CBSE Class 10 Final Revision of Term 1 Examination

300 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) I. The Balkan region became part of the conflict Ans. (a) South America because of the Ottoman Empire. 91. Garibaldi led his volunteers to Papal state in the year II. The region comprised of ethnic groups included ............. Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc. (a) 1867 (b) 1870 III. British and ethnic nationalities struggled to (c) 1888 (d) 1872 establish their identity. Ans. (a) 1867 (a) I and II (b) II and III 92. Consider the following statements on the various (c) Only II (d) Only 1 measures and practices the French revolutionaries Ans. (a) I and II took to create a sense of collective identity among the French people and write the answer using the 83. Choose the correct option from the following. codes given below: List -I ( Revolution) List -II ( Place) I. New French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to (a) 1848 Italy replace the the former royal standard. (b) 1830 Brussels (c) 1845 France II. New hymns were composed. (d) 1859 Silesia Ans. (b) 1830 — Brussels III. The king was made head of the country. IV. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished. 84. Giuseppe Garibaldi was born in the year________. Options (b) II, III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (a) 1807 (b) 1799 Ans. (d) I, II and IV (c) 1805 (d) 1814 Ans. (a) 1807 93. Ridhi was reading about the Greek war for independence in her textbook. Nationalists in 85. In which year did Giuseppe Garibaldi die? Greece got support from many Western Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture. (a) 1880 (b) 1881 Finally, Greece was recognized as an independent (c) 1882 (d) 1883 nation through the Treaty of Constantinople. In Ans. (c) 1882 which year was this treaty signed? 86. What was Giuseppe Garibaldi’s occupation before (a) 1832 (b) 1833 becoming a revolutionary? (c) 1834 (d) 1835 Ans. (a) 1831 (a) Sailor in merchant navy (b) A soldier (c) A potter (d) A rich bureaucrat 94. Choose the correct option from the following. Ans. (a) Sailor in merchant navy 87. The Garibaldi family were engaged in_____. List- I( Head of List - II ( Country Name) country) (a) Coastal trade (b) Kings courtmen (a) Friedrich Wilhelm IV Germany (c) Commander (d) Slavery Ans. (a) Coastal trade (b) William I Prussia 88. In which year did Mazzini and Garibaldi meet? (c) Metternich Austria Chancellor (a) 1837 (b) 1836 (d) Kaiser William I Prussia (c) 1833 (d) 1835 Ans. (c) 1833 Ans. (c) Matternich — Austria Chancellor 89. When did Garibaldi participate in the republican 95. What does the symbol of broken chains represent in uprising in Piedmont? terms of the French Revolution? (a) 1837 (b) 1834 (a) Freedom (b) Heroism (c) 1831 (d) 1838 (c) Ready to fight (d) Peace Ans. (b) 1834 Ans. (a) Freedom 90. Garibaldi fled to ............., where he lived in exile till 96. Name the artist who prepared the painting of 1848. Germania? (a) South America (b) North America (a) Philip Veit (b) Julius Hubner (c) Spain (d) France (c) Lorenz Clasen (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Philip Veit

Social Science 301 97. Consider the following statements regarding Britain 101. The painting of Germania protecting the Rhine was as it is considered to be a strange case of unification painted in the year ___________. and write the answer using the codes given below: (a) 1840 (b) 1860 I. It was the result of a long drawn revolution. (c) 1855 (d) 1880 Ans. (b) 1860 II. The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones.. 102. Which country isn't a part of Balkan region? III. The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to (a) Greece (b) France establish their dominance over a large catholic (c) Albania (d) Bulgaria country. Ans. (b) France IV. England was able to impose its influence over Scotland. Options (b) II, III and IV 103. Identify the empire that controlled a large part of the (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV Balkan region. (c) I, III and IV Ans. (b) II, III and IV (a) Roman Empire (b) Ottoman Empire (c) Byzantine Empire (d) French Empire Ans. (b) Ottoman Empire 98. In which year was ‘Germania’ painted? (a) 1848 (b) 1851 104. Who was the chief commander of the Prussian (c) 1852 (d) 1850 army? Ans. (a) 1848 (a) Kaiser William I 99. Who painted the ‘The fallen Germania’ (b) General Anton von Werner (c) Otto von Bismarck (a) Philip Veit (b) Julius Hubner (d) General Von Roon (c) Lorenz Clasen (d) None of the above Ans. (d) General Von Roon Ans. (b) Julius Hubner 100. The painter who painted the Germania guarding the 105. In which year did the United Irishmen revolt? Rhine was _____________ . (a) 1797 (b) 1801 (a) Philip Veit (b) Julius Hubner (c) 1798 (d) 1799 (c) Lorenz Clasen (d) None of the above Ans. (c) 1798 Ans. (c) Lorenz Clasen Geography 106. Choose the correctly matched pair about the types (a) Red and yellow soil — Western Rajasthan of soil erosion and its explanation. (b) Laterite soil — Chhattisgarh and Odisha (c) Arid soil — Kerala and Tamil Nadu (a) Denudation — Uncultivable land in Chambal (d) Forest soil — Hills and mountains (b) Gullies — Forming of the channels due to running Ans. (d) Forest soil — Hills and mountains water 109. Choose the correctly matched pair about soil and (c) Badland — Wearing away of Earth’s surface minerals found in it. (d) Ravines — Land is unfit for cultivation Ans. (b) Gullies — Forming of the channels due to running (a) Alluvial — Calcium and sodium (b) Arid — Potash, phosphoric acid and lime water. (c) Laterite — Aluminium and manganese (d) B lack — Calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash 107. Choose the correctly matched pair about soil and its colour. and lime. Ans. (d) B lack — Calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash (a) Arid soil — Red to brown (b) Laterite soil — Red to yellow and lime. (c) Black soil — Grey (d) Red soil — Brown 110. Choose the correctly matched pair about Land Ans. (a) Arid soil — Red to brown degradation and the areas where this is found. 108. Choose the correctly matched pair about soil and (a) Over grazing — Haryana areas covered by it. (b) Over irrigation — Orissa

302 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) (c) Mining — Jharkhand 114. Which of the following method is widely accepted (d) Deforestation — Madhya Pradesh for judicious use of resources? Ans. (c) Mining — Jharkhand (a) Production (b) Planning 111. Choose the correctly matched pair about Land (c) Reuse (d) Distribution utilisation and its explanation. Ans. (b) Planning (a) Fallow land — Left without cultivation for one or 115. Fill in the blank from the given options: less than one agriculture year Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of ....................... (b) Net sown area — Land left Barren for sometime resources but lacks in infrastructural development. (c) Waste land — Gross cropped area (a) Coal (b) Water (c) Culture (d) Mineral (d) Cultivable waste land — Includes rocky, arid and Ans. (b) Water desert area. 116. Read the following statements and find the Ans. (a) Fallow land — Left without cultivation for one or INCORRECT from the given options less than one agriculture year I. The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and 112. Choose the correct option from the following Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. List-I (Areas) List- II (Causes of land degradation) II. Rajasthan has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. (a) Mining Chattisgarh III. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated (b) Overgrazing Punjab from the rest of the country. (c) Over irrigation Orissa (d) Mineral processing Madhya Pradesh Options (b) II and III Ans. (a) Mining — Chhattisgarh (a) I and II (d) II Only (c) III Only SOURCE 1. Ans. (d) II Only Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of 117. The state of Rajasthan lacks in water resources but is resources. It has importance in a country like India, which very well endowed with ............... natural resources. has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of (a) Solar and wind energy resources but are deficient in some other resources. There (b) Water resources. are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in (c) Minerals and cultural heritage terms of the availability of resources and there are some (d) All of these. regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. Ans. (a) Solar and wind energy For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. 118. Two statements are given in the question below as Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan and choose the appropriate option. is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively Assertion (A): There are some regions which can be isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural considered self sufficient in terms of the availability heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some of resources and there are some regions which have vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at acute shortage of some vital resources. the national, state, regional and local levels. Reason (R): Arunachal Pradesh has abundance 113. Why resource planning is important in a country like of water resources but lacks in infrastructural India? development. (Choose the most appropriate answer). (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (a) It is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A (b) India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true (c) Both reasons Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (d) None of these explanation of A Ans. (b) India has enormous diversity in the availability of 119. On the given outline map of India, identify the resources. locations with the help of specified information.

Social Science 303 (b) Gandhian philosophy — 1964 (c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit — 1992 (d) Our Common Future — 1974 Ans. (c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit — 1992 A 123. Consider the following statements on the term ‘ Resource’ and write the answer using the codes z given below: B I. It is technological acceptable. II. It is economically feasible. III. It is culturally acceptable. IV. It is present in large quantity. Options (b) II, III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV Ans. (a) I, II and III (i) On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a 124. Consider the following statements regarding dam. Identify it from the following options. classification of resources on the basis of ownership and write the answer using the codes given below: (a) Tehri Dam (b) Sardar Sarovar Dam I. Resources can be owned by Individuals (c) Bhakra Nangal Dam (d) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam II. Resources can be owned by Community Ans. (d) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam (ii) On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a type of III. Resources can be owned by tribal people. soil. Identify it from the following options. IV. Resources can be owned by internationally. (a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil Options (b) II, III and IV (c) Arid soil (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (d) Laterite soil (c) I, III and IV Ans. (a) Black soil Ans. (a) I, II and III 120. Choose the correctly matched pair about resources 125. Choose the correct option from the following. and its examples. List-I (Classification List- II (Types) (a) Renewable — Public Park of resources) (b) Community — Coal (c) International — Ocean (a) On the basis of origin biotic and abiotic (d) Non-renewable — Solar energy Ans. (c) International — Ocean (b) On the basis of potential and reserves exhaustibility 121. Choose the correctly matched pair about type of soils and their characteristics. (c) On the basis of National and ownership international (a) Red soil — Very fertile (b) Alluvial soil — Low humus content (d) On the basis of renewable and non- (c) Laterite soil — Igneous rocks development renewable (d) Black soil — Regur soil. Ans. (d) Black soil — Regur soil. Ans. (a) On the basis of origin biotic and abiotic 122. Choose the correctly matched pair about steps 126. Sustainable development means development should taken for sustainable development and its year. take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present, should not compromise (a) Club of Rome — 1968 with the needs of the future generations. After reading this definition of Sustainable development, Rekha wondered why countries are not making an effort at the international level. Help her identify the year of the first International Summit at Rio de Janeiro. (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993 Ans. (c) 1992

304 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 127. According to data, land features of India are as 133. Assertion (A): The average income of a country is follows: about US$ 12,056; however, the country is still not • Plains 43% a developed country. • Mountains 30% • Plateaus 27% Reason (R): The income levels are highly skewed for the country. Out of three land features, plains occupy the highest surface area of India. What is the significance of (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and this? Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). Select the most suitable option from the following : (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (a) It support perennial flow of rivers Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (b) It possesses rich reserves of minerals Assertion (A). (c) It provides opportunities for agriculture and (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. industry (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. (d) It support growth of forests. Ans. (a) A country can have skewed data of income level, Ans. (c) It provides opportunities for agriculture and i.e., certain sections of the society are extremely industry rich; however, a majority of the people are poor. In such a case, the average income is likely to 128. A man works in mine where they extract manganese be high for the nation, but the nation cannot be nodules from the bed of the Indian Ocean. This area called developed as the income is not distributed lies in the oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical in an equitable manner. miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone. This an example of ........... resource . 134. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: (a) Biotic (b) Abiotic (c) National (d) International Once it is realised that even though the level of Ans. (d) International income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other 129. Choose the correct option from the following. criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not be so useful. What we need is List-I (Classification List- II (Subtypes) a small number of the most important things. Health of resources) and education indicators are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators (a) individual resources Community have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human (b) Renewable resources Continuous or flow Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the (c) Potential resources National people, their health status and per capita income. (d) Biotic resources Stock Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option: Ans. (b) Renewable resources — Continuous or flow (i) Which according to you is one of the parameter to 130. Identify the types of resources on the basis of status assess the education level of the population? of development: (a) Infant Mortality Rate. (a) Individual Resources (b) Literacy rate (b) Biotic Resources (c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Potential Resources (d) None of the above. (d) International Resources Ans. (b) Literacy rate Ans. (c) Potential Resources (ii) According to the given passage, the role of health 131. Reserves are the subset of the __________. and education is equally important as money in our life is evident based on which one of the following (a) Resources (b) Technology statements? (c) Development (d) Stock Ans. (d) Stock (a) What we need is a small number of the most important things. 132. Identify the type of farming where all the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. (b) UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health (a) Primitive Subsistence farming status and per capita income. (b) Non-commercial farming (c) Commercial farming (c) Level of income is an inadequate measure. (d) Intensive Subsistence Farming (d) There can be many other criterion like education Ans. (c) Commercial farming and health

Social Science 305 Ans. (b) UNDP compares countries based on the In Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha educational levels of the people, their health deforestation due to mining have caused severe land status and per capita income. degradation states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons (iii) By publishing HDR, UNDP wants to: for land degradation. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, (a) Emphasis on the role of education and health. western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is alkalinity in the (b) Publishes balance development report soil. The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for (c) Not rely on money as a important aspect of life. cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic (d) All of the above industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere. Ans. (d) All of the above It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil (iv) What according to you, among the options given after it settles down on the land. In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land and below, should also be considered in HDR? water pollution in many parts of the country. (a) Number of holidays given to employees. (b) Clean and safe environment. 136. What are the issues relating to as addressed in the (c) Closeness to market. extract above? (d) Number of bridges and flyovers. Ans. (b) Clean and safe environment. (a) Land degradation (b) Water pollution 135. On the given outline map of India, identify the (c) Air pollution (d) Noise pollution Ans. (a) Land degradation locations with the help of specified information. 137. Which of these human activities is responsible for A the deteriorating quality of land? B (a) Mining (b) Land degradation (i) On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a (c) Mineral processing (d) None of these dam. Identify it from the following options. Ans. (a) Mining (a) Tehri Dam (b) Tungabhadra Dam 138. Fill in the blank from the given options (c) Sardar Sarovar Dam (d) Koyna Dam Ans. (a) Tehri Dam The mineral processing like grinding of limestone (ii) On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a type of for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for .............. industry generate huge quantity of dust in soil. Identify it from the following options: the atmosphere. (a) Alluvial soil (b) Red soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Black soil (a) Ceramic (b) Cement Ans. (a) Alluvial soil (c) Oil (d) Minerals SOURCE 2. Ans. (a) Ceramic Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening. 139. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options I. Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening. II. In Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation in states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation. III. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, over grazing is alkalinity in the soil. Options (b) II and III (a) I and II (d) III Only (c) III Only Ans. (d) III Only 140. Which of these has led to land degradation in Punjab? (a) Over irrigation (b) Mining (c) Deforestation (d) All of these. Ans. (a) Over Irrigation.

