a) das Volk Common people Ans. (c) Netherlands, Belgium (b) la Patrie The citizens (c) le citoyen Nation 79. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options (d) volksgerst The fatherland I. European governments were not driven by a Ans. (a) das Volk — Common people spirit of conservatism. SOURCE 3. II. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society Following the defeat of Napoleon 1815, European should be preserved. governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional III. M ost conservatives realised, from the changes institutions of state and society –like the monarchy, the initiated by Napoleon, that modernization could Church, social hierarchies, property and the family –should in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose monarchy. are turn to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, Options (b) II and III that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional (a) I and II (d) I Only institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power (c) III Only more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient Ans. (d) I Only bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of 80. Why most conservatives did not propose a return to Europe. the society of pre-revolutionary days? In 1815, representatives of the European powers –Britain, (a) Modernization could in fact strengthen traditional Russia, Prussia and Austria –who had collectively defeated institutions like the monarchy. Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke (b) It could make state power more effective and Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna strong. of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic (c) A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. monarchies of Europe. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus the kingdom of (d) By all of these. the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was setup in the Ans. (d) By all of these. north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south. 81. Two statements are given in the question below as 76. Which traditional institutions of state and society Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements did the Conservatives want to preserve? and choose the appropriate option. (a) The monarchy. Assertion (A): In1815, representatives of the (b) The Church European powers –Britain, Russia, Prussia and (c) Social hierarchies, property and the family Austria –who had collectively defeated Napoleon, (d) All of these. met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. Ans. (d) All of these Reason (R): The Congress was hosted by the Austrian 77. Which dynasty was restored to power after the Chancellor Duke Metternich. defeat of Napolean? (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (a) The Bourbon (b) Austrian explanation of A (c) France (d) Germany Ans. (a) The Bourbon (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A 78. Fill in the blank from the given options (c) A is true but R is false. The kingdom of the ..................., which included…………….. was setup in the north and Genoa (d) A is false but R is true was added to Piedmont in the south. Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A 82. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
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