306 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 141. Two statements are given in the question below as Ans. (a) Collectivization — Institutional reforms Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements 147. Choose the correct option for the following: and choose the appropriate option. List-I (Crops) List-II ( Type of crops) Assertion (A): Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and (a) Rubber Plantation food crop traces of over-burdening. (b) Fruit Non- food crop Reason (R): In Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining (c) Tea Horticulture crop have caused severe land degradation. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (d) Pulses Grain food crop explanation of A Ans. (d) Pulses — Grain food crop (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A 148. According to 2019-20 data, production of important crop and largest producing states was (c) A is true but R is false. • Rice –West Bengal, UP, Punjab (d) A is false but R is true • Wheat – UP, MP, Punjab Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct • Maize – Karnataka, MP, Telengana explanation of A Out of three crops why rice is grown in West Bengal, UP and Punjab. Select the most suitable option from 142. Choose the correctly matched pairs referring to the the following: months and cropping season. (a) Because here temperature is above 25 degree and (a) October to December / April to June — Zaid rainfall is above 100 cm (b) Onset of monsoon / September-October — Kharif (c) Onset of winters — Rabi (b) Because here temperature is between 21-27 (d) April to May — Summer degree and rainfall is between 50-75 cm Ans. (b) Onset of monsoon / September-October - Kharif (c) Because here temperature is above 25 degree and 143. Choose the correctly matched pairs referring to the rainfall is above 100 cm cropping season and harvest season related to it. (d) Because here temperature is between 21-30 (a) Kharif — monsoon (b) Summer — winter degree and rainfall is between 50- 100 cm (c) Rabi — summer (d) Zaid — autumn Ans. (c) Rabi — summer Ans. (a) Because here temperature is above 25 degree and rainfall is above 100 cm 144. Choose the correctly matched pairs referring to 149. On the given outline map of India, identify the crops and the largest producing state. locations with the help of specified information. (a) Tea — Assam (b) Coffee — Odisha (c) Groundnut — Gujarat (d) Pulses — Assam Ans. (c) Groundnut — Gujarat 145. Choose the correct option for the following: List-I (Types of farming) List-II (Explanation) B (a) Primitive subsistence Practiced on small A patches of land l (b) Intensive subsistence Single crop grown on large area (c) Commercial Practiced on area of high population (d) Plantation Use of high doses of modern input Ans. (a) Primitive subsistence Practiced on small patches of land 146. Choose the correct option for the following: List-I (Agricultural List-II (Type of reforms) reforms) (a) Collectivization Institutional reforms (b) Grameen Bank Institutional reforms (c) Crop insurance Institutional reforms (i) O n the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a dam. Identify it from the following options. (d) Radio, TV programs Institutional reforms

Social Science 307 (a) Periyar Dam A (b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam B (c) Tehri Dam (d) Koyna Dam Ans. (b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam (ii) On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major sugarcane producing state. Identify it from the following options. (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar Ans. (a) Uttar Pradesh 150. Consider the following statements that are reasons to change cultivation methods and write the answer using the codes given below: I. Depends upon the physical environment II. Technological know-how. III. Socio-cultural practices IV. Use of modern machines Options (b) II, III and IV (i) On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV dam. Identify it from the following options. (c) I, III and IV Ans. (a) I, II and III (a) Bhakra Nangal Dam 151. Consider the following statements that are (b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam characteristic of commercial farming and write the answer using the codes given below: (c) Tehri Dam I. Use of higher doses of modern input. (d) Salal Dam II. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. Ans. (c) Tehri Dam III. All the produce is used as raw material in (ii) On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a type of respective industries. soil. Identify it from the following options: IV. Due to division of land among successive (a) Forest soil (b) Arid soil generations, land-holding size has become uneconomical (c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil Options (b) II, III and IV Ans. (b) Arid soil (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV SOURCE 3. Ans. (a) I, II and III You have studied the physical diversities and plurality of 152. Consider the following statements that are cultures in India. These are also reflected in agricultural characteristics of wheat and write the answer using practices and cropping patterns in the country. Various the codes given below: types of food and fibre crops, vegetables and fruits, spices and condiments, etc. constitute some of the important crops I. This is the most important cereal crop. grown in the country. India has three cropping seasons — rabi, kharif and zaid. II. It requires a cool growing season and bright Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December sunshine at the time of ripening. and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and III. There are two important wheat growing zones in mustard. Though, these crops are grown in large parts the country. of India, states from the north and north- western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and IV. It is a rabi crop. Kashmir, Uttaranchal and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability Options (b) II, III and IV of precipitation during winter months due to the western (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops. (c) I, III and IV However, the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Ans. (b) II, III and IV Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above- 153. On the given outline map of India, identify the mentioned rabi crops. locations with the help of specified information.

308 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in (b) India has three cropping seasons — rabi, kharif different parts of the country and these are harvested in and zaid. September-October. Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, (c) In agricultural practices and cropping patterns in urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean. Some of the the country. most important rice-growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil (d) By all of these. Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan Ans. (d) By all of these. coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Recently, paddy 159. Two statements are given in the question below as has also become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal and Orissa, three crops of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro. and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A): Wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a crops are grown in large parts of India, states from short season during the summer months known as the the north and north- western parts such as Punjab, Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during ‘zaid’ are Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder Uttaranchal and Uttar Pradesh are important for the crops. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow. production of wheat and other rabi crops. Reason (R): Availability of precipitation during winter 154. Which of these crops are produced in Zaid season? months due to the western temperate cyclones (Choose the most appropriate answer) helps in the success of these crops. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (a) Muskmelon (b) Cucumber (c) Fodder Crops (d) All of these. explanation of A Ans. (d) All of these (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct 155. Which crop has recently become an important crop explanation of A of Punjab and Haryana ? (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true (a) Soyabean (b) Maize Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct (c) Wheat (d) Paddy Ans. (d) Paddy. explanation of A. 160. On the given outline map of India, identify the 156. Fill in the blank from the given options: Rabi crops are sown in winter from ............. to ............. locations with the help of specified information. and harvested in summer from April to June. A (a) September to November B (b) October to November (c) September to December (i) On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a (d) October to December dam. Identify it from the following options: Ans. (d) October to December (a) Periyar Dam (b) Tehri Dam 157. Read the following statements and find the (c) Bhakra Nangal Dam (d) Salal Dam INCORRECT from the given options Ans. (d) Salal Dam (ii) On the same map ‘B’ is marked as a type of soil. I. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a long season during the summer months Identify it from the following options: known as the Zaid season. II. Some of the crops produced during ‘zaid’ are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops. III. Sugarcane takes six months to grow. Options (b) II and III (a) I and III (d) I Only (c) III Only Ans. (a) I and III 158. How are the physical diversities and plurality of cultures in India reflected? (a) Various types of food and fibre crops, vegetables and fruits, spices and condiments, etc. constitute some of the important crops grown in the country.

Social Science 309 (a) Arid soil (b) Alluvial soil 166. Choose the correct option from the following. (c) Forest soil (d) Red soil Ans. (c) Forest soil List-I (Examples) List-II (Types of resources) 161. Consider the following statements that are characteristics of cotton plant and write the answer (a) Grazing ground International resource using the codes given below: (b) Forest International resource I. India is believed to be the original home of the cotton plant. (c) Pasture land Individual resource II. It grows well in drier parts of the black cotton (d) Oceans Community resource soil of the Deccan plateau. Ans. (b) Pasture land — Individual resource III. It requires low temperature, high rainfall or irrigation. 167. Choose the correct option from the following IV. Major cotton-producing States are- Maharashtra, List-I (Types of soil List-II (Area) Karnataka, Punjab and Haryana conservation) Options (b) II, III and IV (a) Terrance farming Plains (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (b) Contour ploughing Hill slopes Ans. (d) I, II and IV (c) Shelter belt Western India 162. Agriculture is the favorite topic of Reeta. When (d) Strip cropping Central Himalayas she goes to her grandmother’s place she asks many questions regarding agriculture. Most of the time Ans. (c) Shelter belt — Western India she is confused about number of cropping seasons in India. Her grandmother told her that there are 168. Assertion (A): Suppose the literacy rate in a state is .......... no of cropping seasons in India. 78% and the net attendance ratio in secondary stage is 47%. (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5 Reason (R): More than half of the students are going Ans. (c) 3 to other states for elementary education. 163. Choose the correct option for the following: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion List-I (Cropping List-II (Crops) (A). season) Wheat (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (a) Rabi Tur Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (b) kharif Soybean Assertion (A). (c) Zaid Watermelon (d) Summer (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Ans. (a) Rabi — Wheat (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. 164. Choose the correct option for the following: Ans. (c) Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending List-I (Crop) List-II (rainfall required) school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group. If the students were going (a) Jowar 50 to 75 annual rainfall to other states for higher education, the total students available in the state would go down and (b) Pulses Rain- fed crop the net attendance ratio would not be so low. The low net attendance ratio is indicative of students (c) Wheat Low rainfall dropping out of elementary school. (d) Rice Annual rainfall above SOURCE 4. 100 cm. The main characteristic of this type of farming is the use Ans. (d) Rice — Annual rainfall above 100 cm. of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides 165. Choose the correct option from the following. in order to obtain higher productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to List-I (Examples) List -II (Types of another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana resources) and Punjab, but in Orissa, it is a subsistence crop. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, (a) Iron Reserves a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large (b) Forest Stock tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material (c) Water Developed in respective industries. (d) Solar power Potential Ans. (d) Solar power — Potential

310 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc. are Assertion (A): Plantations cover large tracts of important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation migrant labourers. crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well- developed network of transport and Reason (R): All the produce is used as raw material in communication connecting the plantation areas, processing respective industries. industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 169. Name the main characteristic of Commercial farming that is practiced in order to obtain higher (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct productivity. (Choose the most appropriate answer) explanation of A (a) High yielding variety (HYV) seeds (c) A is true but R is false. (b) Use of Chemical fertilisers (d) A is false but R is true (c) Use of insecticides and pesticides Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct (d) All the above Ans. (d) All the above explanation of A 175. On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information. 170. Name the factor that plays an important role in the development of plantations. (a) A well developed network of transport (b) A well developed network of communication (c) Processing industries and markets (d) All of these. Ans. (d) All of these. 171. Fill in the blank from the given options: ................ in Assam and North Bengal, ................ in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. (a) Rubber, Sugarcane (b) Tea, Coffee (c) Rubber, Tea (d) Tea, Sugarcane Ans. (b) Tea, Coffee A 172. Read the following statements and find the B INCORRECT from the given options (i) On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a I. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. dam. Identify it from the following options. II. Plantations cover small tracts of land, using (a) Tungabhadra Dam (b) Koyna Dam capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material (c) Sardar Sarovar Dam (d) Periyar Dam in respective industries. Ans. (a) Tungabhadra Dam III. The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Options (ii) O n the same map, 'B' is also marked as a major (a) I and II (c) III Only (b) II and III coffee cultivating state. Identify it from the Ans. (b) II Only (d) II Only following options. (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu 173. Give an example of a crop that is a subsistence crop (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala in one area and commercial crop in another. Ans. (d) Kerala (a) Rice (b) Sugarcane 176. Choose the correctly matched pairs about crops and (c) Banana (d) Wheat their other names. Ans. (a) Rice (a) Jute — Golden Fibre 174. Two statements are given in the question below as (b) Millets — Brown Fibre Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements (c) Coffee — Coarse grains and choose the appropriate option. (d) Cotton — Fibre crop Ans. (a) Jute — Golden Fibre

Social Science 311 177. Choose the correctly matched pairs about crops and (a) Bhakra Nangal Dam (b) Hirakud Dam temperature required for its growth. (c) Tungabhadra Dam (d) Loyna Dam (a) Maize — 21-27°C (b) Rice — 20-28° C Ans. (b) Hirakud Dam (c) Sugarcane. — Above 25°C (d) Rubber — Above 25°C (ii) On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Ans. (d) Rubber — Above 25°C wheat producing state. Identify it from the following option. (a) Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh 178. Choose the correctly matched pairs about crops and (c) Rajasthan (d) Haryana its leading producing states. Ans. (d) Haryana (a) Mango — Maharashtra (b) Banana — Andhra Pradesh 182. Choose the correctly matched pairs about Revolution (c) Grapes — Kerala related to agriculture and its main features. (d) Apple — Mizoram Ans. (a) Mango — Maharashtra (a) Green Revolution — Onion of (b) Bloodless Revolution — Introduction 179. Choose the correctly matched pairs about other names for slash and burn agriculture and the technology. concerned places. (c) Pink Revolution — Bhoodan and Grandam (d) White Revolution — Production of milk Ans. (d) White Revolution — Production of milk (a) Roca — Andhra Pradesh (b) Milpa — Mexico 183. Choose the correct option from the following. (c) Podu — Jharkhand (d) Kuruwa — Brazil Ans. (b) Milpa — Mexico List-I (Type of soil) List -II (Area) 180. Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding (a) Black soil Kerala cultivation and associated terms. (b) Alluvial soil Himalayan river system (a) Sericulture — Production of silk (b) Plantation — Production of vegetables (c) Arid soil Deccan trap (c) Pesciculture — Production of milk (d) Monoculture — Production of flowers (d) Laterite soil Western Rajasthan Ans. (a) Sericulture — Production of silk Ans. (b) Alluvial soil — Himalayan river system 181. On the given outline map of India, identify the 184. A woman, while walking through a field, noticed a locations with the help of specified information. difference in the color of the soil. At most places, the color was black, and at some places, dark brown. The area where she works lies in the Deccan trap and is best for cotton cultivation. Find out the type of soil of the field where she is working? (a) Alluvial (b) Black (c) Laterite (d) Arid Ans. (b) Black B 185. Choose the correct option from the following. zA List-I (Type of soil) List -II ( Crop) (a) Alluvial soil Ragi (i) On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a (b) Laterite soil Tea dam. Identify it from the following options. (c) Black soil Cotton (d) Red and yellow soil Sugarcane Ans. (c) Black soil — Cotton 186. Consider the following statements regarding resource planning and write the answer using the codes given below: I. Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country, which involves surveying, mapping, and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.

312 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) II. Evolving a planning structure endowed with (a) Conservation (b) Up gradation appropriate technology, skill, and institutional (c) Degradation (d) Decontamination setup for implementing resource development Ans. (c) Degradation plans. 191. On the given outline map of India, identify the III. Matching the resource development plans with locations with the help of specified information. overall national development plans. IV. The mere availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region. Options (b) II, III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV Ans. (a) I, II and III 187. Consider the following statements regarding use of B resources that has led to the problems and write the answer using the codes given below: A I. Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals II. Various types of pollution. III. Accumulation of resources in few hands. IV. Indiscriminate exploitation of resources. Options (b) II, III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV Ans. (d) I, II and IV 188. Choose the correct option from the following. (i) On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as the List-I (Type of soil) List-II (Fertility type) state where wheat is a subsistence crop. Identify (a) Red and yellow soil Very fertile it from the following options. (a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (b) Laterite soil Fertile (c) Haryana (d) Punjab (c) Black soil Not very fertile Ans. (b) Odisha (d) Alluvial soil Very fertile (ii) On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as the state where primitive subsistence farming is called Ans. (d) Alluvial soil — Very fertile ‘Bewar’ or ‘Dahiya’. Identify it from the following options. 189. Why is organic farming much in vogue today? (a) Rajasthan Identify the apt reason. (b) Jharkhand (a) It is practiced with factory made chemicals (b) It is practiced with factory made fertilizers (c) Madhya Pradesh (c) It avoids the practical use of factory made (d) Odisha chemicals (d) It avoids the practical use of human beings. Ans. (c) Madhya Pradesh Ans. (c) It avoids the practical use of factory made 192. Choose the correct option for the following: chemicals List-I (Abbreviation List-II (full form) related to agriculture) 190. Identify the problem caused by human activities that (a) KCC Kisan Credit Card have led to ____________ due to : • Deforestation (b) HYV Indian council of • Mining agricultural research • Overgrazing • Over irrigation (c) MSP High yielding variety Select the appropriate option from the following (d) ICAR Minimum support price Ans. (a) KCC — Kisan Credit Card

Social Science 313 193. Choose the correct option for the following: 195. Choose the correct option for the following: List-I (Name of List-II (Areas) List-I (Crop) List-II (India’s position in world paddy crops) regarding its production) (a) Aus, Aman, Boro Assam, Haryana, Orissa (b) Aus, Aman, Boro (a) Rice First West Bengal, Haryana, (c) Aus, Aman, Boro Orissa (b) Tea Fourth (d) Aus, Aman, Boro Assam , West Bengal, (c) Sugarcane Second Orissa (d) Wheat Third Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana Ans. (b) Sugarcane — Second Ans. (c) Aus, Aman, Boro — Assam, West Bengal, Orissa 196. A man saw large-scale farming of one crop resembling the factory production, using capital 194. Choose the correct option for the following: investment and application of modern science and technology in cultivation, processing and marketing List-I (Crop) List-II (Time period to the final product. Find out type of agriculture this mature) man saw. (a) Rice (b) Cotton 2-4 months (a) Intensive agriculture (c) Pulses (b) Slash and burn agriculture (d) Watermelon 6-8 months (c) Extensive agriculture (d) Plantation agriculture. 5-8 months Ans. (d) Plantation agriculture 4-8 months 197. Many land-owners chose to provide some part of their land to the poor farmers due to the fear of land ceiling act. Of which type resource is this an example? (a) Bhoodan - Gramdan (b) Gramdan (c) Gram swarajya (d) Blood-less revolution Ans. (a) Bhoodan- Gramdan Ans. (b) Cotton — 6-8 months Political Science 198. Choose the correctly matched pair about the people 201. Choose the correct option from the following. living in Belgium and the language they speak. (a) Walloon — French (b) Wilsonia — German List-I (forms of List-II (Organs) (c) Flemish — Dutch (d) Brussels — English power sharing) Ans. (c) Flemish — Dutch (a) Horizontal Legislative, executive, government Judiciary 199. Choose the correctly matched pair about the (b) Vertical government Coalition government government of Belgium and its elected body. and political alliance. (a) Central government — People living in state (c) Social group Union, state and local (b) State government — People living in particular (d) Political parties Social, religious and area linguistic (c) Community government — People belonging to Ans. (a) Horizontal government Legislative, executive, one language community. Judiciary (d) Local government - People living in whole country Ans. (c) Community government — People belonging to SOURCE 1. one language community. Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this 200. Choose the correctly matched pair about Power horizontal distribution of power because it allows different sharing and its benefits. organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of (a) Government — All are treated equally the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks (b) Political parties — Upholds spirit the others. This results in a balance of power among various (c) Democracy — Ensure instability institutions. Last year, we studied that in a democracy, even (d) Social groups — Reduces the possibility of conflict though ministers and government officials exercise power, Ans. (d) Social groups — Reduces the possibility of conflict

314 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. II. Such a separation ensures that none of the Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ they can check the functioning of executive or laws made checks the others. by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances. III. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. 202. What is Power Sharing among different organs of Options (b) II and III the government called? (a) I and II (d) I Only (c) III Only (Choose the most appropriate answer) Ans. (d) I Only (a) Horizontal distribution of power. 207. What results in a balance of power among various (b) Vertical distribution of power. institutions? (c) Power sharing among Social groups. (d) None of these (a) Horizontal distribution of power Ans. (a) Horizontal distribution of power. (b) Vertical distribution of power. (c) Power sharing among Social groups. 203. Why is power sharing in different organs of the (d) None of these government system is called checks and balances? Ans. (a) Horizontal distribution of power. (a) Ministers and government officials exercise power 208. Two statements are given in the question below as but they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements Assemblies. and choose the appropriate option. (b) Judges are appointed by the executive, they can Assertion (A): Horizontal distribution of power check the functioning of executive or laws made because it allows different organs of government by the legislatures. placed at the same level to exercise different powers. (c) Both the factors Reason (R): Such a separation ensures that none of (d) None of these the organs can exercise unlimited power. Ans. (c) Both the factors (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct 204. Fill in the blank from the given options: explanation of A Power is shared among different ....................... of (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct government, such as the legislature, executive and explanation of A judiciary. (c) A is true but R is false. (a) Parts (b) Organs (c) Sections (d) Levels (d) A is false but R is true Ans. (b) Organs Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 205. Consider the following statements on most common 209. Read carefully the conversation between these two arrangements on Power sharing and select the friends, and then select the most appropriate answer answer using the codes given below: from the given options. I. Power is shared among different organs of the Rahul and Rhea are discussing about the pros and government. cons of power sharing. II. Power can be shared among governments at A. Rahul: power sharing is good it can possibly different levels. decrease the difference of opinions between social groups. III. Power sharing arrangement can we seen in political parties pressure groups and movements. B. Rhea: power sharing is good but there will be conflicts between the parties. IV. ‘Community government’ is not an example of power sharing. A. R ahul: it is a good way to protect the stability of the political party. Options (b) II,III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV B. Rhea: Imposing the will of the majority community (c) I, III and IV over others looks like an attractive option in the Ans. (a) I, II and III short run. 206. Read the following statements and find the A. Rahul: Yes, but it will ruin the unity of the nation INCORRECT from the given options in the long run. I. Horizontal distribution of power does not allows B. Rhea: I don’t agree. Why should it? different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. A. Rahul: Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to the majority as well.

Social Science 315 Whom would you agree with? (b) Separate government — In central government (c) Community government — In State Government (a) Only A (b) Only B (d) Equal representation — Dutch and French in (c) Partially A (d) Partially B central government. Ans. (d) Equal representation — Dutch and French in Ans. (a) Only A central government. 210. Some States in India enjoy a special status. The powers enjoyed by the state are in relation to the 216. Choose the correct option from the following. protection of land rights of indigenous peoples. Their culture and also preferential employment in List -I (Government) List-II (Problem faced government services. by them) It falls under the provisions of ___________ of the (a) Local government Elections are not held Constitution of India regularly Choose the correct option (a) Article 323 (b) Article 317 (b) Union government No party gets support (c) Article 351 (d) Article 371 from state government. Ans. (a) Article 371 (c) State government No party gets 2/3 majority 211. Choose the correctly matched pair about type of government and areas that it covers. (d) Centre Government No party gets more than 50% votes. (a) Federal government — Entire country (b) Centre Government — Regional area Ans. (a) Local government — Elections are not held (c) Community government — Third level of regularly government 217. Assertion (A): There was tensions between the (d) State Government — Particular area of country Dutch and French speaking communities in Belgium. Ans. (a) Federal government — Entire country Reason (R): The Dutch speaking community got 212. Choose the correctly matched pair about countries educational and economic benefit much later, in Belgium. and reasons of conflict. (a) Both are correct and R explains A correctly (a) Belgium — State was protecting and fostering (b) Both A and R are correct but R do not explain A Buddhism (c) A is true but R is false (d) R is true but A is false (b) Sri Lanka — Dutch were in minority in capital city Ans. (a) Both are correct and R explains A correctly (c) Belgium — Due to economic disparity (d) Sri Lanka — Dutch community was in majority in 218. In Trincomalee district which ethnic group dominates? the whole country. (a) Sinhalese (b) Indian Tamils Ans. (c) Belgium — Due to economic disparity (c) Muslim (d) Srilankan Tamils Ans. (d) Srilankan Tamils 213. Choose the correctly matched pair about Sri Lanka and its main events. 219. What is the core feature of an ethnic group? (a) 1948 — Dominance of Sinhala speaking (a) A common nationality and shared culture (b) 1980 — Sri Lanka got its independence (c) 1956 — Demand of independent Tamil Eelam (b) Some religions and a common nationality (d) 2009 — End of civil war Ans. (d) 2009 — End of civil war (c) Common descent, similar culture and only one nation 214. Choose the correct option from the following. (d) Common descent, similarity in physical and List-I (Sri Lankan List-II (Areas) cultural view population) Ans. (d) Common descent, similarity in physical and cultural view (a) Christian South and West 220. The term ethnic suggest? (b) Sinhala South and East (a) A social division based on shared culture (b) A racial division based on physical features (c) Buddhist North and West (c) A religious division based on castes (d) None of the above (d) Sri Lankan Tamils North and East Ans. (a) A social division based on shared culture Ans. (d) Sri Lankan Tamils — North and East 215. Choose the correctly matched pair about power 221. Which of the following countries is an example of sharing and its component in Belgium. ‘coming together’ federation? (a) Equal power sharing — In Brussels

316 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) (a) India (b) Pakistan 227. Choose the correct option from the following. (c) USA (d) Sri Lanka Ans. (c) USA List-I (List in List-II ( Subject) 222. Choose the correct statement regarding language Constitution) Defence policy of the Indian Government. (a) State list (b) Union list Education (a) English is our national language (c) Concurrent list Commerce (b) Citizens are free to choose any language as (d) Residuary list Subject not included in national language any list (c) Hindi is our national language Ans. (d) Residuary list — Subject not included in any list (d) Constitution of India did not declare any language as national language 228. Which form of power sharing is most commonly referred to as federalism? Ans. (d) Constitution of India did not declare any language as national language (a) Horizontal division of power (b) Vertical division of power 223. Which of the following is not a subject of the Union (c) Division of power among various communities List? (d) Sharing of power among political parties Ans. (b) Vertical division of power (a) Foreign affairs (b) Currency (c) Banking (d) Law and order 229. Choose the correct option from the following. Ans. (d) Law and order List-I (Level of List-II (Advantages) government in 224. Which of the following governments has two or more levels? democracy) (a) Community Government (a) Centre Government Resolve issues at (b) Coalition Government National level (c) Federal Government (d) Unitary Government (b) State government Resolved issues all over Ans. (c) Federal Government country (c) Community Resolve issues at government Central level 225. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a (d) Panchayats Resolve issues at Grass federal system? root level. Ans. (d) Panchayats — Resolve issues at Grass root level. (a) States have no financial powers or independent SOURCE 4. sources of revenue. The creation of linguistic States was the first and a major (b) States are dependent for revenue or funds on the test for democratic politics in our country. If you look at central government. the political map of India when it began its journey as a democracy in 1947 and that of 2019, you will be surprised (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government by the extent of the changes. Many old States have are clearly specified to ensure its financial vanished and many new States have been created. Areas, autonomy. boundaries and names of the States have been changed. In 1947, the boundaries of several old States of India were (d) States have no financial autonomy. changed in order to create new States. This was done to ensure that people who spoke the same language lived Ans. (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government in the same State. Some States were created not on the are clearly specified to ensure its financial basis of language but to recognize differences based on autonomy. culture, ethnicity or geography. These include States like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand. When the demand 226. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a for the formation of States on the basis of language was unitary government? raised, some national leaders feared that it would lead to the disintegration of the country. The Central Government (a) There is either only one level of government resisted linguistic States for some time. But the experience or the sub-units are subordinate to the central has shown that the formation of linguistic States has government actually made the country, more united. It has also made administration easier. (b) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government 230. Why was the creation of linguistic states the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country? (c) A state government is answerable to central (Choose the most appropriate answer) government (d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution Ans. (d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution

Social Science 317 (a) India is a vast country (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Some leaders feared it would lead to the disintegration of the country (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A (c) Leaders wanted that India should have English as the main language for the whole country. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true (d) All the above Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct Ans. (b) Some leaders feared it would lead to the explanation of A disintegration of the country 236. ............. religion is majority in Sri Lanka? 231. Which state name has been changed after 1947? (a) Hyderabad (b) Cochin (a) Hindu (b) Muslim (c) Mysore (d) All of these (c) Christian (d) Buddhism Ans. (d) All of these Ans. (d) Buddhism 232. Fill in the blank from the given options 237. Which country adopted a series of majoritarian The ............... resisted linguistic States for some time. steps secure Sinhala Super? (a) Provincial Government (b) Central Government (a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) France (d) Belgium (c) Leaders (d) People Ans. (a) Sri Lanka Ans. (b) Central government 233. Read the following statements and find the 238. Sri Lanka was declared as an independent nation in INCORRECT from the given options which year? I. When the demand for the formation of States (a) 1946 (b) 1848 on the basis of language was raised, some (c) 1948 (d) 1947 national leaders feared that it would lead to the Ans. (c) 1948 disintegration of the country. 239. Majority of the Sri Lankan people speak .............? II. The State Government resisted linguistic States for some time. (a) Tamil (b) Sinhala (c) Kannad (d) Hindi III. But the experience has shown that the formation Ans. (b) Sinhala of linguistic States has actually made the country, more united. It has also made administration 240. Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called as .............. easier. Options (b) II and III (a) Indian Tamils (b) Sinhala Tamils (a) I and II (d) II Only (c) Cylon Tamils (d) Sri Lankan Tamils (c) III Only Ans. (a) Sri Lankan Tamils Ans. (d) II Only 241. A violent conflict within a country between two 234. Why many old States have vanished and many new opposing groups,which appear like a war is called States have been created after 1947? ...............? (a) This was done to ensure that people who spoke (a) Civil war (b) War the same language lived in the same State. (c) Debate (d) Plebiscite Ans. (a) Civil war (b) Some States were created not on the basis of language but to recognize differences based on 242. Which Indian state is compared to Belgium in this culture, ethnicity or geography. textbook? (c) Both of these (a) Haryana (b) Delhi (d) None of these (c) Kerala (d) West Bengal Ans. (c) Both of these Ans. (a) Haryana 235. Two statements are given in the question below as 243. Assertion (A): Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and struggles for recognition of Tamils as an official and choose the appropriate option. language Assertion (A): When the demand for the formation Reason (R): Belgium is a neighbour of India of States on the basis of language was raised, some national leaders feared that it would lead to the (a) Both are correct and R explain A disintegration of the country. (b) Both are correct but R do not explain A (c) A is true but R is false Reason (R): The Central Government resisted (d) Both are incorrect linguistic States for some time. Ans. (d) Both are incorrect

318 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 244. Both the union and the state government can make 251. Consider the following statements on Why is power laws on the subjects mentioned in the: sharing desirable and select the answer using the codes given below: (a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) None of the above I. Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce Ans. (c) Concurrent list the possibility of conflict between social groups. 245. Who among the following is the head of a Municipal II. Power sharing is not very spirit of democracy. Corporation? III. A democratic rule involves sharing power with (a) Home Minister (b) Sarpanch those affected by its exercise, and who have to (c) Governor (d) Mayor live with it effects. Ans. (d) Mayor IV. Prudential reasons stress that power sharing will bring out better outcomes, moral reasons emphasizes the very act of the power sharing as valuable. 246. Which one of the following countries has not Options (b) II, III and IV adopted the holding together federation? (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (a) India (b) Spain Ans. (c) I, III and IV (c) Belgium (d) Japan Ans. (d) Japan 252. Consider the following statements on different 247. Which of the following countries has coming a forms of power sharing and select the answer using Together Federation? the codes given below: (a) The USA (b) India I. The idea of power sharing has emerged in (c) Spain (d) Belgium opposition to the notions of undivided political Ans. (a) The USA power. 248. Choose the correctly matched pair about II. In a good democratic government, due respect is Communities and regions of Belgium. given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. (a) Brussels — Capital region (b) Walloon — Dutch speaking III. Only few people have a voice in the shaping of (c) Flemish — German speaking public politics. (d) Wilsonia — French speaking Ans. (a) Brussels — Capital region IV. In a democracy political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible. Options (b) II, III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV Ans. (b) II, III and IV 253. Choose the correct option from the following. 249. Choose the correctly matched pair about ethnic List-I (Number of amendments List-II (Year) communities and is areas of Sri Lanka. in Belgium constitution) 1970-1993 (a) North Central — Sinhala (a) Five times 1970-1993 (b) North-western — Tamils (b) Four times 1980-1990 (c) Northern — Indian Tamils (c) Five times 1980-1990 (d) Southern — Buddhist (d) Four times Ans. (c) Northern — Indian Tamils Ans. (b) Four times — 1970-1993 250. Consider the following statements about Belgium 254. Choose the correct option from the following. and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Terms related List-II (Definition) to power sharing) I. 59% in the Flemish region speaks Dutch. (a) Accommodation War between people II. Another 40% people live in Wallonia region and living in the same speaks French. country III. Remaining 1% of the Belgians speak Germany. (b) Civil war Government of two or more political parties IV. In the capital city Brussels, 60% people speak French while 40% are Dutch – speaking. (c) Majoritarian Rule by majority community Options (a) I,II and III (b) II,III and IV (d) Coalition Rule by all communities (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV Government Ans. (a) I, II and III Ans. (c) Majoritarian — Rule by majority community

Social Science 319 SOURCE 2. Options (b) II and III (a) I and II (d) III Only The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to (c) I Only the notions of undivided political power. For a long time it Ans. (c) I Only was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. It was 259. Which power in a democracy should be distributed felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not among as many citizens as possible? be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have changed with the emergence of (a) Political (b) Social democracy. One basic principle of democracy is that people (c) Legislative (d) Executive are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people Ans. (a) Political rule themselves through institutions of self-government. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to 260. Two statements are given in the question below as diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements has a voice in the shaping of public policies. Therefore, and choose the appropriate option. it follows that in a democracy political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible. Assertion (A): In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-government. 255. How did the idea of power-sharing emerge? (Choose the most appropriate answer) Reason (R): In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that (a) In opposition to the notions of undivided political exist in a society. power. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (b) A ll power of a government must reside in one explanation of A person (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct (c) All power of a government must reside in group of explanation of A persons. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) None of these (d) A is false but R is true Ans. (a) In opposition to the notions of undivided political Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct power. explanation of A 256. Why is democracy is considered a good government? 261. Consider the following statements regarding federalism and select the answer using the codes (a) People are the source of all political power. given below: (b) People rule themselves through institutions of I. It is a system of government in which the power self-government. is divided between a central authority and (c) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public various constituent units of the country. policies. II. Federation and unitary governments are one and (d) All of these same. Ans. (d) All of these III. In a federal system, the central government 257. Fill in the blank from the given options: cannot order the state government to do In a democracy, people rule themselves through something. institutions of .................... IV. Federalism has two levels of government. (a) Political Party Options (b) II, III and IV (b) Pressure group (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) Self-government (c) I, III and IV (d) Government Ans. (c) I, III and IV Ans. (b) Self-government 262. Consider the following statements regarding 258. Read the following statements and find the federalism in India and select the answer using the INCORRECT from the given options codes given below: I. The idea of power-sharing has emerged in I. Constitution declared India as a union of States support of the notions of undivided political II. The constitution provide provides three tier power. system of government. II. For a long time it was believed that all power of a III. The third tier of federalism was added in the government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. form of panchayats and municipalities. IV. Union list, state list and concurrent list does not III. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions make India a federal country. and to enforce them. Options (b) II, III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV Ans. (a) I, II and III

320 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 263. Consider the following statements regarding 267. Choose the correct option from the following. decentralisation in India and select the answer using the codes given below: List-I (Schedule in List-II (Subject) Constitution) I. The third tier of government is called local government. (a) 14 Directive principles II. Major step towards decentralisation was taken in (b) 8 Scheduled Language 1990. (c) 18 Income tax III. W hen power is taken away from Central and state government it is called decentralisation. (d) 10 Fundamental rights IV. T he rural local government is popularly known Ans. (b) 8 — Scheduled Language by the name and Panchayati Raj. 268. A student read that this policy was the second test Options (b) II, III and IV for the Indian federation. Find out which type of test (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV this student saw? (c) I, III and IV Ans. (c) I, III and IV (a) Linguistic State (b) Language Policy 264. Consider the following statements about main (c) Centre- State Relations features of federalism and select the answer using (d) Decentralisation of India the codes given below: Ans. (b) Language Policy I. There are only two levels of government. 269. According to a data speakers of Scheduled Languages of India are II. Different tiers of government govern the citizens. • Assamese 1.26% • Bengali 8.03 III. Courts have the power to interpret the • Hindi 43.63 constitution. Out of three languages why Hindi is not taken IV. Sources of revenue for each level of government National language despite its speakers are the are clearly specified. largest. Select the most suitable option from the following: Options (b) II,III and IV (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (a) Our Constitution did not give the status of (c) I, III and IV national language to any one language. Ans. (b) II, III and IV (b) Hindi was identified as the official language. 265. Shagun wants to contest the election in Gram (c) There were many safeguards to protect other Sabha. How many reservation seats are there for the woman in Panchayati Raj bodies that give her a languages. chance of winning the seat? (d) There are 21 other languages recognised as (a) One fourth (b) One sixth Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. (c) One third (d) Half Ans. (d) There are 21 other languages recognised as Ans. (c) One third Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. 266. Choose the correct option from the following. 270. Anil wants to go to USA because all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis- à-vis the federal government. Of which type Federal government is this an example? List-I (Term) List-II (Definition) (a) Coming Together (b) Holding Together (a) Jurisdiction (c) Democratic (d) Socialist The Area over which Ans. (a) Coming Together (b) Residuary subject someone has legal authority. 271. Most of the Tamils of Sri Lanka are ............ . (c) Gram Sabha (d) Mayor Supervisory body (a) Hindus (b) Muslims working for Gram (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Christians Panchayat Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) Chairperson of 272. What is the percent of Christians, in Sri Lanka who Municipal Corporation are both Tamil and Sinhala? Subjects not included in (a) 10% (b) 78% all three list. (c) 7% (d) 6% Ans. (c) 7% Ans. (a) Jurisdiction — The Area over which someone has legal authority.

Social Science 321 273. In which year the act that recognising Sinhala as the 280. What is the duration of Sri Lankan civil war? only official language of Sri Lanka was passed? (a) 23 July 1983 – 18 May 2009 (a) 1953 (b) 1959 (b) 21 August 1981 – 14 May 2009 (c) 1956 (d) 1957 (c) 20 July 1981 – 18 May 2008 Ans. (c) 1956 (d) 20 July 1981 – 18 July 2008 Ans. (a) 23 July 1983 – 18 May 2009 274. What is the percentage of Tamil speakers in Sri Lanka? 281. During 1950s and 60s , what was the major problem in Belgium? (a) 16% (b) 17% (c) 18% (d) 19% (a) Christians were in majority Ans. (c) 18% (b) Dutch were in minority in capital (c) French were in minority in capital who were 275. Which of the following social group is divided into two sub-groups? majority in country (d) Tensions between Dutch speaking people and (a) Telugu (b) Tamils (c) Kannad (d) Malayalam French speaking people Ans. (b) Tamils Ans. (d) Tensions between Dutch speaking people and French speaking people 276. Which of the following wasn’t part of the act passed 282. Which of the Indian state is closest to Sri Lanka? in 1956 in Sri Lanka? (a) Kerala (a) Sinhala was the only official language (b) Tamil Nadu (b) The government followed preferential policies (c) Lakshwadeep (d) Andaman and Nicobar that favoured Sinhala in government jobs Ans. (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Tamil will have their own separate local 283. Belgium was a part of which of its neighbour at a government that will not sub-ordinate to the time? central one (d) The state would protect and foster Buddhism only (a) France (b) Germany Ans. (c) Tamil will have their own separate local (c) Luxembourg (d) Netherlands government that will not sub-ordinate to the Ans. (d) Netherlands central one 277. Which language was disregarded in Sri Lanka? 284. Majority of Belgium population lives in ............. (a) Sinhala (b) Tamil (a) Brussels (b) Flemish region (c) Dutch (d) Hindi (c) German area (d) Wallonia Ans. (b) Tamil Ans. (b) Flemish region 278. Whose forefather’s come from India as plantation 285. The system of Panchayat Raj involves: workers during colonial period? (a) Village, block and district levels (a) Indian Malya (b) Indian Tamils (b) Village and state levels (c) Indian Telugu (d) Kannad (c) Village, district and state levels Ans. (b) Indian Tamils (d) Village, state and union levels Ans. (a) Village, block and district levels 279. Assertion (A): Belgium amended its constitution 4 times between 1970- 1993 286. Which is the nearest state of India from Sri Lanka? Reason (R): The ethnic composition of this country is (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerela quite complex. (c) Lakshwadeep (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans. (a) Tamil Nadu (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 287. When power is taken away from central and state governments and given to local government, it is (b) Both A, R are correct R is not the correct called: explanation of A (a) Distribution (b) Centralisation (c) A is true but R is false (c) Reorganisation (d) Decentralisation (d) R is true but A is false Ans. (d) Decentralisation Ans. (b) Both A, R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A

322 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 289. Which of the following was not a provision of the SOURCE 3. Act of 1956 passed in Sri Lanka? Federalism is a system of government in which the power is (a) Sinhala was recognised as the only official divided between a central authority and various constituent language units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country (b) Buddhism was to be protected by the state that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common (c) Provinces were given autonomy national interest. The others are governments at the level (d) Sinhalas were favoured in government jobs of provinces or states that look after much of the day- Ans. (c) Provinces were given autonomy to-day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other. 290. Who among the following is called head of the state In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary at the state level? governments. Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to (a) Chief Minister the central government. The central government can pass (b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha on orders to the provincial or the local government. But (c) Governor in a federal system, the central government cannot order (d) Mayor the state government to do something. State government Ans. (c) Governor has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the central government. Both these governments are separately 296. Which of the following is not one of the key features answerable to the people. of federalism? 295. A federation has .........levels of government. (a) There are two or more levels of governments (Choose the most appropriate answer) (b) Each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific (a) Two (b) Three matters of legislation, taxation and administration (c) Four (d) All of these. Ans. (a) Two (c) The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed 296. Which government can pass on orders to the local government? (d) The Constitution can be unilaterally changed by any one level of government (a) Provincial (b) Community (c) State (d) Central Ans. (d) The Constitution can be unilaterally changed by Ans. (d) Central any one level of government 291. Which one is not the part of 3 tier system of 297. Fill in the blank from the given options: Panchayat Raj? Under the unitary system, either there is ................... (a) Muncipalities (b) Village Panchayat level of government or the sub-units are subordinate (c) Block Samiti (d) Zila Parishad to the central government. Ans. (a) Muncipalities 292. Which of the following subjects falls under the (a) One (b) Two Concurrent list? (c) Three (d) Four Ans. (a) One (a) Defence (b) Agriculture (c) Marriage (d) Currency 298. Read the following statements and find the Ans. (c) Marriage INCORRECT from the given options 293. Who administers the whole district? I. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of (a) Sarpanch common national interest. (b) Mayor (c) District Magistrate or Collector II. The others are governments at the level of (d) Sessions Judge provinces or states that look after much of the Ans. (c) District Magistrate or Collector day-to-day administering of their state. III. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power interdependent of the other. 294. Which are the basic objectives of a federal system? Options (a) I and III (a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country (c) III Only (b) II and III (b) To accommodate regional diversity Ans. (c) III Only (d) I Only (c) To share powers among different communities (d) Both (a) and (b) 299. In which sense, federations are contrasted with Ans. (d) Both (a) and (b) unitary governments?

Social Science 323 (a) Under the unitary system, there is only one level 304. Choose the correct option from the following. of government. List-I (Modern List-II (Type of (b) The sub-units are subordinate to the central democracies) system) government. (a) Legislative, Executive, Check and balance (c) Both of these. Judiciary (d) None of these Ans. (c) Both of these. (b) Among different Vertical power pressure groups 300. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements (c) Among different social Check and balance and choose the appropriate option. groups Assertion (A): In a federal system, the central (d) Central Government, Horizontal power government cannot order the state government to State Government,local do something. Bodies Reason (R): State government has powers of its Ans. (a) Legislative, Executive, Judiciary — Check and own for which it is not answerable to the central balance government 305. Meena likes to read the history of various countries. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct She gets to know that Sri Lanka got its independence explanation of A in the year 1948. But an Act was passed which recognized Sinhala as the official language of Sri (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct Lanka. Help her in finding out the correct year of explanation of A the passing of the Act. (c) A is true but R is false. (a) 1955 (b) 1956 (d) A is false but R is true (c) 1957 (d) 1958 Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Ans. (b) 1956 explanation of A. 306. Choose the correct option from the following. 301. Choose the correct option from the following. List-I (Heads) List-II (Organs of List-I (Ethnic List-II (Percentage of government) groups) Ethic composition) (a) Prime Minister State (a) Flemish 59 (b) Belgium 20 (b) Chief Minister Centre (c) Wilsonia 1 (d) Dutch 20 (c) Governor Panchayat Ans. (a) Flemish — 59 (d) Mayor Municipal Corporation Ans. (d) Mayor — Municipal Corporation 302. Choose the correct option from the following. 307. Choose the correct option from the following. List-I (Year) List-II (Language policy of India) List-I (Reasons List-II (Types of power to have power sharing) (a) 2013 States changed their language sharing) (b) 1956 Use of Hindi was promoted (c) 1947 Three new languages were added (a) Avoid conflict Prudential (d) 1965 Use of English for official purpose (b) Spirit of democracy Prudential to be stopped (c) Majority cannot Moral Ans. (d) 1965 — Use of English for official purpose to be rule over minority stopped (d) Political stability Moral 303. Anita realizes that the Judiciary is asking the Ans. (a) Avoid conflict — Prudential government to do many things, even if there are no such existing cases in the court. Of which type 308. Choose the correct option from the following. checking of government by the Judiciary is an example? List-I (States) List-II (Base of creation) (a) Nagaland Culture (a) Horizontal distribution of power. (b) Assam Language (b) Government of different level (c) Jharkhand Linguistic (c) Among different social groups. (d) Uttarakhand Geography (d) Among different political parties Ans. (a) Nagaland — Culture Ans. (a) Horizontal distribution of power.

324 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 309. Which of the following wasn’t a part of demands of (d) Shift from primary to secondary sector in Sri Lankan Tamils? developed countries. sector in (a) Tamil should be an official language Ans. (a) Shift from secondary to tertiary (b) Regional autonomy developed countries. (c) Right to vote (d) Opportunities in securing education and jobs 318. Belgium shares boundary with which of the following Ans. (c) Right to vote (a) Netherlands (b) France (c) Germany (d) All of the above Ans. (d) All of the above 310. What does “Eelam” means? (a) District (b) Continent 319. Which one of the following is not a feature of (c) State (d) Empire federalism? Ans. (c) State (a) Two or more levels of government 311. Belgium is a nation of which continent? (b) D ifferent tiers of government govern the same (a) Asia (b) Eurasia citizens (c) Africa (d) Europe Ans. (d) Europe (c) Courts have the power to interpret the constitution 312. How many times did the Belgium government (d) The centre government can order the state amend its constitution between 1970 and 1993? government Ans. (d) The centre government can order the state government (a) 3 times (b) 4 times 320. Which one of the following countries has the federal (c) 6 times (d) 10 times form of government? Ans. (b) 4 times (a) Egypt (b) Sri Lanka 313. Which ethnic group is in majority in northern (c) Australia (d) England Sri Lanka? Ans. (d) England (a) Muslim (b) Sri Lankan Tamils 321. How many other languages are recognised as (c) Sinhalese (d) Muslim or Hindu Scheduled Languages by the constitution, besides Ans. (a) Sinhalese Hindi? 314. In Jaffna district which ethnic group is in majority? (a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 18 (d) 19 Ans. (b) 21 (a) Srilankan Tamils (b) Sinhala (c) Hindu (d) Muslim 322. Which one of the following subjects is included in Ans. (a) Srilankan Tamils the concurrent list? 315. What is the percentage of Sri Lankan Tamils in (a) Banking (b) Trade Sri Lanka? (c) Police (d) Education Ans. (d) Education (a) 13% (b) 15% (c) 30% (d) 14% Ans. (a) 13% 323. Rural local government is popularly known as: 316. Which ethnic group in Belgium got economic and (a) Panchayati Raj (b) Zilla Parishad educational development soon? (c) State Government (d) Gram Panchayat Ans. (a) Panchayati Raj (a) French (b) German (c) Dutch (d) Polish 324. In local self-government institutions at least one- Ans. (a) French third of all positions are reserved for __________. 317. This is the general pattern observed in developed (a) men (b) women countries. What does ‘general pattern’ mean? Select (c) children (d) scheduled tribes the correct choice. Ans. (b) women (a) Shift from secondary to tertiary sector in 325. Which one of the following countries is an example developed countries. of holding together federation? (b) Shift from primary to tertiary sector in developed (a) India (b) USA countries. (c) Australia (d) Switzerland Ans. (a) India (c) Shift from secondary to primary sector in developed countries.

Social Science 325 326. Which among the following states in India has a 332. According to data, the ETHNIC composition of special status? Belgium country is as follows: (a) Punjab • 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and (b) Jharkhand speaks Dutch language. (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Himachal Pradesh • Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia Ans. (c) Jammu and Kashmir region and speak French. 327. There are two kinds of routes through which • Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak federations have been formed. Which are they? German. (a) O ne route involves independent states coming Out of these three features, what could have been together on their own to form a bigger unit the impact if 56% people wanted to have only their control over country. (b) Second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers between the states and the (a) Belgium must have followed the policy of national government Majoritarianism (c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Belgium must have followed the policy of (d) None of the above Accommodation Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Belgium must have followed the policy of Power 328. The Constitution of India originally provided for: sharing (a) a two-tier system of government. (d) Belgium must have followed the policy of different (b) a three-tier system of government. level of government (c) a single-tier system of government. (d) a four-tier system of government. Ans. (a) Belgium must have followed the policy of Ans. (a) a two-tier system of government. Majoritarianism 329. Choose the incorrect statement. 333. Choose the correct option from the following. (a) Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form in List -I List-II (Features of federalism in 1993 (Year) India) (b) Belgium shifted from a federal form to a unitary (a) 1950 Constitution recognised Hindi and 21 form of government in 1993 languages as scheduled language (c) Sri Lanka continues to be a unitary system (b) 1957 Boundaries of old states changed. (d) Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become a federal (c) 1990 Formation of Coalition government system at the centre. Ans. (b) Belgium shifted from a federal form to a unitary (d) 1995 Formation of third tier of government. form of government in 1993 Ans. (a) 1990 — Formation of Coalition government at the centre. 330. A student read that the Sinhala community of Sri 334. Sri Lankan Tamils are concentrated in which part of Lanka dominated Tamil people. The State also Sri Lanka? protected and promoted Buddhism. Find out the type of Power-sharing this man saw? (a) The north of the country (b) The east of the country (a) Accommodation (b) Horizontal (c) both (a) and (b) (c) Vertical (d) Majoritarianism (d) None of the above Ans. (d) Majoritarianism Ans. (a) The north of the country 331. Choose the correct option from the following. 335. The Tamil Eelam was demanded in which region of Srilanka? List-I (Power List-II (Benefits of (a) South west (b) South east sharing) power sharing) (c) North west (d) North east Ans. (d) North east (a) Government Are treated equally (b) Political parties Upholds spirit 336. In the city of Kandy which ethnic group is in domination? (c) Democracy Ensure instability (d) Social groups Reduce the possibility of (a) Muslim (b) Sinhalese conflict. (c) Indian Tamils (d) Telugu Ans. (b) Sinhalese Ans. (d) Social groups — reduce the possibility of conflict.

326 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 337. In Batticaloa, the major ethnic group is ............. 347. Which one of the following countries is good examples of ‘holding together federations’? (a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils (c) Moors (d) Christians (a) USA (b) Switzerland Ans. (a) Sri Lankan Tamils (c) Australia (d) India Ans. (d) India 338. Which of the following is not an ethnic group of Sri Lanka? 348. Which of these is incorrect, based on the Constitutional Amendment, 1992? (a) Sinhalese (b) Muslim (c) Sri Lankan Tamil (d) Parasi/zorostro (a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women. Ans. (d) Parasi/zorostro (b) Regular elections should be held to the local 339. Which of the following is neighbour of Belgium? government bodies. (c) Seats are reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs. (a) Norway (b) UK (d) State Election Commission looks after these (c) France (d) Spain Ans. (c) France elections. Ans. (a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women. 340. What is the population of Belgium? 349. Which is not true regarding changes in power- sharing arrangement between the centre and the (a) 11.59 million states? (b) 100.61 million (c) 20.71 million (a) The Parliament cannot on its own change this (d) None of the above arrangement. Ans. (a) 11.59 million (b) Any change to it has to be first passed by both the 341. How much of Belgium population lives in Flemish Houses with at least two-thirds majority. region? (c) Then, it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at (a) 68% (b) 40% least half of the total states. (c) 41% (d) 59% Ans. (d) 59% (d) The Parliament alone has the power to amend the provisions regarding power-sharing. Ans. (d) The Parliament alone has the power to amend the provisions regarding power-sharing. 342. In the Wallonia region which linguistic group in 350. Rural local government is popularly known as: majority? (a) Zila Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti (a) French (b) German (c) Panchayati Raj (d) None of the above (c) Dutch (d) English Ans. (c) Panchayati Raj Ans. (a) French 351. Choose the correct option from the following. 343. ......... is the least spoken language of the Belgians. List-I (Country) List-II (Type of federation) (a) French (b) Spanish (c) Dutch (d) German (a) India Coming together Ans. (d) German (b) Spain Holding together 344. What is the name of the capital city of Belgium? (c) Belgium Coming together (a) Paris (b) Brussels (d) USA Holding together (c) Bern (d) London Ans. (b) Brussels Ans. (b) Spain — Holding together 345. 80% of the population of Brussels speaks ............ . 352. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country? (a) Dutch (b) German (a) Period after 1990 (b) Period after 2000 (c) French (d) English (c) Period after 1980 (d) Period after 1970 Ans. (c) French Ans. (a) Period after 1990 346. 20% of the population of .............. speaks Dutch. 353. Which of these is incorrect, based on the Constitutional Amendment, 1992? (a) Germany (b) France (a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women. (c) Belgium (d) Brussels Ans. (d) Brussels (b) Regular elections should be held to the local government bodies.

Social Science 327 (c) Seats are reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs. 357. Which of the following is not an example of ‘holding (d) State Election Commission looks after these together’ federations? elections. (a) India (b) Spain Ans. (a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women. (c) Belgium (d) Switzerland Ans. (d) Switzerland 354. Which language was recognised as the national language by the Constitution of India? (a) Hindi (b) English 358. Choose the incorrect statement. (c) Tamil (d) None of these Ans. (d) None of these (a) Usually a federation has two levels of governments 355. Which of the following is not an example of ‘coming (b) Both the levels of governments enjoy theirs together’ federations? powers independent of one another (a) India (b) USA (c) In a federal system, a state government has (c) Switzerland (d) Australia powers of its own Ans. (a) India (d) In a federal system, the state government is 356. Which state of India enjoys a special status and has answerable to the central government its own Constitution? Ans. (d) In a federal system, the state government is answerable to the central government 359. What is the third tier of government known as? (a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (a) Village Panchayats (b) State government (c) Kerala (d) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Local self-government (d) Zila Parishad Ans. (d) Jammu and Kashmir Ans. (c) Local self-government Economics 360. Choose a correctly matched pair about HDI and its 363. Choose a correctly matched pair about various types variables. of degradation and its example. (a) Long and healthy life — Health facilities (a) Air — Dirty River (b) Literacy — Good nutrition (b) Water — Loud noise (c) Standard of living — Good schools (c) Environmental — Burning of fossil fuels (d) Proper BMI — Good jobs (d) Noise — Polluted air Ans. (a) Long and healthy life — Health facilities. Ans. (c) Environmental — Burning of fossil fuels 361. Choose a correctly matched pair about development 364. Choose a correctly matched pair about comparison and its characteristics. of countries on income and other criteria. (a) Different people can have different development (a) BMI — World Bank goals — True. (b) Literacy rate — World Bank (c) HDI — World Bank (b) People look at a mix of goals for development.— (d) Per capita income — World Bank False Ans. (d) Per capita income — World Bank (c) Development is same for everyone — True SOURCE 1. (d) Development for one cannot be destructive for What people desire are regular work, better wages, and other — False decent price for their crops or other products that they Ans. (a) Different people can have different development produce. In other words, they want more income. Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also goals — True. seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these 362. Choose a correctly matched pair about economic are important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may be growth and development and its features. more important than more income or more consumption because material goods are not all that you need to live. (a) It is a broad construct — Economic growth Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one (b) Countries national income increases — Economic factor on which our life depends. But the quality of our life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If development it is not obvious to you, then just think of the role of your (c) Quantitative changes are there — Economic development (d) It is a short term process — Economic growth. Ans. (d) It is a short term process — Economic growth.

328 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, (c) A is true but R is false. there are many things that are not easily measured but they (d) A is false but R is true mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored. However, Ans. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct it will be wrong to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important. explanation of A 365. What do people resent? (Choose the most 371. Study the following data and information carefully appropriate answer) and select the most appropriate answer from the given options: (a) Regular work (b) Equal treatment Graph 1 : GDP by Primary, Secondary and (c) Security (d) Discrimination Tertiary Sectors Ans. (d) Discrimination 6,000,000 366. Our quality of life depends on non-material things 5,500,000 also. Identify the best suitable option depicting the same from the following: 5,000,000 4,500,000 (a) Friends (b) Respect 4,000,000 (c) Equal treatment (d) All of these Ans. (d) All of these Rs. in crores 3,500,000 3,000,000 367. Fill in the blank from the given options: 2,500,000 There are many things like ................... that are not 2,000,000 easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. 1,500,000 (a) Regular work (b) Better wages 1,000,000 (c) Decent price for the crops (d) Friends 500,000 Ans. (d) Friends 0 2013–14 1973–74 Primary Secondary Tertiary 368. There are many things that are not easily measured The teacher tells Minal to study the depicted graph but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often showing the production of goods and services in the ignored. Select the best suitable option from the three sectors. This graph is shown for two years, following in reference to the context. 1973-74 and 2013-14. She needs to compare the total production of growth over the past forty years (a) Regular work and answer the following question. Can you say (b) Friendship which sector has grown the most over forty years? (c) Better wages (d) Decent price for crops (a) Primary Ans. (b) Friendship (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary 369. What are important goals of people? With reference (d) All sectors developed equally. to the above context, infer the appropriate option. Ans. (c) Tertiary (a) To earn material things 372. The following image shows the sector of an (b) To get non-material things economic activity. (c) Both A and B (d) Either A or B Identify the sector from the following options. Ans. (c) Both A and B 370. Two statements are given in the question below as (a) Primary sector (b) Tertiary sector Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements (c) Secondary sector (d) Industrial sector and choose the appropriate option. Ans. (c) Secondary sector Assertion (A): There are many things that are not 373. Consider the following statements on creating easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. employment and select the answer using the codes given below: Reason (R): It will be wrong to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important. I. Improving irrigation. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A

Social Science 329 II. Improving tourism will lead to an increase in Options employment. (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV III. Locating industries in semi rural areas will also (c) I, III and IV help in creating employment. (d) I, II and IV Ans. (c) I, III and IV IV. Organised sector will help in creating more jobs. 378. Consider the following statements regarding Options (b) II, III and IV comparing different countries or states and select (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV the answer using the codes given below: (c) I, III and IV Ans. (d) I, II and IV I. For comparing countries their income is considered to be one of the most important 374. Consider the following statements regarding GDP attributes. and select the answer using the codes given below: II. The income of the country, is the income of all I. It stands for gross domestic product. rich residents of the country. II. It only includes production of primary sector not III. For comparison between countries, income is of secondary and tertiary not very useful measure III. It includes value of all final goods and services IV. The average income is also called per capita produced within a country during a particular income. year. IV. It shows how big the economy is. Options (a) I, II and III Options (b) II, III and IV (a) I, II and III (c) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV Ans. (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV Ans. (c) I, III and IV 379. Consider the following statements regarding sustainable development and select the answer 375. Choose the correct option from the following. using the codes given below: List-I (Sector) List-II (Example) I. It is defined as development that needs of the (a) Primary Yarn present without compromising the ability of (b) Secondary Transportation future generations. (c) Tertiary Fishing (d) Primary Forestry II. A number of scientist have been warning that Ans. (d) Primary — Forestry the present type and levels of development are not sustainable. 376. Choose a correctly matched pair about category of person and their developmental goal. III. Consequences of environmental degradation respect national or state boundaries. (a) An adivasi from Narmada valley — Higher support price for their crop IV. It is a new area of knowledge in which scientists, economists, philosophers and other social (b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab — Regular wages scientists are working together. (c) Landless rural labourers — More days of work and Options better wages (a) I, II and III (d) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV crops — To fulfill livelihood (d) I, II and IV Ans. (c) Landless rural labourers — More days of work and Ans. (c) I, III and IV better wages 380. Choose the correct option from the following. 377. Consider the following statements regarding List-I (Per capita List-II (countries name) development goals and select the answer using the income) codes given below: USA (a) Rich Sri Lanka I. People have different perspectives on (b) Middle India development. (c) Lower Pakistan (d) Middle lower II. Development is same everyone. Ans. (a) Rich — USA III. What may be development for one may not be development for the other person. IV. Development may be destructive for the other.

330 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 381. Choose the correct option from the following. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion List-I (Features) List-II (Country) (A). (a) Capita income is low Developed (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (b) Capital formatting is high Developing Assertion (A). (c) Efficiency and productivity Developed (c) Assertion (A) correct but Reason (R) is wrong. is low (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. (d) Standard of living is high Developed Ans. (c) Assertion (A) correct but Reason (R) is wrong. Ans. (c) Standard of living is high — Developed 388. Assertion (A): Groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. 382. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development? Reason (R): About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past (a) Profit loss (b) Income 20 years. (c) Sales (d) Import-export Ans. (b) Income (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion 383. What are the developmental goals of landless rural (A). labourers? (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (a) More days of work and better wages Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (b) Acquirement of land for self-tilling Assertion (A). (c) More hours of work (d) Self-reliance (c) Assertion (A) correct but Reason (R) is wrong. Ans. (a) More days of work and better wages (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. 384. What brings about stable income? Ans. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (a) Better wages Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (b) Work opportunities (A). (c) Regular work (d) Decent price for their crops or other products 389. Which of the Asian country is lower in HDI? Ans. (c) Regular work (a) Myanmar (b) Pakistan (c) India (d) Bangladesh Ans. (b) Pakistan 385. Fifty years from now what would be the most 390. Which of the following resources are renewable but promising source of energy and why? excessively used? (a) Petroleum energy, because it is obtained from (a) Solar energy fossil fuels. (b) Wind energy (c) Air (b) Solar energy, because it is not exhaustible. (d) Trees (c) Coal based energy, because it is pollution- free. Ans. (d) Trees (d) Forest product based energy, because India has 391. Give an example of an intermediate good. abundant forests. Ans. (b) Solar energy, because it is not exhaustible. (a) Woven basket (b) Chair production from wood 386. Pick out the cause (from below) that enhances (c) Wheat flour environmental degradation: (d) Biscuits Ans. (c) Wheat flour (a) Planting of trees. (b) Prevention of factory wastes getting mixed up 392. In the data given of GDP, which was the most productive sector in 1974? with river water. (c) Ban on use of plastic bags. (a) Primary (b) Tertiary (d) Allowing increase in the level of exhaust fumes (c) Secondary (d) Public Ans. (a) Primary emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc. Ans. (d) Allowing increase in the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc. 387. Assertion (A): Kerala has better net attendance ratio 393. Which sector has grown the most over forty years? than Bihar (a) Primary (b) Tertiary Reason (R): Kerala has less female children than (c) Secondary (d) Public Bihar hence the attendance ratio is better. Ans. (b) Tertiary

Social Science 331 394. Employment figures of a country are based on data (a) Our future is linked together collected from 5-yearly survey on employment and (b) This subject is perennial unemployment. Which organisation conducts this (c) It includes other scientists also survey? (d) We do not know our goal. Ans. (c) It includes other scientists also (a) NSSO — National Sample Survey Organisation (b) NREGA 2005 — National Rural Employment 398. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options Guarantee Act, 2005 (c) ILO — International Labour Organisation I. In general, the question of development or (d) Census of India progress is not perennial. Ans. (b) NREGA 2005 — National Rural Employment II. At all times as a member of society and as Guarantee Act, 2005 individuals we should not ask where we want to go, what we wish to become and what our goals 395. Assertion (A): There is also a need for protection and are. support of the workers in the unorganised sector. III. So the debate on development continues. Reason (R): Workers in an unorganised sector get paid really less and are heavily exploited. Options (b) II and III (a) I and II (d) II Only (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (c) III Only Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion Ans. (a) I and II (A). 399. According to information given above, at all times as (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but a member of society and as individuals we need to Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of ask where we want to go, what we wish to become Assertion (A). and what our goals are. Identify the reason. (c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong. (a) The question of development or progress is (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. perennial. Ans. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (b) C onsequences of environmental degradation do Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion not respect national or state boundaries (A). (c) Sustainability of development is comparatively a 396. Kerala has a low infant mortality rate. What could new area of knowledge be the reason? Find the correct answer from the following: (d) This issue is no longer region or nation specific. (a) Kerala has a low infant mortality rate because all Ans. (a) The question of development or progress is the girls are trained at the primary level schooling perennial. to look after a new-born child. 400. So the debate on development continues. What do (b) Because most of the girls are nurses in Kerala. you understand by ‘debate’ from the context? (c) Because Kerala has very high female literacy rate (a) The question of development or progress is and adequate health facilities are available for perennial. both mothers and children. (d) Kerala’s good climatic condition helps infants to (b) At all times as a member of society we need to survive. ask where we want to go and what our goals are. Ans. (c) Because Kerala has very high female literacy rate and adequate health facilities are available for (c) As an individual we need to ask what we wish to both mothers and children. become and what our goals are. SOURCE 2. (d) Sustainability of development is comparatively a new area of knowledge. Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries; this issue is no longer region or Ans. (a) The question of development or progress is nation specific. Our future is linked together. Sustainability perennial. of development is comparatively a new area of knowledge in which scientists, economists, philosophers and other social 401. This issue is no longer region or nation specific. scientists are working together. In general, the question Identify the issue which is at prominent level from of development or progress is perennial. At all times as a the following. member of society and as individuals we need to ask where we want to go, what we wish to become and what our goals (a) Sustainable development are. So the debate on development continues. (b) Environmental degradation (c) Development 397. Sustainability of development is considered a new (d) All of these area of knowledge. Which one of the following is Ans. (b) Environmental degradation the prominent reason?

332 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 402. Why is it said ‘Our future is linked together ‘? Select 407. Consider the following statements regarding Public the correct option referring to the context. Facilities and select the answer using the codes given below: (a) Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. I. These are the services provided by the government to the citizens. (b) Sustainability of development is comparatively a new area of knowledge. II. Sanitation, public transport, health care etc are some of the important public facilities. (c) The question of development or progress is perennial. III. Income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of medical material goods and services. (d) The debate on development continues. Ans. (a) Consequences of environmental degradation do IV. M oney in pocket can buy all the goods and services that one person may need to live well. not respect national or state boundaries. Options (b) II, III and IV 403. Choose a correctly matched pair about Economics (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV Term and its explanation. (c) I, III and IV Ans. (a) I, II and III (a) GDP — Goods that are ready to use (b) Final goods — Activities that contribute to the 408. Rita living on a hill station has to walk about 4 Km every day to attend her school, whereas her cousin flow of goods and services living in Delhi uses the bus to go to school, which is (c) Economic activity — Value of all final goods and only 2 Km away. Find out which type of facilities are lacking for Rita? services. (d) Intermediate goods — Goods used up during the (a) Unequal income distribution (b) Less Per capita income production process. (c) Lack of public facilities Ans. (d) Intermediate goods — Goods used up during the (d) Lack of education Ans. (c) Lack of public facilities production process. 404. Choose the correct option from the following. List-I (Human List–II (Development development index) goal) (a) Literacy rate Equal treatment 409. Mamta realizes that India lies in Low Income countries. So, Per Capita Income of India would be (b) Body mass index Income less than ............. . (c) Health facilities Security (d) Life expectancy Respect (a) US $955 (b) Us $ 1200 (c) US $ 1205 (d) US $ 1800 Ans. (b) Body mass index — Income Ans. (a) US $ 955 405. Choose the correct option from the following. List-I (Development List-II (Aspect of 410. The data survey showing the proportion of goal) development) undernourished adults in India for the year 2000. (a) Equal treatment Differ from person to State Male% Female% person Karnataka 38 36 (b) Security Differ from person to Kerala 23 20 person Madhya Pradesh 43 41 (c) Ample Differ from person to opportunities person All states 37 40 (d) Respect Differ from person to (a) The nutritional level of people of both male and person female in Madhya Pradesh is higher than the people of Kerala. Ans. (c) Ample opportunities — Differ from person to person (b) The nutritional level of both male and female in Madhya Pradesh is Highest than the people of 406. Choose the correct option from the following. Karnataka. List-I (Type of List-II (Example) (c) The nutritional level of both male and female in degradation) Madhya Pradesh is the lowest that the people of all states. (a) Dirty rivers Air (d) The nutritional level of both male and female (b) Deforestation Water of all states is lower than in Madhya Pradesh. The Teacher asks the students to compare the (c) Soil erosion Air nutritional level of the people in Madhya Pradesh with the other states by choosing from the above. (d) Ozone depletion Environmental. What is your reply? Ans. (d) Ozone depletion Environmental.

Social Science 333 Ans. (c) The nutritional level of both male and female in 416. Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods Madhya Pradesh is the lowest that the people of and services that you may need to live well. With all states. reference to this infer the appropriate option. 411. Rita is a teacher in a public school and has a fixed (a) Money cannot buy pollution-free environment. timing from 8 am to 1 pm from Monday to Saturday. She gets a monthly salary and provident fund and (b) Money cannot ensure that you get unadulterated benefits such as medical and other allowances medicines. laid down by the government. She received an appointment letter stating all terms and conditions (c) Income by itself is not a completely adequate of work. Identify the sector she works in indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able to use. (a) Primary Sector (b) Service Sector (c) Organized Sector (d) Unorganized Sector (d) Money may also not be able to protect you from Ans. (c) Organized Sector infectious diseases. 412. What are the rules and regulations to be followed Ans. (c) Income by itself is not a completely adequate by the organized sector given in various laws of the indicator of material goods and services that government? Identify the incorrect one. citizens are able to use. (a) Daily wages (b) Minimum wages 417. Besides seeking more income, there is something (c) Provident fund (d) Medical allowances people resent, what is it? Ans. (a) Daily wages (a) Getting fewer wages for more work 413. How is the statement “The Earth has enough (b) Discrimination resources to meet the needs of all but not enough (c) No work to satisfy the greed of even one person” relevant (d) Poverty to development? Identify the best suitable option Ans. (b) Discrimination depicting the same from the following: 418. What is the one factor on which our life depends? (a) Resources need to be used judiciously. (b) Over exploitation of resources will lead to better (a) Employment (b) Security of work development and rise in economy. (c) Money, or material things that one can buy with it (c) The development could be sustainable in nature (d) Freedom Ans. (c) Money, or material things that one can buy with it and exhaustive and over exploitative. (d) The time for replenishment of resources shouldn’t 419. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make? be allowed for the practice of ‘green economic development’. (a) Their dignity in the household and society Ans. (a) Resources need to be used judiciously. decreases 414. Fill in the blanks choosing the apt option. (b) No difference The sectors are classified into public and private (c) No dignity (d) Their dignity in the household and society sector on the basis of________ increases (a) The nature of the economic activity. Ans. (d) Their dignity in the household and society (b) Employment conditions (c) Ownership of enterprises increases (d) Benefits for workers employed. Ans. (c) Ownership of enterprises 420. Name one type of classification of the economy. (a) Urban (b) Rural (c) Public/private (d) State/national Ans. (c) Public/private 415. How would you compare different countries or states? Select the best suitable option from the 421. Where are the employment and non-employment following in reference to the context. figures taken from to study the data? (a) O n the basis of per capita income and gross (a) Real-Time Handbook of Statistics on Indian national income. Economy. (b) Per capita income is calculated by dividing the (b) National Statistical Office (NSO) country’s national income by its population. (c) NITI Aayog (d) Statistics information bureau (c) On the basis of GDP of the country. Ans. (b) National Statistical Office (NSO) (d) A country with low per capita income is more 422. What are the groups of classification of an economy developed than others with high per capita called? income. Ans. (b) Per capita income is calculated by dividing the country’s national income by its population.

334 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) (a) Sectors (b) Centers Over a long time (more than hundred years), and especially (c) Types (d) Categories because new methods of manufacturing were introduced, Ans. (a) Sectors factories came up and started expanding. Those people who had earlier worked on farms now began to work in factories 423. Match the following sectors in column A with their in large numbers. They were forced to do so. People began status given in column B: to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap rates. Secondary sector gradually became the most Column A Column B (Status) important in total production and employment. Hence, (Sectors) over time, a shift had taken place. This means that the (a) Public sector 1. Service sector importance of the sectors had changed. (b) Primary sector 2. Regular employment (c) Tertiary sector 3. Government owns it In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from (d) Organised sector 4. Exploits natural secondary to tertiary sector in developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms Ans. (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 1, (d) 2. resources of total production. Most of the working people are also employed in the service sector. This is the general pattern observed in developed countries. 424. Study the following data and information carefully 425. Over the years, there have been changes in the and select the most appropriate answer from the pattern of working of the people. Which one of the given options: following is the ideal one? Graph 2 : Share of Sectors in GDP (%) (a) Shift of people from primary sector to secondary sector. 100% 90% (b) Shift of people from secondary sector to tertiary 80% sector 70% 60% (c) Shift of people from one sector to another 50% (d) Shift of people from primary sector to tertiary 40% 30% sector. 20% Ans. (c) Shift of people from one sector to another 10% 0% 1973–74 2013–14 426. Read the following statements and identify the incorrect option. Primary Secondary Tertiary I. Over a long time and because of new methods of Seema, a student of class 10, was reading the manufacturing were introduced, factories came chapter- Sectors of Indian Economy. While studying up and started expanding. various sectors and their contribution to the Indian economy, the following bar diagram was discussed. II. Those people who had earlier worked on farms She was told by the teacher that in the primary now began to work in factories in small numbers. sector a large number of people are involved. She was confused while analyzing the graph. III. People began to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap rates. Options (b) II and III (a) I and II (d) II Only (c) III Only (a) 100% and 100% (b) 55% and 65% Ans. (d) II Only (c) 45% and 75% (d) 50% and 50% Ans. (a) 100% and 100% 427. According to the information, identify the reason why people who had earlier worked on farms began SOURCE 3. to work in factories in large numbers? Generally, it has been noted from the histories of many, now (a) Because new methods of manufacturing were developed, countries that at initial stages of development, introduced, factories came up and started primary sector was the most important sector of economic expanding. activity. As the methods of farming changed and agriculture sector began to prosper, it produced much more food than (b) Because people began to use many more goods before. Many people could now take up other activities. that were produced in factories at cheap rates. There were increasing number of craft persons and traders. Buying and selling activities increased many times. Besides, (c) Secondary sector gradually became the most there were also transporters, administrators, army etc. important in total production and employment. However, at this stage, most of the goods produced were natural products from the primary sector and most people (d) Over time, a shift had taken place and the were also employed in this sector. importance of the sectors had changed. Ans. (a) Because new methods of manufacturing were introduced, factories came up and started expanding.

Social Science 335 428. The extract refers to the economic sector. Identify 433. Study the following data and information carefully the main issue that it is referring to. and select the most appropriate answer from the given options: (a) Shift of job from one sector to another (b) Historical change in sector Crude Oil Reserves (c) People working in primary sector (d) People working in secondary sector Region/ Reserves(2013) No. of Years Ans. (b) Historical change in sector Country (Thousand Million Reserves 429. As the methods of farming changed and the agriculture sector began to prosper. What do you Barrels) will last infer from this? Choose the correct option which best refers to the context. Middle East 808.5 78.1 (a) Agriculture produced much more food than United States 44.2 12.1 before. of America (b) Many people could now take up other activities. World 1687.9 53.3 (c) There were increasing number of craft persons Reena wants to buy a car for herself. When she read and traders. Buying and selling activities increased many times. the above-given table and data given there, she (d) There were also transporters, administrators, army etc. dropped her idea of buying a car that runs on petrol. Ans. (a) Agriculture produced much more food than before. Now, she is planning to buy an electric car. Help her 430. In Kerala, 12 Infants died before the age of one year to calculate the difference between reserves of The as a proportion of 100 live children born in that particular year. Of which type is this an example? USA and the Middle East. (a) Literacy rate (a) 1,634.6 (b) 879.4 (b) Infant mortality rate (c) 764.3 (d) 876.6 (c) Net attendance ratio Ans. (c) 764.3 (d) PDS Ans. (b) Infant mortality rate 434. A person is willing to work at prevailing wages that are given by the government. But he couldn’t find 431. According to 2012-13 data, Per capita income of work. Find out what he should do? few states is as follows • Maharashtra - ` 1,07,670 (a) Wait till he gets work • Kerala - ` 88,527 (b) Ask for allowance under MGNREGA • Bihar - ` 28,774 (c) Take loan from bank (d) Take loan from his relatives/friends. Out of three states why Maharashtra will have better Ans. (b) Ask for allowance under MGNREGA living condition as compared to other states. Select the most suitable option from the following: 435. According to 2019-20 data, people working in unorganized sector are as follows (a) Due to better PDS • Primary Sector – 68% (b) Due to high literacy rate • Secondary – 22% (c) Money can buy things that will make life • Tertiary – 10% comfortable Out of the three sectors, why do people from the (d) Material and non-material things can be bought primary sector work in the unorganized sector? Select the most suitable option from the following: from money. Ans. (c) Due to better PDS. (a) Primary sector is not registered. (b) Low job opportunities in other sectors 432. Choose the correct option from the following. (c) Less labour is required in other sectors (d) Unemployment rate is very high. Ans. (a) Primary sector is not registered. 436. A man uses sugarcane as raw material and makes sugar or gur. Of which type of sector is this an example? List-I List-II (Full form) (a) Primary (b) Secondary (Abbreviation) (c) Tertiary (d) Organised Ans. (b) Secondary (a) MR Medical Representative (b) IMR Indian Medical Resources 437. Different persons could have ………… notions of a country’s development. (c) HDI Human Development Index (a) different as well as conflicting (d) NAR National Aeronautical (b) same Research Ans. (c) HDI — Human Development Index

336 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) (c) indifferent (c) Using cotton fiber from the plant (d) no (d) Selling agricultural products in the market Ans. (a) different as well as conflicting Ans. (a) Dairy 438. What is considered to be one of the most important 446. What is the secondary sector? attributes when we compare countries at the level of development? (a) Production of a good by exploiting natural resources (a) Industrial development (b) Resources of the country (b) Activities in which natural products are changed (c) Income into other forms through ways of manufacturing (d) Import-export Ans. (c) Income (c) Activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production 439. More income means ………… process. (a) average out of needs of people. (d) Mineral excavation (b) more of all things that human beings need. Ans. (b) Activities in which natural products are changed (c) no effect on the common man. (d) more business into other forms through ways of manufacturing. Ans. (b) more of all things that human beings need. 447. Using sugarcane as raw material, we make sugar or gur, under what sector does this activity come? (a) Primary (b) Private (c) Industrial (d) Tertiary Ans. (c) Industrial 440. ………… is the total income of the country divided by 448. Study the following data and information carefully its total population. and select the most appropriate answer from the given options: (a) Per capita income (b) Gross income (c) Net income (d) Total income Workers in different Sectors ( In Millions) Ans. (a) Per capita income Sectors Organised Unorganised Total 441. In World Development Reports, brought out by the Primary 1 231 232 World Bank, which criterion is used in classifying countries? Secondary 41 74 115 (a) Total income (b) Gross income Tertiary 40 88 128 (c) Per capita income (d) Net income Ans. (c) Per capita income Total 82 393 475 Total in 100% Percentage 442. Which of the following neighbouring country has better performance in terms of human development Students of the class-IX collected an estimated than India? number of workers in India in the organized and unorganized sectors. They had to find out the (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka percentage of people in the unorganized sector in (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan agriculture? Choose the correct answer from the Ans. (b) Sri Lanka following. 443. Countries with per capita income of US$ ………… per (a) 99% (b) 48% annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries. (c) 54% (d) 78% Ans. (a) 99% (a) 12,126 (b) 11,246 (c) 12,056 (d) 10,056 449. HDI stands for ‘Human Development Index’ that Ans. (c) 12,056 focuses on ………… 444. When we produce a good by exploiting natural Fill in the blanks with one of the following options: resources it is called ………… (a) life expectancy (a) tertiary sector (b) primary sector (b) gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling (c) service sector (d) public sector (c) national income Ans. (b) primary sector (d) all the above Ans. (d) all the above 445. Which activities come under the agriculture and 450. Money cannot buy all the goods and services that related sectors? we may need to have a good life. A list of things required for a good life is given below. Which among (a) Dairy the following things money cannot buy? (b) Mineral excavation

Social Science 337 I. Full protection from infectious diseases (a) Goods that are produced would need to be II. High quality education transported by trucks or trains and then sold in III. A luxury home wholesale and retail shops IV. A pollution-free atmosphere in every part of the (b) This sector gradually became associated with the country different kinds of industries (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Activities in which natural products are changed (c) I, II and III (d) II and IV into other forms through ways of manufacturing Ans. (d) II and IV (d) Produce a good by exploiting natural resources 451. How can we find out if we are properly nourished? Ans. (a) Goods that are produced would need to be (a) Through good weight and scale transported by trucks or trains and then sold in (b) Body mass index wholesale and retail shops (c) Nutrient table (d) Height and weight table 458. Which sector is also called the service sector? Ans. (b) Body mass index (a) Primary (b) Public (c) Industrial (d) Tertiary Ans. (d) Tertiary 459. The sum of production in the three sectors gives, what is called the ………… of a country? 452. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a (a) gross income number of scientists have been warning that ………… (b) gross domestic product (c) net domestic product (a) health and nutrition is declining. (d) net income (b) per capita income is unstable. Ans. (b) gross domestic product (c) levels of resources are not sustainable. (d) levels of development are not sustainable. 460. The value of final goods and services produced in Ans. (d) levels of development are not sustainable. each sector during a particular year provides the ………… 453. Groundwater is an example of ………… resources. (a) average production of the sector for that year. (b) net production of the sector for that year. (a) renewable (b) non-renewable (c) total production of the sector for that year. (c) protected (d) reserve (d) gross production of the sector for that year. Ans. (a) renewable Ans. (c) total production of the sector for that year. 454. Where in India the overuse of groundwater 461. Study the following data and information carefully particularly found? and select the most appropriate answer from the given options: (a) Assam (b) Shillong (c) Punjab (d) Karnataka Place of work Nature of % of working Ans. (c) Punjab employment people In offices Organised 15 455. Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define and factories ‘average income’. registered with Organised 15 the government (a) Average income of the country means the total Own shops, Unorganised 20 income of the country. office, clinics in marketplaces Unorganised 50 (b) The average income in a country is the income of with formal only employed people. license People working (c) The average income is the same as per capita on the street, income. construction workers, (d) The average income includes the value of property domestic held. workers Working in Ans. (c) The average income is the same as per capita small workshops income. usually not registered with 456. Those activities, by themselves, do not produce the government a good but they are an aid or support for the production process, are called …………? (a) Primary (b) Private (c) Industrial (d) Tertiary Ans. (d) Tertiary 457. Name one functioning activity of the tertiary sector.

338 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) Sia was working in a shop as a helper. She was paid 464. According to information given above, identify how only for the days when she was present in the shop. does the governments raise money. She was not paid even for Sundays. She has to work for 12 hours to get one day salary. She wants to take (a) From individuals and companies. up a job in an office which belongs to the Organised (b) Through taxes and other ways. sector. Find the percentage of workers like Sia who (c) By spending on a whole range of activities. are working in the unorganized sector in this city? (d) From RBI Ans. (a) Through taxes and other ways. (a) 20% (b) 35% (c) 40% (d) 70% 465. Modern-day governments spend on a whole range Ans. (d) 70% of activities. What do you understand by ‘the whole range of activities in this statement? SOURCE 4. (a) Health facilities and education facilities Another way of classifying economic activities into (b) Iron and steel company sectors could be on the basis of who owns assets and is (c) Transportation and Communication. responsible for the delivery of services. In the public sector, (d) Sports and electricity. the government owns most of the assets and provides all Ans. (a) Health facilities and education facilities the services. In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private individuals 466. Activities in the private sector are guided by the or companies. Railways or post office is an example of the motive to earn profits. Identify one such prominent public sector whereas companies like Tata Iron and Steel company from the following: Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately owned. Activities in the private sector are (a) Indian Airlines guided by the motive to earn profits. To get such services (b) TISCO we have to pay money to these individuals and companies. (c) Indian Post office The purpose of the public sector is not just to earn profits. (d) Indian Railways Governments raise money through taxes and other ways to Ans. (b) TISCO meet expenses on the services rendered by it. Modern day governments spend on a whole range of activities. 467. ………… gradually became the most important in total production and employment. 462. Another way of classifying economic activities into sectors is on these bases. Which one of the (a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector following is the ideal basis of classification economic (c) Public sector (d) Primary sector activities? Ans. (a) Secondary sector (a) On the basis who is responsible for the delivery of 468. Which one is a primary occupation? services. (a) Tailor (b) Basket weaver (b) On the basis of who owns assets. (c) Flower cultivator (d) Milk vendor (c) Both of these Ans. (c) Flower cultivator (d) None of these Ans. (c) Both of these. 469. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include 463. Read the following statements and identify the the ………… to get the total production. INCORRECT statements from the given options (a) values of goods and services in production I. In the private sector, ownership of assets and (b) final goods and services delivery of services is in the hands of private (c) adding up the actual numbers of goods individuals or companies. (d) goods and services in the three sectors Ans. (b) final goods and services II. Railways or post office is an example of the private sector whereas companies like Tata Iron 470. It has been noted from the histories of many, and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance now developed, countries that at initial stages of Industries Limited (RIL) are privately owned. development, ………… sector was the most important sector of economic activity. III. Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits. (a) public (b) tertiary (c) secondary (d) primary Options Ans. (d) primary (a) I and II (b) II and III 471. Choose the correctly matched option from the (c) III Only following: (d) II Only Ans. (d) II Only

Social Science 339 Column A Column B (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (category of (Development goal) Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). person) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (a) Farmers who 1. More days of work Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of depend only on and better wages Assertion (A). rain for growing crops (c) Assertion (A) correct but Reason (R) is wrong. (b) Landless rural 2. Higher support prices (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. labourers for their crops Ans. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (c) Prosperous 3. Regular wages Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion farmers from (A). Punjab 478. Per Capita Income is calculated in ………… for all (d) An adivasi from 4. To fulfill livelihood countries. Narmada valley Ans. (d) An adivasi from Narmada valley — 4. To fulfill (a) pounds (b) euros livelihood (c) dollars (d) rupees Ans. (c) dollars 472. For each of the sectors that we come across we should focus on employment and: 479. About ………… districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years. (a) GDP (b) GNP (c) NNP (d) NI (a) 300 (b) 500 Ans. (a) GDP (c) 450 (d) 350 Ans. (a) 300 473. The literacy rate of Kerala in 2011 was ………… (a) 82 (b) 94 480. Nearly ………… of the country is overusing their (c) 62 (d) 50 groundwater reserves. Ans. (b) 94 (a) two-third (b) one-third (c) half (d) one fourth Ans. (a) two-third 474. ………… is a new-renewable resource. (a) Solar energy (b) Minerals 481. The literacy rate for the rural population of males in (c) Fossil fuels (d) None of these Uttar Pradesh is ………… Ans. (a) Solar energy (a) 73% (b) 70% 475. Match the items in column A to that of column B (c) 76% (d) 78% and choose the right option: Ans. (c) 76% Column A Column B (b) Governments raise money through taxes and (a) Girl in an urban other ways to meet expenses on the services 1. Regular wages and rendered by it. family more job days (b) A minister (c) Modern day governments spend on a whole range 2. Equal opportunities of activities. (c) A labourer just like her brother (d) Many people could now take up other activities. (d) A businessman 3. More profit, more Ans. (a) 2, (b) 4, (c) 1, (d) 3. projects Ans. (a) To get such services we have to pay money to these individuals and companies. 4. More votes 482. Countries with per capita income of US$ ………… or less are called low-income countries. 476. The present levels of development are ………… (a) 995 (b) 885 (c) 955 (d) 855 (a) not sustainable (b) sustainable Ans. (a) 995 (c) renewable (d) none of these Ans. (a) not sustainable 483. Assertion (A): Leela works five days a week, receives 477. Assertion (A): Increase in population, urbanisation her income on the last day of each month and gets and industrialisation lead to increased use for fossil medical facilities from her firm. fuels. Reason (R): Leela is working in organised sector. Reason (R): Over use of conventional energy resources has resulted in the phenomenon of (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and greenhouse effect. Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

340 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (a) Take loan from bank Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (b) Irrigate her land and grow rabi crops Assertion (R). (c) Look for a canal system (d) All of the above (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. Ans. (b) Irrigate her land and grow rabi crops. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. 485. Which of the following common in the assessment of development in the reports of the World Bank Ans. (a) The firms in organised sector are registered by and UNDP? the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as (a) Educational levels (b) Health status the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of (c) Gold Reserves (d) Per Capita Income Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc. Ans. (d) Per Capita Income 484. Read the extract given below and answer the 486. Where is the UNDP headquartered? questions that follow: (a) London (b) New York Take the case of Laxmi with her two-hectare plot of (c) Burns (d) Geneva unirrigated land. The government can spend some Ans. (b) New York money or banks can provide a loan, to construct a well for her family to irrigate the land. Laxmi will then 487. Literacy rate measures the proportion of literate be able to irrigate her land and take a second crop, population in the age group: wheat, during the rabi season. Let us suppose that one hectare of wheat can provide employment to (a) Above 5 years (b) Above 12 years two people for 50 days (including sowing, watering, (c) Above 7 years (d) Above 6 years fertiliser application and harvesting). So, two more Ans. (c) Above 7 years members of the family can be employed in her own field. Now suppose a new dam is constructed and 488. Which of the following would be an ideal goal for canals are dug to irrigate many such farms. This natives of Abidjan? could lead to a lot of employment generation within the agricultural sector itself reducing the problem of (a) Free Healthcare, heal their environment underemployment (b) More space (c) More houses Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most (d) More factories and hence more jobs. appropriate option: Ans. (a) Free Healthcare, heal their environment (i) The passage given above relates to which of the 489. Greater the development of the primary and following options? secondary sectors, ………… would be the demand for such services. (a) Seasonal unemployment (b) Creating more employment opportunities (a) equal (b) more (c) Importance of agricultural sector (c) less (d) uneven (d) Importance of girl child. Ans. (b) more Ans. (b) Creating more employment opportunities. (ii) According to the given passage, irrigation helps in 490. When income levels rise, certain sections of people increasing agricultural employment based on which start demanding many more services like ………… of the following options? (a) more food (b) hospitals (a) The government can spend some money (c) defense (d) tourism (b) One hectare of wheat can provide employment to Ans. (d) tourism two people for 50 days 491. Over the past decade or so, certain new services (c) Banks can provide a loan such as ………… have become important and essential. (d) Laxmi will then be able to irrigate her land and (a) private hospitals take a second crop (b) professional training Ans. (d) Laxmi will then be able to irrigate her land and (c) information and communication technology (d) Insurance take a second crop. Ans. (c) information and communication technology (iii) By setting up a dam, which part of agricultural activities will be impacted? (a) Sowing (b) Watering (c) Fertiliser application (d) Harvesting Ans. (b) Watering. 492. Underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone (iv) To accommodate more family members, Laxmi needs who does not have a job and is clearly visible as to: unemployed. It is also called …………

Social Science 341 (a) hidden employment. (d) less employment. (b) disguised unemployment. Ans. (b) disguised unemployment. (c) unstable employment. 493. Study the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options: Table 1.6 Some Data Regarding India And Its Neighbours For 2013 Country Gross National Life Expectancy at Literacy Rate for HDI Rank in the Income (GNI) per birth 15+ yrs population world capita (2011 PPP $) 2005-2012 Sri Lanka 9250 74.3 91.2 73 India 5150 66.4 62.8 135 Myanmar 3998 65.2 92.7 150 Pakistan 4652 66.6 54.9 146 Nepal 2194 68.4 57.5 145 Bangladesh 2713 70.7 57.7 142 Source : Human Development Report, 2014 A study was conducted about GNI, Life Expectancy at birth, Literacy Rate, and HDI Ranking in the world regarding India and its neighboring countries. Identify the difference between the GNI of Sri Lanka and Nepal. (a) 6,056 (b) 7,056 497. Choose a correctly matched pair about Activities (c) 6,506 (d) 7,056 and its related sector. Ans. (b) 7,056 (a) Farming — Secondary 494. Choose the correct option from the following. (b) Fishing — Primary (c) Weaving — Tertiary List-I (Sector) List-II (Features) (d) Transportation — Tertiary Ans. (b) Fishing — Primary (a) Organised No regular income (b) Unorganised Payment of Gratuity 498. Identify the ideal pair about Sectors and the activity related to it. (c) Organised Fixed working hours (a) Primary — Occupation that produces finish goods (d) Unorganised Small shops (b) Secondary — Occupation that provide services (c) Economic — Occupation that contributes flow of Ans. (c) Organised — Fixed working hours goods and services 495. Consider the following statements regarding division (d) Tertiary — Occupation that is related to man’s of sectors of Indian Economy and select the answer using the codes given below: natural environment Ans. (c) Economic — Occupation that contributes flow of I. On the basis of nature of economic activities goods and services II. On the basis of formal structure or employment condition. 499. Amita came to know about Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in which III. On the basis of ownership government ensures 100 days work. When was this Act implemented? IV. On the basis of primary sector. Options (b) II, III and IV (a) 2002 (b) 2003 (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) 2004 (d) 2005 (c) I, III and IV Ans. (d) 2005 Ans. (a) I, II and III 496. Choose the correctly matched pair about Sectors 500. Choose a correctly matched pair about sectors and and its example. its related names. (a) Post Office — Public (a) Primary — Industrial (b) Reliance industry — Private (b) Secondary — Agricultural and related (c) Jet Airways — Private (c) Tertiary — Services (d) Health Centers — Private (d) Organised — Factory Ans. (a) Post Office — Public Ans. (c) Tertiary — Services

342 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 501. Consider the following statements regarding tertiary (c) US$ 1930 per annum sectors and select the answer using the codes given (d) US$ 1981 per annum below: Ans. (d) US$ 1981 per annum I. It aids and supports the production. 507. What can money not buy for you? II. Communication is also included in tertiary sector. (a) Unadulterated medicines (b) Water III. In this sector natural products are changed to (c) Pollution-free environment other form. (d) Organic food Ans. (c) Pollution-free environment IV. A s it generate services it is known as service sector. Options (b) II, III and IV 508. Why does Kerala have a low Infant Mortality Rate? (a) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational Ans. (d) I, II and IV facilities 502. Choose the correct option from the following. (b) Suitable climate (c) Pollution free environment List-I (Type of List-II (Example) (d) Good water energy) Ans. (a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational (a) Conventional Tidal facilities (b) Non-conventional Coal 509. Over the past decade or so ………… indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a (c) Conventional Wind measure of development? (d) Non-conventional Atomic energy (a) health and nutrition Ans. (d) Non-conventional — Atomic energy (b) health and education (c) child development 503. Choose the correct option from the following. (d) Human development Ans. (b) health and education List-I (Sector) List-II (Features) (a) Organized Work not assured (b) Unorganized Employment security 510. According to the Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development Programme, (c) Organized No overtime provision which two countries have a higher life expectancy at birth rate than India? (d) Unorganised Low paid jobs (a) Sri Lanka and Myanmar Ans. (c) Unorganized — Low paid jobs (b) Pakistan and Nepal (c) Pakistan and Bangladesh 504. Choose the correct option from the following. (d) Sri Lanka and Malaysia Ans. (d) Sri Lanka and Malaysia List-I (Causes of List-II (Areas) unemployment) (a) Less scope for industrialization Urban 511. As the methods of farming changed and the agriculture sector began to prosper, most of the (b) Less job Rural goods produced were ………… from the primary sector and most people were also employed in this (c) Lack of education and skill Rural sector. (d) Lack of infrastructure Urban Ans. (c) Lack of education and skill — Rural (a) synthetic products (b) involved machines (c) natural products (d) mixed products 505. Which category does India come under? Ans. (c) natural products (a) High-income countries 512. Why did the secondary sector later become the (b) Low middle-income countries most important sector? (c) Low-income countries (d) High middle-income countries (a) People began to use many more goods that were Ans. (b) Low middle-income countries produced in factories at cheap rates 506. What was India’s per capita income in 2017? (b) Employment increased (c) Agriculture declined (a) US$ 1950 per annum (d) (a) and (b) (b) US$ 1880 per annum Ans. (d) (a) and (b)

Social Science 343 513. In developed countries, the ………… sector has 520. The service sector includes activities such as become the most important in terms of total production. (a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry (b) making sugar, gur and bricks (a) primary (b) industrial (c) transport, communication and banking (c) service (d) public (d) none of these Ans. (c) service Ans. (c) transport, communication and banking 514. The primary sector is also called ………… 521. Identify which of these is a natural product. (a) service sector (a) Clothes (b) A book (b) agriculture and related sector (c) Jute (d) Apple juice (c) pre-industry sector Ans. (c) Jute (d) unorganized sector Ans. (b) agriculture and related sector 522. Choose the correct option from the following. 515. In the data given of GDP, which was the most List-I (Type of List-II (Sectors) productive sector in 2013-14? employment) (a) Open unemployment Tertiary (a) Primary (b) Tertiary (b) Disguised unemployment Primary (c) Secondary (d) Public Ans. (b) Tertiary (c) Fully employment Primary (d) Semi employment Secondary 516. The secondary sector is also called ………… Ans. (b) Disguised unemployment — Primary (a) organised sector (b) service sector 523. Choose a correctly matched pair about development (c) industrial sector (d) public sector and its indicators. Ans. (c) industrial sector (a) Social development — Sex ratio 517. Match the following occupations in column A with (b) Environmental development — Good salary their sectors in column B: (c) Economic development — Security (d) Physical development — Working condition. Column A Column B (Sectors) Ans. (a) Social development — Sex ratio (Occupations) 524. Study the following data and information carefully (a) Bee-keeper 1. Secondary sector and select the most appropriate answer from the given options: (b) Priest 2. Unorganised sector The following table gives the GDP in Rupees (Crores) by the three sectors: (c) Construction worker 3. Primary sector (d) Basket weaver 4. Tertiary sector Year Primary Secondary Tertiary Ans. (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 2, (d) 1. 2000 52,000 48,500 1,33,500 518. ‘There is enough for everybody’s need but not for 2013 800,500 10,74,000 38,68,000 everybody’s greed’. Who said these words? Meeta was comparing the contribution of all three (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi sectors in Rupees for her Maths class. Calculate (c) Narendra Modi (d) Bhagat Singh Ans. (b) Mahatma Gandhi the ratio of the Tertiary and Primary sectors in GDP 2013. 519. Assertion (A): Development involves thinking about (a) 1 : 6 (b) 2 : 5 the ways in which we can work towards achieving (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 7 goals of holistic growth. Ans. (c) 1 : 4 Reason (R): Holistic growth is economic growth. 525. Choose the correct option from the following. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and List-I (Features) List-II (Sector) Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (a) Easy availability of goods Unorganised (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (b) Rapid economic Public Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of development Assertion (A). (c) Financial resources’ for Organised (c) Assertion (A) correct but Reason (R) is wrong. development (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. Ans. (c) Assertion (A) correct but Reason (R) is wrong. (d) Create employment Unorganised. opportunities Ans. (b) Rapid economic development — Public

344 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 526. Which of the following types of activities are 532. Choose the correct option from the following. covered in the secondary sector? List-I (Role of List-II (Sector) (a) It generates services rather than goods. government) (b) Natural products are changed through (a) Welfare of people Public (b) Large expenditure Private manufacturing. (c) Support of government Unorganised (c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural (d) Duty of government Organised Ans. (a) Welfare of people — Public resources. (d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy. 533. Assertion (A): Mohan is a shopkeeper who pays his Ans. (b) Natural products are changed through taxes on time. He has employed two workers Rakesh and Raghu in his shop. He pays them well, however, manufacturing. none of the workers get any paid leaves in the year. 527. As per NREGA 2005 (National Rural Employment Reason (B): Rakesh and Raghu are employed in Guarantee Act 2005) the number of days of unorganised sector. employment guaranteed by government is: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (a) 100 days (b) 80 days Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (c) 150 days (d) 120 days (A). Ans. (a) 100 days (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but 528. Choose the correct option from the following. Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). List-I (Working condition) List-II (Sector) (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (a) Workers get less wages Organised (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. Ans. (a) If Rakesh and Raghu were employed in organised (b) Workers enjoy security of unorganised jobs sector, they would receive benefits such as paid leaves, medical insurance and pension schemes (c) Workers get pension after Organised from the employer. Mohan is not following labour retirement laws as he does not provide any paid leave to his employees in the year. (d) Workers get medical Unorganised benefits Ans. (c) Workers get pension after retirement — Organised 529. Which of the following activities does not belong to 534. In the comparative data on Haryana, Kerala, and the primary sector? Uttar Pradesh, which state has the highest literacy rate? (a) Fishing (b) Banking (c) Mining (d) Forestry (a) Haryana (b) Kerala Ans. (b) Banking (c) UP (d) All are equal Ans. (b) Kerala 530. Which of the following sectors is the largest 535. In the data for the Per capita income of Haryana, employer in India? Kerala, Bihar, which state has the lowest per capita income? (a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) IT sector (a) Haryana (b) Kerala Ans. (a) Primary sector (c) Bihar (d) All of the above Ans. (c) Bihar 531. Assertion (A): The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. 536. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer? Reason (R): Because the sector offers high and regular pay. (a) Expansion of rural banking (b) More days of work and better wages (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (c) Metal roads for transportation Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (d) Establishment of a high school (A). Ans. (b) More days of work and better wages (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but 537. Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of produced and sold needs to be counted to know the Assertion (A). total production in each sector. (c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong. Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. the value of all the intermediate goods. Ans. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Social Science 345 (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (c) Assertion (A) correct but Reason (R) is wrong. Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. (A). Ans. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). 543. Which of these can be considered as basic services? (c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong. (a) Growing of wheat (b) Transport (c) Storage (d) Police station (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. Ans. (d) Police station Ans. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and 544. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (a) central government. (b) state government. (c) provincial government. (d) all of the above 538. Which of the following examples does not fall under Ans. (a) central government. unorganized sector? 545. Life insurance is an activity of the (a) A farmer irrigating his field. (b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor. (a) primary sector. (b) secondary sector. (c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient. (c) service sector. (d) none of the above. (d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her Ans. (c) service sector. house. Ans. (c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient. 539. NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 546. The motive of the public sector enterprises is: of 2005) has guaranteed ………… days of employment in a year in many districts of India. What are the (a) profit making correct number of days? (b) entertainment (c) social welfare and security (a) 200 days (b) 100 days (d) none of the above (c) 30 days (d) 60 days Ans. (c) social welfare and security Ans. (b) 100 days 547. Which sector has emerged as the largest producing 540. How do big private companies contribute in the sector in India? Select one from the following development of a nation? alternatives: (a) By increasing the demands for their products (a) Secondary sector through advertisements. (b) Tertiary sector (c) Primary sector (b) By increasing their profits. (d) Science and Technology sector (c) By increasing productivity of the country in the Ans. (b) Tertiary sector manufacturing of industrial goods. 548. Agriculture, dairy farming are activities belonging to (d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich. which of the following sectors? Ans. (c) By increasing productivity of the country in the (a) Primary manufacturing of industrial goods. (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary 541. Which one of the following economic activities is (d) Scientific technology not in the tertiary sector? Ans. (a) Primary (a) Banking 549. Assertion (A): GDP shows how big the economy is. (b) Bee keeping Reason (R): GDP of a country is the value of all (c) Teaching (d) Working in a call centre intermediate goods and services produced within a Ans. (b) Bee keeping country during particular year. 542. Assertion (A): People not only think of better (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and income but also have goals such as security, respect Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion for others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. in mind. (A). Reason (R): Money cannot buy everything. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Assertion (A). Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong. (d) Assertion (A) is wrong but Reason (R) is correct. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Ans. (c) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is wrong. Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

346 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 550. What is meant by GDP? 554. Match the countries given with their HDI Rank according to Human Development Report, UNDP, (a) Gross Dairy Product 2018. (b) Gross Domestic Product (c) Great Development Project Column A Column B (d) Great Domestic Product (a) Sri Lanka 1. 150 Ans. (b) Gross Domestic Product (b) India 2. 149 (c) Pakistan 3. 130 551. Which of the following activities is not the activity (d) Nepal 4. 76 of Primary Sector? Ans. (a) 4, (b) 3, (c) 1, (d) 2. (a) Milking (b) Fishing (c) Making of sugar (d) Farming Ans. (c) Making of sugar 555. The money value of all final goods and services 552. The motive of public sector enterprises is: produced within a country during a particular year is called: (a) Profit making (b) Entertainment (a) Gross domestic product (c) Social welfare and security (b) Net domestic product (d) None of the above (c) National product Ans. (c) Social welfare and security (d) Production of secondary sector Ans. (a) Gross domestic product 553. What will be the aspiration of an educated urban 556. Which of the following economic activity does not unemployed youth? come under the primary sector? (a) An educated urban unemployed youth will aspire (a) Fishing (b) Farming for better opportunities in agriculture. (c) Mining (d) Banking Ans. (d) Banking (b) Support from government at every step in life for his upward movement. 557. Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the organised sector? (c) An urban educated unemployed will aspire for good job opportunities where his education can (a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month be made use of. (b) She is not paid for leave (c) She gets medical allowance (d) Better facilities of recreation for his leisure time. (d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms Ans. (c) An urban educated unemployed will aspire for and conditions of work when she joins work. good job opportunities where his education can Ans. (b) She is not paid for leave be made use of. 

Social Science Self Assessment Paper - 1 Section - A (Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions) 1. In 1848 who tried to unite the regions of German confederation into a nation state by an elected parliament? A. Conservatives B. Educated middle - class C. Otto von Bismarck D. Kaiser William I 2. Unification of Germany took place between : A. 1814–1815 B. 1821–1848 C. 1866–1871 D. 1797–1905 3. Identify what the Olive branch around the sword signifies : A. Being freed B. Readiness to fight C. Heroism D. Willingness to make peace 4. ‘‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’’. Who among the following said this popular line? A. Giuseppe Mazzini B. Matternich C. Otto von Bismarck D. Guiseppe Garibaldi 5. The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as ______. A. an independent nation B. a colonial power C. a nation-state D. a colony 6. Choose the correctly matched pairs about months and cropping seasons: A. October to December - Zaid B. Onset of monsoon - Kharif C. Onset of winters - Rabi D. April to May - Summer 7. Zaid is a short season which comes during the _________ months. C. Winter B. Summer C. Rainy D. Autumn 8. There is enough for everybody's need and not for anybody's greed'. Who said these words? A. Gandhiji B. Pt. Nehru C. Sardar Patel D. Medha Patkar 9. What is White revolution associated with? A. Onion production B. Introduction of technology. C. Bhoodan and Grandam production D. Production of milk 1 0. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk is known as: A. Horticulture B. Apiary C. Sericulture D. Fishery 11. The power sharing arrangement in Belgium prevented the possible division of the country on : A. Linguistic basis B. Religious basis C. Regional basis D. None of the above 12. In which part of Sri Lanka are the Sri Lankan Tamils concentrated ? A. North and South B. East and West C. North and East D. South and East 13. In which year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country ? A. 1947 B. 1948 C. 1949 D. 1950 14. Which form of power sharing is most commonly referred as federalism ? A. Horizontal division of power. B. Vertical division of power. C. Division of power among various communities. D. Sharing of power among political parties.

348 CBSE Final Revision of Term-I (Class X) 15. ‘Coming together federation’ is not found in which of the following country ? A. India B. U.S.A. C. Switzerland D. Australia 16. Which of the following includes foreign affairs? A. Union list B. State list C. Concurrent list D. Federal list 17. Which of the following types of ethnic diversities found in Lebanon? A. Religious divisions B. Gender divisions C. Regional divisions D. Caste divisions 18. What does HDI stands for ? A. Human Development Index B. Human Development Indicator C. High Development Index D. Hampered Development Index 19. Which of the following best defines sustainable development ? A. Sustainable development refers to the promotion of international trade so, that the world does not have to face scarcity of resources because of geographical constraints. B. Sustainable development refers to ensuring Pareto efficiency in the countries so, that resources are optimally allocated, and it is not possible to reallocate resources to make some one better off without making someone else worse off. C. Sustainable development refers to meeting human development goals while maintaining the ability of natural systems to provide and replenish natural resources upon which the economy is dependent. D. Sustainable development refers to ensuring that no individual, firm or country can become a free rider, i.e., no one can benefit from resources without paying for them. 20. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development? A. Profit loss B. Income C. Sales D. Import-export 21. What are the developmental goals of landless rural labourers? A. More days of work and better wages B. Acquirement of land for self-tilling C. More hours of work D. Self-reliance 22. Besides seeking more income, there is something people resent, what is it? A. Getting fewer wages for more work B. Discrimination C. No work D. Poverty 23. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make? A. Their dignity in the household and society decreases B. No difference C. No dignity D. Their dignity in the household and society increases 24. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the level of development? A. Industrial development B. Resources of the country C. Income D. Import-export Section - B (Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions) 25. What does the given image depict ? A. A poster hung on wall. B. Postage stamp with picture of Marianne. C. Picture of Germania, Philip Veit. D. Caricature of Otto von Bismark. 26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct regarding the ideas promoted by Mazzini? I. Opposition to monarchy and support to democratic republic. II. Censorship of newspapers, books and songs. III. To established liberty and freedom under a monarchy. Options: A. I & II B. II & III C. only I D. only II 27. What was the interpretation of the word 'La Talia' by the peasants of southern Italy? A. La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's mother. B. La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's sister.

Social Science 349 C. La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's wife. D. La Talia was Victor Emmanuel's daughter. 28. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below: l Consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. l As a whole is very fertile. l Is ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal crops. A. Red soil B. Alluvial soil C. Black soil D. Forest soil 29. Identify which of the following is not the characteristic of primitive subsistence farming? A. Primitive tools B. Technology C. Small patches of land D. Dependency on monsoon 30. Which of the following crops are grown in Rabi season? A. Sugarcane and tobacco B. Pulses, muskmelon and vegetables C. Wheat, peas and gram D. Rice, jute and millets 31. Consider the following statements on the term ' Resource' and write the answer using the codes given below: I. It is technological acceptable. II. It is economically feasible. III. It is culturally acceptable. IV. It is present in large quantity. Options: A. I, II & III B. II, III ,& IV C. I, III & IV D. I, II & IV 32. Human beings used resources indiscriminately and this has led to various major problems. What are these problems? A. Accumulation of resources in few hands B. Not many problems C. Wastage of resources D. Not well planned use of these resources 33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A) : Nationalist tensions arose in Europe after 1871 and there was intense rivalry among the European powers over trade and colonies as well as naval and military might. Reason (R) : Each power, such as Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary was keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans, and extending its own control over the area. Options : A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true. 34. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B. Column A Column B (a) Low yielding (1) Nilgiri Hills (b) High yielding (2) Subsistence Agriculture (c) Coffee cultivation (3) West Bengal (d) Tea cultivation (4) Shifting Agriculture A. a - 3, b - 2, c - 1, d - 4 B. a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1 C. a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2 D. a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3 35. Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. Which policy was adopted by the elected government to establish Sinhala supremacy? Select the appropriate option. A. Romanticism B. Liberalism C. Majoritarianism D. Federalism